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MTAP 2 HEMA 2 REVIEW

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What is a characteristic feature of Aplastic Anemia?

a. Selective decrease in platelets


b. General suppression of bone marrow
b. General suppression of bone marrow
c. Increased production of red blood cells
d. Exclusive suppression of white blood cells
Complex physiologic process that keeps circulating blood in a fluid
Hemostasis
state when an injury occurs:
In addition to megakaryocytes, what is the other major site of Von
Willebrand's Factor synthesis?

A. Bone marrow B. Endothelium of blood vessels


B. Endothelium of blood vessels
C. Lymph nodes
D. Thymus
Which condition involves the excessive destruction of one's own
cells by their own antibodies and can be caused by either allergic
reactions or drug-induced endothelial damage?
c. Autoimmune Vascular Purpura
a. Amyloidosis
b. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum
c. Autoimmune Vascular Purpura
d. Paraproteinemia
happen in blood vessel Injury to endothelium
Which method of Clot Retraction Time (CRT) is qualitative and
involves the formation of dimpling or droplet-like serum on the
surface of a blood drop as a positive result?
A. Hirschboeck (Castor Oil Method)
A. Hirschboeck (Castor Oil Method)
B. Stefanini Method
C. MacFarlane Method
D. Quantitative Method
Activated by large injuries to blood vessels and surrounding tis-
Secondary Hemostasis
sues
What is the effect of Myeloma protein in Paraproteinemia on
platelet function?

a. Causes vessel obstruction b. Inhibits platelet function due to membrane coating


b. Inhibits platelet function due to membrane coating
c. Heavy metal poisoning - cause thrombosis/hemorrhage
d. Results in calcification of elastic fibers in small arteries
Where is Von Willebrand Factor (VWF) stored in endothelial cells

A. Weibel-Palade bodies
A. Weibel-Palade bodies
B. Endoplasmic reticulum
C. Cytoplasmic vesicles
D. Alpha granules
It is the recruitment of more platelets and sticking to one another
PLATELET AGGREGATION
forming clumps
Activated by desquamation and small injuries to blood vessels primary Hemostasis
What is the normal range for Clot Retraction Time (CRT) using the
Hirschboeck method?

A. 15-45 minutes A. 15-45 minutes


B. 30-60 minutes
C. 1-2 hours
D. 45-90 minutes

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Where are Weibel Palade Bodies, the major storage site of Von
Willebrand's Factor, located?

A. Platelet cytoplasm C. Endothelial cells


B. Liver cells
C. Endothelial cells
D. Bone marrow
pathologic clotting Thrombosis
What is the initial step in the process of platelet aggregation
involving Von Willebrand Factor (vWF)?

A. Fibrinogen binding B. vWF binding to GPIb/IIa


B. vWF binding to GPIb/IIa
C. Platelet activation
D. Release of ADP
it is the uncontrolled bleeding Hemorrhage
Which condition is characterized by calcification and structural
abnormalities of elastic fibers in small arteries?

a. Autoimmune Vascular Purpura b. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum


b. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum
c. Paraproteinemia
d. Amyloidosis
What is considered abnormal in the MacFarlane Method, indicat-
ing a platelet count below 60 X 10^9 /L?

A. 15-45% C. 44-67%
B. 30-60%
C. 44-67%
D. 60-90%
What is the initial step in the formation of a platelet plug during
primary hemostasis?

A. Fibrinogen activation C. Platelet adhesion


B. Platelet aggregation
C. Platelet adhesion
D. Vasoconstriction
it is the removal of clot Fibrinolysis
What property allows platelets to bind to nonplatelet surfaces such
as subendothelial collagen during primary hemostasis?

A. Platelet activation C. Platelet adhesion


B. Platelet aggregation
C. Platelet adhesion
D. Platelet degranulation
What defines thrombocytosis, indicating an abnormal increase in
the number of circulating platelets?

a. Platelet count within the normal range c. An increase in the number of platelets exceeding 450,000/uL
b. A decrease in the number of platelets
c. An increase in the number of platelets exceeding 450,000/uL d.
Platelet dysfunction without affecting the platelet count
What activates primary hemostasis? Desquamation and small injuries to blood vessels
In the context of hemostatic disorders, what does "Thrombosis"
refer to?
A. Excessive blood clotting
A. Excessive blood clotting
B. Formation of blood clots
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C. Platelet dysfunction
D. Impaired fibrinolysis
What triggers the activation of secondary hemostasis?

a) Small injuries to blood vessels


b) Large injuries to blood vessels and surrounding tissues
b) Large injuries to blood vessels and surrounding tissues
c) Platelet aggregation
d) Vascular intima damage
What is another term for Essential Thrombocythosis?

a. Myelodysplastic disorder
d. Primary Thrombocytosis
b. Primary BM defect
c. Polycythemia Vera
d. Primary Thrombocytosis
What components are involved in primary hemostasis? Vascular intima and platelets
What is a characteristic feature of Secondary Thrombocytosis in
terms of its duration?

a. Chronic and persistent b. Transient and temporary


b. Transient and temporary
c. Irregular and unpredictable
d. Always acute
Which platelet activators are secreted from platelet granules dur-
ing platelet aggregation?

A. Fibrinogen and collagen B. ADP and TXA2


B. ADP and TXA2
C. Von Willebrand Factor and serotonin
D. Clotting factors and enzymes
How would you describe the duration of the response in primary
Rapid and short-lived
hemostasis?
Which components are involved in secondary hemostasis?

a) Red blood cells and platelets


b) Vascular intima and coagulation system
b) Vascular intima and coagulation system
c) White blood cells and platelets
d) Platelets and fibrinogen
How would you characterize the duration of the response in sec-
ondary hemostasis?

a) Rapid and short-lived b) Delayed and long-term


b) Delayed and long-term
c) Gradual and continuous
d) Prolonged and sustained
What occurs during primary hemostasis in the hemostatic re-
sponse?

a) Formation of a fibrin clot c) Formation of a platelet plug


b) Removal of the clot
c) Formation of a platelet plug
d) Injury to endothelium
Which of the following tests would be abnormal in the context
of vascular disorders, while platelet count, platelet function tests,
and coagulation testing remain normal?
A. Bleeding Time (BT) and Tourniquet test
A. Bleeding Time (BT) and Tourniquet test
B. Platelet Count
C. Prothrombin Time (PT)
D. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (APTT)
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In platelet aggregometry, what is the characteristic of collagen and
thrombin as agonists?

A. Strong agonists A. Strong agonists


B. Weak agonists
C. Moderate agonists
D. Inhibitors
What is the role of secondary hemostasis in the hemostatic re-
sponse?

a) Formation of a platelet plug d) Formation of a fibrin clot


b) Removal of the clot
c) Injury to endothelium
d) Formation of a fibrin clot
It carry oxygenated blood from the heart arteries
Which anticoagulant is typically used in the Glassbead Retention
Test?

A. Heparin B. EDTA
B. EDTA
C. Citrate
D. Sodium oxalate
What is the source of collagen release during primary hemosta-
sis?

A. Platelets C. Endothelial cells


B. Megakaryocytes
C. Endothelial cells
D. Red blood cells
What is the primary role of platelets in the body?

A. Oxygen transport
B. Defense against blood loss
B. Defense against blood loss
C. Digestion
D. Bone formation
Which system of hemostasis includes blood vessels and
Vasculature
platelets?
Which pair of substances is categorized as weak agonists in
platelet aggregation?

A. Collagen and Thrombin B. ADP and Epinephrine


B. ADP and Epinephrine
C. Thrombin and Epinephrine
D. ADP and Collagen
What is the normal value range for platelet retention percentage
in the Glassbead Retention Test?

A. 50 - 75% B. 75 - 95%
B. 75 - 95%
C. 95 - 110%
D. 110 - 130%
What can excessive collagen production lead to in the context of
vascular disorders?

A. Hemorrhage B. Keloid formation


B. Keloid formation
C. Thrombosis
D. Platelet dysfunction

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The narrowing/ stenosis of blood vessel wall (maybe enough to
Vasoconstriction
stop the bleeding)
Which type of microscope is used in the quantitative evaluation of
platelets using the Reese and Ecker method?

A. Electron microscope B. Light microscope


B. Light microscope
C. Fluorescence microscope
D. Phase-contrast microscope
The reference range for the platelet count is 150,000 to 450,000/uL
What is the primary function of veins in the context of blood
Carry oxygen-depleted blood back to the heart
circulation?
it is the lack of collagen due to age, degradation of elastin Senile purpura
What is the primary principle of Platelet Aggregometry?

A. In vivo platelet counting


C. In vitro test to determine platelet aggregation ability
B. In vitro determination of platelet size
C. In vitro test to determine platelet aggregation ability
D. In vivo assessment of von Willebrand Factor function
In what way do platelets promote healing?

A. By inhibiting smooth muscle cells


C. By stimulating smooth muscle cells and fibroblasts
B. By producing toxins
C. By stimulating smooth muscle cells and fibroblasts
D. By preventing the formation of platelet plugs
Fibrinogen is part of

a) Extrinsic pathway
c) Common pathway
b) Intrinsic pathway
c) Common pathway
d) None of these
aka known as the devil pinches Purpura simplex
Which method is commonly used for Platelet Aggregometry when
using Platelet-Rich Plasma (PRP)?

A. Electrical impedance C. Light transmittance


B. Flow cytometry
C. Light transmittance
D. Immunohistochemistry
What is the volume range for platelets in the automated counting
machine based on size and volume?

A. 1-10 fL B. 2-20 fL
B. 2-20 fL
C. 10-50 fL
D. 20-30 fL
Which membrane receptor on platelets does Von Willebrand Fac-
tor (VWF) bind to?

A. GpIIb/IIIa C. GpIb/IX/V
B. GpIa/IIa
C. GpIb/IX/V
D. GpVI

Who is most commonly affected by Purpura Simplex?


B. Young women
A. Elderly individuals
B. Young women

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C. Children
D. Middle-aged men
All of the following tests will demonstrate normal results in a
patient with Factor VII deficiency, except

a) APTT b) PT
b) PT
c) Thrombin timed
d) Platelet count
Which glycoprotein is primarily affected in Glanzmann Thrombas-
thenia?

A. Gp Ia/IIb B. Gp IIb/IIIa
B. Gp IIb/IIIa
C. Gp Ib/IX/V
D. Gp VI
Which of the following mediators causes an irreversible second
wave of aggregation by changing the conformation of the IIb-IIIa
complex?
B. ADP
A. Thromboxane A2 (TxA2)
B. ADP
C. Thrombin
D. Phospholipase A2
What condition is associated with vitamin C deficiency? Scurvy
Which mediator is considered the main mediator of aggregation
and a potent vasoconstrictor?
A. ADP
C. Thromboxane A2 (TxA2)
B. Thrombin
C. Thromboxane A2 (TxA2)
D. Phospholipase A2
Where is Purpura Simplex often observed in the body?

A. Abdomen
B. Thighs or arms
B. Thighs or arms
C. Face
D. Back
Which system of hemostasis involves coagulation factors and
Clot formation
clotting factors?
In Bernard Soulier Syndrome, there is an error in which aspect of
platelet function?

A. Platelet aggregation C. Platelet adhesion


B. Platelet count
C. Platelet adhesion
D. Platelet shape
Where is Von Willebrand Factor (VWF) stored in platelets?

A. Cytoplasmic vesicles
D. Alpha granules
B. Endoplasmic reticulum
C. Golgi apparatus
D. Alpha granules
Deals with vessels; vessels that initiate the process of hemostasis vascular
Characterized with association to a specific condition/underlying
SECONDARY PURPURA
disease
What does the term "25 RBC = 25/25" mean in the Unopette
System?

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A. 25% red blood cell count
B. 25 red blood cells per microliter
B. 25 red blood cells per microliter
C. 25 microliters of blood sample
D. 25% platelet concentration
How does hypercoagulability in Cushing's Disease impact blood
flow?

A. Enhances blood flow B. Disrupts the flow of blood


B. Disrupts the flow of blood
C. Promotes vasodilation
D. Stimulates platelet aggregation
One of the other names of Factor VII is Proconvertin
Which glycoprotein is primarily affected in Bernard Soulier Syn-
drome?

A. Gp Ia/IIb A. Gp Ia/IIb
B. Gp IIb/IIIa
C. Gp Ib/IX/V
D. Gp VI
Which enzyme converts arachidonic acid into prostaglandin dur-
ing platelet activation?

A. Phospholipase A2 C. Cyclooxygenase
B. Thromboxane synthetase
C. Cyclooxygenase
D. ADP synthase
What is the primary cause of death in Waterhouse-Friedrichsen
Syndrome associated with DIC in Infectious Purpura?

A. Excessive bleeding B. toxic shock and overload


B. toxic shock and overload
C. Neurological complications
D. Respiratory failure
How does the exposure of collagen contribute to the coagulation
system?

a) Activation of the intrinsic pathway a) Activation of the intrinsic pathway


b) Activation of the extrinsic pathway
c) Formation of a platelet plug
d) Initiation of vasoconstriction
Under what conditions do vessels have the ability to constrict? Low blood pressure
What is the size range for petechiae, a type of purpura?

A. <1 mm
C. <3 mm
B. <2 mm
C. <3 mm
D. <4 mm
How would you categorize purpura with discoloration of the skin
that is >3mm but <1cm in diameter?

A. Petechiae B. Intermediate Purpuras


B. Intermediate Purpuras
C. Ecchymosis
D. Hematoma
Which granule contents act as vasoconstrictors and platelet ago-
nists, amplifying primary hemostasis during platelet secretion?
B. Dense Granule Contents
A. Alpha-granule contents
B. Dense Granule Contents
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C. Fibrinogen
D. Von Willebrand Factor (vWF)
What is platelet function the monitors the vessel lining for holes or
Passive surveillance
gaps?
Which of the following is considered the most frequently used
intravenous anticoagulant?

a) Warfarin c) Heparin
b) EDTA
c) Heparin
d) Ascorbic Acid
What is the purpose of the Aspirin Tolerance Test in platelet
function evaluation?

A. Shorten bleeding time B. Assess the effect of aspirin on Duke's Bleeding Time
B. Assess the effect of aspirin on Duke's Bleeding Time
C. Determine platelet count
D. Evaluate the effectiveness of Ivy's Method
It is caused by bacterial, fungal, viral & parasitic microorganisms,
Infectious Purpura
releasing toxins which damages blood vessels
In which condition is there an absent or defective Gp IIb/IIIa,
leading to abnormal bleeding time?

A. Scurvy C. Glanzmann thrombasthenia


B. vWF Disease
C. Glanzmann thrombasthenia
D. Thrombocytopenia
What term is used to describe purpura with discoloration of the
skin that is >1cm in diameter?

A. Petechiae C. Ecchymosis
B. Intermediate Purpuras
C. Ecchymosis
D. Hematoma
What is the innermost layer of both arteries and veins, where
Tunica Intima
endothelial cells and subendothelial cells are formed?
Which granule contents proteins that participate in secondary
hemostasis?

A. Alpha-granule contents A. Alpha-granule contents


B. Dense Granule Contents
C. Fibrinogen
D. Von Willebrand Factor (vWF)
What deficiency, associated with compromised blood vessel in-
tegrity, can lead to abnormal bleeding time?

A. Vitamin C deficiency (Scurvy) A. Vitamin C deficiency (Scurvy)


B. Vitamin D deficiency
C. Iron deficiency
D. Vitamin K deficiency
hat is the role of the Tunica Intima in preventing platelets from
adhering to the subendothelium?

a) Formation of endothelial cells b) Separation of formed elements


b) Separation of formed elements
c) Activation of collagen
d) Triggering platelet activation

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Which term is associated with the leakage of blood from a vein
and is not part of the typical classification of purpura?

A. Petechiae D. Hematoma
B. Intermediate Purpuras
C. Ecchymosis
D. Hematoma
What is characterized by excessive lysis and formation and is
associated with Neisseria meningitidis?

A. Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS) C. Waterhouse - Friedrichsen Syndrome


B. Purpura Fulminans
C. Waterhouse - Friedrichsen Syndrome
D. Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (TTP)
What is the purpose of inflating the BP cuff to 80mmHg and
applying it above the elbow in the Tourniquet/Rumple-Leede/Hess
Test?
B. To increase capillary hydrostatic pressure
A. To induce vasoconstriction
B. To increase capillary hydrostatic pressure
C. To promote platelet aggregation
D. To initiate fibrinolysis
Besides smooth muscle, what else is found in the Tunica Media? Fibroblasts
What is the outermost layer of blood vessels, contributing to their
Tunica Adventitia
integrity, flexibility, and elasticity?
What is the purpose of the Tissue Thromboplastin release in the
evaluation of vascular integrity?

A. To promote vasoconstriction D. To activate the extrinsic pathway of coagulation


B. To initiate platelet aggregation
C. To assess capillary fragility
D. To activate the extrinsic pathway of coagulation
Why is it important for vessels to be intact, have integrity, and be
To allow easy flow of blood
flexible and elastic in the context of hemostasis?
Which staining method is used in the Reese and Ecker (Toncan-
tin's) direct method for quantitative evaluation of platelets?

A. Crystal Violet C. Brilliant Cresyl Blue (BCB)


B. Wright's stain
C. Brilliant Cresyl Blue (BCB)
D. Hematoxylin and eosin
Which condition is characterized by allergic vasculitis (IgA) involv-
ing the skin and affecting various organs such as the gastroin-
testinal tract (GIT), kidneys, heart, joints, and CNS?
A. Henoch-Schonlein purpura
A. Henoch-Schonlein purpura
B. Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome
C. Waterhouse-Friedrichsen Syndrome
D. Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (TTP)
What are the two major functions of Von Willebrand's Factor
(VWF)?

A. Oxygen transport and nutrient absorption C. Carrier protein for Factor VIII and platelet adhesion
B. Platelet activation and factor IX synthesis
C. Carrier protein for Factor VIII and platelet adhesion
D. Antibody production and pathogen destruction
What condition is associated with decreased fibrinogen • vWF
Disease and can lead to abnormal bleeding time?

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A. Hypofibrinogenemia
B. vWF Disease
A. Hypofibrinogenemia
C. Thrombocytopenia
D. Glanzmann thrombasthenia
In the evaluation of primary hemostasis, what is assessed con-
cerning platelets?

A. Hemoglobin concentration B. Number of platelets


B. Number of platelets
C. Plasma viscosity
D. Red blood cell size
When do vessels have the ability to dilate ? High blood pressure
What occurs upon the exposure of collagen within the Tunica
Triggering platelet activation
Intima?
What term is commonly used to describe the skin manifestation
in Henoch-Schonlein purpura?

A. Eczema B. Palpable purpura


B. Palpable purpura
C. Psoriasis
D. Urticaria
What is the primary composition of the staining solution in the
Reese and Ecker method?

A. Citrate, formaldehyde, buffer A. Citrate, formaldehyde, buffer


B. Methylene blue, acetic acid
C. Giemsa stain
D. Toluidine Blue
It is characterized by severe eczema and small platelets Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome
In the blood vessel, it is referred to as the middle layer and
Tunica Media
contains smooth muscle and connective tissue
What is associated with the term "Henoch" in Henoch-Schonlein
purpura?

A. Abdominal pain A. Abdominal pain


B. Joint problems
C. Skin rash
D. Heart complications
What test is used in the stability of small blood vessels to retain
CAPILLARY FRAGILITY/ RESISTANCE TEST
RBC under stress or trauma?
In which layer can you find connective tissue and collagen that
contribute to making blood vessels intact?
d) Tunica Adventitia
a) Tunica Intima
b) Tunica Media c) Tunica Externa
d) Tunica Adventitia
What is the principle behind the Tourniquet/Rumple-Leede/Hess
Test?

A. Increasing platelet count C. Partially obstructing venous blood to increase capillary pres-
B. Reducing capillary hydrostatic pressure sure
C. Partially obstructing venous blood to increase capillary pres-
sure
D. Inducing vasoconstriction
Which hereditary vascular disorder is characterized by hyper-
extensible skin, hypermobile joints, joint laxity, and a bleeding
tendency, primarily manifesting as subcutaneous hematoma for-
mation?
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A. Marfan Syndrome
B. Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome B. Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome
C. von Willebrand Disease
D. Hemophilia
What is abundant in the Tunica Adventitia that contributes to the
structure of blood vessels?
b) Collagen and connective tissue
a) Smooth muscle b) Collagen and connective tissue c) Fibrob-
lasts
d) Endothelial cells
Which vitamin K-dependent protein is activated by Thrombomod-
Protein C
ulin?
What role does Vitamin C or Ascorbate play in the maintenance
of capillary integrity?

A. Enhancing vasoconstriction B. Supporting collagen synthesis


B. Supporting collagen synthesis
C. Promoting platelet aggregation
D. Inducing fibrinolysis
Which molecules are involved in inhibiting platelet activation to
Prostacyclin (PGI2) and nitric oxide (NO)
prevent clot formation under primary hemostasis?
What enzyme deficiency is associated with Ehlers-Danlos Syn-
drome, leading to the inability to convert procollagen to collagen?

A. Amylase D. Peptidase
B. Protease
C. Lipase
D. Peptidase
What is the normal range for petechiae in the Tourniquet/Rum-
ple-Leede/Hess Test?

A. 0-10 petechiae A. 0-10 petechiae


B. 10-20 petechiae
C. 20-30 petechiae
D. >30 petechiae
Which term is used to describe the final stage of megakary-
opoiesis before the formation of platelets?

a. Promegakaryocyt b. Metamegakaryocyte
b. Metamegakaryocyte
c. Megakaryoblast
d. Megakaryocyte
What is the typical shape of resting (unstimulated) platelets? Discoid
What is the role of von Willebrand factor (vWF) in the context of
damaged blood vessels?

a. Inhibits platelet adhesion d. Essential for platelet adhesion


b. Promotes vasoconstriction
c. Enhances platelet activation
d. Essential for platelet adhesion
It is sometimes known as stress platelets, appear in compensation
Reticulated platelets
or thrombocytopenia
What is another name for Hereditary Hemorrhagic Telangiectasia
(HHT)?
A. Rendu-Osler-Weber Syndrome
A. Rendu-Osler-Weber Syndrome
B. Kasabach-Merritt Syndrome
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C. Marfan's Syndrome
D. Hemangioma-thrombocytopenia Syndrome
Which factor is NOT mentioned as important in the maintenance
of normal capillary integrity or resistance?

A. Number of circulating platelets D. Oxygen concentration


B. Vitamin C (Ascorbate)
C. Adrenocorticotropic steroids
D. Oxygen concentration
How does the shape of platelets change when they are stimulated
Spherical
or activated?
Approximately how many platelets are produced from a single
megakaryocyte during the shedding process into venous sinus- 2000 to 4000
es?
What is a common manifestation of Hereditary Hemorrhagic
Telangiectasia, involving lesions on the skin, lip, and tongue, as
well as epistaxis?
C. Telangiectasia
A. Hemangioma
B. Thrombocytopenia
C. Telangiectasia
D. Marfanoid features
How long is the BP cuff inflated during the Tourniquet/Rum-
ple-Leede/Hess Test?

A. 5 minutes B. 8 minutes
B. 8 minutes
C. 10 minutes
D. 15 minutes
Which substance acts as a vasodilator and helps prevent platelet
Prostacyclin (PGI2)
aggregation in blood vessels?
Which naturally occurring anticoagulant is known to inhibit throm-
Heparan sulfate
bin and prevent the formation of blood clots?
What is the function of Release of tissue thromboplastin during
the hemostatic response to vessel damage?

a. Initiates the intrinsic pathway d. Activates the secondary hemostasis


b. Activates Thrombomodulin
c. Promotes platelet aggregation
d. Activates the secondary hemostasis
What is the other name for Hemangioma-thrombocytopenia Syn-
drome?

A. Rendu-Osler-Weber Syndrome B. Kasabach-Merritt Syndrome


B. Kasabach-Merritt Syndrome
C. Marfan's Syndrome
D. Hereditary Hemorrhagic Telangiectasia
What is the positive result of the Tourniquet/Rumple-Leede/Hess
Test?

A. Cyanosis of the skin C. Petechiae (red-purple spots)


B. Ecchymosis at the test site
C. Petechiae (red-purple spots)
D. Elevated blood pressure
What is the largest cell found in the bone marrow, formed as a
result of megakaryopoiesis?
d. Megakaryocyte
a. Promegakaryocyte
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b. Metamegakaryocyte
c. Megakaryoblast
d. Megakaryocyte
What is the average circulating life span of platelets in the blood-
stream?

a. 5-6 days d. 16-18 days


b. 8-9 days
c. 12-14 days
d. 16-18 days
Within what range is the normal value (NV) for mean platelet
volume (MPV)?

a. 2.5 to 5.0 fL c. 6.8 to 10.2 fL


b. 4.0 to 7.5 fL
c. 6.8 to 10.2 fL
d. 9.0 to 12.5 fL
Which hormone serves as the primary stimulator for platelet pro-
duction (thrombopoiesis)?

a. Erythropoietin b. Thrombopoietin (TPO)


b. Thrombopoietin (TPO)
c. Insulin
d. Growth hormone
Under a Wright-stained smear at 100x magnification, approxi-
mately how many platelets would you expect to observe within the
field of view?
c. 7 to 21 platelets
a. 1 to 5 platelets
b. 7 to 14 platelets
c. 7 to 21 platelets
d. 22 to 28 platelets
Which component found in alpha granules has a properties of
coagulation control?

a. Factor V c. Protein C inhibitor


b. Protein S
c. Protein C inhibitor
d. Thrombospondin
What is the composition of microfilaments in the sol-gel zone?

a. Tubulin and desmin


b. Actin and myosin
b. Actin and myosin
c. Vimentin and actin
d. Thromboxane A2 and prostacyclin
What is the primary function of the dense tubular system in
platelets?

a. Calcium sequestering pump


a. Calcium sequestering pump
b. Arachidonic acid metabolism
c. Releasing intracellular components into the external environ-
ment
d. Structural support

Which cytokines induce early differentiation of stem cells in the


process of platelet production?
b. Interleukin-3 (IL-3)
a. Interleukin-1 (IL-1)
b. Interleukin-3 (IL-3)

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c. Interleukin-6 (IL-6)
d. Tumor Necrosis Factor (TNF)
Which glycoprotein serves as the receptor for von Willebrand
factor (vWF) in the platelet glyocalyx?

a. Gp Ia b. Gp Ib
b. Gp Ib
c. Gp IIb
d. Gp IIIa
Which component found in dense granules is involved in platelet
activation and coagulation?

a. ADP c. Mg2+
b. ATP
c. Mg2+
d. Serotonin
It connects with actin and tubules - maintaining Desmin and Vimentin
Where is the majority of platelets distributed in the body?

a. Liver c. Blood
b. Spleen (2/3 in the blood, 1/3 in the spleen)
c. Blood
d. Lungs
Which glycoprotein receptor is involved in binding thrombin ? Gp Va
What is the role of Gp IIb and IIIa in platelet function?

a. Oxygen transport
b. Receptor for vWF and fibrinogen
b. Receptor for vWF and fibrinogen
c. Energy storage
d. Membrane structure support
What molecule enhances the assembly of coagulation factors? Thromboxane A2
Which type of granules in the organelle zone of platelets is the
most abundant?

a. Delta granules c. Alpha granules


b. Beta granules
c. Alpha granules
d. Gamma granules
It is responsible for energy production in platelets Mitochondria
The primary function of _____ in SOL-GEL ZONE is structural
Microtubules
support; maintaining the discoid shape of platelets
Where are messages from the external membrane translated
into chemical signals carrying platelet activation and a change in
physical structure?
c. Submembranous area
a. Glyocalyx
b. Cell membrane
c. Submembranous area
d. Microfilaments
Which component found in dense granules is involved in the
binding of platelet membranes and endothelial cells?

a. ATP b. 5-hydroxytryptamine/ serotonin


b. 5-hydroxytryptamine/ serotonin
c. Ca2+
d. Mg2+

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Which factor does NOT affect the Bleeding Time test?

A. Skin thickness at the puncture site


D. Hemoglobin concentration
B. Size and depth of the wound
C. Mechanical and chemical action of platelets
D. Hemoglobin concentration
Which component is essential for tissue repair and is found in
alpha granules?

a. Fibrinogen b. Platelet-derived factor


b. Platelet-derived factor
c. Platelet factor 4 (PF4)
d. Thrombospondin
Which type of granules in the organelle zone of platelets contains
Dense granules
non-CHON components and chemicals?
Which curve involves a strong agonist, Ristocetin, as a high ag-
gregating agent?

A. Low curve C. Broad curve


B. Biphasic curve
C. Broad curve
D. Serotonin curve
It contains hydrolytic enzymes important in clot lysis Lysosomes
intracellular components are released into the external environ-
open canalicular system
ment
In the context of the Bleeding Time test, what does a "normal
value" range from?

A. 1-5 mins B. 2-9 mins


B. 2-9 mins
C. 5-10 mins
D. 10-15 mins
Which membrane system in platelets is involved in arachidonic
acid metabolism?

a. Open canalicular system b. Dense tubular system


b. Dense tubular system
c. Organelle zone
d. Sol-gel zone
What type of curve is characterized by a U-shape, involves 30%
T, and is associated with serotonin?

A. Low curve A. Low curve


B. Biphasic curve
C. Broad curve
D. High curve
Which stain is used in the Indirect Method (Fonio's) for platelet
counting?

A. Brilliant Cresyl Blue C. Wright's stain


B. Crystal Violet
C. Wright's stain
D. Giemsa stain

What is the platelet-to-RBC ratio in the Indirect Method when


observing 200 RBCs?
C. 5-20 plt
A. 1 plt
B. 5-10 plt

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C. 5-20 plt
D. 20-30 plt
What type of skin wound is typically created for the Bleeding Time
test?

A. Superficial scratch C. Standard skin wound, 2-3mm in depth


B. Large incision
C. Standard skin wound, 2-3mm in depth
D. No skin wound is created
What is the primary condition for the Clot Retraction Time (CRT)
test?

A. Clotting at 4°C C. Clotting at 37°C within 1 hour


B. Clotting at 25°C
C. Clotting at 37°C within 1 hour
D. Clotting at room temperature
Which method involves subjective pressure and is considered
more practical and convenient for assessing platelet function?

A. Ivy's Method C. Duke's Method


B. Aspirin Tolerance Test
C. Duke's Method
D. Hemocytometer Method
How does the application of increased pressure in Ivy's Method
impact bleeding time?
A. Shortens bleeding time
D. Prolongs bleeding time
B. Has no effect on bleeding time
C. Causes immediate clotting
D. Prolongs bleeding time
Which aggregating agent is typically added first in Platelet Aggre-
gation testing?

A. ADP B. Ristocetin
B. Ristocetin
C. Epinephrine
D. Thrombin
Which of the following is considered a weak aggregating agent in
Platelet Aggregation testing?

A. Thrombin C. Serotonin
B. Collagen
C. Serotonin
D. Arachidonic Acid
What characterizes thrombocytopenia in terms of platelet count?

a. Platelet count within the normal range


d. Platelet count exceeding 1,000,000/uL
b. Platelet count below 100,000/uL
c. Platelet count above 100,000/uL
d. Platelet count exceeding 1,000,000/uL
At what platelet count does a patient with thrombocytopenia be-
come at high risk for severe spontaneous bleeding?

a. Below 100,000/uL c. Below 10,000/uL


b. Below 50,000/uL
c. Below 10,000/uL
d. Above 1,000,000/uL
it is sometimes known as stress platelets Reticulated platelets
What is the primary effect of radiation on the bone marrow in the
context of decreased production?
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a. Stimulation of progenitor cells


b. Proliferation of red blood cells c. Toxicity to progenitor cells
c. Toxicity to progenitor cells
d. Induction of leukocytosis
What term is used to describe a space-occupying lesion in the
bone marrow?

a. Myelophthisis a. Myelophthisis
b. Leukocytosis
c. Erythrocytosis
d. Thrombocytosis

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