Physics

[Q] A meter washer has a hole of diameter d1 and external diameter d2, where d2 = 4d1. On
heating, d2 increases by 0.5%. Then d1 will
(a) decrease by 0.5%
(b) decrease by 2.0%
(c) increase by 0.5%
(d) increase by 2.0%
[ANS] c

[Q] Two rods of lengthsl 1 and l 2are made of materials whose coefficients of linear expansion are
α1 and α2 respectively. If the difference between the two lengths is independent of
temperature, then
l1 α 2
(a) =
l2 α 1
2 2
(b) l 1 α 2=l 2 α 1
l1 α 1
(c) =
l2 α 2
(d) l 1 α 22=l 2 α 12
[ANS] a

[Q] Find the time lost or gained by a pendulum clock at the end of a week when the
atmospheric temperature rises to 45oC. The clock is known to give correct time at 20oC and the
pendulum is made of steel. (Linear expansivity of steel is 10 ×10 -6/oC).

(a) 70 s

(b) 80 s

(c) 75.6 s

(d) None

[ANS] c

[Q]2 litre water at 27oCis heated by a 1 kW heater in an open container. On an average heat is
lost to surroundings at the rate 160 J/s. the time required for the temperature to reach 77 oC is

(a) 8 min 20 s

(b) 10 min
(c) 7 min

(d) 14 min

[ANS] a

[Q] Two identical masses of 5 kg each fall on a wheel from a height of 10 m.The wheel disturbs
a mass of 2 kg water, the rise in temperature of water will be

(a) 2.6 oC

(b) 1.2oC

(c) 0.32oC

(d) 0.12oC

[ANS] d

[Q]Which of the following is incorrect? When two samples at different temperatures are mixed,
the temperature of the mixture can be

(a) lesser than lower or greater than higher temperature

(b) equal to lower or higher temperature

(c) greater than lower but lesser than higher temperature

(d) average of lower and higher temperatures

[ANS] a

[Q] The temperature of 100 g of water is to be raised from 24oC to 90oC by adding steam to it.
Calculate the mass of the steam required for this purpose

(a) 12 g

(b) 6 g

(c) 3 g

(d) 24 g
[ANS] a

[Q] what will be the final temperature if 100 g of ice at – 10 oC is mixed with 500 g of water at
50oC ? Specific heat of water = 1 cal/g. latent heat of fusion of ice = 80 cal/g.

(a) 55oC

(b) 27.5oC

(c) 82.5oC

(d) None

[ANS] b

[Q] In a mixture of nitrogen and helium kept at room temperature. As compared to a helium
molecule nitrogen molecule hits the wall

(a) with greater average speed

(b) with smaller average speed

(c) with greater average kinetic energy

(d) with smaller average kinetic energy

[ANS] d

[Q] The rms speed of helium at 24oC and 1 atm pressure is 450 m s-1. Then the rms speed of the
helium molecules at 24oC and 2 atm pressure is

(a) 450 m s-1

(b) 1800m s-1

(c) 900m s-1

(d) 750 m s-1

[ANS] a
[Q] The average speed of nitrogen molecules in a gas is v . if the temperature is doubled and the
N2 molecule dissociate into nitrogen atoms, then the average speed will be

(a) v

(b) v √ 2

(c) 2 v

(d) 4 v

[ANS] c

[Q] internal energy of n1 moles of hydrogen at temperature T is equal to the internal energy of
n2 moles of helium at temperature 2T. Then the ratio n1/n2 is

3
(a)
5

2
(b)
3

6
(c)
5

3
(d)
7

[ANS] c

[Q] The molecules of an ideal gas have 6 degrees of freedom. The temperature of the gas is T.
The average translational kinetic energy of its molecules is

3
(a) kT
2

6
(b) kT
2

(c) kT

1
(d) kT
2

[ANS] a
[Q] The absolute coefficient of expansion of a liquid is 7 times that the volume coefficient of
expansion of the vessel. Then the ratio of absolute and apparent expansion of the liquid is

1
(a)
7

7
(b)
6

6
(c)
7

(d) None of these

[ANS] b

[Q] A flask of volume 103 cc is completely filled with mercury at 0oC. The coefficient of cubical
expansion of mercury is 180 ×10 -6/oC and that of glass is 40 × 10-6/oC. if the flask is now placed in
boiling water at 100oC, how much mercury will given overflow

(a) 7 cc

(b) 14 cc

(c) 21 cc

(d) 28 cc

[ANS] b

[Q] At room temperature the rms speed of the molecules of a certain diatomic gas is found to
be 1920 m s-1. The gas is

(a) H2

(b) F2

(c) O2

(d) Cl2

[ANS] a
[Q] Gas at a pressure P0 is contained in a vessel. If the masses of all the molecules are halved
and their speeds are doubled, the resulting pressure P will be equal to

(a) 4P0

(b) 2P0

(c) P0

P0
(d)
2

[ANS] b

[Q] An ideal gas is expanding such that PT2 = constant. The coefficient of volume expansion of
the gas is

1
(a)
T

2
(b)
T

3
(c)
T

4
(d)
T

[ANS] c

[Q]In case of hydrogen and oxygen at N.T.P., which of the following quantities is/are the same

(a) average momentum per molecule

(b) average kinetic energy per molecule

(c) kinetic energy per unit volume

(d) Both (b) & (c)

[ANS] d

[Q] For the process shown in the figure, what can we say about the work done by the
system

(a) continuously increases

(b) continuously decreases

(c) first increases then decreases

(d) first decreases then increases

[ANS] a

[Q] Heat energy absorbed by a system in going through a cyclic process shown in the figure
is

(a) 107π J

(b) 104π J

(c) 102π J

(d) 10-3π J

[ANS] c

[Q]Two cylinders A and B fitted with piston contain the equal amount of an ideal diatomic
gas at 300 K. the piston of A is free to move, while that of B is held fixed. The same amount
of heat is given to the gas in each cylinder. If the rise in temperature of the gas in A is 30 K,
then the rise in the temperature of the gas in B is

(a) 30 K

(b) 10 K

(c) 50 K

(d) 42 K

[ANS] d

[Q] The internal energy of a gas is given by U =5+2 PV . It expands from V0 to 2V0 against a
constant pressure P0. The heat absorbed by the gas in the process is

(a) – 3 P0V0

(b) 3 P0V0

(c) 2 P0V0

(d) P0V0

[ANS] b

[Q] When an ideal gas is compressed isothermally then its pressure increases because

(a) its potential energy decreases

(b) its kinetic energy increases and molecules move apart

(c) its number of collisions per unit area with walls of container increases

(d) molecular energy increases

[ANS] c

[Q] In the process PV = constant, pressure (P) versus density (ρ) graph of an ideal gas is

(a) a straight line parallel to P-axis

(b) a straight line parallel to ρ-axis

(c) a straight line passing through origin

(d) a parabola

[ANS] c

[Q] An ideal gas (γ = 1.5) is expanded adiabatically. How many times has the gas to be
expanded to reduce the root mean square velocity of molecules 2.0 times

(a) 4 times

(b) 16 times

(c) 8 times

(d) 2 times

[ANS] b

[Q] A thermodynamic system undergoes cyclic process ABCDA as shown in figure. The work
done by the system is

(a) P0V0

(b) 2P0V0

P0V 0
(c)
2

(d) Zero

[ANS] d

[Q]The given curve represents the variation of temperature as a function of volume for one
mole of an ideal gas.
Which of the following curves best represents the variation of pressure as a function of
volume?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

[ANS] a
[Q] A Carnot engine, having an efficiency of η = 1/10 as heat engine, is used as a
refrigerator. If the work done on the system is 10 J, the amount of energy absorbed from
the reservoir at lower temperature is

(a) 99 J

(b) 90 J

(c) 1 J

(d) 100 J

[ANS] b

[Q] A reversible engine takes heat from a reservoir at 527oC and gives out to the sink at
127oC. The engine is required to perform useful mechanical work at the rate of 750 watt.
What is the efficiency of the engine

(a) 25%

(b) 50%

(c) 75%

(d) 80%

[ANS] b

[Q] A uniform slab of dimensions 10 cm ×10 cm ×1cm is kept between two heat reservoirs
at temperatures 10oC and 90oC. The larger surface areas touch the reservoirs. The thermal
conductivity of the material is 0.80 W/moC. find the amount of heat flowing through the
slab per second.

(a) 64 J

(b) 32 J

(c) 16 J

(d) 8 J

[ANS] a
[Q]Two rods of same dimension, but made of different materials are joined end to end with
their free ends being maintained at 100oC and 0oC respectively. The temperature of the
junction is 70oC. find the temperature of the junction if the rods are interchanged.

(a) 30oC

(b) 90oC

(c) 60oC

(d) None

[ANS] a

[Q] Two solid cylinders of equal length are made of material of thermal conductivity K 1 and
K2. Their thermal resistance will be same if the ratio of their diameters is

K1
(a)
K2

( )
2
K1
(b)
K2

(c)
√ K2
K1

K2
(d)
K1

[ANS] c

[Q] The operating temperature of a tungsten filament in an incandescent lamp is 2000 K and
its emissivity is 0.3. find the surface area of the filament of a 25 watt lamp. Stefan’s constant
σ = 5.67 ×10 -8 Wm-2K-4

(a) 0.459m2

(b) 2.000 m3

(c) 0.918 m2

(d) None
[ANS] c

[Q] Temperature of a body T is slightly more than the temperature of the surrounding T0. Its
rate of cooling (R) versus temperature of body (T) is plotted, its shape would be

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

[ANS] c

[Q] If the absolute temperature of a body is doubled, the total energy emitted per second
increase by a factor of

(a) 2

(b) 4
(c) 16

(d) 32

[ANS] c

[Q] The diameter of a brass rod is 4 mm and Young’s modulus of brass is 9 ×10 10 N/m2.Find
the force required to stretch it by 0.1% of its length

(a) 3600 π N

(b) F = 360π N

(c) 3.6π N

(d) 36π N

[ANS] b

[Q] When a metal block is placed in vacuum chamber from normal atmosphere find the
fractional change in its volume. Given that atmospheric pressure is 10 5 N/m2 and Bulk
modulus of metal is 1.25×1011 N/m2.

(a) 4 ×10-7

(b) 8×10-5

(c) 4 ×10-5

(d) 8× 10-7

[ANS] d

[Q] Calculate the elastic potential energy stored in a brass rod of length 20 cm and area
1 cm2 when it is elongated by a load of 5 kg mass. Given that young’s modulus of brass is
1011 N/m2.

(a) 25 × 10-5 J

(b) 250× 10-5

(c) 2.5×10-5 J
(d) None of these

[ANS] c

[Q] The bulk modulus for an incompressible liquid is

(a) Zero

(b) unity

(c) Infinity

(d) Between 0 and 1

[ANS] c

[Q] A wire elongates byl mm where a load W is hanged from it. If the wire goes over a
pulley and two weights W each are hung at the two ends, the elongation of the wire will be
(in mm)

(a) l

(b) 2 l

(c) Zero

l
(d)
2

[ANS] a

[Q] According to Hooke’s law of elasticity, if stress is increased, then the ratio of stress to
strain

(a) becomes zero

(b) remains constant

(c) decreases

(d) increases

[ANS] b
[Q] A wire fixed at the upper end stretches by length l by applying a force F. The work done
in stretching is

F
(a)
2l

(b) F l

(c) 2 Fl

Fl
(d)
2

[ANS] d

[Q] Two wires A and B have the same cross section and are made of the same material, but
the length of wire A is twice that of B. Then, for a given load

(a) The extension of A will be four times that of B

(b) The extensions of A and B will be equal

(c) The strain in A and B will be equal

(d) Both a and c

[ANS] d

[Q] The maximum energy in thermal radiation from a source occurs at the wavelength
4000Å. The effective temperature of the source is (Wien’s constant, b=3.93 ×10−3 m K )

(a) 7325 K

(b) 800 K

(c) 104 K

(d) 106 K

[ANS] a
 Chemistry

[Q] The compound B, is -

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
[ANS] a

[Q] Consider the following reactions,

The end product ‘S’ is -

(a)
(b)

(c)

(d)
[ANS] b

[Q]Benzene easily shows

(a) Ring fission reaction since it is unstable
(b) Addition reactions since it is unstable
(c) Electrophilic substitutions reactions due to stable ring and high π electron density
(d) Nucleophilic substitution reactions due to stable ring and minimum electron density
[ANS] c

[Q]Which of the following is m-directing?

(a)

(b)

(c)
(d)
[ANS] c

[Q] Benzene contains double bonds but does not give addition reactions because
(a) Double bonds in benzene are strong
(b) Double bonds change their position rapidly
(c) Resonance lowers the energy of benzene molecule and leads t greater stabilisation
(d) None of the above
[ANS] c

[Q] Aromatic compounds undergo most easily

(a) nucleophilic substitution
(b) electrophilic substitution
(c) nucleophilic addition
(d) electrophilic addition
[ANS] b

[Q]The function of anhydrous aluminum chloride in the Friedel-Crafts reaction is

(a) To absorb water
(b) To absorb hydrochloric acid
(c) To produce an electrophile
(d) To produce nucleophile
[ANS] c

[Q]Which shows Friedel craft reaction

(A)
(B)

(C)

(D)
(a) A, B, C and D
(b) A, B and C
(c) A and C
(d) A, C and D
[ANS] c

[Q] Which one of the following compounds is prepared in the laboratory from benzene by a
substitution reaction
(a) Glyoxal
(b) Cyclohexane
(c) Acetophenone
(d) Hexabromo cyclohexane
[ANS] c

[Q]When phenol reacts with CHCl3 and KOH, the product obtained would be
(a) Salicylaldehyde
(b) p-hydroxy benzaldehyde
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Chloretone
[ANS] a
[Q] When RCOCI and AlCl3 are used in Friedel -Crafts reaction, the electrophile is
(a) Cl+
(b) RCOCl
+¿ ¿
(c) RCO
(d) R+
[ANS] c

[Q] Alkali metals are soft and have relatively low m. p. and low density. This is because
(a) Interatomic bonds are weak
(b) interatomic bonds are strong
(c) of their ionization potential
(d) of their position in the periodic table
[ANS] a

[Q] The weakest base among the following is

(a) NaOH
(b)Ca(OH)2
(c) KOH
(d) Ba(OH)2
[ANS] b

[Q]A substance which gives a brick red flame and breaks down on heating giving oxygen and
brown gas is
(a) calcium carbonate
(b) magnesium nitrate
(c) magnesium carbonate
(d) calcium nitrate
[ANS] d
[Q]Which is industrially prepared by the electrolysis of aqueous NaCl
(a) Na2 CO3
(b) NaHCO3
(c) NaOH
(d) NaOCl
[ANS] c

[Q]Na2CO3 can be manufactured by Solvay process but K2CO3 cannot by prepared because
(a) K2CO3 is more soluble
(b) K2CO3 is less soluble
(c) KHCO3 is more soluble than NaHCO3
(d) KHCO3 is less soluble than NaHCO3
[ANS] c

[Q] When sulphur is heated with NaOH(aq) the compounds formed are
(a) Na2S + H2O
(b) Na2SO3 + H2O
(c) Na2S +Na2SO3 + H2O
(d) Na2S2O3 + H2O
[ANS] c

[Q] Potash alum is used in purification of water because

(a) It kills the microorganisms
(b) It precipitates the colloidal matter
(c) It removes the hardness of water
(d) It catalyses the removal of impurities
[ANS] b

[Q] Which represents nitrolime

(a) CaCN2 + C
(b) CaC2 + N2
(c)Ca(CN)2 + Ca(NO3)2
(d) None of these
[ANS] a

[Q]When hydrated MgCl2.6H2O is strongly heated

(a) MgO is formed
(b) Mg(OH)2 is formed
(c) Mg(OH) Cl is formed
(d) anhydrous MgCl2 is formed
[ANS] a

[Q] Gypsum is added to clinker during cement manufacture to

(a) decrease the rate of setting of cement
(b) make the cement impervious
(c) bind the particles of calcium silicate
(d) to facilitate the formation of colloidal gel
[ANS] a

[Q]Setting of Plaster of Paris involves

(a) Oxidation with atmospheric oxygen
(b) combination with atmospheric CO2
(c) dehydration
(d) hydration to yield another hydrate
[ANS] d

[Q] In open system

(a) There will be exchange of both matter and energy
(b) There will be no exchange of matter and energy
(c) There will be exchange of energy only
(d) There will be exchange of matter only
[ANS] a

[Q] Absolute zero temperature is the temperature at which

(a) mass becomes zero
(b) volume becomes zero
(c) all molecular motion ceases
(d) the temperature of substance is zero
[ANS] c

[Q]Identify the intensive property from the following

(a) Volume
(b) Mass
(c) Enthalpy
(d) Temperature
[ANS] d

[Q] A thermodynamic state function is

(a) One which obeys all the laws of thermodynamics
(b) A quantity which is used to measure thermal changes
(c) a quantity whose value is independent of the path
(d) a quantity which is used to express pressure -volume work
[ANS]c

[Q]In thermodynamics, a process is called reversible, when

(a) surrounding and system change into each other
(b) there is no boundary between system and surroundings
(c) the surroundings are always in equilibrium with the system
(d) the system changes into the surroundings spontaneously
[ANS] c
[Q]Which of the following is correct for an ideal gas

(a) [ ]
∂E
∂T v
=0

(b) [ ]
∂E
∂P T
=0

(c) [ ]
∂E
∂T P
=0

(d) All of these

[ANS] b

[Q]In a reaction, ∆ H and ∆ S both are positive. In which of the following cases, the reaction
would not be spontaneous
(a) ∆ H >T ∆ S
∆H
(b) ∆ S=
T
(c) ∆ H =T ∆ S
(d) All of these
[ANS] d

[Q]∆ S is positive for the change

(a) mixing of two gases
(b) boiling of liquid
(c) melting of solid
(d) all of these
[ANS] d

[Q]All the naturally occurring processes, i.e., spontaneous proceed spontaneously in direction
which leads to
(a) decrease of free energy
(b) increase of free energy
(c) decrease of entropy
(d) increase of enthalpy
[ANS] a

[Q]It is impossible to attain the lowest temperature known as zero absolute. This is a simple
statement of
(a) first law of thermodynamics
(b) second law of thermodynamics
(c) third law of the thermodynamics
(d) none of the above
[ANS] c

[Q] The second law of thermodynamics introduced the concept of

(a) third law of thermodynamics
(b) work
(c) entropy
(d) internal energy
[ANS] c

[Q]Which correctly represents the physical significance of Gibbs energy change

(a) −∆ G=W compression
(b) ∆ G=W compression
(c) ∆ G=−W compression =W non−expansion
(d)−∆ G=W expansion
[ANS] d

1
[Q]The temperature at which the reaction, Ag2 O ( s ) →2 Ag ( s )+ O 2 (g) is at equilibrium is
2
………… gives, ∆ H =30.5 kJ mo l−1 and ∆ S=0.066 kJ K−1 mol−1
(a) 462.12 K
(b) 362.12 K
(c) 262.12 K
(d) 562.12 K
[ANS] a

[Q]For a reversible process at T = 300 K, the volume of 2 moles of ideal gas is increase from 1
litre to 10 litre, the ∆ H for isothermal change is
(a) 11.47 kJ
(b) 4.98 kJ
(c) 0
(d) 2.49 kJ
[ANS] b

[Q] Which is not correct

(a) In an exothermic reaction, the enthalpy of products is less than that of reactants
(b)∆ H fusion =∆ H sublimation −∆ H vaporisation
(c) A reaction for which ∆ H o< 0 and ∆ S o >0 is possible at all temperatures
(d) ∆ H is less than ∆ U for the reaction, C(s) + (1/2) O2(g)→ CO2(g)
[ANS] d

[Q]∆ H for transition of carbon in the diamond form to carbon in the graphite form, is −¿453.5
Cal. This suggests that
(a) graphite is chemically different from diamond
(b) graphite is as stable as diamond
(c) graphite is more stable than diamond
(d) diamond is more stable than graphite
[ANS] c
 1
[Q] Enthalpy of CH 4 + O 2 → CH 3 OH is negative. If enthalpy of combustion of CH4 and CH3OH
2
are x and y respectively. Then which relation is correct
(a) x > y
(b) x < y
(c) x= y
(d) x ≥ y
[ANS] a

[Q]Which of the following statement is correct

(a) ∆ H is positive for exothermic reaction
(b) ∆ H is negative for endothermic reaction
(c) The heat of neutralization of strong acid and strong base is always the same
(d) The enthalpy of fusion is negative
[ANS] c

[Q]The heat of reaction does not depend upon

(a) Temperature of the reaction
(b) Physical state of reactants and products
(c) Whether the reaction is carried out at constant pressure or at constant volume
(d) The method by which the final products are obtained from the reactants
[ANS] d

Biology

[Q] ‘Red drop’, effect is shown at which wavelength of light?

(a)620 nm
(b) 660 nm
(c) 680 nm
(d) More than 680 nm
[ANS] d

[Q] Assimilatory powers in photosynthesis are :

(a) ATP and NADH2
(b) NADPH2 and ADP
(c) ATP and NADPH2
(d) NADPH2
[ANS] c

[Q]O2 evolution and NADPH2 synthesis occurs in :

(a)Cyclic photophosphorylation
(b) Non-cyclic photophosphorylation
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
[ANS] b

[Q]CO2: NADPH2: ATP ratio in C3 plants is:

(a)1 : 2 : 3
(b) 1 : 2 : 4
(c) 1 : 2 : 5
(d) 1 : 5 : 10
[ANS] a

[Q]The quantum requirement of photosynthesis is :

(a) 8
(b) 0.25
(c) 1
(d) 10
[ANS] a

[Q]A dicot plant which exhibits Kranz anatomy:

(a)Sugarcane
(b)Maize
(c) Amaranthus
(d) Achyranthus
[ANS] c

[Q]In C4 plants, hexose sugar synthesis takes place in:

(a)Bundle sheath chloroplasts through C3 cycle
(b) Mesophylls through C4 cycle
(c) Cell sap
(d) None of the above
[ANS] a

[Q]In C4 plants, carboxylation occurs in chloroplasts of:

(a)Mesophylls
(b) Bundle sheath
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
[ANS] c

[Q]Phosphoenol pyruvate-carboxylase occurs in C4 plants in chloroplasts of:

(a) Bundle sheath
(b) Mesophyll
(c) Guard cells
(d) None of the above
[ANS] b

[Q] First stable product in C3 cycle is:

(a)PGAL
(b) PGA
(c) Glucose
(d) OAA
[ANS] b

[Q]The CO2 acceptor molecule in Calvin-Benson pathway is:

(a)Phosphoglyceric acid (a-3-C molecule)
(b) Phosphoenol pyruvic acid (-a-3-C molecule)
(c)RuBP (-a-5-C molecule)
(d) OAA (-a-4-C molecule)
[ANS] c

[Q] How many ATP and NADPH2 are required for synthesis of one molecule of glucose through
C3 cycle?
(a) 12 ATP and NADPH2
(b) 12 ATP and 18 NADPH2
(c) 18 ATP and 12 NADPH2
(d) None of the above
[ANS] c

[Q] Inhibition of photosynthesis by high O2 levels is called:

(a)Gibb’s effect
(b) Warburg’s effect
(c) Pasteur’s effect
(d) None of these
[ANS] b

[Q] The CO2 compensation point in C4 plants is:

(a) Below 20 ppm
(b) 25 – 100 ppm
(c) Less than 5 ppm
(d) None of these
[ANS] c

[Q] The rate of photosynthesis is highest in:

(a)Red light
(b) Blue light
(c) Green light
(d) Polychromatic light
[ANS] d

[Q] The correct molecular formula of chlorophyll-a is:

(a)C55H70O5N4Mg
(b) C55H72O6N4Mg
(c) C55H70O6N4Mg
(d) C55H72O5N4Mg
[ANS] d

[Q]In chlorophyll molecule, the magnesium is situated in the:

(a) Centre of porphyrin ring
(b) Corners of porphyrinring
(c)Phytol chambers
(d)Isocyclic ring
[ANS] a
[Q]The unit of photosynthesis is:
(a)Quantasome
(b) Angstrom
(c) Geotropism
(d) None of these
[ANS] a

[Q] Which of the following occurs during dark phase of photosynthesis?

(a)Hydrogen is released for NADP
(b) ATP is produced for dark reaction
(c) Molecular oxygen is released through photolysis
(d) PGAL is synthesized as key substrate using assimlatory power
[ANS] d

[Q]Ferredoxin is a component of:

(a) Hill reaction
(b) Photosystem – I
(c) P680
(d) Photosystem – II
[ANS] b

[Q] In bacterial photosynthesis hydrogen donor is:

(a) H2S
(b)NH2
(c) H2O
(d) H2SO4
[ANS] a
[Q] C4 plants are well adapted to:
(a) Hot and dry climate
(b) Temperature climate
(c) Cold and dry climate
(d) Hot and humid climate
[ANS] a

[Q]In synthesis of glucose, hydrogen is taken from:

(a) H2O
(b) NADPH2
(c) FADH2
(d)n (CH2O)
[ANS] a

[Q]Which pigment of plant actively participate in light reaction of photosynthesis?

(a) Xanthophyll-a
(b) Chlorophyll-a
(c) Carotene
(d) Phycoxanthin
[ANS] b

[Q] Chloroplast dimorphism is a characteristic feature of:

(a)Plant with Calvin cycle
(b) C4 plants
(c) All plants
(d) Only in algae
[ANS] b

[Q] Of the total incident solar radiation what proportion of PAR is?
(a)More than 80%
(b) About 70%
(c) About 60%
(d) Less than 50%
[ANS] d

[Q] Which of the following statement is true with regard to light reaction of photosynthesis?
(a) In PS-II, the reaction centre chlorophyll-a has an absorption peak of 700nm hence is called P-
700
(b) In PS-I, the reaction centre chlorophyll-a has the absorption peak of 680 nm and is called P 680
(c) The splitting of water molecule is associated with PS-I
(d) Photosystem-I and II are involved in Z-scheme
[ANS] d

[Q]How many molecules of CO2 are produced in one complete cycle of aerobic respiration?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8
[ANS] c

[Q]Zymase was discovered by:

(a) Lipmann
(b)Pasteur
(c) Buchner
(d) Altmann
[ANS] c

[Q] Anaerobic respiration results in synthesis of:

(a) 12 ATP
(b) 8 ATP
(c) 22 ATP
(d) 2 ATP
[ANS] d

[Q] The net gain of energy from one g mole of glucose during aerobic respiration is:
(a)2 ATP
(b) 4 ATP
(c) 36 ATP
(d) 40 ATP
[ANS] c

[Q] R.Q. is:

O2
(a)
CO2
CO2
(b)
O2
(c)CO 2+O 2
(d) CO 2−O2
[ANS] b

[Q]Maximum calories are produced per molecule by:

(a) Fats and lipids
(b) Carbohydrates
(c) Proteins
(d) Vitamins
[ANS] a

[Q] In Kreb’s cycle, how many water molecules are produced?

(a) 2
(b) 8
(c) 10
(d) 16
[ANS] b

[Q]How many ATP and NADH2 are produced in photorespiration?

(a)2 and 4
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 4 and 6
(d) Zero
[ANS] d

[Q]Which of the following is used in conversion of pyruvic acid to acetyl CoA?

(a) Oxidative phosphorylation
(b) Oxidative dehydrogenation
(c) Oxidative decarboxylation
(d) Oxidative dehydration
[ANS] c

[Q] Which is correct sequence in Kreb’s cycle?

(a)Isocitric acid → oxalosuccinic acid n→ α -ketoglutaric acid
(b)Oxalosuccinic acid → isocitric acid → α -ketoglutaric acid
(c)α -ketoglutaric acid → isocitric acid → oxalosuccinic acid
(d)Isocitric acid → α -ketoglutaric acid →oxalosuccinic acid
[ANS] a

[Q]Dihydroxy acetone phosphate is an isomer of:

(a) PGAL
(b) dPGA
(c) PGA
(d) PA
[ANS] a

[Q] Last electron acceptor is ETS is:

(a) Cytochromes
(b) NAD and FAD
(c) Oxygen
(d) Hydrogen
[ANS] c

[Q]Which of the following molecules listed below is a product of fermentation of glucose by

yeast?
(a) (C6H10O5)n
(b) C2H5OH
(c) C6H12O6
(d) CH3OH
[ANS] b

[Q] The R.Q. of C39H72O6 is:

(a) 2.71
(b) 1.34
(c) 0.718
(d) 3.250

[ANS] c
[Q]In oxidation of one molecule of glucose during respiration, 36 molecules of ATP are liberated
as follows:
(a) 2 ATP molecules outside the mitochondria and 34 ATP molecules inside the mitochondria
(b) All the 36 ATP molecules inside the mitochondria
(c) 2 ATP molecules during glycolysis and 34 ATP molecules during Kreb’s cycle
(d) 8 ATP molecules during glycolysis and 30 ATP molecules during respiratory chain
[ANS] a

[Q]A reduction of NADP to NADPH2 is associated with:

(a)EMP
(b) HMP
(c) Calvin cycle
(d) Glycolysis
[ANS] b

[Q]The organelles involved with photorespiration are:

(a) Mitochondria, nucleus and ribosomes
(b) Mitochondria, peroxisomes and chloroplasts
(c) Mitochondria, peroxisomes and glyoxysomes
(d) Mitochondria, chloroplasts and ribosomes
[ANS] b

[Q]Sequence of cytochrome is:

(a)Cyt. – a , b, c, a 3
(b)Cyt. – b, c, a , a 3,
(c)Cyt. – b, a , a 3, c
(d)Cyt. – b, c, a 3, a
[ANS] b
[Q]Which of the following statements is false?
(a) Smooth muscles are found in urinary bladder, alimentary canal and genital tract
(b) A striated muscle is syncytium (multinucleate)
(c) The cytoplasm of striated muscle is called endoplasm
(d) The plasma membrane and ER of striated muscles are called sarcolemma and sarcoplasmic
reticulum respectively
[ANS] c

[Q]Light band (thin filaments) contain actin and are called –

(a) A – band or Isotropic band
(b) A – band or Anisotropic bands
(c) I – bands or Isotropic bands
(d) I – bands or Anisotropic bands
[ANS] c

[Q]Ca2 bind in the skeletal muscles and leads to exposure of the binding site for
on the filament .
(a) Troponin, myosin, actin
(b) Troponin, actin, relaxin
(c) Actin, myosin, troponin
(d) Tropomysin, myosin, actin
[ANS] a

[Q] Motor end plate is a –

(a) Neuromuscular junction
(b) Plate of motor neuron
(c) Dendron of motor neuron
(d) Gradient of proton motive force
[ANS] a

[Q]When a skeletal muscle shortens during contraction which of these statements is false?
(a) The I – band shortens
(b) The A – band shortens
(c) The H – zone becomes narrow
(d) The sarcomeres shorten
[ANS] b

[Q]How many bones make up the human skeleton?

(a) 948
(b) 96
(c) 796
(d) 206
[ANS] d

[Q]Match Column I with Column II

Column I Column II
(Number of bones)
A. Cranium / Brainbox I. 29
B. Skull (Cranial and facial bones) II. 8
C. Face III. 14
D. Hind limb IV. 12 pairs
E. Ribs V. 30
(a) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – V, E – IV
(b) A – II, B – I, C – III, D – V, E – IV
(c) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV, E – V
(d) A – V, B – IV, C – III, D – II, E – I
[ANS] b

[Q]Pick up the correct match –

A. False ribs I. 1st to 7th pair
B. True ribs II. 11th and 12th pair
C. Floating ribs III. 8th to 10th pair
D. Sternum IV. One
(a) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV
(b) A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I
(c) A – I, B – III, C – II, D – IV
(d) A – III, B – I, C – II, D – IV
[ANS] b

[Q] Rib cage is formed by all except –

(a) Thoracic vertebrae
(b) Lumbar vertebrae
(c) Ribs
(d) Sternum
[ANS] b

[Q]The hand contains carpals (wrist bones), metacarpals (palm bones),

and phalanges –
(a) 14, 5, 8
(b) 5, 8, 14
(c) 8, 5, 14
(d) 1, 5, 5
[ANS] c

[Q] An acromion process is characteristically found in –

(a) Pelvic girdle of mammals
(b) Pectoral girdle of mammals
(c) Skull bone
(d) Vertebrae of mammals
[ANS] b

[Q] Match the following and mark the correct option –

Column I Column II
A. Hinge joint I. Between humerus and pectoral girdle
B. Pivot joint II. Between carpals and Metacarpals of thumb
C. Gliding joint III. Between the carpals
D. Saddle joint IV. Between atlas and axis
E. Ball and Socket joint V. Knee joint
(a) A – V, B – IV, C – III, D – II, E – I
(b) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – V, E – IV
(c) A – I, B – III, C – II, D – V, E – IV
(d) A – V, B – III, C – II, D – I, E – IV
[ANS] a

[Q] The following indicates vertebral column of human (right lateral view). Parts labeled A, B, C
and D respectively indicate –
(a) Lumbar vertebra, Intervertebral disc, Sacrum and Coccyx
(b) Cervical vertebra, Intervertebral disc, Sacrum and Coccyx
(c) Cervical vertebra, Intervertebral disc, Lumbar vertebra and Coccyx
(d) Cervical vertebra, Intervertebral disc, Sacrum and Lumbar Vertebra
[ANS]b

[Q]Sliding filament theory can be best explained as

(a) Actin and myosin filaments do not shorten but rather slide pass each other
(b) When myofilaments slide pass each other, myosin filaments, shorten while actin filaments
do not shorten
(c) When myofilaments slide pass each other actin filaments shorten while myosin filaments do
not shorten
(d) Actin and myosin filaments shorten and slide pass each other
[ANS] a

[Q] Body coordination is maintained by –

(a) Nervous system
(b) Excretory system
(c) Endocrine system
(d) Neuroendocrine system
[ANS] d

[Q]Nissl’s granules are absent in –

(a) Dendrons and dendrites
(b)Axon
(c) Cyton
(d)Cyton and dendrons
[ANS] b
[Q]Pick out the correct combination –
Column I Column II
A. Unipolar neuron I. Cerebral cortex
B. Bipolar neuron II. In embryonic stage
C. Multipolar neuron III. In retina of eye
(a) A – I, B – II, C – III
(b) A – I, B – III, C – II
(c) A – II, B – I, C – III
(d)A – II, B – III, C – I
[ANS] d

[Q] Which of the following cells form myelin sheath around axon –
(a) Neuroglial cells
(b) Neuron
(c) Schwann cell
(d) Astrocyte
[ANS]c

[Q] Node of Ranvier are –

(a) Areas of swellings of axon
(b) Found in the wall of stomach
(c) The gaps between adjacent myelin sheath
(d) Bands in striated muscles
[ANS] c

[Q] Na+ - K+ pump

I. Needs energy (ATP) to work
II. Expels 3 Na+ for every 2K+ ions imported
III. Works against to concentration gradient
IV. Maintains resting potential
(a) All are correct
(b) Only II and III are correct
(c) Only I and III are correct
(d) None is correct
[ANS] a

[Q] When a stimulus is applied at a site on the polarized membrane, the membrane at that site
becomes freely permeable to ions. It causes rapid influx of ions
leading of the membrane –
(a) Na+, K+, depolarization
(b) K+, K+, depolarization
(c) K+, Na+, depolarization
(d) Na+, Na+, depolarization
[ANS] d

[Q]Five events in the transmission of nerve impulse across the synapse –

A. Opening of specific ion channels allows the entry of ions, a new action potential is generated
in the post – synaptic neuron
B. Neurotransmitter binds to the receptor on post synaptic membrane
C. Synaptic vesicle fuses with pre – synaptic membrane, neurotransmitter releases into synaptic
cleft
D. Depolarization of pre- synaptic membrane
E. Arrival of action potential at axon terminal
In which sequence do these events occur?
(a) E → D →C →B →A
(b) A→ B →C →D →E
(c)A→B→D→C→E
(d) E → D →C →A →B
[ANS] a

[Q] The correct sequence meninges from inner to outerside is –

(a) Arachnoid → Duramater → Piamater
(b) Duramater→ Arachnoid → Piamater
(c) Piamater→ Arachnoid → Duramater
(d) Piamater→ Duramater →Arachnoid
[ANS] c

[Q] Which of the following statements is incorrect about cortex of cerebrum?

(a) It consists of grey matter
(b) It consists of white matter
(c) It show prominent folds
(d) It contains motor areas, sensory areas and association areas
[ANS] b

[Q]The cerebrum wraps around a structure called thalamus, which is –

(a) A major coordinating centre for sensory signal only
(b) A major centre for motor signaling
(c) A major coordinating centre for sensory and motor signaling
(d) Not a nervous part of a brain
[ANS] c

[Q]Hypothalamus does not control –

(a) Thermoregulation
(b) Urge for eating and drinking
(c) Produces hormones that regulate the synthesis and secretion of pituitary hormone
(d) Creative thinking and consciousness
[ANS] d

[Q] Along with hypothalamus, limbic system is involved in the –

(a) Regulation of sexual behavioaur
(b) Expression of emotional reaction (e.g. excitement pleasure, rage and fear)
(c) Motivation
(d) All
[ANS] d

[Q]Brain stem includes –

(a) Mid brain only
(b) Hind brain only
(c) Mid brain and hind brain only
(d) Fore brain and hind brain only
[ANS] c

[Q]Which of the following features is not related with pons?

(a) It forms floor of brain stem
(b) It serves as neural link between different parts of brain
(c) It can moderate the function of respiratory rhythm centre
(d) It has a chemosensitive area for respiratory regulation
[ANS] d

[Q] Reflex action is controlled by –

(a) CNS
(b) PNS
(c) ANS
(d) None of these
[ANS] a

[Q] A stimulus is received by a receptor, which initiates an impulse in the afferent neuron. The
afferent neuron transmits the signal via nerve root into (at the level
of spinal cord). The efferent neuron than carries signal from to the
.
(a)Ventral, CNS, PNS, sensory organs
(b) Ventral, CNS, CNS, effector
(c) Dorsal, CNS, PNS, affector
(d) Dorsal, CNS, CNS, effector
[ANS] d

[Q] The illustration represents a type of neuron.

The illustration represents which type of neuron?

(a) Bipolar neuron
(b) Unipolar neuron
(c) Multipolar neuron
(d) Pseudounipolar neuron
[ANS] c

[Q]The optic lobes in human are represented by the corpora

(a) Bigemina
(b) Arenacea
(c) Allata
(d) Quadrigemina
[ANS] d

[Q]How do parasympathetic neural signals affect the working of the heart?

(a) Reduce both heart rate and cardiac output
(b) Heart rate is increased without affecting the cardiac output
(c) Both heart rate and cardiac output increase
(d) Heart rate decreased but cardiac output increases
[ANS] a

[Q]Third ventricle of brain is located in

(a) Diencephalon
(b) Rhombenecephalon
(c) Mesencephalon
(d) Cerebrum
[ANS] a

[Q]Left and right cerebral hemispheres are linked by a broad nerve band called
(a) Corpus callosum
(b) Corpus luteum
(c) Corpora quadregemina
(d) Anterior choroid plexus
[ANS] a

[Q] Which of the following statements about hormones is/ are correct?
I. Hormones are non-nutrient chemicals
II. Hormones act as intercellular messengers
III. Hormones are produced in trace amount
IV. Hormones may be proteins, steroids, glycoproteins, and biogenic amines
(a)All
(b) I, II, III
(c) IV
(d) I, III
[ANS] a

[Q]Hormones released by the posterior pituitary (oxytocin and vasopressin) are produced in the
–
(a) Anterior pitutiary
(b) Hypothalamus
(c) Pineal
(d) Thymus
[ANS] b

[Q] Match the Column I with Column II –

Column I Column II
(a) FSH I. Transported axonally to neurohypophysis from
hypothalmus
(b) MSH II. Acts on melanocytes and regulates pigmentation of skin
(c) Vasopressin (ADH) III. Stimulates the growth and development of ovarian
follicles in female
(d) Pars Intermedia IV. In human, it is almost merged with pars distalis
(a) A – III, B – II, C – I, D - IV
(b) A – I, B – II, C – III, D - IV
(c) A – IV, B – III, C – II, D - I
(d) A – III, B – II, C – IV, D - I
[ANS] a

[Q]Pineal gland is located on –

(a) Dorsal midbrain
(b) Ventral midbrain
(c) Dorsal side of forebrain
(d) Ventral side of hindbrain
[ANS] c

[Q] Observe the following diagrams and identify alphabetized items –

(a) A – Adrenal gland, B – Fat, C – Cortex, D – Medulla

(b) A – JGA , B – Fat, C – Cortex, D – Medulla
(c) A – Adrenal gland, B – Fat, C – Medulla, D – Cortex
(d) A – Adrenal gland, B – Fat, C – Pars distalis, D – pars intermedia
[ANS] a

[Q] Islet of Langerhans

has 2 types
of main cells

Identify A to E –
(a) A – α , B – β , C – Glucagon, D – Hyperglycemia, E - Hypoglycemia
(b) A – β , B – α , C – Cortisol, D – Hypoglycemia, E - Hyperglycemia
(c) A – β , B – α , C – Cortisol, D – Hyperglycemia, E - Hypoglycemia
(d) A – β , B – α , C – Glucagon, D – Hypoglycemia, E - Hyperglycemia
[ANS] d

[Q]Find odd one out –

(a) Insulin, Glucagon, Thymosin
(b) Glucocorticoids, Mineralocorticoids, sex corticoids
(c)Relaxin, Oestrogen, Progesterone
(d) Nor-epinephrine, Adrenaline
[ANS] a

[Q] Match Column I with Column II

Column I Column II
A. Gastrin I. Acts on gastric gland and stimulates secretion of HCl and
pepsinogen
B. Secretin II. Acts on the exocrine part of pancreas and stimulates secretion
of water and HCO3– ions
C. CCK III. Acts on both pancreas and gall bladder and stimulates the
secretion of both pancreatic enzymes and bile juice
respectively –
D. GIP IV. Inhibits gastric secretion and motility
(a) A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I
(b) A – II, B – IV, C – III, D – I
(c) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV
(d) A – I, B – III, C – II, D – IV
[ANS] c

[Q] Identify A, B and C in the diagrammatic representation of the mechanism of hormone

action.
Select the correct option from the following:
(a) A = Protein Hormone; B = Cyclic AMP; C = Hormone-receptor Complex
(b) A = Steroid Hormone; B = Hormonereceptor Complex; C = Protein
(c) A = Protein Hormone; B = Receptor; C = Cyclic AMP
(d) A = Steroid Hormone; B = Receptor; C = Second Messenger
[ANS] c