Notefile 1 1708767093

1 English
Topic : SYLLABUS-1
SECTION - A ( PHYSICS-01 ) 7. Two forces P and Q have a resultant perpendicular

to P. The angle between the forces is :-
1. Two particles A and B are moving in XY-plane. (1) tan – 1 ( – P/Q) (2) tan – 1(P/Q)
Their positions vary with time t according
to relation : (3) sin – 1 (P/Q) (4) cos – 1( – P/Q)
xA (t) = 3t, xB (t) = 6 8. Angle between P→ and Q
→ is θ . What is the value
yA (t) = t, yB (t) = 2 + 3t2 → → →
Distance between two particles at t = 1 is : of P . (Q × P ) ?

(1) 5 unit (2) 3 unit (1) P2Q cos θ (2) Zero
(3) 4 unit (4) 12 unit √ (3) P2Q sin θ cos θ (4) P2Q sin θ
2. If velocity of a particle is given by v = (2t + 3) 9. → and B
For the vectors A → shown in figure if
m/s, then average velocity in interval 0 ≤ t ≤ 1s → −B
A = 15 N, B = 15 N, then ∣∣A → ∣ = ..........
∣
is:
7 9
(1) m/s (2) m/s (3) 4 m/s (4) 5 m/s
2 2
3. A vector →a is turned by angle θ about its initial
15
point then, change Δ |→a | is :- (1) 15 N (2) 15 √ 3N (3) 30 N (4) N
√ 3
(1) 0 (2) 2 |→a | θ
10. Two forces (shown in figure) act on a body
(3) 2 |→a | sin
θ (4) 2 |→a | cos
θ simultaneously. Among the given options which force
2 2 when added will give resultant in North-East direction ?
4. Which option is true from the following?
(1) → +B
A → =A
→ −C
→ (2) → +B
A → =B
→ −C
→
(1) 1 N in North direction
(3) → −B
A → = 2A
→ −C
→ (4) → −B
A → = 2A
→ +C
→
(2) 1 N in East direction
5. If →a = i − j , →b = 3i + 4j ; then vector having the
^ ^ ^ ^
(3) 3 N in West direction
same magnitude as that of →b & parallel to →a is :- (4) 1 N in North-East direction
5 ^ 5
(1) ( i − j^) (2) (
^
i + j^) 11. If two vectors 2i^ + 3j^ − k^ and 4i^ + 6j^ − λk^ are
√ 2 √ 2
parallel to each other then value of λ be :-
(3) 5 (î − j^) (4) 5 (î + j^)
(1) 0 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
6. If forces acting on a particle of mass m are such
that F→ 1 + F→ 2 + F→ 3 = 0 and force F→ 3 is removed,
12. If →a and →b are two unit vector inclined at an angle
60° to each other then :
then acceleration of particle will be :-
→3 →3 → → (1) |→a + →b| < 1 (2) |→a + →b| > 1
(1) F (2) −F (3) F 2 (4) −F 2
m m m m (3) |→a − →b| < 1 (4) |→a − →b| > 1
PHASE - QUICK PHYSICS REVISION (QPR)
QPRPHYSICS24
English 2
13. A bird moves from point (1, – 2) to (4, 2). If the 20. X2
If Q= and Δ X is absolute error in the
speed of the bird is 10 m/sec, then the velocity √ Y
vector of the bird is :- measurement of X, Δ Y is absolute error in the
measurement of Y, then absolute error Δ Q in Q
(1) 5 (î − 2j^) (2) 5 (4i^ + 2j^)
is :-
^ ^ ^ ^
(3) 0.6i + 0.8j (4) 6i + 8j 4XY Δ X + X 2 Δ Y (4XY ) Δ X + X 2 Δ Y
(1) (2)
14. The velocity V of waves produced in water 2Y 1/2 2Y 3/2
depends on their wavelength λ , the density of 1 1
(3) 2ΔX + ΔY (4) 2ΔX − ΔY
water ρ , and acceleration due to gravity g. The 2 2
square of wave velocity is proportional to :- 21. Density of ice is 0.9 g/ cc in the CGS system of
units. The corresponding value in MKS units is
(1) λ – 1g – 1 ρ – 1 (2) λ g
(1) 900 (2) 9
(3) λ ρ g (4) λ 2g – 2 ρ – 1
(3) 0.9 (4) 9000
15. The equation dV
= At – BV is describing the 22. Heat is evolved in a resistance on passing current
dt
rate of change of velocity of a body falling from up to definite time. Measurements for current,
rest in a resisting medium. The dimensions of A time and resistance suffer practical errors of
& B are :- magnitudes 1%, 2% and 2%, respectively. If H =
i2Rt, the maximum percentage error in the heat
(1) LT – 3, T (2) LT – 3, T – 1
evolved will be :-
(3) LT, T (4) LT, T – 1
(1) 10% (2) 5% (3) 8% (4) 6%
16. kgm2 kg
SI unit of x is , unit of y is and 23. The mass and volume of a body are 4.237 g and
s ms
y 2
2.5 cm3, respectively. The density of the material
z= , then unit of z is :-
x of the body in correct significant figure is :-
kg kgm4 kgs m4
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) 1.6048 g cm – 3 (2) 1.69 g cm – 3
m4 s s m4 kgs
17. If MaLbTc is the dimensional formula of (3) 1.7 g cm – 3 (4) 1.695 g cm – 3
momentum, the value of a + b – c is :- 24. If x = 3t2 – t3 + 4t is position of particle moving
(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 3 (4) 0 along x axis, then initial acceleration of particle
18. The force F is given in terms of time t and is (x is in 'm' and t in sec) :-
displacement x by the equation : (1) 12 (2) 6
(3) – 12 (4) – 6
F = a cos α x + b sin β t
25. A body is thrown vertically up with a velocity u.
where a and b are the amplitudes. The
It passes three points A, B and C in its upward
dimensions of β / α are :
journey with velocities u , u and u
(1) [M0L0T0] (2) [M0L0T – 1] 2 3 4
respectively. The ratio of the separations
(3) [M0L – 1T0] (4) [M0L1T – 1] between points A and B and between B and C,
19. Determine the dimensional formula of “k” in AB
i.e., is :-
10kx (where ‘x’ is distance). BC
(1) 1 (2) 2
(1) M0L0T0 (2) M0L1T0
10 20
(3) M0L – 1T0 (4) M – 1L0T – 1 (3) (4)
7 7
QPRPHYSICS24
3 English
26. Path of a particle is as shown in figure. It starts 30. A ball is projected horizontally from some
from A, then find coordinates of B such that height. After 3 s from projection, its velocity
direction of average velocity between A & B is becomes 1.25 times of the velocity of projection.
same as instantaneous velocity at B :- Its velocity of projection is:-
(1) 10 m/s (2) 20 m/s
(3) 30 m/s (4) 40 m/s
31. A horizontal force of 10 N is necessary to just
hold a block stationary against a wall. The
coefficient of friction between block and wall is
0.2. The weight of block is:-
(1) (4m, 4m) (2) (10m, 5m)
(3) (5m, 3m) (4) (1.5m, 2m)
27. −−
→
In which case displacement AB is least ?
(1) 20 N (2) 50 N (3) 100 N (4) 2 N
32. A hammer of mass 1 kg moving with a speed of
(1) (2) 6 m/s strikes a wall and comes to rest in 0.1 s.
Impulse of the force is :-
(1) – 6 N-s (2) 4 N-s
(3) – 3 N-s (4) – 2 N-s
(3) (4)
33. The masses of 10 kg and 20 kg respectively are
connected by a massless spring as shown in
28. For the v-t graph shown in figure total time of figure. A force of 200 N acts on the 20 kg mass.
journey is 10 s. If maximum velocity during the At the instant shown, the 10 kg mass has
motion is 3 m/s, the time for which motion is acceleration 12 m/s2. What is the acceleration of
uniform is :- 20 kg mass ?
(1) 12 m/sec2 (2) 4 m/sec2

(3) 10 m/sec2 (4) Zero
34. As shown in the figure, two equal masses each of
2 kg are suspended from a spring balance. The
(1) 2s (2) 4s (3) 6s (4) 8s
reading of the spring balance will be :-
29. A body is thrown vertically upwards with a
velocity of 100 m/s. It travels 5 m in the last
second of its motion. If the same body is thrown
vertically upwards with a velocity of 200 m/s,
the distance travelled by it in the last second of
its motion is:- (1) Zero (2) 2 kg
(1) 1 m (2) 3 m (3) 5 m (4) 7 m (3) 4 kg (4) Between zero and 2 kg

QPRPHYSICS24
English 4
35. Find normal contact force between 1 kg and 2 kg :- 40. The graph between applied force and frictional
force for a body of mass 50 kg placed on a
horizontal surface is as shown in figure.
(1) 20 N (2) 26 N (3) 14 N (4) 24 N Then, what will be the value of coefficient of
static and kinetic friction respectively ?
SECTION - B ( PHYSICS-01 )
36. A force F→ = 6i^ − 8j^ + 10k^ newton produces
acceleration 1 m/s2 in a body. The mass of the
body (in kg) is:-
^ ^ ^
(1) 6i − 8j + 10k (2) 100
(1) 0.4, 0.3 (2) 0.3, 0.2
(3) 10 2 √ (4) 10
(3) 0.4, 0.2 (4) 0.2, 0.3
37. A weight W is suspended from the ceiling and
the wall with the help of light strings. The 41. Someone is using a scissors to cut a wire of
tension in the horizontal string is measured to be circular cross section and negligible weight. The
60 N. The weight W is closest to
wire slides in the direction away from the hinge
until the angle between the scissors blades
becomes 2 α . The friction coefficient between
the blades and the wire, is :-
(1) 42.4 N (2) 60 N
(3) 62.5 N (4) None of these
38. A particle is acted upon by a force whose
component's variations with time are shown in
diagrams. Then the magnitude of change in (1) √ 1 − tan α (2) 2cos α
momentum of the particle in 0.1sec will be :-
(3) tan α (4) 2 tan α
42. A block is in the state of rest on an inclined
plane as shown. Find which direction best
describes the net force applied by inclined plane
on the block?
m m
(1) 2 kg (2) 10 kg
sec sec
m m (1) (Horizontally)
(3) 12 kg (4) 5√2 kg
sec sec
39. Select correct statement regarding pseudo force :- (2) (along inclined)
(1) It is electromagnetic in origin
(2) Newton's 3rd law is applicable for it (3) (normal to inclined)
(3) It is a fundamental force
(4) It is used to make Newton's law applicable (4) (vertically)
in non-inertial frame
QPRPHYSICS24
5 English
43. A block (M = 8 kg) is connected to an empty 47. A particle is moving in straight line and velocity
bucket (m = 1.00 kg) by a cord running over an versus time graph is shown in figure.
ideal pulley. The coefficients of static and
kinetic friction between the tabletop and the
block are 0.5 and 0.4 respectively. Sand is
gradually added to the bucket until the block just
begins to slide. Calculate the mass of sand added
to the bucket. [g = 10 m/s2]
Corresponding displacement-time graph is.
(1) (2)
(1) 5 kg (2) 6 kg (3) 7 kg (4) 8 kg

44. The pulleys and strings shown in the fig. are
(3) (4)
smooth and of negligible mass. For the system to
remain in equilibrium, the angle θ should be :
48. A boat takes 2 hours to go 8 km and come back
in still water lake. With water velocity of 4
km/hr,the time taken for going upstream of 8 km
and coming back is : –
(1) 1 hour & 60 minutes
(1) 0° (2) 30° (3) 45° (4) 60° (2) 2 hours & 40 minutes
45. A force F→ = î + 4j^ acts on block shown. The (3) 1 hour & 50 minutes
force of friction acting on the block is : (4) 2 hours & 30 minutes
49. A particle is projected from a horizontal
plane (x-z plane) such that its velocity vector at
time t is given by V→ = ai^ + (b − ct)j^ . Its range
(1) − î (2) −1.8 i^ (3) −2.4 i^ (4) −3 i^ on the horizontal plane is given by :-
46. A particle is projected from a tower as shown in ba 2ba
(1) (2)
figure, then the distance from the foot of the c c
tower where it will strike the ground will be : 3ba
(3) (4) None
(Take g = 10 m/s2) c
50. A particle moving in a straight line covers half
the distance with speed of 3 m/s. The other half
of the distance is covered in two equal time
intervals with speed of 4.5 m/s and 7.5 m/s
respectively. The average speed of the particle
during this motion is :-
(1) 4000/3 m (2) 5000/3 m (1) 4.0 m/s (2) 5.0 m/s
(3) 2000 m (4) 3000 m (3) 5.5 m/s (4) 4.8 m/s

QPRPHYSICS24
English 6
Topic : SYLLABUS-2
SECTION - A ( PHYSICS-02 ) 55. In a circus stuntman rides a motorbike in a

circular track of radius R in the vertical plane.
51. A 5 kg mass moves along x-axis. Its acceleration The minimum speed required at highest point of
as a function of its position is as shown in the track will be
figure. What is the total work done on the mass (1) √ 2gR (2) 2gR
by the force as the mass moves from x = 0 to x =
8 cm. (3) √ 3gR (4) √ gR
56. The coefficient of friction between the tyres and
road is 0.25. The maximum speed with which a
car can be driven round a curve of radius 40 m
without skidding is (assume g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 40 m/s – 1 (2) 20 m/s – 1
(1) 4 × 10 – 2 J (2) 8 × 10 – 2 J (3) 15 m/s – 1 (4) 10 m/s – 1
(3) 2 × 10 – 2 J (4) 0.8 × 10 – 2 J 57. Due to global warming, ice on polar caps is
likely to melt in larger quantitity. Due to this
52. Two particles A and B initially at rest move effect :-
towards each other under a mutual force of
attraction. At the instant when the speed of A is (1) Moment of inertia of earth shall decrease
v and the speed of B is 2v, the speed of centre of (2) Length of the day shall decrease
mass of the system is:- (3) Angular velocity of earth shall decrease
(1) Zero (2) v (3) 1.5 v (4) 3v (4) Angular momentum of earth shall decrease
53. Which one of the following is true in an inelastic 58. A solid sphere of diameter 0.1 m and mass 5kg is
collision ?
rolling down an inclined plane with a speed of 4
Kinetic Total m/s. The total kinetic energy of the sphere is :-
Momentum
energy Energy
(1) 28 J (2) 56 J
(1) Conserved Conserved Conserved
(3) 84 J (4) 112 J
Not
(2) Conserved Conserved 59. Three rings, each of mass P and radius Q are
Conserved
arranged as shown in the figure. The moment
Not Not of inertia of the arrangement about YY' axis
(3) Conserved
Conserved Conserved will be :-
Not Not
(4) Conserved
Conserved Conserved
54. If the equation for the angular displacement of a
particle moving on a circular path is given by ( θ )
= 2t3 + 0.5, where θ is in radians and t in
seconds, then the angular velocity of the particle
7 2
after 2 sec from its start is : (1) P Q2 (2) P Q2
2 7
(1) 8 rad/sec (2) 12 rad/sec 2 5
(3) P Q2 (4) P Q2
(3) 24 rad/sec (4) 36 rad/sec 5 2

QPRPHYSICS24
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60. When different regular bodies roll down along 63. The figure shows the variation of energy with
an inclined plane from rest, then acceleration the orbit radius of a body in circular
will be maximum for a body whose :- planetary motion. Find the correct statement
K2
about the curves A, B and C :-
(1) is least
R2
(2) mass is least
(3) surface area is maximum
(4) moment of inertia is maximum
61. A light rod has masses attached to each end as (1) A shows the kinetic energy, B the total
shown in the diagram below. At what distance x energy and C the potential energy of the
from mass m1 will the rod be balanced in system.
equilibrium?
(2) C shows the total energy, B the kinetic
energy and A the potential energy of the
system.
(3) C and A are kinetic and potential energies
respectively and B is the total energy of the
(1) L system
2
m1 L (4) A and B are kinetic and potential energies
(2) and C is the total energy of the system.
m1 + m2
(3) m2 L 64. A planet of mass m is in an elliptical orbit about

m1 + m2 the sun (m << Msun) with an orbital period T. If
L(m1 + m2 ) A be the area of orbit, then its angular
(4) momentum would be :-
2 (m1 + m2 )
62. A mass ‘m’ is supported by a massless string (1) 2mA (2) mAT
wound around a uniform hollow cylinder of T
mass m and radius R. If the string does not slip (3) mA (4) 2mAT
on the cylinder, with what acceleration will the 2T
mass fall on release? 65. Two particles of equal mass 'm' go around a
circle of radius R under the action of their
mutual gravitational attraction. The speed of
each particle with respect to their centre of mass
is:-
(1) √
Gm (2) √
Gm (3) √
Gm (4) √
Gm
R 4R 3R 2R
66. The height at which the acceleration due to
g
5g
(2) g gravity becomes (where g = the acceleration
(1) 9
6 due to gravity on the surface of the earth) in
2g g terms of R, the radius of the earth, is :-
(3) (4)
3 2
R R
(1) (2) √ 2R (3) 2R (4)
2 √ 2
QPRPHYSICS24
English 8
67. There are two bodies of masses 100 kg and 72. If S is stress and Y is Young's modulus of
10000 kg separated by a distance 1m. At what material of a wire, the energy stored in the wire
distance from the smaller body, the intensity of per unit volume is :-
gravitational field will be zero:- S2 2Y S
(1) 2S2Y (2) (3) (4)
1 1 2Y S2 2Y
(1) m (2) m
9 10 73. A cube of side 40 cm has its upper face
1 10 displaced by 0.1 mm by a tangential force of 8
(3) m (4) m
11 11 kN. The shearing modulus of cube is :-
68. The figure shows elliptical orbit of a planet m
(1) 2 × 109 N-m – 2 (2) 4 × 109 N-m – 2
about the sun S. The shaded area SCD is twice
the shaded area SAB. If t1 be the time for the (3) 2 × 108 N-m – 2 (4) 4 × 108 N-m – 2
planet to move from C to D and t2 is the time to 74. The stress versus strain graphs for wire of two
move from A to B, then : materials A and B are as shown in the figure. If
YA and YB are the Young's modulii of the
materials, then :-
(1) t1 = t2 (2) t1 = 8t2

(3) t1 = 4t2 (4) t1 = 2t2
69. The ratio of the radius of a planet 'A' to that of (1) YB = 2YA (2) YA = YB
planet 'B' is 'r'. The ratio of acceleration due to
(3) YB = 3YA (4) YA = 3YB
gravity on the planets is 'x'. The ratio of the
escape velocities from the two planets is : 75. Two soap bubbles of radii r1 and r2 equal to 4 cm
and 5 cm are touching each other over a common
(1) xr (2) r (3) rx (4) x
√
x
√ √
r
surface S1S2 (shown in figure). Its radius will be
70. The orbital velocity of an artificial satellite in a
circular orbit very close to earth is V. The
velocity of a satellite orbiting in circular orbit at
an altitude of 3R from earth's surface will be :-
(1) 4 cm (2) 20 cm
V V V V
(1) (2) (3) (4) (3) 5 cm (4) 4.5 cm
√ 7 √ 6 2 √ 2
71. The mass of the moon is about 1.2% of the mass 76. In the figure, the velocity V3 will be :-
of the earth. Compared to the gravitation force
the earth exerts on the moon, the gravitation
force the moon exerts on earth :-
(1) Is the same
(2) Is smaller
(1) zero (2) 4 ms – 1
(3) Is greater
(3) 1 ms – 1 (4) 2 ms – 1
(4) Varies with its phase
QPRPHYSICS24
9 English
77. A position dependent force F = 7 – 2x + 3x2 81. A solid sphere and solid cylinder of same radii
newton acts on a small body of mass 2 kg and and same mass approach an incline with the
displaces it from x = 0 to x = 5m. The work done same linear velocity (see figure). Both roll
in joules is: without slipping all throughout. The two climb
maximum heights hsph (solid sphere) and
(1) 70 (2) 270 (3) 35 (4) 135 hcyl (solid cylinder) on the incline. The ratio
78. In the figure, a block slides along a track from hsph
one level to a higher level, by moving through an is given by :-
hcyl
intermediate valley. The track is frictionless until
the block reaches the higher level. On a higher
level frictional force stops the block in a distance
d. The block's initial speed v0 is 8 m/s, the height
difference h is 2 m and the coefficient of kinetic
friction µ is 0.3. The value of d is :- (g = 10 m/s2) (1) 14
(2) 4
15 5
2
(3) 1 (4)
√ 5
82. The time period of a satellite of earth is 5 hours.
If the separation between the centre of earth and
(1) 4 m (2) 3 m (3) 5 m (4) 8 m the satellite is increased to 4 times the previous
79. Figure shows disc of radius R from which a disc value, the new time period will become-
of radius R/2 has been removed find the position (1) 10 h (2) 80 h
of centre of mass of the object :-
(3) 40 h (4) 20 h
83. The ratio of the lengths of two wires A and B
of same material is 1 : 2 and the ratio of their
diameter is 2 : 1. They are stretched by the
same force, then the ratio of increase in length
(1) R (2) R (3) 7R (4) 7R will be :-
− −
6 6 6 6
80. A simple pendulum is oscillating without (1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 4 (3) 1 : 8 (4) 8 : 1
damping. When the displacement of the bob is 84. A body floats in a liquid contained in a beaker.
less than maximum, its acceleration vector →a is The whole system as shown falls freely under
correctly shown in :-
gravity. The upthrust on the body due to liquid
is :-
(1) (2)
(1) Zero
(2) Equal to the weight of the liquid displaced
(3) Equal to the weight of the body in air
(3) (4)
(4) Equal to the weight of the immersed
portion of the body
QPRPHYSICS24
English 10
85. A siphon in use is demonstrated in the following 89. Four square plates of side "a" each of mass 40gm,
figure. The density of the liquid flowing in 20gm, 10gm and 20gm are arranged in X Y plane as
siphon is 1.5 gm/cc. The pressure difference shown in figure. The coordinates of centre of mass
between the point P and S will be :- of the combination with respect to origin are :-
(1) 19a/18, 17a/18 (2) 17a/18, 11a/18

(3) 17a/18, 13a/18 (4) 13a/18, 17a/18
(1) 105 N/m (2) 2 × 105 N/m 90. If the system is released, then the acceleration of
the centre of mass of the system is :-
(3) zero (4) Infinity
SECTION - B ( PHYSICS-02 )
86. Body A of mass 2 kg collides with the another
body B at rest initially. The collision is perfectly
(1) g/4 (2) g/2 (3) g (4) 2g
elastic. After collision body A continues to move
in its original direction with the speed one-fourth 91. In an arrangement of four particles, each of mass 2
of its original speed. Calculate the mass of body gram are situated at the coordinate points (3, 2, 0),
B :- (1, – 1, 0), (0, 0, 0) and ( – 1, 1, 0) (in cm). The
(1) 2 kg (2) 1.6 kg moment of inertia (in gm cm2) of this arrangement
about the Z-axis will be:-
(3) 1.2 kg (4) 0.8 kg
(1) 8 (2) 16 (3) 43 (4) 34
87. A particle of mass 100 g is thrown vertically
upwards with a speed of 5 m/s. The work done 92. A rod of length L is hinged at one end. It is brought
by the force of gravity during the time the to a horizontal position and released. Then angular
particle goes up is velocity of the rod when it is in vertical position :-
3g 2g g g
(1) – 1.25 J (2) 1.25 J (1) √ (2) √ (3) √ (4) √
L L 2L L
(3) 0.5 J (4) – 0.5 J 93. A light rod of length 2m suspended from the
88. The potential energy of a body is given by : ceiling horizontally by two vertical wires of equal
length. A weight W is hung from the light rod as
U = 40 + 6x2 – 7xy + 8y2 + 32z shown in figure. one of the wires is a steel wire of
where U is in joule and x, y, z in metre. Deduce cross-sectional area A1 = 0.1 cm2 and other is a
the x, y and z components of the force (in newton) brass wire of cross-sectional area A2 = 0.2 cm2.
on the body. When it is at position ( – 2, 0, +5) To have equal stress in both wires, T1/T2 =
(1) Fx = – 32; Fy = – 14; Fz = 24

(2) Fx = – 14; Fy = – 32; Fz = 24
(3) Fx = 24; Fy = – 32; Fz = – 14
(4) Fx = 24; Fy = – 14; Fz = – 32
(1) 1/3 (2) 1/4 (3) 4/3 (4) 1/2
QPRPHYSICS24
11 English
94. The area of cross-section of the two vertical 97. The potential energy of a 1 kg particle free to
arms of a hydraulic press are 1 cm2 and 10 cm2 move along the x-axis is given by :-
respectively. A force of 10 N applied, as shown x4 x2
U(x) = ( − ) J
in the figure, to a light piston in the thinner arm 4 2
balances a force F applied to the corresponding The total mechanical energy of the particle is 2 J.
piston in the thicker arm. Assuming that the Then the maximum speed (in m/s) is :-
levels of water in both the arms are the same, we 1 3
can conclude :- (1) √ 2 (2) (3) 2 (4)
√ 2 √ 2
98. A motorcyclist is going on an overbridge of
radius r maintaining a constant speed v. As the
motorcyclist goes up on the overbridge, the
normal force :-
(1) F = 100 N
(2) F = 50 N
(3) F = 25 N
(1) Increases (NB > NA)
(4) F, as applied, cannot balance the effect of
the force on the first piston (2) Decreases (NB < NA)
95. A body of mass 3.0 kg moves under the (3) Remains same (NB = NA)
influence of some external force such that its (4) Nothing can be said
position S as a function of time t is given by
99. Eight equal drops of water each of radius r = 2
S = 6t3 – t2 + 1 where S is in metres and t is in mm are falling through air with a terminal
seconds. The work done (in joule) by the force in velocity of 16 cm/s. The eight drops combine to
first three seconds is :- form a big drop. The terminal velocity of the
(1) 18 J bigger drop will be :
(2) 1800 J (1) 16 cm/s (2) 32 cm/s
(3) 3660 J (3) 64 cm/s (4) 30 cm/s
(4) 36504 J 100. Figure shows two holes in a tank containing
96. A ball strikes a fixed smooth, horizontal planeat liquid. The liquid coming out of holes strike
ground at same point. The height of liquid in
an angle θ with the vertical. If the coefficient of tank is :-
restitution is e, the angle (from vertical) at which
the rebounce will take place :
e
(1) tan−1 ( )
tan θ
tan θ
(2) tan−1 ( )
e
(3) tan – 1 (e) (1) 980 cm (2) 9.8 cm
(4) e tan θ (3) 8 cm (4) 10 cm
QPRPHYSICS24
English 12
Topic : SYLLABUS-3
SECTION - A ( PHYSICS-03 ) 105. 10 gm of ice at – 20°C is mixed with 10 gm of

water at 50°C, then the temperature of mixture
101. A change in state of a gas from A to B is as is:-
shown in figure. The work done in the process is (1) – 20°C (2) 15°C
:-
(3) 0°C (4) 50°C
106. 4 moles of an ideal gas having γ = 1.67 are
mixed with 2 moles of another ideal gas having
γ = 1.4. Find the equivalent value of γ for the
mixture :-
(1) 1.5 (2) 1.52 (3) 1.54 (4) 1.53
(1) 6 × 103 J (2) 7 × 103 erg
107. Two substances A and B of equal mass m are
(3) 7 × 103 J (4) 12 × 103 J heated at uniform rate of 6 cal s-1 under similar
102. The density of water at 20°C is 0.998 gm/cm3 conditions. A graph between temperature and
and at 40°C is 0.992 gm/cm3. The mean time for both is shown in figure. Ratio of heat
coefficient of cubical expansion (in per °C) of HA
absorbed ( ) by them for only fusion is :-
water is :- HB
(1) 1 × 10 – 4
(2) 2 × 10 – 4
(3) 3 × 10 – 4
(4) 6 × 10 – 4
103. A wall has two layer A and B each made of
different material and both the layers have the 9 4 8 5
same thickness. The thermal conductivity of the (1) (2) (3) (4)
4 9 5 8
material A is twice that of B. In steady state, the 108. 1 mole of a monoatomic gas undergoes the
temperature difference across the wall B is 36°C. process PT = constant. Then the molar heat
The temperature difference across the wall A is : capacity of the gas during the process will be
(1) 6°C (2) 12°C equal to :-
(3) 18°C (4) 24°C (1) 4R (2) 2.5 R (3) 3.5 R (4) 8 R/3
104. On heating a liquid of coefficient of cubical 109. If a metallic sphere gets cooled from 62°C to
expansion γ in a container having coefficient of 50°C in 10 minutes and in the next 10 minutes
linear expansion γ /3, the level of liquid in the gets cooled to 42°C, then the temperature of the
container will :- surroundings is :
(1) fall (1) 30°C (2) 36°C (3) 26°C (4) 20°C
(2) rise 110. A perfect black body is first kept at 327°C and
there after at 927°C. The ratio of radiant energy
(3) remain unchanged emitted by the black body is :-
(4) It is difficult to say (1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 4 (3) 1 : 8 (4) 1 : 16

QPRPHYSICS24
13 English
111. A gas is filled in the cylinder shown in the 115. During an experiment an ideal gas obeys an
figure. The two pistons are joined by a string. If additional equation of state P2V = constant. The
the gas is heated, the pistons will :- initial temperature and pressure of gas are T and
V respectively. When it expands to volume 2V,
then its temperature will be:
(1) T (2) √ 2T
(1) Move towards left (3) 2T (4) 2 √2 T
(2) Move towards right 116. A gas is filled in a cylinder. Its temperature is
(3) Remain stationary increased by 20% on kelvin scale and volume is
reduced by 10%. How much percentage of the
(4) None of these
gas will leak out at constant pressure?
112. When a system is taken from state i to state f
(1) 30% (2) 40% (3) 15% (4) 25%
along the path iaf, it is found that Q = 50 cal
and W = 20 cal. Along the path ibf Q = 36 cal. 117. The mixture of two non-reacting gases A and B
work done along the path ibf is- is in a container at a constant temperature. Gas A
is diatomic and B is monoatomic. The ratio of
molecular masses of A and B is 4, their ratio of
the rms speeds is :-
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
(1) 6 cal (2) 16 cal (3) 66 cal (4) 14 cal
(3) 1 : 2 √ (4) 2 : 1
√
113. A gas expands adiabatically at constant pressure

1 118. A normal diet furnishes 200 kcal to a 60 kg
such that its temperature T ∝ , the value person in a day. If this energy was used to heat
√
V
of CP/CV of gas is :- the person with no losses to the surroundings,
how much would the person's temperature
(1) 1.30 (2) 1.50 (3) 1.67 (4) 2.00 increase? (The specific heat of the human body
114. An ideal gas expands isothermally along ab and is 0.83 calg – 1°C – 1)
does 600 J of work. During the process :- (1) 8.2°C (2) 4.01°C
(3) 6.0°C (4) 5.03°C
119. Cooking is difficult on hills because :-
(1) atmospheric pressure is higher
(1) The heat rejected by the gas to the (2) atmospheric pressure is lower
surroundings is 600 J (3) boiling point of water is reduced
(2) The heat absorbed by the gas from the (4) Both (2) and (3)
surroundings is 600 J 120. The phase difference between the instantaneous
(3) No heat exchange between gas and its velocity and acceleration of a particle executing
surroundings takes place simple harmonic motion is :-
(4) The heat absorbed by the gas is less than (1) 0.5 π (2) π
600 J
(3) 0.707 π (4) Zero
QPRPHYSICS24
English 14
121. The equation of motion of a particle executing 127. Velocity of sound waves in air is 330 m/sec. For
2 a particular sound in air, a path difference of 40
d x
SHM is 16 2 + 25 x = 0. The time period of
dt cm is equivalent to a phase difference of 1.6 π .
the particle will be :- The frequency of this wave is :-
5 8π (1) 165 Hz (2) 150 Hz
(1) πs (2) s
4 5
25 5 (3) 660 Hz (4) 330 Hz
(3) s (4) s
16 4 128. For a wave y = y0sin ( ω t – kx), for what value
122. A particle moves on the x-axis according to the of λ is the maximum particle velocity equal to
equation x = A + Bsin ω t. The motion is simple two times the wave velocity?
harmonic with amplitude :-
(1) π y0 (2) 2 π y0
(1) A
(3) π y0/2 (4) 4 π y0
(2) B
129. A cylindrical tube open at both ends has a
(3) A + B fundamental frequency 400 Hz in air. The tube is
(4) √
A2 + B 2 dipped vertically in water so that half of it is in
water. The fundamental frequency of air-column
123. If the displacement (x) and velocity (v) of a
is now :-
particle executing simple harmonic motion are
related through the expression 4v2 = 25 – x2, (1) 200 Hz (2) 400 Hz (3) 800 Hz (4) 300 Hz
then its time period is :- 130. Two loudspeakers, as shown in fig. below
(1) π (2) 2 π (3) 4 π (4) 6 π separated by a distance 3 m, are in phase.
Assume that the amplitudes of the sound from the
124. Find the number of possible natural oscillations of speakers is approximately same at the position of
air column in a pipe closed at one end of length 85 a listener, who is at a distance 4.0 m in front of
cm whose frequencies lie below 1250 Hz. (velocity one of the speakers. For what frequency does the
of sound = 340 ms – 1) listener hear minimum signal ? Given that the
(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 7 (4) 6 speed of sound in air is 330 ms – 1.
125. Two tuning forks A and B have frequency 256 Hz
and 262 Hz respectively. Tuning fork A produces
some beats per second with an unknown tuning
fork. Same unknown tuning fork produces double
beats per second with tuning fork B, then the
frequency of unknown tuning fork is :- (1) 165 Hz (2) 300 Hz
(1) 262 (2) 260 (3) 400 Hz (4) 600 Hz
(3) 250 (4) 300 131. A string of linear mass density 4 g/cm is
vibrating according to equation :-
126. The ratio of the speed of sound in nitrogen gas to 2π
that in helium gas at 300 K is : y = A sin(120 π t) cos( x)
5
2 1 where x is in centimeters.
(1) √ (2) √
7 7 Find the tension in the string.

(3) √3 (4) √ 6 (1) 3.6 N (2) 36 N
5 5
(3) 7.2 N (4) 72 N
QPRPHYSICS24
15 English
132. In the figure the intensity of waves arriving at D SECTION - B ( PHYSICS-03 )

from two coherent sources S1 and S2 is I0. The
wavelength of the wave is λ = 4 m. Resultant 136. The average translational kinetic energy of 10 gram
H2 at 27 ° C is -
intensity at D will be :-
(1) 37250 J
(2) 18750 J
(3) 12450
(4) 3737 J
(1) 4I0 (2) I0 137. One mole of monoatomic gas is brought from
(3) 2I0 (4) zero state A to state B such that temperature at A is
133. The diagram below shows an instantaneous T0. Find the heat absorbed along the path ACB
position of a string as a transverse progressive
wave travels along it form left to right. Which
one of the following options correctly shows the
direction of the velocity of the points A, B and C
on the string?
11
A B C (1) RT0
2
(1) ↑ ↓ ↑ 9
(2) ↓ ↑ ↓ (2) RT0
2
(3) → → → (3) 7
RT0
(4) → ← → 2
5
134. An organ pipe closed at one end has fundamental (4) RT0
2
frequency of 1500 Hz. The maximum number of
138. Figure shows a copper rod joined to a steel rod.
overtones generated by this pipe which a normal
person can hear is : The rods have equal length and equal cross-
(1) 14 (2) 13 sectional area. The free end of the copper rod is
(3) 6 (4) 9 kept at 0°C and that of the steel rod is kept at
135. A man standing on a cliff claps his hand and 100°C. Find the temperature at the junction of
hears its echo after one second. If the sound is the rods. (Conductivity of copper = 390 W/m-°C
reflected from another mountain, then the and that of steel = 46 W/m-°C.)
distance between the man & reflection point is
(Vsound = 340 m/sec) :-
(1) 680 m (1) 5.3°C
(2) 340 m (2) 10.6°C
(3) 170 m (3) 20.1°C
(4) 85 m (4) 15°C
QPRPHYSICS24
English 16
139. In the figure, the distribution of energy density 142. Two different masses m and 3m of an ideal gas
of the radiation emitted by a black body at a are heated separately in two vessels of same
given temperature is shown. The possible volume. The graph between the pressure (P) and
temperature of the black body is : absolute temperature (T) for these two cases are
shown in the figure as A and B. The ratio of
slopes of curve B to A is :-
(1) 1500 K (1) 3 : 1 (2) 1 : 3 (3) 9 : 1 (4) 1 : 9

(2) 2000 K 143. Assertion :- A beaker is completely filled with
(3) 2500 K water at 4°C. It will overflow, both when heated
or cooled.
(4) 3000 K Reason :- There is expansion of water below as
well as above 4°C.
140. A thermodynamic process of one mole ideal
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason
monoatomic gas is shown in figure. The is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
efficiency of cyclic process ABCA will be :- (2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
144. A man weighing 60 kg stands on the horizontal
(1) 25% (2) 12.5% platform of a spring balance. The platform starts
100
executing simple harmonic motion of
(3) 50% (4) %
13 amplitude 0.1 m and frequency 2 Hz. Which of
π
141. 2 moles of an ideal monoatomic gas is expanded the following statements is correct?
according to relation "PT = constant" from its
initial state (P0V0) to the final state, due to which
its pressure becomes half of the initial pressure.
The change in internal energy is :-
(1) The spring balance reads the weight of man

as 60 kg
(2) The spring balance reading fluctuates
between 60 kg and 70 kg
3
(1)P0V0 (2) 3 P0V0 between 50 kg and 60 kg
4 2
(3) 9 P0V0 (4) 5 P0V0 between 50 kg and 70 kg
2 2
QPRPHYSICS24
17 English
145. When the kinetic energy of a body executing 148. A body is executing Simple Harmonic Motion.
S.H.M. is 1/3 of the potential energy. If the At a displacement x, its potential energy is E1
displacement of the body is x percent of the
amplitude, then x is :- and at a displacement y, its potential energy is
E2.The potential energy E at displacement (x +
(1) 33
y) is such that :-
(2) 87
(3) 67 (1) E = √
E1 − √ E2
(4) 50 (2) √
E = √ E1 + √ E2
146. The springs in fig. A and B are similar but length
(3) E = E1 − E2
in A is three times each of that in B. The ratio of
time period TA/TB is :- (4) E = E1+ E2
149. 25 tunning forks are arranged in series in the
order of decreasing frequency. Any two
successive forks produce 3 beats/sec. If the
frequency of the first tunning fork is the double
of the last fork, then the frequency of the 21st
fork is :-
(1) 72 Hz
(2) 288 Hz
(1) √ 3
(3) 84 Hz
(2) 1/3
(3) 3 (4) 87 Hz
(4) 1/√3 150. A closed organ pipe of length L and an open
147. A particle of mass m is located in a one organ pipe contain gases of densities ρ 1 and ρ 2
dimensional potential field where potential respectively. The compressibility of gases are
energy is given by : U(x) = A(1 – cos px), where equal in both the pipes. Both the pipes are
A and p are constants. The period of small
vibrating in their first overtone with same
oscillations of the particle is :-
frequency. The length of the open organ pipe is :
m
(1) 2 π √
L
(Ap) (1)
m 3
(2) 2 π √
4L
(Ap2 ) (2)
3
m
(3) 2 π √ 4L ρ 1
A (3) √
3 ρ2
(4) 1 √ Ap
4L ρ 2
2π m (4) √
3 ρ1

QPRPHYSICS24
English 18
Topic : SYLLABUS-4
SECTION - A ( PHYSICS-04 ) 154. A charged particle is kept in equilibrium in an

electric field between the plates in the millikan
151. Four charges are placed at the circumference of oil drop experiment. If the direction of the
the dial of a clock as shown in figure. If the electric field between the plates is reversed, then
clock has only hour hand, then the resultant the acceleration of the charged particle will be
force on a positive charge q0 placed at the (1) g (2) 2g (3) g/2 (4) g/4
centre, points in the direction which shows the
155. The radius of hollow metallic sphere is r. If the
time as : –
potential difference between its surface and a
point at a distance 3r from its centre is V, then
the electric field intensity at a distance of 3r from
its centre is:-
(1) V (2) V (3) V (4) V
2r 3r 4r 6r
(1) 1:30 (2) 7:30 156. At any point (x, 0, 0) the electric potential V is
1000 1500 500
(3) 4:30 (4) 10:30 ( + + ) volt, then electric field
x x2 x3
152. Figure shows parallel equipotential surfaces and at x = 1 m :-
four paths along which an electron is made to (1) 5500 (
^ ^
j + k)V/m (2) 5500î V/m
move from one surface to another as
shown. Rank the paths according to work done, 5500 ^ ^ 5500 ^ ^
(3) (j + k) V/m (4) (i + k) V/m
greatest first. √2 √2
157. Two small identical conducting spheres having

charges +10µC and – 90µC attract each other
with a force of F newton. If they are kept in
contact and then separated by the same distance,
the new force between them is:-
(1) F/6 (2) 16F (3) 16F/9 (4) F/360
(1) 4 > 3 > 2 > 1 (2) 1 > 2 > 3 > 4
158. Consider the following statements about electric
(3) 3 = 4 > 2 = 1 (4) 2 = 1 > 3 = 4 dipole and select the correct ones :-
153. Two concentric uniformly charged spherical S1 : Electric dipole moment vector →p is directed
shell of radius 10 cm & 20 cm are arranged as from the negative charge to positive charge.
shown in the figure. Potential difference between S2 : The electric field of a dipole at a point with
them is : position vector →r depends on |→r | as well as angle
between →r and →p.
1
S3 : The electric dipole potential falls-off as
r2
and not as 1 .
r
S4 : In a uniform electric field the electric dipole
experiences no net forces but a torque →τ = →p × E→ .
(1) 4.5 × 1011 V (2) 2.7 × 1011 V (1) S2, S3 and S4 (2) S3 and S4
(3) 0 (4) none of these (3) S2 and S3 (4) S1, S2, S3 and S4
QPRPHYSICS24
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159. 1000 small water drops each of the radius r and 162. The figure shows a charge q placed inside a
charge q coalesce together to form one spherical cavity in an uncharged conductor. Now if an
drop. The potential of the bigger drop is larger external electric field is switched on
than that of the smaller ones by a factor :-
(1) 1000
(2) 100
(3) 10
(4) 500 (1) only induced charge on outer surface will
160. q1, q2, q3 and q4 are point charges located at redistribute
points as shown in the figure and S is a spherical (2) only induced charge on inner surface will
Gaussian surface of radius R. Which of the redistribute
following is true according to the Gauss’s law (3) both induced charge on outer and inner
surface will redistribute
(4) force on charge q placed inside the cavity
will change
163. e2
Dimensional formula of is (e → charge of
π ε0
electron) :-
(1) [ML2 T −2 ]
→ → → → q1 + q2 + q3
(1) ∮ (E 1 + E 2 + E 3 ). dA =
s 2ε0
(2) [ML3 T −2 ]
(2) ∮
→ +E
(E → +E
→ +E → = (q1 + q2 + q3 )
→ ). dA (3) [ML3 T −1 ]
1 2 3 4
s ε0
(4) [ML−3 T −3 ]
→1 + E
→2 + E
→ 3 ). dA
→ = (q1 + q2 + q3 + q4 )
(3) ∮ (E
s ε0 164. The spatial distribution of the electric field lines
(4) None of the above due to charges (A, B) is shown in figure. Which
one of the following statements is correct ?
161. The relative permititivity of the dielectric slab
is :-
(1) A is +ve and B is – ve and |A| > |B|
(2) A is – ve and B is +ve ; |A| = |B|

5
(1) 5/3 (2) × ε0 (3) Both are +ve but A > B
3
5+3 (4) Both are – ve but |A| > |B|
(3) (4) 5/2
5−3
QPRPHYSICS24
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165. A point charged particle having mass 25 g and 169. If the reading of ideal ammeter A in circuit
charge 1mC is suspended by insulating string as shown here is zero, then the ratio E1
of the
shown. In this region uniform horizontal electric E2
field E exists. In equilibrium the string makes θ emf's of the two batteries must be
= 45° to the vertical. E equals to –
R1
(1) 1 (2)
R2
N N R2
(1) 2.5 × 104 (2) 2.5 × 103 (3) (4) None of these
C C R1
(3) 2.5 × 102

N (4) 2.5 × 105
N 170. In the circuit shown in figure reading of
C C voltmeter is V1 when only K1 is closed, reading
166. The resistance of a moving coil galvanometer is
of voltmeter is V2 when only K2 is closed and
20 Ω . It requires 0.01A current for full scale reading of voltmeter is V3 when both K1 and K2
deflection. Calculate the value of resistance required are closed. Then :-
to convert it into a voltmeter of range 20 volt :-
(1) 1980 Ω (2) 2000 Ω
(3) 1880 Ω (4) 1500 Ω
167. A battery of internal resistance 4 ohm is
connected to the network of resistance as shown.
In the order that the maximum power can be
delivered to the network, the value of R in ohm (1) V3 > V2 > V1 (2) V2 > V1 > V3
should be : –
(3) V3 > V1 > V2 (4) V1 > V2 > V3
171. A Wheatstone's bridge is balanced with a
resistance of 625 Ω in the third arm, where P, Q
and S are in the 1st, 2nd and 4th arm respectively.
(1) 4/9 (2) 2 (3) 8/3 (4) 18 If P and Q are interchanged, the resistance in the
168. Three copper wires are there with lengths and third arm has to be increased by 51 Ω to secure
A balance. The unknown resistance in the fourth
cross-sectional areas as ( ℓ , A); ( 2ℓ, ) and
2 arm is :-
ℓ
( , 2A). Resistance will be :-
2
(1) minimum for the wire of cross-sectional area A/2
(2) minimum for the wire of cross-sectional area A
(3) minimum for the wire of cross-sectional area 2A (1) 625 Ω (2) 650 Ω
(4) same for all the three cases. (3) 676 Ω (4) 600 Ω
QPRPHYSICS24
21 English
172. The bulbs A, B and C are connected as shown in 176. A galvanometer of 10 ohm resistance gives full
figure. The bulbs B and C are identical. If the scale deflection with 0.01 ampere of current. It is
bulb C is fused, to be converted into an ammeter for
measuring 10 ampere current. The value of shunt
resistance required will be :
10 (2) 0.1 ohm
(1) ohm
999
(1) both A and B will glow more brightly (3) 0.5 ohm (4) 1.0 ohm
(2) both A and B will glow less brightly 177. The potential difference between the points A
and B in the following circuit will be :-
(3) A will glow less brightly and B will glow
more brightly
(4) A will glow more brightly and B will glow
less brightly.
173. In the given figure the ratio of current in 8 Ω and
3 Ω will be :- (1) zero (2) 2V (3) 3.5V (4) 4.5V
178. In the circuit shown the readings of ammeter and
voltmeter are 4A and 20V respectively. The
meters are non ideal, then R is :-
8 3 4 3
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 8 3 4 (1) 5 Ω
174. An infinite ladder network of resistance is
(2) less than 5 Ω
constructed with 1 Ω and 2 Ω resistance. The 6V
battery between A and B has negligible internal (3) greater than 5 Ω
resistance. The current that passes through 2 Ω (4) between 4 Ω & 5 Ω
resistance nearest to the battery is :-
179. What is the equivalent resistance between the
points A and B of the network :-
(1) 1 A (2) 1.5 A

(3) 2 A (4) 2.5 A
175. In hydrogen atom, the electron makes 6.6 × 1015
revolutions per second around the nucleus in an
orbit of radius 0.5 ×10 – 10m. It is equivalent to a
current nearly :-
(1) 1 A (2) 1 mA
57 57
(1) Ω (2) 8 Ω (3) 6 Ω (4) Ω
(3) 1 μ A (4) 1.6 × 10 – 19A 7 5

QPRPHYSICS24
English 22
180. A 100 μ F capacitor is charged to 200 volt. It is 185. Two capacitors C1 and C2 are charged to 120V
discharged through a 2 ohm resistance. The and 200V respectively. It is found that by
amount of heat generated will be :- connecting them together the potential on each
one can be made zero. Then :
(1) 2 Joule (2) 4 Joule
(1) 5C1 = 3C2
(3) 0.2 Joule (4) 0.4 Joule
(2) 3C1 = 5C2
181. A capacitor stores 60 μ C charge when connected
across a battery. When the gap between the (3) 3C1 + 5C2 = 0
plates is filled with a dielectric, a charge of (4) 9C1 = 4C2
120 μ C flows through the battery. The dielectric
constant of the material inserted is : SECTION - B ( PHYSICS-04 )
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) None 186. A charge Q is distributed uniformly within the
182. A number of capacitors each of capacitance 1µF material of hollow sphere of inner and outer radii
and each one of which get punctured if a r1 and r2 (See figure) the electric field at distance
potential difference just exceeding 500 volt is x from centre for r1< x < r2 will be :-
applied, are provided. Then an arrangement
suitable for giving a capacitance of 2µF across
which 3000 volt may be applied requires at least
:-
(1) 18 component capacitors
(2) 36 component capacitors Q(x3 − r31 )
(1)
4 π ∈ 0 x2 r32
(3) 72 component capacitors
Q(x3 − r31 )
(4) 144 component capacitors (2)
4 π ∈ 0 x2 (r32 − r31 )
183. Three capacitors are connected as shown in fig.
Qx
Then the charge on capacitor C1 is :- (3)
4 π ∈ 0 (r32 − r31 )
Q (x3 − r21 )
(4)
4 π ∈ 0 r21 (r22 − r21 )
187. Electric field in a region is found to be E→ = 3yj^.
The total energy stored in electric field inside the
(1) 6 μ C (2) 12 μ C (3) 18 μ C (4) 24 μ C
cube shown will be :
184. The Charge on 2µF capacitor during steady
state is :-
(1) 9a5 ∈ 0 (2) 3 ∈ 0 a5

(1) 18 µC (2) 21.6 µC
3
(3) 10 µC (4) 11.8 µC (3) ∈ 0 a5 (4) 0
2
QPRPHYSICS24
23 English
188. A water molecule as shown is in a region of 191. Two very large thin conducting plates having
→ = 1000 î same cross-sectional area are placed as shown in
uniform electric field E V/m. This
figure they are carrying charges ‘Q’ and ‘3Q’
molecule experiences : respectively. The variation of electric field as a
function at x (for x = 0 to x = 3d) will be best
represented by:
(1) A counterclockwise torque

(2) A clockwise torque
(3) A net force to the right
(4) A net force to the left
189. A uniform electric field of 400 V/m is directed at (1)
45° with x-axis as shown in figure. The potential
difference VA – VB is given by :-
(2)
(1) 0 (2) 4 V
(3) 6.4 V (4) 2.8 V
190. Four point charges, all of the same (3)
magnitude, are placed at the four corners of a
square. At the centre of the square, the
potential is V and the field is E. By suitable
choices of the signs of the four charges,
which of the following can be obtained :
(a) V = 0, E = 0 (b) V = 0, E ≠ 0
(c) V ≠ 0, E = 0 (d) V ≠ 0, E ≠ 0
(4)
(1) only a, b
(2) only b, c, d
(3) only a, b, c
(4) All of these
QPRPHYSICS24
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192. In a metre bridge, the gaps are closed by resistances 197. The diagram shows two capacitors with
P and Q, P being less than Q. A balance is obtained capacitance and breakdown voltages as mentioned.
when the jockey makes contact at a point of bridge What should be the maximum voltage of the source
wire 40 cm from one end. On shunting the coil Q such that no capacitor undergoes breaks down ?
with a resistance of 50 Ω , the balance point is
moved through 10 cm. The resistance P and Q are:-
(1) 28 Ω , 16.67 Ω (2) 16.67 Ω , 25 Ω
(3) 10 Ω , 25 Ω (4) 8 Ω , 12 Ω
(1) 2.5 kV (2) 10/3 kV
193. A potential difference of 200 V is applied to a
coil at a temperature of 15°C and the current is (3) 3 kV (4) 1 kV
10A. What will be the mean temperature of the 198. Three identical capacitors are given a charge Q
coil when the current has fallen to 5A, the each and they are then allowed to discharge
applied voltage being the same as before :- through resistance R1, R2 and R3. Their charges
1 −1 as a function of time shown in the graph below.
(Given α = C at 0°C)
234 The smallest of the three resistance is :-
(1) 254°C (2) 256°C (3) 258°C (4) 264°C
194. An insulating pipe of cross-section area 'A'
contains an electrolyte which has two types of ions
→ their charges being – e and +2e. A potential
difference applied between the ends of the pipe
result in the drifting of the two types of ions, (1) R3 (2) R2
having drift speed = v ( – ve ion) and v/4 (+ve ion). (3) R1 (4) Cannot be predicted
Both ions have the same number per unit volume
= n. The current flowing through the pipe is 199. Find the equivalent capacitance of circuit and
charge on 5µF capacitor :
(1) nev A/2 (2) nev A/4
(3) 5nev A/2 (4) 3nev A/2
195. Masses of 3 wires of same metal are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3
and their lengths are in the ratio 3 : 2 : 1. The electrical
resistances are in ratio :
(1) 4µF, 50µC (2) 8µF, 25µC
(1) 1 : 4 : 9 (2) 9 : 4 : 1
(3) 4µF, 25µC (4) 8µF, 50µC
(3) 1 : 2 : 3 (4) 27 : 6 : 1
200. Four identical metal plates are located in air at equal
196. n identical cells are joined in series with its two
distance d from one another as shown in figure. The
cells A and B in the loop with reversed
area of each plate is equal to A. Find the capacitance
polarities. EMF of each shell is E and internal
of the system between points A and B-
resistance r. Potential difference across cell A or
B is (here n > 4):-
2E 1
(1) (2) 2E (1 − )
n n
2
(3) 4E (4) 2E (1 − ) (1) 2 ε 0 A (2) 2 ε 0A
(3) 3 ε 0 A (4) 3 ε 0A
n n d 3 d d 2 d

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Topic : SYLLABUS-5
SECTION-A ( PHYSICS-05 ) 205. In the series LCR circuit as shown in figure, the
voltmeter and ammeter readings are :-
201. AB and CD are long straight conductor, distance
d apart, carrying a current I. The magnetic field
at the midpoint of BC is :-
(1) V = 100 volt, I = 2 amp

(2) V = 100 volt, I = 5 amp
(3) V = 1000 volt, I = 2 amp
− μ 0I ^ − μ 0I ^
(1) k (2) k (4) V = 300 volt, I = 1 amp
2πd πd
− μ 0I ^ − μ 0I ^ 206. An alternating voltage is given by :
(3) k (4) k
4πd 8πd e = e1 sin ω t + e2 cos ω t. Then the root mean
202. A magnet of magnetic moment 50 î A-m2 is square value of voltage is given by :-
placed along the x-axis in a magnetic field
→ = (0.5i^ + 3.0j^)T. The torque acting on the (1) √ e21 + e22 (2) √ e1 e2
B
magnet is :- e1 e2 e21 + e22
(3) √ (4) √
(1) ^
(2) ^ 2 2
175 k N − m 150 k N − m
^ ^ 207. A moving coil galvanometer has 150 equal
(3) 75 k N − m (4) 25√37 k N − m divisions. Its current sensitivity is 10 divisions
203. A bar magnet has coercivity 4 × 103 Am – 1. It
is per milli ampere and voltage sensitivity is 2
desired to demagnetise it by inserting it inside a divisions per millivolt. In order that each
solenoid 12 cm long and having 60 turns. The division reads 1 V, the resistance in Ohm's
current that should be sent through the solenoid :- needed to be connected in series with the coil
will be :-
(1) 2 A (2) 4 A (3) 6 A (4) 8 A
(1) 103 (2) 105
204. Three rings, each having equal radius R, are placed
mutually perpendicular to each other and each having (3) 99995 (4) 9995
its centre at the origin of co-ordinate system. If current 208. The Curie-Weiss law is obeyed by iron :-
I is flowing through each ring then the magnitude of
the magnetic field at the common centre is (1) at all temperatures
(2) above the Curie temperature
(3) below the Curie temperature
(4) at the Curie temperature only
209. The magnetic susceptibility of a paramagnetic
substance at – 123°C is 0.0060, then its value
(1) μ 0I (2) zero
√ 3 at – 173°C will be :-
2R
μ 0I μ 0I (1) 0.0090 (2) 0.0120
(3) (√ 2 − 1) (4) (√ 3 − √2 )
2R 2R (3) 0.0180 (4) 0.0045

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210. When magnetic field due to bar magnet (as 213. If the B-H curves of two samples of P and Q of
shown in figure) at P and Q is same then OP
=? iron are as shown below, then which one of the
OQ following statements is correct ?
1
(1) 3
√2 (2) 3
√2
3
(3) 2 √2 (4)
2√2 (1) Both P and Q are suitable for making
211. In figure shows three long straight wires P, Q permanent magnet
and R carrying currents normal to the plane of (2) P is suitable for making permanent magnet
the paper. All three currents have the same and Q for making electromagnet
magnitude. Which arrow best shows the
direction of the resultant force on the wire P :- (3) P is suitable for making electromagnet and
Q is suitable for permanent magnet
(4) Both P and Q are suitable for making
electromagnets
214. Two moving coil meters M1 and M2 have the
following particulars.
R1 = 10 Ω, N1 = 30, A1 = 3.6 × 10–3 m2, B1 = 0.25 T
R2 = 14 Ω, N2 = 42, A2 = 1.8 × 10–3 m2, B2 = 0.50 T
Determine the ratio of current sensitivity of M2 and
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D M1. (The spring constants are identical for the two
212. The equation of line on which magnetic field is meters).
zero due to system of two perpendicular (1) 1.4 (2) 2.4 (3) 3.4 (4) 0.4
infinitely long current carrying straight wires, is: 215. An electromagnetic wave with frequency ω and
wavelength λ travels in the +y direction. Its magnetic
field is along +x axis. The vector equation for the
associated electric field (of amplitude E0) is :-
(1) → = E cos( ω t − 2 π y)x^

E 0
λ
(2) → = −E0 cos( ω t + 2 π y)x^

E
(1) x = y λ
(2) x = 2y (3) E→ = −E0 cos( ω t + 2 π y)z^

λ
(3) x = 3y
(4) → = E cos( ω t − 2 π y)z^
E 0
(4) 3x = y λ

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216. In a wave E0 = 100 Vm – 1. Find the magnitude of 220. Match List-I with List-II.
Poynting's vector:- List-I List-II
(1) 13.25 Wm – 2 Diagnostic tool in
(a) UV rays (i)
(2) 26.5 Wm – 2 medicine
(3) 18.25 Wm – 2 (b) X-rays (ii) Water purification
(4) 19.7 Wm – 2 Communication,
(c) Microwave (iii)
Radar
217. The refractive index and permeability of a
medium are 1.5 and 5 × 10 – 7 Hm – 1 respectively. Infrared Improving visibility
(d) (iv)
The relative permittivity of the medium is wave in foggy days
nearly:- Choose the correct answer from the options
given below :
(1) 25
(1) (a) – (iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
(2) 15
(2) (a) – (ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(3) 10
(4) 6 (3) (a) – (ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
218. a. Wavelength of microwaves is greater than that (4) (a) – (iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
of ultraviolet rays. 221. Two resistors of 10 Ω and 20 Ω and an ideal
b. The wavelength of infrared rays is lesser than inductor of 10H are connected to a 2V battery as
that of ultraviolet rays. shown. The key K is shorted at time t = 0. Find
c. The wavelength of microwaves is lesser than
that of infrared rays the initial (t = 0) and final (t → ∞ ) currents
d. Gamma ray has shortest wavelength in the through battery.
electromagnetic spectrum
Choose the correct option from the given
options.
(1) a and b are true
(2) b and c are true
(3) c and d are true
(4) a and d are true 1 1 1 1
(1) A, A (2) A, A
15 10 10 15
219. Electric field of plane electromagnetic wave 2 1 1 2
propagating through a non – magnetic medium is (3) A, A (4) A, A
15 10 15 25
given by E = 20cos(2 × 1010 t – 200x) V/m. The 222. A coil of inductance 5H is joined to a cell of
dielectric constant of the medium is equal to : emf 6V through a resistance 10 Ω at time t = 0.
(Take µr = 1) The emf across the coil at time t = ln 2 s is :-√
(1) 9 (1) 3V
(2) 2 (2) 1.5 V
1
(3) (3) 0.75V
3
(4) 3 (4) 4.5V
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223. The r.m.s. voltage of the wave form shown is : 228. A copper rod AB of length L, pivoted at one end
A, rotates at constant angular velocity ω , at right
angles to a uniform magnetic field of induction
B. The e.m.f developed between the mid point C
of the rod and end B is:-
(1) 10 V (2) 7 V
(3) 6.37 V (4) None of these
224. A power transformer (step up) with an 1 : 8 turn BωL
2
BωL
2 2
3B ω L 3B ω L
2
ratio has 60 Hz, 120 V across the primary; the (1) (2) (3) (4)
4 2 4 8
load in the secondary is 104 Ω . The current in 229. Magnetic flux is changing in a coil of resistance 10Ω,
the secondary is :- as a result an induced current is developed in it which
(1) 96A (2) 0.96 A varies with time as shown in figure. The magnitude of
(3) 9.6 A (4) 96 mA change in flux through the coil in weber is :
225. In an a.c. circuit V and I are given by
V = 100 sin (100 t) volts
I = 100 sin (100t + π /3) mA
The power dissipated in the circuit is
(1) 104 watt (2) 10 watt
(3) 2.5 watt (4) 5.0 watt (1) 2 (2) 4
226. An aeroplane in which the distance between the (3) 6 (4) None of these
tips of the wings is 50 meter is flying 230. In an inductor of self inductance L = 2mH, current
horizontally with a speed of 360 km/hour over a changes with time according to relation i = t2e – t.
place where the vertical component of earth’s At what time induced emf across it is zero :-
magnetic field is 2.0 x 10 – 4 Tesla. The potential (1) 4s (2) 3s (3) 2s (4) 1s
difference between the tips of the wings would
be : – 231. A conducting wire frame is placed in a magnetic
field which is directed into the paper. The
(1) 0.1 V (2) 1.0 V magnetic field is increasing at a constant rate.
(3) 0.2 V (4) 0.01 V The directions of induced currents in wires AB
and CD are :-
227. For a series R-L-C circuit :-
(a) Voltage across L and C are differ by π
(b) Current through L and R are in same phase
(c) Voltage across R and L differ by π /2
(d) Voltage across L and current through C are
differ by π /2
(1) a, b, c (2) b, c, d (1) B to A and D to C (2) A to B and C to D
(3) c, d, a (4) All (3) A to B and D to C (4) B to A and C to D

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232. A conducting rod PQ of length L = 1.0 m is SECTION-B ( PHYSICS-05 )

moving with a uniform speed v = 2 m/s in a
uniform magnetic field B = 4.0 T directed into 236. To know the resistance G of a galvanometer by
the paper. A capacitor of capacity C = 10 μ F is half deflection method, a battery of emf VE and
connected as shown in figure. Then resistance R is used to deflect the galvanometer
by angle θ . If a shunt of resistance S is needed to
get half deflection then G, R and S are related by
the equation :-
(1) 2S (R+G) = RG (2) S (R+G) = RG
(3) 2G = S (4) 2S = G
(1) qA = + 80 μ C and qB = – 80 μ C
237. A proton, deutron and an α – particle are
(2) qA = – 80 μ C and qB = + 80 μ C accelerated by same potential difference, enters
(3) qA = 0 = qB in uniform magnetic field perpendicularly. Then
ratio of radii of circular path :-
(4) Charge stored in the capacitor increases
exponentially with time (1) 1 : 2 : 2
√ √ (2) 2 : 2 : 1
233. What will be the reading of the voltmeter and the (3) 1 : 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 1 : 1
ammeter shown in fig? 238. The magnetic moment of a short magnet is 16 Am2
The magnetic induction at a point 20 cm away from
its mid point on (i) axial point (ii) equatorial point
respectively, will be :-
(1) 2 × 10 – 4 and 10 – 4 T
(1) 0V, 2A (2) 45V, 2A (2) 3×10 – 4 and 2×10 – 4 T
(3) 90V, 2A (4) 0V, 1A (3) 4×10 – 4 and 2×10 – 4 T
234. 200 Ω resistance and 1H inductance are (4) none of these
connected in series with an A.C. circuit. The 239. A charged particle moves in a magnetic field
→ = 10 î with initial velocity →u = 5i^ + 4j^ . The
B
frequency of the source is Hz. Then phase
path of the particle will be :-
difference in between V and I will be :-
(1) straight line (2) circle
(1) 30° (2) 60° (3) 45° (4) 90°
(3) helical (4) None
235. In the given circuit, the current through 5mH
indicator in steady state is 240. A particle of mass 1.6 × 10 – 27 kg and charge 1.6
× 10 – 19 coulomb enters in a uniform magnetic
field of 1 Tesla as shown in the fig. The speed of
the particle is 107 m/s. The distance PQ will be-
(1) 4/3 Amp (2) 8/3 Amp (1) 0.14 m (2) 0.28 m
(3) 4 Amp (4) 2/3 Amp (3) 0.4 m (4) 0.5 m
QPRPHYSICS24
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241. A rectangular loop ABCD is placed near on 246. In a series resonant R-L-C circuit, if L is
infinite length current carrying wire. Magnetic increased by 25% and C is decreased by 20%,
force on the loop is :- then the resonant frequency will : –
(1) increases by 10% (2) decreases by 10%
(3) remain unchanged (4) increases by 2.5%
247. A conducting loop of radius R is present in a
uniform magnetic field B perpendicular to the plane
(1) 1.25 × 10 – 4 N, Attraction of the ring. If radius R varies as a function of time
(2) 1.25 × 10 – 4 N, Repulsion ‘t’, as R = R0 + t. The e.m.f induced in the loop is
(3) 12.5 × 10 – 4 N, Repulsion
(4) 12.5 × 10 – 4 N, Attraction
242. Ratio of magnetic field at the centre of current
carrying circular coil of radius 4R and at a
distance of 3R on its axis is :- (1) 2 π (R0 + t)B clockwise
125 64 25 16 (2) π (R0 + t)B clockwise
(1) (2) (3) (4)
64 125 16 25
(3) 2 π (R0 + t)B anticlockwise
243. A test charge 1.6 × 10 – 19 C is moving with
(4) zero
velocity →v = (2i^ + 3j^) m/sec in a magnetic field
→ = (2i^ + 3j^) Wb/m2. The magnetic force on the 248. In the circuit shown, X is joined to Y for a long
B time, and then X is joined to Z. The total heat
test charge :- produced in R2 is :
^ ^ ^
(1) 6kT (2) (4i + 6j )T
(3) (4i^ + 6j^) × 10−19 T (4) Zero

244. The charge on a parallel plate capacitor varies as
q = q0 cos 2 π υ t. The plates are very large and
close together (area = A, separation = d). The (1) (2) (3) (4)
displacement current through the capacitor is:-
(1) q02 π υ sin π υ t (2) – q02 π υ sin 2 π υ t 249.
(3) q02 π sin π υ t (4) q0 π υ sin 2 π υ t What is the potential difference VB – VA when
the current I is 5A and is decreasing at a rate
245. For a plane electromagnetic wave propagating in of 103 A/s:-
the +Z direction, which one of the following
combination gives the correct possible direction (1) 5V (2) 10 V (3) 15 V (4) – 15V
for E→ and B→ field respectively ? 250. A series R-C circuit is connected to an alternating
voltage source. Consider two situations :-
^ ^ ^ ^
(1) ( i + 2j ) and (2i − j ) (a) When capacitor is air filled.
(b) When capacitor is mica filled.
(2) ( −2i^ − 3j^) and (3i^ − 2j^) Current through resistor is i and voltage across
capacitor is V then :-
^ ^ ^ ^
(3) ( 2i + 3j ) and (i + 2j )
(1) Va = Vb (2) Va < Vb
^ ^ ^ ^
(4) ( 3i + 4j ) and (4i − 3j ) (3) Va > Vb (4) ia > ib

QPRPHYSICS24
31 English
Topic : SYLLABUS-6
SECTION-A ( PHYSICS-06 ) 255. A n-type silicon sample of width 4 × 10 – 3 m,

thickness 25 × 10 – 5 m and length 6 × 10 – 2 m
251. A waveform shown when applied to the carries a current of 4.8 mA, when the voltage is
following circuit will produce which of the applied across the length of the sample. If the
following output waveform. Assuming ideal free electron density is 1022 m – 3 then time taken
diode configuration and R1 = R2 :- for the electrons to travel the full length of the
sample is :-
(1) 5 second (2) 1 × 10 – 2 s
(3) 2 × 10 – 2 s (4) 3 s
256. The energy band gap of semiconducting material
(1) (2) to produce violet (wavelength = 4000 Å) LED is
_____ eV. (Round off to the nearest integer).
(1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 2
(3) (4) 257. Intensity of central fringe in interference pattern
is 0.01 W/m2 then find intensity at a point having
252. The reading of ammeter in the following circuit. path difference λ /3 on screen (in mW/m2)
(1) 2.5 (2) 5 (3) 7.5 (4) 10
258. In Young's double slit experiment, the slits are
2mm apart and are illuminated by photons of two
(1) 0.5 mA (2) 1.0 mA wavelengths λ 1 = 12000Å and λ 2 = 10000Å. At
(3) 1.5 mA (4) 2.5 mA what minimum distance from the common central
bright fringe on the screen, 2m from the slit, will
253. In the network shown in fig. determine V0 :- a bright fringe from one interference pattern
coincide with a bright fringe from the other ?
(1) 3 mm (2) 8 mm (3) 6 mm (4) 4 mm
259. The fraunhofer diffraction pattern of a single slit is
formed at the focal plane of a lens of focal length 1m.
(1) 11V (2) 12V (3) 9.5 (4) 13V The width of the slit is 0.3 mm. If the third minimum
254. Which of the following Boolean expression is is formed at a distance of 5 mm from the central
represented by the given circuit :- maximum then calculate the wavelength of light.
(1) 3000Å (2) 4000Å
(3) 5000Å (4) 6000Å
260. Two polaroids are crossed to each other. When
one of them is rotated through 60°, then what
(1) (A + B).C
percentage of the incident unpolarised light will
(2) A.B + C be transmitted by the polaroids ?
¯¯¯ ¯¯¯ ¯¯¯
(3) A. B + C (1) 50% (2) 75%
¯¯¯ ¯¯¯ ¯¯¯ (3) 62.5% (4) 37.5%
(4) (A + B). C

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261. The angle of polarisation for any medium is 60°, 265. In YDSE the Y co-ordinates of central maxima
what will be critical angle for this : and 10th maxima are 2cm and 5cm respectively.
(1) sin – 1 √ 3 (2) tan – 1 √ 3
When YDSE apparatus is immersed in a liquid
of refractive index 1.5. The corresponding Y co-
1
(3) cos – 1 √ 3 (4) sin – 1 ordinates will be :-
√ 3
(1) 4 cm, 7.5 cm (2) 3 cm, 6 cm
262. A plane wavefront AB is incident on a concave
mirror as shown. Then the reflected wavefront (3) 2 cm, 4 cm (4) 4/3 cm, 10/3 cm
just after reflection from mirror will be :- 266. In a photoelectric emission, electrons are ejected
from metals X and Y by light of frequency f. The
potential difference V required to stop the
electrons is measured for various frequencies. If
Y has a greater work function than X, which
graph illustrates the expected results :-
(1) (1) (2)

(2)
(3) (4) None of above (3) (4)
263. When a metal is irradiated by light having

wavelength λ ( λ < λ 0), all the photoelectron 267. Light described at a place by the equation ε = (100
emitted are bent in a circle of radius r by a V/m) [sin (5 × 1015 s – 1)t + sin (8 × 1015 s – 1)t] falls
magnetic field of flux density B0. Find the on a metal surface having work function 2eV.
1
( ) , where λ 0 is thershold wavelength. Calculate the maximum kinetic energy of the photo
λ0
electrons.
1 1 B 2 e2 r 2
(1) = − (1) 5.27 eV (2) 1.71 eV
λ0 λ 2mhc
1 1 B 2 e2 r 2 (3) 3.27 eV (4) 0.854 eV
(2) = +
λ0 λ 2mhc 268. The acceleration of an electron in the first orbit
1 1 B 2 e2 r 2 of the hydrogen atom (n = 1) is :-
(3) = −
λ0 λ mhc h2
(1)
(4) None of these 4 π m 2 r3
264. A monochromatic source of light operating h2
(2)
at 200W emits 4 ×1020 photons per second then 8 π 2 m 2 r3
( λ ) wavelength of light is → (3) h2
(1) 200 nm (2) 400 nm π 2 m 2 r3

h2
(3) 100 nm (4) 1800 nm (4)
4 π 2 m 2 r3
QPRPHYSICS24
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269. According to Bohr's theory, the time averaged 273. A nuclear reactor delivers a power of 109 W.
magnetic field at the centre (i.e., nucleus) of a What is the amount of fuel consumed by the
hydrogen atom due to the motion of electrons in reactor in one hour, if 0.1% mass of fuel amount
the nth orbit is proportional to : converted into energy.
(n = principal quantum number) (1) 0.04 g (2) 0.08 g
(1) n – 3 (2) n – 2 (3) n – 5 (4) n – 4 (3) 0.08 kg (4) 0.04 kg
270. A proton and an α -particle are initially at a 274. What is the number of α and β - particle emitted
distance 'r' apart. Find the KE of α -particle at a in the following radioactive decay ?
large separation from proton after being released. 200
90X → 80Y
168
e2 (1) 6 and 6
(1)
5 π ∈ 0r
(2) 8 and 8
e2
(2) (3) 8 and 6
4 π ∈ 0r
e2 (4) 6 and 8
(3)
8 π ∈ 0r
275. The binding energies per nucleon for a deutron
e2
(4) and an α - particle are E1 and E2 respectively.
10 π ∈ 0 r
What will be the energy E released in the
271. In the photoelectric experiment, if we use a following reaction ?
monochromatic light, the I – V curve is as shown. 2 2 4
1H + 1H ——→ 2H + E
If work function of the metal is 2 eV, estimate (1) 2 (E1 + E2)
the power of light used. (Assume efficiency of
photo emission = 10 – 3 %, i.e. number of (2) 2 (E2 – E1)
photoelectrons emitted are 10 – 3% of number of (3) 4 (E1 + E2)
photons incident on metal) :-
(4) 4 (E2 – E1)
276. A concave mirror of focal length f (in air) is
immersed in water of µ = 4/3. The focal length
in water will be :-
(1) f
(1) 2W (2) 5 W (2) (4/3)f
(3) 7 W (4) 10 W (3) (3/4)f
272. A particle of mass 3m at rest decays into two (4) (7/3)f
particle of masses m and 2m having non-zero
velocities. The ratio of the de-Broglie 277. At what distance from a concave mirror of focal
length 10 cm must an object be placed in order
wavelength of the particles ( λ 1/ λ 2) is :- that an image double its size may be obtained ?
(1) 1/2 (1) 5 cm only
(2) 1/4 (2) 15 cm only
(3) 2 (3) either 5 cm or 15 cm
(4) None of these (4) at 10 cm
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278. In the diagram shown the velocity of image will 282. Two thin lens of power +4D and – 2D is kept in
be along :- contact. Equivalent focus length of the
combination is :-
(1) 0.5 cm
(2) 50 cm
(3) 25 cm
(4) 20 cm
(1) P (2) Q (3) R (4) S 283. A beam of light converge at a point P. Now a
279. When the rectangular metal tank is filled to the lens is placed in the path of the convergent beam
top with an unknown liquid, an observer with
12 cm from P. If the lens is a convex lens of
eyes level with the top of the tank can just see
the corner E; a ray that refracts towards the focal length 20 cm the beam converge at a point
observer at the top surface of the liquid is shown. (with respect to lens) :-
The refrative index of the liquid will be :-
(1) – 15cm
(2) +7.5cm
(3) – 20cm
(4) +15cm
284. An astronomical telescope of length 50 cm
(1) 1.25 (2) 1.4 (3) 1.6 (4) 1.9 produces a magnification of 9 in normal
280. The refracting angle of a prism is A, and adjustment. Calculate focal length of its
refractive index of the material of the prism is objective and eye piece.
cot(A/2). The angle of minimum deviation is :-
(1) 4cm, 2cm
(1) 180° – 2A
(2) 30cm, 5cm
(2) 90° – A
(3) 55cm, 10cm
(3) 180° + 2A (4) 45cm, 5 cm
(4) 180° – 3A 285. A compound microscope consists of an
281. Figure shows graph of deviation δ versus angle objective lens of focal length 2 cm and an eye
of incidence for a light ray striking a prism. piece of focal length 6.25 cm separated by a
Angle of prism is :- distance of 15 cm. How far from the objective
should one object be placed in order to obtain
the final image at the least distance of distinct
vision (25 cm).
(1) 2.5 cm
(2) 1.67 cm
(3) 2 cm
(1) 30° (2) 45° (3) 60° (4) 75°
(4) 3.3 cm
QPRPHYSICS24
35 English
SECTION-B ( PHYSICS-06 ) 289. The following figure (i) shows a logic gate
circuit with two inputs A and B and output C.
286. The logic circuit shown in the following figure The voltage waveforms of A, B and C are as
yields the given truth table shown in figure (ii) given below :-
A B Y
1 1 1
0 1 1
1 0 1
0 0 0
The gate X in the diagram is :-
The logic circuit gate is :

(1) OR gate (2) AND gate
(1) NAND (3) NAND gate (4) NOR gate
(2) XOR 290. Find the half angular width of the central bright
maximum in the Fraunhofer diffraction pattern of a slit
(3) AND of width 12 × 10–5 cm when the slit is illuminated by
(4) NOR monochromatic light of wavelength 6000 Å.
287. If a semiconductor has an intrinsic carrier (1) 30° (2) 45° (3) 60° (4) 15°
concentration of 1.41 × 1016 m – 3, when doped 291. Two coherent sources of different intensities send
with 1021 m – 3 phosphorus, then the concentraion waves which interfere. If the ratio of maximum
of holes at room temperature will be and minimum intensity in the interference pattern
(1) 2 × 1021/m3 is 25 then find ratio of intensities of sources :
(2) 2×1011/m3 (1) 25 : 1 (2) 5 : 1
(3) 1.41×1010/m3 (3) 9 : 4 (4) 25 : 16
(4) 1.41×1016/m3 292. What is the momentum of a photon having
frequency 1.5 × 1013 Hz :
288. The current flowing through 1 K Ω resistance
(1) 3.3 × 10 – 29 kg m/s
in the following circuit is P mA. The value of
(2) 3.3 × 10 – 34 kg m/s
P is :-
(3) 6.6 × 10 – 34 kg m/s
(4) 6.6 × 10 – 30 kg m/s
293. With what potential an electron should be
accelerated so that its de Broglie wave-length
becomes equal to the wave length of first line of
(1) 5 lymen series for He+ ion ?
(2) 3 R2 h 2 9R2 h2
(1) (2)
(3) 1 2me 2me
9R2 h2 R2 h 2
(4) None of the above (3) (4)
32me 32me
QPRPHYSICS24
English 36
294. A neutron moving with a speed ' υ ' makes a head 298. An air bubble in a glass slab with refractive
on collision with a stationary hydrogen atom in index 1.5 (near normal incidence) is 5 cm deep
ground state. The minimum kinetic energy of the when viewed from one surface and 3 cm deep
neutron for which inelastic collision will take when viewed from the opposite face. The
place is :- thickness (in cm) of the slab is :-
(1) 10.2 eV (1) 12 (2) 16 (3) 8 (4) 10
(2) 12.1 eV 299. White light is incident on the interface of glass
and air as shown in the figure. If green light is
(3) 20.4 eV just totally internally reflected then the emerging
(4) 16.8 eV ray in air contains
295. Cut-off potentials for a metal surface for light of
wavelength λ 1, λ 2 and λ 3 are V1, V2 and V3
respectively. If V1, V2 and V3 are in arithmetic
progression, then λ 1, λ 2 and λ 3 are in:-
(1) arithmetic progression
(2) geometric progression
(3) harmonic progression (1) Yellow, orange, red
(4) none of these (2) Violet, indigo, blue
296. Consider the nuclear reaction (3) All colours
X200 → A110 + B90 (4) All colours except green
If the binding energy per nucleon for X, A and B 300. Choose the correct ray diagram of an equi
is 7.4 MeV, 8.2 MeV and 8.2 MeV respectively,
convex thin lens which is cut as shown
what is the energy released ?
(paraxial condition satisfied) :-
(1) 200 MeV (2) 160 MeV
(3) 110 MeV (4) 90 MeV
(1)
297.
(2)
Position of 5th image of given object in mirror (3)

M2 is :-
(1) 65 cm from mirror M2
(4)
QPRPHYSICS24
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME
(Academic Session : 2023 - 2024)
QUICK PHYSICS REVISION (QPR)

TEST DATE : 10-01-2024
ANSWER KEY
Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A. 1 3 1 4 1 2 4 2 1 2 2 2 4 2 2 1 3 4 3 2 1 4 3 2 4 2 2 2 3 4
Q. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A. 4 1 2 2 2 3 2 4 4 1 3 4 3 3 1 1 3 2 2 1 1 1 2 3 4 4 3 2 1 1
Q. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 4 4 1 2 3 3 4 3 3 1 2 3 4 2 3 4 1 2 3 1 3 3 1 3 3 1 4 1 1
Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 4 1 4 2 4 2 4 1 3 4 4 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 4 2 1 2 2 2 4 2 2 4 1
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 2 3 4 3 3 3 1 2 1 1 3 2 3 3 2 1 2 2 4 2 1 4 4 2 3 2 2 3 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 3 1 2 4 2 3 4 2 2 1 1 2 1 3 1 2 3 2 2 2 3 4 2 2 1 4 3 2 1
Q. 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200 201 202 203 204 205 206 207 208 209 210
A. 3 3 1 1 2 2 3 1 4 4 3 2 4 4 4 4 1 3 1 4 2 2 4 1 1 4 4 2 1 1
Q. 211 212 213 214 215 216 217 218 219 220 221 222 223 224 225 226 227 228 229 230 231 232 233 234 235 236 237 238 239 240
A. 3 3 2 1 4 2 4 4 1 2 1 1 1 4 3 2 4 4 1 3 1 1 1 3 2 2 1 3 3 1
Q. 241 242 243 244 245 246 247 248 249 250 251 252 253 254 255 256 257 258 259 260 261 262 263 264 265 266 267 268 269 270
A. 1 1 4 2 2 3 3 1 3 3 4 1 1 3 3 3 1 3 3 4 4 3 1 2 3 1 3 4 3 4
Q. 271 272 273 274 275 276 277 278 279 280 281 282 283 284 285 286 287 288 289 290 291 292 293 294 295 296 297 298 299 300
A. 3 4 4 3 4 1 3 1 1 1 2 2 2 4 1 3 2 1 2 1 3 1 2 3 3 2 2 1 1 2
HINT – SHEET
SUBJECT : PHYSICS-01 3. Ans ( 1 )

Magnitude of vector will not change on rotating
SECTION - A it by some angle.
1. Ans ( 1 ) 4. Ans ( 4 )
→ +B
A → +C
→ = →0
At t = 1, xA = 3, xB = 6, yA = 1 and yB = 5
→ −B
A → = 2A
→ +C
→
so distance = → +A
⇒B → +C
→ = →0
= √(6 − 3)2 + (5 − 1)2 = √32 + 42 = 5 unit 5. Ans ( 1 )

R=b=5
^ ^
2. Ans ( 3 ) ^^ i −j
1
R=a=
∫ vdt ∫
0
(2t + 3)dt (t2 + 3t)10 2 √
vav = = = = 4 m/s 5 ^ ^
^
∫ dt ∫
1
dt (t)10 →
R = RR = (i − j )
0
√2
QPRPHYSICS24 HS-1/28
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2024
6. Ans ( 2 ) 13. Ans ( 4 )
After removing F→ 3 , V = 10 m/sec
→ → → ^ 3i^ + 4j^ →
→a = F 1 + F 2 =
−F 3 V = ; V = V V^ ;
m m 5
^ ^
7. Ans ( 4 ) → 3i + 4j ^ ^
V = (10) ( ) = 6i + 8j
5
The angle made by resultant (R) of the forces P
14. Ans ( 2 )
and Q with P is given by : [ λ g] = LLT – 2 = L2T – 2 = [V2]
Q sin α
tan θ = 15. Ans ( 2 )
P + Q cos α
When θ = 90° , tan θ = ∞
P
P + Q cos α = 0 or cos α = –
Q
8. Ans ( 2 )
→ is perpendicular to Q
P → ×P → . The dot product of 16. Ans ( 1 )
perpendicular vectors is zero. (kg/ms)2 kg
Z= =
9. Ans ( 1 ) kgm2 /s m4 s
→ →∣ √ 2
∣A 2 17. Ans ( 3 )
∣ − B∣ = A + B + 2AB cos(π − θ)
[Momentum] = MLT – 1 = MaLbTc
= (15)2 + (15)2 + 2 (15) (15) cos 120∘ ( ∵ θ = 60°)
√
= 15 N a = 1, b = 1, c = – 1
10. Ans ( 2 ) ∴ a + b – c = 1 + 1 – ( – 1) = 3
→ 1 = 4j^; F
F → 2 = 3i^ 18. Ans ( 4 )
→ + F
F → = 3i^ + 4j^
1 2
→ + F
F → + F
→ should be along North – East
1 2
β T −1
direction = = [LT −1 ]
α L −1
11. Ans ( 2 ) 19. Ans ( 3 )

For parallel vectors, [kx] = [1]
2 3 −1 k = [L – 1]
= =
4 6 −λ 20. Ans ( 2 )
1 1 1
= = ⇒λ=2 ΔQ 2ΔX 1 ΔY
2 2 λ = +
Q X 2 Y
12. Ans ( 2 ) 2ΔX 1 ΔY
ΔQ = Q ( +
R2 = |→a + →b|2 = a2 + b2 + 2ab cos θ
)
X 2 Y
2X X 2 ΔY (4XY )ΔX + X 2 ΔY
= 1 + 1 + 2cos60° = ΔX + =
√Y 2Y √Y 2Y 3/2
R2 = 3 21. Ans ( 1 )
R= √ 3 0.9g 0.9 × 10−3 kg
=
3
= 900 kg/m3
⇒ |→a + →b| = √3 > 1 cm3 ( 10−2 m)
HS-2/28 QPRPHYSICS24
22. Ans ( 4 ) 29. Ans ( 3 )
% Error = 2 × 1 + 1 × 2 + 1 × 2 Distance travelled in last second during upward
=6% journey = distance travelled in 1st second during
downward journey.
23. Ans ( 3 ) 1 2 1
m 4.237g so h = gt = × 10 × 12 = 5 m
ρ= = = 1.6948 g/cm3 2 2
v 2.5cm 3
30. Ans ( 4 )
rounding of the number = 1.7 g/cm3
24. Ans ( 2 )
x = 3t2 – t3 + 4t
a = 6 – 6t
a0 = 6 m/s2 →v = ui^ + gt(−j^)
25. Ans ( 4 ) →v = ui^ + g(3) (−j^)
u2 u2 u2 u2 |→v| = 1.25 u
2gs1 = − ; 2gs2 = −
4 9 9 16 25 u2
AB s1 20 u2 + 9g2 =
∴ = = 16
BC s2 7 9 u2
9g2 =
26. Ans ( 2 ) 16
u = 4g = 40 m/s
From A draw tangent to curve as shown
31. Ans ( 4 )
f = µN
N=F
−−
→
AB = total displacement vector
−−
→
Direction of AB = same direction as average
f = 0.2 × 10
velocity
mg = f = 2 N
Also, AB is tangent at B.
−−
→ 32. Ans ( 1 )
Direction of average velocity for AB = same I = ΔP
direction as instantaneous velocity at B→ . = m(vf – vi)
27. Ans ( 2 ) = 1(0 – 6)
(1) AB = 2r = – 6 N-S
(2) AB = r 2√ 33. Ans ( 2 )
(3) AB = 3 r√
As the mass of 10 kg has acceleration 12 m/s2
therefore spring apply 120 N force on mass 20
(4) AB = 3 r√ kg in a backward direction.
∴ Net forward force on 20 kg mass = 200 – 120
28. Ans ( 2 ) = 80 N
For O to A : v = u + at 80
∴ Acceleration = = 4 m/s2.
3=0+1×t 20
t=3s 34. Ans ( 2 )
∴ tBC = 3 s Spring balance will read tension in the string.
Hence, tAB = 10 – 6 = 4 s So, its reading will be 2 kg. (i.e. 20 N).
35. Ans ( 2 ) 41. Ans ( 3 )
30 − 6
a= = 4 m/s2
6
30 – N = 1(4)
N12 = 26 N f cos α = N sin α
SECTION - B µN cos α = N sin α

36. Ans ( 3 ) tan α = µ
F = 62 + 82 + 102 = 10
√ √ 2N
42. Ans ( 4 )
F = Ma
Net force by surface on block will be opposite to
10√2 = M (1)
M = 10 √ 2 kg gravity.
37. Ans ( 2 ) 43. Ans ( 3 )
From Equation of system T1 = 0.5 × 8g; mBg = 2T1
⇒ mB = 8
⇒ (1 + ms ) = 8
⇒ ms = 7 kg
44. Ans ( 3 )
Tcos45° = 60 FBD of m
T = 60 2 N √
Tsin45° = W
60 2 × 1 = W
√
2 √
W = 60 N
38. Ans ( 4 ) T = mg ......(1)
Δ px = 3 NS
FBD of mass √ 2 m
Δ py = 4 NS
Δ pz = – 5 NS
Δ p = √32 + 42 + 52 = 5√2 NS
40. Ans ( 1 )
FL = µS mg
200 = µs × 500
2Tcos θ = √ 2 mg ....(2)
µs = 0.4
fk = µk mg divide equation (2) by (1)
150 = µk × 500
µk = 0.3 we get θ =45°
45. Ans ( 1 ) 50. Ans ( 1 )
Given F→ = î + 4j^ S
2 S
t1 = =
so 4 + N = 10 3 6
S
⇒ N = 6 newton = 4.5 × t2 + 7.5t3
2
fL = µN = 0.3 × 6 S S
We have t2 = t3 ; so, 12t2 = ⇒ t2 = t3 =
2 24
⇒ fL=1.8 N S S S S
Total time t = t1 + t2 + t3 = + + =
but Fx = 1 N 6 24 24 4
S
So friction is also 1 N (backward) i.e. f = – î Average speed =
S
= 4 m/s
( )
4
46. Ans ( 1 )
1 SUBJECT : PHYSICS-02
−1500 = −100t − × 10t2
2
t2 SECTION - A
⇒ + 10t − 150 = 0
2
−20 ± 40 51. Ans ( 1 )
⇒ t=
2 Work = ∫ F dx = ∫ madx
So, t = 10 sec
W = = m × Area under the curve a – x
Horizontal distance
1
500 4 4000 W=5× × 20 × 10 – 2 × 8 × 10 – 2
= × × 10 = m 2
3 5 3
W = 4 × 10 – 2 J
47. Ans ( 3 )
Slope of displacement time graph is velocity. 52. Ans ( 1 )
48. Ans ( 2 ) Initially both the particles are at rest, so velocity
8+8 of centre of mass is equal to zero and no external
Velocity of boat = = 8 km/h
2
force acts on the system, therefore its velocity of
velocity water = 4 km/h
centre of mass remains constant i.e. zero.
8 8
⇒t= +
8−4 8+4 53. Ans ( 2 )
8
= h = 2 hours & 40 minutes In an inelastic collision momentum and total
3
49. Ans ( 2 ) energy is conserved but kinetic energy is not
Given, the velocity of projection as conserved.
→v = ai^ + (b − ct)j^. . . . . (i) 54. Ans ( 3 )
dθ d
Or, →v = vx→i + vy ^j ω= = (2t3 + 0.5) = 6t2
dt dt
And we know that vx = ux and vy = uy – gt at t = 2 s, ω = 6 × (2)2 = 24 rad/sec
⇒ V = ux î + (uy – gt)^j .........(ii) 55. Ans ( 4 )
Minimum speed at the highest point of vertical
Comparing (i) & (ii) we have
circular path v = √ gR
ux = a, uy = b and g = c
2ux uy 2ab 56. Ans ( 4 )
∴ Range is given by, R = =
g c V = √μrg = √0.25 × 40 × 10 = 10m/s
57. Ans ( 3 ) 64. Ans ( 1 )
I ω = constant A L
=
I↑ω↓ T 2m
2mA
L =
58. Ans ( 2 ) T
1 2 K2 65. Ans ( 2 )
Total kinetic energy = mv (1 + )
2 R2 Gm2 mV 2
=
59. Ans ( 1 ) 4R2 R
Gm
=V =√
4R
66. Ans ( 3 )
2
g g h
gh = 2
= ⇒ (1 + ) =9
h 9 R
( 1+ )
R
P Q2 P Q2 P Q2
I= +( + P Q2 ) + ( + P Q2 ) h
2 2 2 ⇒1+ = 3 ⇒ h = 2R
R
67. Ans ( 3 )
7
= P Q2 G × 100 G × 10000 10 100
2 = 2
⇒ =
x 2
(1 − x) x 1−x
60. Ans ( 1 ) 1
g sin θ ⇒x= m
a = 11
K2 68. Ans ( 4 )
1+
R2 From Kepler's law : Areal velocity = constant so
61. Ans ( 3 ) Area SCD Area SAB
Balance torque about hinge = ⇒ t1 = 2t2
t1 t2
m1x = m2(L – x)
69. Ans ( 3 )
m2 L
x= ( )
νA gA R
m1 + m2 ν e = √2gR ⇒ = √ × A = √ x×r
νB gB RB
62. Ans ( 4 ) νA
∴ = √ rx
for m → mg – T = ma ...(i) νB
Torque T × R = Iα 70. Ans ( 3 )
2
mR × a GM 1
TR = ...(ii) V0 = √
⇒ V0 ∝
nR
now by eq . (i) & (ii)
r √r
V1 r2
mg – ma = ma =√
V2 r1
a = g/2 V
= √ 4R , V2 = V
V2 R 2
63. Ans ( 4 )
71. Ans ( 1 )
Gmm me
Force between earth and moon F =
r2
This amount of force, both earth and moon will
exert on each other i.e. they exert same force on
each other.
72. Ans ( 2 ) 80. Ans ( 3 )
1
U= (stress) (Strain) (Volume)
2
2
1 (Stress)
U = (Volume)
2 Y
73. Ans ( 3 )
FL ( 8 × 103 ) × (40 × 10−2 )
η= = 2
= 2 × 108 Nm−2
Ax ( 40 × 10−2 ) × 0.1 × 10−3
74. Ans ( 4 ) 81. Ans ( 1 )

YA tan θA tan 60 √ 3 For solid sphere
= = = =3 1 2 1 2 v2
YB tan θB tan 30 1/√3 mv + . mR2 . = mghsph.
⇒ YA = 3YB 2 2 5 R2
for solid cylinder
75. Ans ( 2 ) 1 2 1 1 v2
mv + . mR2 . = mghcyl.
Radius of common surface 2 2 2 R2
r1 r2 4×5 hsph. 7/5 14
r= = = 20cm ⇒ = =
r2 − r1 5−4 hcyl. 3/2 15
76. Ans ( 3 ) 82. Ans ( 3 )
According to equation of continuity According to Kepler's Law.
A1V1 = A2V2 + A3V3
T2 ∝ r2
⇒ 4 × 0.2 = 2 × 0.2 + 0.4 × V3 ⇒ V3 = 1 m/s.
⇒ 52 ∝ r3 .....(1)
77. Ans ( 4 ) and (T')2 ∝ (4r)3.....(2)
5 5
W= ∫ F dx = ∫ (7 − 2x + 3x2 )dx Dividing equation (1) and (2), we get
0 0
5 25 r3
= 7x − x2 + x3 0
[ ] =2 64r3
(T ′ )
= 135 – 25 + 125 = 135 J or T = √1600
78. Ans ( 1 ) or T' = 40 h
1 2
mv = mgh + μmgd 83. Ans ( 3 )
2 0 2
FL ℓ
79. Ans ( 2 ) ℓ = ⇒ ℓ ∝ L ⇒ 1 = L1 × (
d2
)
AY d 2 ℓ2 L2 d1
2
1 1 1
= × ( ) =
2 2 8
84. Ans ( 1 )
Mass of disc α are a FB = ρ v(g – a)
2 a=g
m1 α π (R)2 ; m2 ∝ π( R ) ∴ FB = 0
2
m
m1 = m ; m2 = 85. Ans ( 3 )
4
CM of remaining part As the both points are at the surface of liquid
m x −m x
xcm = 1 1 2 2 and these points are in the open atmosphere. So
m1 + m2
m R both point possess similar pressure and equal to
m (0) − ( )
1 atm. Hence the pressure difference will be
4 2
= m
=–R zero.
m− 6
4
SECTION - B 90. Ans ( 1 )
86. Ans ( 3 )
u
2u = 2 ( ) + mv ...(1)
4
u
v−
4
e= =1 ...(2)
u
5u
v= Let the system moves
4
2u m5u with an acceleration a as shown in the figure.
2u = +
4 4 3 mg – T = 3 ma
m = 1.2 kg
T – mg = ma
87. Ans ( 1 ) 2mg = 4ma or a = g/2
Now the accelration of the centre of mass,
g g
3m ( 2 ) + m (− 2 )
m 1 a1 + m 2 a2
acm = = =
m1 + m2 3m + m
g/4
Maximum height reached by the particle
u2 (5)2 91. Ans ( 4 )
Hmax = = = 1.25m
2g2 × 10
Work done = F ⋅ →d = Fd cos θ
→
= mg × (Hmax) × cos (180°)
= 0.1 × 10 × 1.25 × ( – 1) = – 1.25 J.
88. Ans ( 4 )
Fx = − du = – 12x + 7y = – 12x( – 2) + 7×0
dx
Fx = 24N I = 2(√2)2 + 2(√13)2 + 2(√2)2 + 2(0)2
Fy = − du = +7x – 16y = 7( – 2) – 16×0 = 4 + 26 + 4 + 0 = 34 units.
dy
Fy = – 14N 92. Ans ( 1 )
Fz = − du = – 32 N
dz
89. Ans ( 1 )
mg L = 1
Iω2
2 2
1 ML2 2 3g
mg L = ω ω=√
a
20 ( ) + 10 (
3a
) + 20 (
5a
) + 40 (
a
)
2 2 3 L
2 2 2 2 19a
xcm =
90
=
18
93. Ans ( 4 )
a a a 3a F1 F F 0.1 1
20 ( ) + 10 ( ) + 20 ( ) + 40 ( )
2 2 2 2 17a Equal stress = 2 ⇒ 1 = =
ycm = = A1 A2 F2 0.2 2
90 18
94. Ans ( 2 ) 99. Ans ( 3 )
10 × cos 60∘ F We know that,
= ⇒ F = 50N
1 10 vterminal ∝ r2
95. Ans ( 4 ) v1 r21
S = 6t3 – t2 + 1 ∴ = 2
v2 r2
v = 18t2 – 2t when 8 drops combine, we have
w = Δkε 8× 4 3 4 3
πr = πr
1 3 1 3 2
Δ k ε = k ε f – k ε i = 3 [v2f − v2i ] ⇒ r2 = 2r1
2
vf = 18 × 32 – 2 × 3 = 156 16 4
∴ = ⇒ v2 = 64 cm/sec
1 v2 16
w = Δkε = ⋅ 3(156)2 = 36504 Joule
2 100. Ans ( 4 )
96. Ans ( 2 ) R = 2 4(H − 4) = 2
√ √ 6(H − 6)
2H – 8 = 3H – 18
H = 10 cm
vcos α = eucos θ SUBJECT : PHYSICS-03
vsin α = usin θ
SECTION - A
tan θ tan θ
tan α = ⇒ α = tan−1 ( )
e e 101. Ans ( 4 )
97. Ans ( 4 ) Area under the curve
x4 x2 1
Potential energy U = − = (2 × 103) × 2 + 2 × 103 × 2 + 1 × 2 × 103
4 2 2 2
For maximum kinetic energy, potential energy + 5 × 103
of a particle should be minimum. = 2 × 103 + 4 × 103 + 103 + 5 × 103 =12 × 103 J
d2U
For minimum value of U, dU = 0 and >0 102. Ans ( 3 )
dx dx2
After calculation at x = ±1 d1
d2 =
1 + γ(T2 − T1 )
Umin = – 1 J 0.998
4 0.992 =
TE = KEmax + PEmin 1 + γ(40 − 20)
⇒ KEmax = TE – PEmin ⇒ γ = 3 × 10 – 4
1 2 1
⇒ mvmax = 2 − ( − ) 103. Ans ( 3 )
2 4
dH dH
vmax = 3 m/s dtA
=
dtB
√2
KA × 36 2KA
= ΔT
98. Ans ( 1 ) ℓ ℓ
mv2 Δ T = 18°C
mgcos θ – N =
R 104. Ans ( 3 )
mv2
N = mgcos θ – γa = γr – γg
R
Here γ g = 3( γ /3) = γ
and γr = γ
∴ γa = 0
hence the liquid level remains unchanged.
θ decreases hence N increases
105. Ans ( 3 ) 110. Ans ( 4 )
10 × 0.5 × 20 + 10 × 80 = 900 cal T1 = 327 + 273 = 600 K
(Heat required to melt complete ice)
10 × 1 × 50 = 500 cal T2 = 927 + 273 = 1200 K
(Heat lost by water at 50° in reaching 0°C)
So complete ice will not melt E1 σT14 600
4
1
= =( ) =
∴ temperature of mixture = 0°C E2 σT24 1200 16
106. Ans ( 3 ) 111. Ans ( 2 )

μ 1 CP1 + μ 2 CP2 When temperature of gas increases, it expands.
γ mix. =
μ 1 C V1 + μ 2 C V2 As the cross-sectional area of right piston is
5R 7R
4× +2× more, therefore greater force will work on it
2 2 34
= = 1.54
3R 5R 22 (because F = PA). So piston will move towards
4× +2×
2 2
right.
107. Ans ( 3 )
From given curve, 112. Ans ( 1 )
Melting point for A = 60°C
and melting point for B = 20°C
Time taken by A for fusion = (6 – 2) = 4 minute
Time taken by B for fusion = (6.5 – 4) = 2.5 minute
HA 6 × 4 × 60 8
Then, = = 113. Ans ( 2 )
HB 6 × 2.5 × 60 5
Given process → Adiabatic
108. Ans ( 3 )
PV According to question, pressure is constant.
T=
nR
P2V = const. Hence, 1 − γ = − 1 ⇒γ=
3
= 1.5
2 2
PV1/2 = const.
1
114. Ans ( 2 )
m= In an isothermal process, temperature remains
2
3R R 3R 7R
C= + = + 2R = = 3.5R constant and since internal energy is a function
2 1 2 2
1−
2 of temperature only, therefore there will be no
109. Ans ( 3 )
change in the internal energy Δ U = 0.
θ1 − θ2 θ + θ2
= K[ 1 − θ0 ]
t 2 Using the first law of thermodynamics,
In the first 10 minute
62 − 50 62 + 50 ΔU = Q – W = 0
= K[ − θ0 ]
10 2 or Q = W = + 600 J
⇒ 1.2 = K[56 − θ0 ] .... (i)
Thus, the gas absorbs 600 J of heat from the
In next 10 minute
50 − 42 50 + 42 surroundings.
= K[ − θ0 ]
10 2
⇒ 0.8 = K[46 − θ0 ] ....(ii) 115. Ans ( 2 )
T2
from equations (i) and (ii) P2V = const. ⇒ = const.
V
1.2 (56 − θ0 ) T12 T22
= ⇒ θ 0 = 26 °C = ⇒ T 2 = √2 T
0.8 (46 − θ0 ) V1 V2
116. Ans ( 4 ) 121. Ans ( 2 )
PV = nRT ...(1) d2x
16 + 25 x = 0
P(0.9V) = n'R(1.2 T) ...(2) dt2
25 5 8π
n′ ω2 = ⇒ω = ⇒ T= s
0.9 = (1.2) 16 4 5
n
n′ =
3
n
122. Ans ( 2 )
4 (x – A) = Bsin ω t
n
n′ − n = amount of gas will leaks out.
4 SHM of particle is about x = A and its amplitude
n
is B.
∴ 4 × 100 = 25%
n 123. Ans ( 3 )
117. Ans ( 2 ) Given, 4v2 = 25 – x2 ....... (i)
3RT Differentiating (i) with respect to time t,
vrms = √
M dv
1 = a (the acceleration)
So, vrms ∝ dt
M and dx = v (the velocity)
√
(vrms )A M 1 dt
=√ B =√ =1:2 dv dx
(vrms )B MA 4 ∴ 8v = −2x.
dt dt
118. Ans ( 2 ) thus, 8v.a = – 2x.v
Here, m = 60 kg = 60 × 103 g, or a = − 1 x
c = 0.83 cal g – 1 °C – 1 4
By definition,
Q = 200 kcal = 2 × 105 cal
a = – ω 2x
Amount of heat required for a person,
1 1
∵ Q = mc Δ T ∴ ω2 = ⇒ω=
4 2
Q 2 × 105 2π
⇒ ΔT = = = 4.016∘ C Period of oscillation, T = = 4π
mc 3
60 × 10 × 0.83 ω
119. Ans ( 4 ) 124. Ans ( 4 )

At high altitudes, atmospheric pressure is Frequency COP, nN = (2N + 1)
lower, reducing the boiling point of water as for N = 0, n0 = 100 Hz
compared to that at sea level. When boiling N = 1, n1 = 300 Hz
point of water is reduced, it has lesser heat at N = 2, n2 = 500 Hz
boiling, it transfers lesser heat to raw food N = 3, n3 = 700 Hz
material, per unit time. So, it takes more time to N = 4, n4 = 900 Hz
cook food. On the other hand, boiling point is
N = 5, n5 = 1100 Hz
increased inside a pressure cooker by
Which are less than 1250 Hz.
increasing the pressure. Hence, cooking is
faster. 125. Ans ( 3 )
Check by alternate
120. Ans ( 1 )
A to x beats and B to 2x beats
x = Asin( ω t + ϕ )
dx
or
v= = A ω cos( ω t + ϕ ) 256 – n = x ...(i)
dt
dv
a= = – A ω 2sin( ω t + ϕ ) 262 – n = 2x ...(ii)
dt
n = 250 Hz
126. Ans ( 3 ) 131. Ans ( 1 )
ω 120π
ν =√
γP
=√
γRT v= = = 300 × 10−2 = 3 m/s
ρ Mw K [
2π
]
5×10−2
γ T 4 × 10−3
∴ν∝√ v=√ ( m= = 4 × 10−1 kg/m)
Mw m 10 −2
T
ν1 √ 7/5 4 ⇒3=√ ⇒ 9 × 0.4 = T
= × 0.4
ν2 5/3 28 ⇒ T = 3.6 N
√ 3
= 132. Ans ( 3 )
5
Path difference, Δ x = S2D – S1D
127. Ans ( 3 )
=5–4=1m
2π
Phase difference = × path difference ∴ The corresponding phase difference will be,
λ
2π 2π 2π π
⇒ 1.6 π = × 40 ⇒ λ = 50 cm = 0.5 m ϕ= . Δx = .1 =
λ λ 4 2
Using I = I1 + I2 + 2 I1 I2 cos ϕ
√
⇒ v = n λ ⇒ 330 = 0.5 × n ⇒ n = 660 Hz

I = I0 + I0 + 2√I0 I0 cos π = 2I0
2
128. Ans ( 1 )
133. Ans ( 2 )
umax = 2v
y0 2 π n = 2.n. λ Particle velocity = – υ × slope of the graph
At point A, the slope of the curve is positive. So
λ = π y0
the particle velocity is negative or downward (↓)
129. Ans ( 2 ) At point B, slope is negative hence velocity
v positive, i.e., upward (↑) and similarly at point C
f = = 400 Hz velocity is negative, i.e., downward (↓).
2ℓ
f′ =
v
= 400 Hz
134. Ans ( 3 )
ℓ xv
4( ) n = ; x = 1, 3, 5....
2 4ℓ
1500, 4500, 7500, 10500, 13500, 16500, 19500
130. Ans ( 1 ) (in Hz)
The distance of the listener from the second speaker = 6 overtones.
2 2
= √
(3) + (4) = √ 25 = 5 m 135. Ans ( 3 )
path difference = (5 – 4.0) m = 1 m Let distance between cliff and mountain be d
For fully destructive interference 1 m = (2m + l) λ /2
Hence λ = 2/(2m + 1) m
The corresponding frequencies are given by 1=
d
+
d
⇒ d = 170 m
340 340
n = [330 × (2m + 1)]/2 s – 1, for m = 0, 1, 2, 3, 4,
.................... SECTION - B
= 165 (2m + 1) s – 1, for m = 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, ........... 136. Ans ( 2 )

3
Therefore the frequencies for which the listener Avg. translational KE = nRT
2
would hear a minimum intensity 165 Hz, 495 Hz, 3 25
= ×5× × 300 J
2 3
825 Hz, .............. = 18750 J
137. Ans ( 1 ) 142. Ans ( 1 )
dQ = dU + dW V = const.
P∝T
= 1 × 3 R × (4T0 – T0) + 1 × P0 × V0 P nR
2 Slope = =
T V
= 9 RT0 + RT0 = 11
RT0 mR
2 2 (Slope)A =
Mω V
138. Ans ( 2 )
(Slope)B = 3mR
H1 = H2 Mω V
(Slope)B 3
46A 390A =
(100 − θ) = (θ – 0) (Slope)A 1
ℓ ℓ
143. Ans ( 4 )
θ = 10.6°C
Both assertion and reason are true and reason is
139. Ans ( 2 ) the correct explanation of assertion.
Water has maximum density at 4°C, on heating
λ mT = b (where b = 2.89 × 10 – 3 mK)
above 4°C or cooling below 4°C density of
2.89 × 10−3
⇒T= b = ≈ 2000 K water decreases and its volume increases.
λm 1.5 × 10−6
Therefore, water overflows in both the cases.
140. Ans ( 4 )
1 144. Ans ( 4 )
W= (P0) (V0)
2 The maximum force acting on the body executing
3 3P0 V0
QAB = nCv Δ T = (2P0V0 – P0V0) = simple harmonic motion is
2 2
2
2
(+ve) m ω 2a = m×(2 π f)2×a = 60 × ( 2π × ) × 0.1 N
π
QBC = nCp Δ T = 5
[4P0V0 – 2P0V0] = 60 × 16 × 0.1 = 96 N = 96 ≈ 10kgf and this force
2 9.8
is towards mean position.
= 5P0V0 = (+ve)
QCA = – ve
13
Qin = QAB + QBC = PV
2 0 0
W 100
η= × 100 = %
Qin 13
141. Ans ( 2 ) The reaction of the force on the platform is away
P0 T
P0T0 = from the mean position. It reduces the weight of man
2
T = 2T0 on upper extreme, i.e. net weight becomes
f 3 = (60 – 10)kgf = 50 kgf
ΔU = nR ΔT = (2)R(2T0 − T0 ) = 3RT0
2 2 This force adds to the weight at lower extreme
P0V0 = nRT0 position i.e., net weight becomes = (60 + 10) kgf =
P 0 V0 P V
T0 = = 0 0 70 kgf
nR 2R
P 0 V0 3P0 V0 Therefore, the reading of weight recorded by spring
Δ U = (3R) ( ) =
2R 2 balance fluctuates between 50 kgf and 70 kgf.
145. Ans ( 2 ) 149. Ans ( 3 )
The relation for kinetic energy of S.H.M. is Frequency of first = f
given by
Frequency of last = f – (25 – 1)3 = f – 72
= 1 m ω 2 (a2 – x2) ...(i)
2 f = 2 [f – 72] (Given)
Potential energy is given by
= 1 m ω 2x2 ...(ii) f = 144 Hz
2
Now for the condition of question and from Frequency of 21st tunning fork = f – (21 – 1) × 3
equaitons (i) and (ii), = 144 – 20 × 3
1
m ω 2(a2 – x2) = 1 × 1 m ω 2x2 = 84 Hz
2 3 2
or mω x = m ω 2a2 or x2 = 3 a2
4 2 2 1
150. Ans ( 3 )
6 2 4
a√ 1
So, x = 3 = 0.866 a ≈ 87% of amplitude. Velocity of sound, υ ∝
2
√ ρ
146. Ans ( 3 ) υ1 ρ2
For A, if spring const. = K, then for B, spring =√ = .........(i)
υ2 ρ1
const. for each = 3K ∵ First over tone of closed organ pipe
m = First overtone of open organ pipe
TA = 2 π √
k 3υ1 2υ
m ⇒ =
TB = 2 π √ (∵ Keq = 9K, for B) 4L1 2L2
9k 4 υ2
T 3 ⇒ L2 =
⇒ A = 3 υ1
TB 1 4 ρ
L1 = L√ 1 [ ∵ L1= L(given)]
147. Ans ( 2 ) 3 ρ2
U = A – A cos px SUBJECT : PHYSICS-04
dU
F= –( )
dx SECTION - A
F = – [0 – A( – sin px) p]
151. Ans ( 2 )
F = – [+Ap sin px] Fnet is between 7 & 8
F = – Ap sin px
F = – Ap px [x = very small, so, sin px ≃ px]
F = – Ap2x
F = – kx
by k = Ap2
m m
T = 2π √ = 2π √
k Ap2
148. Ans ( 2 ) ∴ 7:30
1 2 2E
E1 = Kx ⇒ x = √ 1 152. Ans ( 3 )
2 K
1 2E Wi→f = ( – e)(Vf – Vi)
E2 = Ky ⇒ y = √ 2
2
2 K W1 = ( – e) (70 – 80) = 10 eV
1
and E = K(x + y) 2⇒
x + y = √ 2E W2 = ( – e) (60 – 70) = 10 eV
2 K
2E1 √ 2E2 √ 2E
⇒ √ + = W3 = ( – e) (60 – 80) = 20 eV
K K K
⇒ √ E 1 + √ E 2 = √E W4 = ( – e) (50 – 70) = 20 eV
153. Ans ( 1 ) 158. Ans ( 4 )
An electric dipole is a pair of equal and opposite
potential difference
charges q and – q separated by some distance 2a.
1 1 Its dipole moment vector has →p magnitude 2qa
= K 10 ( − ) = 9 × 1010 (5)
.1 .2
and is in the direction of dipole axis from – q to
= 45 × 1010 = 4.5 × 1011V q.
154. Ans ( 2 )
Let mass of the particle = m,
charge on particle = q
intensity of electric field between the plates = E The electric field due to a dipole at a point P is,
initially mg = qE (for equillibrium) p √ 3cos2 θ + 1 KP cos θ
E= ,V = (r > >
4 πε0 r3 r2
After reversing the field ma = mg + qE a)
⇒ ma = 2mg → F
→τ = →p × E, → Net = 0
∴ acceleration of particle ⇒ a = 2g 159. Ans ( 2 )

4 3 4
155. Ans ( 4 ) πR = 1000 × πr2
3 3
Q Q R = 10 r
V = −
4πε0 r 4πε0 3r k (1000q) 100 kq
V= =
1 2Q 10r r
∴ V =
4πε0 3r 160. Ans ( 2 )
→ −→ 1
3rV By using E ⋅ dA = (Qenc )
4πε0 ∫
Q 2 ε0
E= 2
= 2
4πε0 (3r) 4πε0 (3r) 161. Ans ( 1 )
V ϕair ϕair 5
∴ E= ϕmed = ⇒ ∈r = =
6r ∈r ϕmed 3
156. Ans ( 2 ) 162. Ans ( 1 )
→ = ( −∂V
E )
^
i −(
−∂V
)
^
j −(
∂V
)
^
k
The distribution of charge on the outer surface,
∂x ∂y ∂z depends only on the charges outside and it
157. Ans ( 3 ) distributes itself such that the net, electric field
F ∝ 10(90) inside the outer surface due to the charge on
outer surface and all the outer charges is zero.
After contact, charge on each becomes Similarly the distribution of charge on the inner
10 + (−90) surface, depends only on the charges inside the
= = – 40 µC
2 inner surface, and it distributes itself such that
F' ∝ (40)(40) the net, electric field outside the inner surface
due to the charge on inner surface and all the
F′ 40 × 40 16
= = inner charges is zero. Also the force on charge
F 10 × 90 9
16F inside the cavity is due to the charge on the inner
F' =
9 surface.
163. Ans ( 2 ) 169. Ans ( 2 )
1 q1 q2
F=
4πε0 r2
q q
∴ 1 2 = 4F r2
πε0
= [MLT – 2] [L2] No, current through r

E1 E
I= = 2
= [ML3T – 2] R1 R2
E1 R1
=
164. Ans ( 1 ) E2 R2
No. of lines ∝ q 170. Ans ( 2 )

15E 3E
165. Ans ( 3 ) V1 = = = 0.75E
5 + 15 4
30E 6E
T sin θ = qE V2 = = = 0.85E
5 + 35 7
10E 2E
V3 = = = 0.67E
10 + 5 3
T cos θ = mg V2 > V1 > V3
171. Ans ( 2 )
P S
=
Q 625
676
∵ S =
625 S
qE
S = 25 × 26
⇒ tan θ = = 650 Ω
mg
mg 25 × 10−3 × 10 × 1 172. Ans ( 3 )
E= tan θ =
q 10−3
= 2.5×102 N/C ⇒
166. Ans ( 1 )
V = i (R + S) ∵ i2 < i1
20 = (0.01) (20 + S) ∴ intensity of bulb A↓
S = 1980 Ω but voltage across B↑
167. Ans ( 2 ) ∴ intensity of B↑

Condition for maximum power is r = R 173. Ans ( 4 )
6R × 3R 4 3
4= ∵ =
9R 8 6
R=2 ∴ No current in 5 Ω
i1 9 3
∴ = =
168. Ans ( 3 ) i2 12 4
ρℓ
R=
A
174. Ans ( 2 ) 178. Ans ( 3 )
Let x → equivalent resistance
V
2x R=
+1=x i
2+x
i1 < 4A
On solving x = 2 Ω
20 = i1R
6
∴ i = = 3A 20
2 R= > 5Ω
x 2 × 3A i1
∴ i1 = i=
2+x 2+2 179. Ans ( 2 )
= 1.5 A
175. Ans ( 2 )
i = q ν = 1.6 × 10 – 19 × 6.6 × 1015
= 10.56 × 10 – 4 A = 1mA
176. Ans ( 1 ) Rnet = 8 Ω
ig G 10 × 0.01 10 180. Ans ( 1 )
S= = = ohm
i − ig 10 − 0.01 999
C = 100 μ f V = 200V
177. Ans ( 4 )
1
Heat generated = CV 2
2
1
= × 10−4 × 4 × 1.4 = 2J
2
181. Ans ( 3 )
2I + 2I1 – 6 = 0
qi = 60 μ c, qf = 120 μ c + 60 μ c = 180 μ c
I + I1 = 3 ...(1)
∴ qf = Kqi
(I – I1) 1 + 6 – 2I1 = 0
180
I – 3I1 = – 6 ...(2) K= =3
60
from (1) & (2) 182. Ans ( 3 )
9
∴ I1 =
4
1
VA – VB = IR μF × n = 2
6
= 9 ×2 n = 12
4
9
= = 4.5
2 Total = 12 × 6 = 72
183. Ans ( 1 ) 187. Ans ( 3 )
du 1
= ∈0 E 2
dv 2
1
du = ∈0 E 2 a2 dy
2 α
1
u = ∈0 a2 ∫ (3y)2 dy
2 0
2(6 – x) + 4 (0 – x) + 2 (6 – x) = 0 1 a3
= ∈ 0 a2 × 9 ×
12 – 2x – 4x + 12 – 2x = 0 2 3
3∈0 a5
24 = 8x ∴ x = 3V =
2
∴ qC1 = 2 (6 – 3) = 6 μ C 188. Ans ( 1 )
→ ×E
→τ = P →
184. Ans ( 1 )
189. Ans ( 4 )
During steady state 4 Ω can be remove d.
→ = E cos 45o î + E sin 45o ^j = 400 (i^ + ^j )
E
√2
x A y A
VA − VB = − ∫ Ex dx − ∫ Ey dy
xB yB
= Ex(xB – xA) + Ey(yB – yA)
400
= [(3 − 0) × 10−2 + (0 − 2) × 10−2 ]
3×2 √2
Q = Ceq × (VA − VB ) = (I × 5) 4
3+2 = V = 2.8V
6 18 √ 2
Q= ×5× = 18 μC
5 6 190. Ans ( 4 )
185. Ans ( 2 )
C 1 V1 − C 2 V2
Vcom =
C1 + C2
0 = C 1 V1 − C 2 V2
C 1 V1 = C 2 V2
120C1 = 200C2
3C1 = 5C2
SECTION - B
186. Ans ( 2 )
→ qin
∮
→ ds
E. =
∈0
191. Ans ( 3 )
Q× 43 π(x3 −r31 ) Using the formula for electric field produced by
4
π(r32 −r31 ) Q
E . 4πx =2 3 large sheet E =
∈0 2A ∈0
We get ;
Q x3 − r31 4Q ^ 2Q ^
E= EA = (−i ); EB = (−i )
4π∈0 x2
( )
2A∈0 2A∈0
r32 − r31
4Q
EC = . (+i)
2Aε0
192. Ans ( 2 ) 198. Ans ( 3 )
P 40 2 dq
= = Slope = i = i0 e−t/τ
Q 60 3 dt
P
=
50
At t =0, Slope = i0 = V = Q
50Q 50 R CR
50 + Q
Q Slope 1 > Slope2 > Slope3
50 + Q 2 ∴ R1 < R2 < R3
× =1
50 3
199. Ans ( 1 )
100 + 2Q = 150
Q = 25 Ω
193. Ans ( 4 )
200
R15 = = R0 (1 + α (15 – 0))
10
20 = R0(1 + 15 α ) ...(I)
200
RT = = 40 = R0[1+ (T – 0) α ] ...(II)
5
194. Ans ( 4 )
i = i1 + i2
V 1 1 1 1
= neAV + n(2e)A = + +
(
4
)
Ceq 12 24 8
= 3 neAV Ceq= 4µF

2
240
195. Ans ( 4 ) q5µF = × 5 = 50µC
24
l2 l21 l22 l23 200. Ans ( 4 )
R∝ ⇒ R1 : R2 : R3 = : :
m m1 m2 m3
9 4 1
⇒ R1 : R2 : R3 = : : = 27 : 6 : 1
1 2 3
196. Ans ( 4 )
C 3C 3 ε0 A
CAB = C + = =
2 2 2 d
SUBJECT : PHYSICS-05
Eneq = (n – 4). E rneq = nr SECTION-A
From circuit analysis we get V = E + ir ....(i) 201. Ans ( 2 )
(n − 4)E (n − 4)E 2
The field at the midpoint of BC due to AB is
i= nr
, [E +
nr
. r] = 2E (1 − )
n
μ0 i ^
197. Ans ( 1 ) ( − ⋅ k) and the same is due to CD.
4π d/2
qmax 3CKV
Vmax = = = 2.5KV μ0 i ^
Ceq 6C Therefore the total field is [( −( ) k)].
5 πd
202. Ans ( 2 ) 208. Ans ( 2 )
→ ×B
→τ = M → ⇒ →τ = 50i^ × (0.5i^ + 3j^) 1
x ∝ (Above curie temperature)
T − Tc
^
= 150(i^ × ^j ) = 150kN ×m 209. Ans ( 1 )
1
203. Ans ( 4 ) x∝ .
T
The bar magnet coercivity 4 × 103 Am−1 i.e., it 210. Ans ( 1 )
requires a magnetic intensity H = 4 × 103 Am−1 B1 = r0 M
4πr31
to get demagnetised. Let i be the current 2μ0 M
B2 =
4πr32
carried by solenoid having n number of turns
According to question
per metre length, then by definition H = ni.
Here H = 4 × 103 Amp turn metre – 1
N 60 –1
n= = = 500 turn metre
l 0.12
H 4 × 103
⇒i= = = 8.0A
n 500
204. Ans ( 1 )
→
^ B1 = B2
B = Bi^ + Bj^ + Bk
−→ μ0 I
|B | = B√3 = ( )√ 3 r1
= (2)1/3
2R r1
205. Ans ( 1 ) 211. Ans ( 3 )

At resonance (VC = VL) The forces and are the forces applies by
V = Irms × R wires Q and R respectively on the wire P as
Vrms
= × R (here z = R) shown in figure. Their resultant force F is best
Z
100
V = Vrms = 100 volt & Irms = = 2 Amp. shown by C.
50
206. Ans ( 4 )
T
2
(e1 sin ωt + e2 cos ωt)2 dt
Vrms =∫
T
0
e21 + e22
= √
2
2π
where ω = 212. Ans ( 3 )
T
207. Ans ( 4 ) Magnetic field in first quadrant at point (x, y)
C. S. 10
G= = = 5Ω
V . S. 2
V = i(G+R) → = μ0 I + μ0 (3I) = →0 ⇒ x = 3y
B
150 = 15 × 10 – 3.(5+R) 2πy 2πx
R = 104 – 5 = 9995 Ω
213. Ans ( 2 ) 219. Ans ( 1 )
For permanent magnet we prefer a material 2 × 1010
Speed of wave = = 108 m/s
with high retentivity (so as to make a stronger 200
3 × 108
magnet) and high coercivity (so that Refractive index = =3
108
magnetization any not be wiped out easily). for Now refractive index = √εr μr
electromagnet we prefer high saturated 3 = √εr (1) ⇒ ε r = 9
magnetism low coercivity and least possible 220. Ans ( 2 )

area of hysteresis loop so that electromagnet (a) uv rays – used for water purification
develops high magnetization, is easily (b) x-rays used for diagnosing fracture
(c) Microwaves are used for mobile and radar
demagnetized and energy loss in a
communication
magnetization cycle is least. Therefore, P is (d) Infrared waves show less scattering therefore
suitable for making permanent magnet and Q used in foggy days
for making electromagnet. (a – ii), (b – i), (c – iii), (d – iv)
214. Ans ( 1 ) 221. Ans ( 1 )
BAN BAN t = 0, L → open CKT
C. S. = C. S. =
C C t = ∞ , L→ conductor [short circuit]
(C1 = C2 = constant)
(C. S.)1 B A N
222. Ans ( 1 )
= 1 1 1 di
(C. S.)2 B 2 A2 N2 εL = L
dt
215. Ans ( 4 ) 223. Ans ( 1 )
Propagation is along E→ × B→
102 + 102
Vrms = √ = 10V
216. Ans ( 2 ) 2
→
EB E2 224. Ans ( 4 )
|S | = =
μ0 Cμ0 V2 N 8
4
= 2 =
10 V1 N1 1
= 8 −7
= 26.5 Wm – 2. V2 = 8 × 120 = 960 volt
3 × 10 × 4π × 10
960
217. Ans ( 4 ) I= = 96 mA
104
c
Refractive index, n = 225. Ans ( 3 )
v
c 3 × 108 Pav = Vrms irms cos ϕ
or v = = = 2 × 108 ms – 1
n 1.5 226. Ans ( 2 )
Here, µ = 5 × 10 – 7 Hm – 1 E = VBV ℓ
1 1
∴ v= = 227. Ans ( 4 )
√ με √ με0 εr
1 1
εr = =
v2 με 0 8 2
(2 × 10 ) × (5 × 10−7 ) × (8.85 × 10−12 )
= 5.65 ≃ 6
218. Ans ( 4 )
λ micro > λ infrared > λ ultraviolet > λ gamma
228. Ans ( 4 ) 233. Ans ( 1 )
L Impedance of circuit
ε = ∫ B (x ω) dx
Z = √R2 + (XL − XC )2 = √(45)2 + (4 − 4)2 = 45 Ω
L
2
Total current in circuit I = V = 90 = 2A
229. Ans ( 1 ) Z 45
(Reading of ammeter)
Q = ∫ i dt Voltmeter connect across L and C so reading of
= Area voltmeter = VL – VC
1 Now XL = XC ⇒ VL =VC
= (4)(0.1)
So reading of voltmeter = 0
2
= 0.2 C
234. Ans ( 3 )
Δϕ XL
Q= tan ϕ =
R R
Δϕ = QR
235. Ans ( 2 )
= (0.2) (10)
= 2 wb
230. Ans ( 3 )
e = L di
dt
0 = L d t2 e−t
dt
0 = L[ – t2e – t + e – t × 2t]
5 × 10 10
Leq. = = mH
= Lt e – t( – t + 2) 5 × 10 3
Current in steady start,
⇒ t = 0, 2, ∞
20
I= = 4A
231. Ans ( 1 ) 5
Lenz's Law As L1 & L2 are in parallel
I2 10
232. Ans ( 1 ) I1 = I ( ) = 4 ×
L1 + L2 10 + 5
Q = CV = C(Bvl) = 10 × 10 – 6 × 4 × 2 × 1 = 80 I1 = 4 × 10 8
= A
15 3
µC According to Fleming's right hand rule
SECTION-B
induced current flows from Q to P. Hence P is
236. Ans ( 2 )
at higher potential and Q is at lower potential.
RS
G=
Therefore A is positively charged and B is R−S
negatively charged. 237. Ans ( 1 )

2mk
√ √
2mqV
r= =
qB qB
r = 1 √ 2mV
B q
m
r∝√
q
238. Ans ( 3 ) 246. Ans ( 3 )
μ0 2M 1 1
Baxial = f= , f′ = =f
4π r3 2π√LC 2π√1.25L × 0.8C
μ0 M 247. Ans ( 3 )
Bequatorial =
4π r3 ϕ = BA = B π R2
dϕ
239. Ans ( 3 ) ϕ = B π (R0+t)2 e = = B π 2x(t + R0)
dt
Angle between →u&B→ is θ ( θ ≠ 0° , 90°, 180°) 248. Ans ( 1 )
2
∴ path —→ Helix 1 2 1 E
H= Li0 = L( )
2 2 R1
240. Ans ( 1 ) 249. Ans ( 3 )
PQ
2
= r cos 45° VA – VB = 5 × 1 – 15 + 5 × 10 – 3 × 103 × – 11
PQ = 2r cos 45°
= – 15 V
VB – VA = 15 V
250. Ans ( 3 )
V V
i= =
Z √
R2 + Xc2
mv V V
r= VC = iXC = XC =
qB 2
√
R 2 + XC 2 √
(
R
) +1
XC
241. Ans ( 1 )
Fnet = FAD – FBC SUBJECT : PHYSICS-06
242. Ans ( 1 ) SECTION-A
3/2
Baxis R2
=( ) 251. Ans ( 4 )
Bcentre R2 + x 2
The P-N junction will conduct only when it is
243. Ans ( 4 )
→
→v| |B forward biased i.e. when – 5V is fed to it, so it
θ = 0∘ will conduct only for 3rd quarter part of signal
Fm = qvB sin θ
shown and when it conducts potential drop 5
Fm = 0
volt will be across both the resistors, so output
244. Ans ( 2 )
voltage across R2 is 2.5V.
Displacement current,
∴ V0 = – 2.5V
ID = conduction current, IC
252. Ans ( 1 )
dq d There will be no effect of first zener diode
∴ = [q0 cos 2 π υ t] = – q02 π υ sin 2 π υ t
dt dt
because of forward bias, so
245. Ans ( 2 )
→ ×B ^
→ =K current through 10 k Ω = reading of ammeter
E
(20 − 15) V
→ B
E. → =0 = = 0.5mA
10kΩ
253. Ans ( 1 ) 258. Ans ( 3 )
According to question n1 λ 1 = n2 λ 2
So n1 = λ2 = 10000 = 5
n2 λ1 12000 6
so minimum n1 and n2 are 5 and 6 respectively.
n 1 λ1 D 5 (12000 × 10−10 ) (2)
Xmin = =
d 2 × 10−3
– 3
= 6 × 10 m = 6 mm
259. Ans ( 3 )
nfλ
xn =
a
axn 3 × 10−4 × 5 × 10−3
⇒ λ= = = 5000Å
fn 3×1
[ ∴ n = 3]
260. Ans ( 4 )
The intensity of light emerging from the first
254. Ans ( 3 ) polaroid is I1 = 1 I0
2
From the given circuit The intensity of light emerging from the second
¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
¯
Y = (A + B) ⋅ C = A + B + C
¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ polaroid is I2 = I1 cos2 θ { θ = 90 – 60° = 30°}
I2 3
¯ ¯ ¯ I2 = I1 cos2 30∘ ⇒ =
Y =A⋅B+C I0 8
∴ transmission percentage
255. Ans ( 3 ) I2 3
−3
= × 100 = × 100 = 37.5%
I 4.8 × 10 I0 8
J= = = 4.8 × 103 Am – 2
A 1 × 10−6 261. Ans ( 4 )
I = neAv
∵ μ = tan θ P
3
v = I = J = 22 4.8 × 10 −19 = 3 m/s ∴ μ = tan 60° ⇒ μ = √3
neA ne 10 × 1.6 × 10
ℓ 6 × 10−2
∴ time taken = = = 2 × 10 – 2 s Now sin θC =
1
v 3 μ
256. Ans ( 3 ) 1 1
sin θC = ⇒ θC = sin−1 ( )
hc 1242 1242 3 3
Eg = = = = 3.105 √ √
λ λ(nm) 400
Answer rounded to 3 eV 262. Ans ( 3 )
Part of wave front will take shape of mirror
257. Ans ( 1 )
2π 263. Ans ( 1 )
ϕ= Δx
λ 1 hc hc
K.E. = mv2 = −
= 2π λ /3 = 2 π /3 2 λ λ0
λ
√ 2m ( hc − hc
)
I = I0 cos2 ϕ /2 mv λ λ0
r= =
eB eB
I = 0.01 cos2( π /3)
1 1 e2 B 2 r 2
= −
I = 2.5 mW/m2 λ0 λ 2mnc
264. Ans ( 2 ) 270. Ans ( 4 )
Pλ
n=
hc
265. Ans ( 3 )
Ki + Ui = Kf + Uf
Position of central maxima remain such i.e. 2m.
K(2e)e
Position of 10th maxima in air = 10D λair = 3 cm 0+
r
= Kα + KP + 0
d
Position of 10 maxima in medium = 10D λmed
th = K α + 4K α
a
10 D λair 3×2 2 Ke2 2 1 e2
= = 2 cm Kα = = ×
aμ 3 5 r 5 4π∈0 r
so position of 10th maxima from central = 2 + 2 = 4 e2
Kα =
cm 10π∈0 r
271. Ans ( 3 )
266. Ans ( 1 )
The energy of each incident photon
Work function of 'Y' is greater than 'X' and
slope of V versus f is h/e. hv = KEmax + ϕ = 2 + 5 = 7eV
267. Ans ( 3 ) and saturation current
For longer frequency 10−3 P
15
is = ( ) n × e = 10 – 5 ( ) e
ω 8 × 10 −1 100 E
v= = s
2π 2π 272. Ans ( 4 )
K.E.max = hv – ϕ
mv1 = 2m v2 = P
6.6 × 10−34 × 8 × 1015
K.E.max. = −2
1.6 × 10−19 × 2 × 3.14
h h
= 5.27 – 2 = 3.27 eV λ1 = , λ2 =
P P
268. Ans ( 4 ) λ1 h/p 1
2 2 = =
nh n h λ2 h/p 1
mvr = ⇒ v 2 r2 =
2π 4π 2 m2
acceleration 273. Ans ( 4 )
E Δmc2
v2 v 2 r2 n2 h2 p= =
a= = = t t
r r3 4π 2 m2 r3
pt 109 × 60 × 60 36 × 1011
put n = 1 ∴ Δm = = =
2
c2 (3 × 108 ) 9 × 1016
269. Ans ( 3 ) Δ m = 4 × 10 – 5 kg = 0.04 g
μ0 i e ev
B= ,i = = ,
2r τ 2πr and Δ m = 0.1% of m
1
v∝ , r ∝ n2 ∴ m = 0.04 kg
n
v 1 274. Ans ( 3 )
B∝ ∝
200 168 4 0
r2 n5 90X → 80Y + a × 2 α + b × 1 β :-
275. Ans ( 4 ) 281. Ans ( 2 )
Given E1 the binding energy (BE) per nucleon δ = i + e – A ⇒ A = 45° (i = 15°; e = 60°)
of deutron (2-nucleons) 282. Ans ( 2 )
So, the BE of deutron = 2E1
Also, given BE per nucleon of an a-particle (4- P = P1 + P2 = 4 – 2
nucleons) = E2 P=2
So, the BE of a-particle = 4E2 1 1
In the given nuclear reaction, F= = = 0.5m
P 2
1H2 + 1H2 ——→ 2He4 + E = 50 cm
Using energy conservation law,
2E1 + 2E1 = 4E2 + E 283. Ans ( 2 )
or E = 4E1 – 4E2 = 4(E1 – E2) 1 1 1
− =
v u f
∴ Energy E released = – E = 4(E2 – E1) 1 1 1
− =
276. Ans ( 1 ) v (+12) 20
No change occur.
277. Ans ( 3 )
−f
m = +2 =
u1 − f
−f
m = –2 =
u2 − f v = +7.5 cm
278. Ans ( 1 ) 284. Ans ( 4 )
∵ Length of telescope (nwjn'khZ dh yEckbZ)
L = f0 + fe
Means (अर्थात्) 50 = f0 + fe ...(1)
Magnifying power (आवर्धन क्षमता)
279. Ans ( 1 ) −f0
4 1 M= = – 9 or f0 = 9 fe ...(2)
Sin θ c = = fe
5 μ
µ = 1.25 from (1) & (2) f0 = 45 cm & fe = 5 cm
280. Ans ( 1 ) 285. Ans ( 1 )

δm +A ƒ0 = 2cm ƒe = 6.25 cm L = 15 cm
sin( 2
)
μ= ve = – 25 cm
sin( A2 ) 1 1 1 1 1 1
− = ⇒− − =
∵ μ = cot (A/2) ve ue fe 25 u e 6.25
δm +A ue = – 5 cm
sin( )
2 Now,
∴ cot (A/2) =
sin( A2 ) L = v0 + |ue|
δm + A 15 = v0 + 5 ⇒ v0 = 10 cm
⇒ cos (A/2) = sin ( )
2 Now, for objective
δm + A 1 1 1 1 1 1
⇒ 90° – A/2 = − = ⇒ − =
2 v0 u0 f0 10 u0 2
⇒ δ = 180° – 2A u0 = −2.5 cm
SECTION-B 293. Ans ( 2 )
1 1 1 3
286. Ans ( 3 ) = RZ 2 ( − 2
) = R(2) × = 3R
λ 1 2
2 2 4
¯
Y = AB + A (1 + B) h 1
λe = =
¯
Y = AB + A + AB √
2meV 3R
Y = B(1) + A 9R2h2 = 2meV
=A+B 9R2 h2
V=
2me
287. Ans ( 2 )
294. Ans ( 3 )
ne = ND = 1021 m – 3
mv = mv1 + mv1
n2i 16 2
(1.41 × 10 )
nh = = = 2 × 1011 m−3 v
ne 10 21 v1 =
2
288. Ans ( 1 ) 2
1 1 V
I =
VZ
=
5
= 5 × 10−3 A = 5 mA
Δ Emini = 10.2 eV = mv2 – (2m) ( )
2 2 2
RL 1 × 103
1
289. Ans ( 2 ) ⇒ mv2 = 1 ( 1 mv2 ) = 10.2 eV
4 2 2
Characteristics of AND gate
K.E. = 2 × 10.2 = 20.4 eV
290. Ans ( 1 )
λ 295. Ans ( 3 )
∴ sin θ =
a
θ = half angular width of the central maximum. From photoelectric equation
a = 12 × 10 – 5 cm, λ = 6000 Å = 6 × 10 – 5 cm V1 =
hc
−
ϕ
eλ1 e
λ 6 × 10−5
∴ sin θ = = = 0.50 ⇒ θ = 30° hc ϕ
a 12 × 10−5 V2 = −
eλ2 e
291. Ans ( 3 ) hc ϕ
2 2 V3 = −
Imax √
I 1 + √I 2 25 √
I 1 + √I 2 eλ3 e
=( ) ⇒ =( )
Imin √
I1 − I2
√ 1 √
I 1 − √I 2
∵ V1, V2 & V3 are in A.P.
5 √ I1 + √ I2
=
1 √ I1 − √ I2 ⇒ 2V2 = V1 + V3
√ I1 3 I1 9
= or = 2hc 2ϕ hc ϕ hc ϕ
√ I2 2 I2 4 ⇒ − = = + −
eλ2 e eλ1 e eλ3 e
292. Ans ( 1 ) 2 1 1
⇒ = +
hν λ2 λ1 λ3
Momentum of photon p =
c 296. Ans ( 2 )
6.6 × 10−34 × 1.5 × 1013
= Δ E = 8.2 × 110 + 90 × 8.2 – 200 × 7.4
3 × 108
= 3.3 × 10 – 29 kg m/s Δ E = 160 MeV
297. Ans ( 2 ) 299. Ans ( 1 )
Yellow, Orange and Red
300. Ans ( 2 )
As the upper half will have focal length twice
that of lower half, rays coming from upper half
of planoconvex will be focused at more distance
from lens.
145cm from mirror M2

298. Ans ( 1 )
x
= 5cm .....(i)
μ
ℓ−x
= 3cm .....(ii)
μ
From (i) and (ii)
ℓ = (5+3) μ = 12cm

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SECTION - A ( PHYSICS-01 ) 7. Two forces P and Q have a resultant perpendicular

Distance between two particles at t = 1 is : of P . (Q × P ) ?

(1) 12 m/sec2 (2) 4 m/sec2

PHASE - QUICK PHYSICS REVISION (QPR)

(1) 5 kg (2) 6 kg (3) 7 kg (4) 8 kg

PHASE - QUICK PHYSICS REVISION (QPR)

SECTION - A ( PHYSICS-02 ) 55. In a circus stuntman rides a motorbike in a

PHASE - QUICK PHYSICS REVISION (QPR)

(3) m2 L 64. A planet of mass m is in an elliptical orbit about

(1) t1 = t2 (2) t1 = 8t2

(1) 19a/18, 17a/18 (2) 17a/18, 11a/18

(1) Fx = – 32; Fy = – 14; Fz = 24

SECTION - A ( PHYSICS-03 ) 105. 10 gm of ice at – 20°C is mixed with 10 gm of

PHASE - QUICK PHYSICS REVISION (QPR)

(1) Move towards left (3) 2T (4) 2 √2 T

113. A gas expands adiabatically at constant pressure

7 7 Find the tension in the string.

132. In the figure the intensity of waves arriving at D SECTION - B ( PHYSICS-03 )

(1) 1500 K (1) 3 : 1 (2) 1 : 3 (3) 9 : 1 (4) 1 : 9

(1) The spring balance reads the weight of man

PHASE - QUICK PHYSICS REVISION (QPR)

SECTION - A ( PHYSICS-04 ) 154. A charged particle is kept in equilibrium in an

157. Two small identical conducting spheres having

(1) A is +ve and B is – ve and |A| > |B|

(2) A is – ve and B is +ve ; |A| = |B|

(3) 2.5 × 102

(1) 1 A (2) 1.5 A

PHASE - QUICK PHYSICS REVISION (QPR)

(1) 9a5 ∈ 0 (2) 3 ∈ 0 a5

(1) A counterclockwise torque

PHASE - QUICK PHYSICS REVISION (QPR)

(1) V = 100 volt, I = 2 amp

PHASE - QUICK PHYSICS REVISION (QPR)

(1) → = E cos( ω t − 2 π y)x^

(2) → = −E0 cos( ω t + 2 π y)x^

(2) x = 2y (3) E→ = −E0 cos( ω t + 2 π y)z^

PHASE - QUICK PHYSICS REVISION (QPR)

PHASE - QUICK PHYSICS REVISION (QPR)

232. A conducting rod PQ of length L = 1.0 m is SECTION-B ( PHYSICS-05 )

(3) (4i^ + 6j^) × 10−19 T (4) Zero

PHASE - QUICK PHYSICS REVISION (QPR)

SECTION-A ( PHYSICS-06 ) 255. A n-type silicon sample of width 4 × 10 – 3 m,

PHASE - QUICK PHYSICS REVISION (QPR)

(1) (1) (2)

(3) (4) None of above (3) (4)

263. When a metal is irradiated by light having

(1) 200 nm (2) 400 nm π 2 m 2 r3

The logic circuit gate is :

Position of 5th image of given object in mirror (3)

QUICK PHYSICS REVISION (QPR)

SUBJECT : PHYSICS-01 3. Ans ( 1 )

= √(6 − 3)2 + (5 − 1)2 = √32 + 42 = 5 unit 5. Ans ( 1 )

11. Ans ( 2 ) 19. Ans ( 3 )

SECTION - B µN cos α = N sin α

74. Ans ( 4 ) 81. Ans ( 1 )

∴ temperature of mixture = 0°C E2 σT24 1200 16

106. Ans ( 3 ) 111. Ans ( 2 )

119. Ans ( 4 ) 124. Ans ( 4 )

⇒ v = n λ ⇒ 330 = 0.5 × n ⇒ n = 660 Hz

= 165 (2m + 1) s – 1, for m = 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, ........... 136. Ans ( 2 )

∴ acceleration of particle ⇒ a = 2g 159. Ans ( 2 )

= [MLT – 2] [L2] No, current through r

167. Ans ( 2 ) ∴ intensity of B↑