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Prelims Wallah Test 1.0- 2024


Test 30 : Full Length Test - 1

1. Consider the following personalities: 1. Rajamannar Abolition of All-India


1. N. Gopalaswamy Ayyangar Committee Services.
2. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar 2. Anandpur Residuary powers
3. Dr. K.M. Munshi Sahib should be vested in the
How many of the above were the members of Resolution states
the drafting committee? 3. Administrative Establishment of an
(a) Only one Reforms Inter-State Council.
(b) Only two Commission
(c) All three How many of the above pairs are correctly
(d) None matched?
(a) Only one
2. Consider the following statements about the (b) Only two
enforcement of the Constitution:
(c) All three
1. All the provisions of the Constitution
(d) None
came into force on November 26, 1949.
2. January 26 was specifically chosen as
the date of commencement of the Con- 5. Consider the following statements with
stitution because it marked the cele- reference to the Comptroller and Auditor
bration of Purna Swaraj day in 1930. General of India (CAG) of India:
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? 1. He/she is responsible for controlling the
(a) 1 only issuance of money from the Consoli-
(b) 2 only dated Fund of India.
(c) Both 1 and 2 2. He/she Holds office for a fixed term of
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
five years.

3. Which one of the following types of cases is 3. He/she is eligible for the post of
covered under Article 20 that mentions the chairperson of the National Green
right to be protected against double jeo-
Tribunal after he/she ceases to hold
pardy?
(a) Departmental Proceedings his/her office.
(b) Administrative Proceedings 4. He/she can be removed by a resolution
(c) Judicial Proceedings passed by a simple majority in both
(d) Social and Cultural transactions Houses of Parliament.
Which of the statements given above are
4. Consider the following pairs:
incorrect?
Commissions/ Recommendations.
Committees (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
2

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only 2. The audit report of the accounts of an


apex cooperative society shall be laid
(c) 1 and 4 only
before the state legislature.
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Which of the statements given above is/are
6. Consider the following statements: incorrect?
Statement-I: When a new panchayat is (a) 1 only
elected to replace the dissolved one, it will (b) 2 only
serve for the remaining term of the original (c) Both 1 and 2
Panchayat. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Statement-II: The Constitution (Seventy- 9. Consider the following statements with
third Amendment) Act, 1992, provides for a respect to Gopal Baba Walangkar:
five-year term of office for the panchayat at
1. He founded the Anarya Dosh-Parihar
every level. Mandali to address the socio-economic
Which one of the following is correct in oppression faced by the Mahars.
respect of the above statements? 2. He wrote ‘Hindu Dharma Darpan’ and
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are criticised the caste system in the country.
correct and Statement-II is the correct Which of the statements given above is/are
explanation for Statement-I correct?
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are (a) 1 only
correct and Statement-II is not the (b) 2 only
correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
is incorrect
10. With reference to the history of the Indian
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II press, consider the following statements:
is correct
1. The Press Ordinance of 1823 was
7. With reference to the Lok Adalat, consider repealed by Charles Metcalfe.
the following statements:
2. Under the Newspaper Act of 1908,
1. There is no court fee payable when a magistrates were given the power to
matter is filed in a Lok Adalat. confiscate printing presses.
2. Lok Adalats do not have any 3. The Press Enquiry Committee re-
jurisdiction relating to divorce. commended the Imposition of the
Which of the statements given above is/are Emergency Powers Act in 1947.
incorrect? Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 only correct?
(b) 2 only (a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 3 only
8. With respect to the Cooperative societies in (d) 1, 2 and 3
India, consider the following statements: 11. With respect to the Ring-fence policy of the
1. The supervision of electoral rolls and British in India, Consider the following
statements:
the conduct of elections to a cooperative
organisation is vested in the body 1. It is aimed at creating buffer zones to
defend the Company’s frontiers.
suggested by the Parliament.
2. The states brought under the ring-fence
system were assured of military assis-
3

tance against external aggression but at implemented by the Viceroy Lord Curzon in India?
their own expense. 1. The Indian Universities Act of 1904
Which of the statements given above is/are described universities as factories pro-
correct?
ducing political revolutionaries.
(a) 1 only
2. Amendments to the Official Secrets Act
(b) 2 only
were made in 1904 to suppress natio-
(c) Both 1 and 2
nalist sentiments in Indian news-papers.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
12. With reference to the Treaty of Tordesillas 3. Lord Curzon initiated the partition of
(1494), Consider the following statements: Bengal in 1905.
1. It was an agreement between Portugal Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
and Spain.
(a) 1 and 2 only
2. It was aimed at settling conflicts over
(b) 2 and 3 only
lands newly discovered or explored by
(c) 1 and 3 only
Christopher Columbus and other late
(d) 1, 2 and 3
15th-century voyagers.
3. The territory to the east of the line was 15. Consider the following statements regarding
allocated to Spain. the Delhi Proposals and the demands of
Which of the statements given above is/are Hindu Mahasabha:
correct? 1. The Delhi Proposals aimed to establish
separate electorates for Muslims with
(a) 1 and 2 only
reserved seats.
(b) 2 only 2. The Hindu Mahasabha supported the
(c) 3 only creation of new Muslim-majority pro-
(d) 1, 2 and 3 vinces and the reservation of seats for
Muslim majorities in Punjab and
Bengal.
13. Consider the following statements: 3. The Delhi Proposals included one-third
1. The religious reform movements in representation for Muslims in the
India had a broad social base, encom- Central Legislative Assembly.
passing various sections of society. 4. The Hindu Mahasabha demanded a
unitary structure.
2. Indian society in the 19th century was
Which of the statements given above are
caught in a vicious web created by correct?
religious superstitions and social obscu- (a) 1 and 2 only
rantism. (b) 2 and 4 only
3. The religious reform movements in (c) 1 and 3 only
India were inspired by Western ideas of (d) 3 and 4 only
rationality and social progress.
Which of the statements given above are 16. Consider the following statements with
correct? respect to the impact of the American Civil
War on the Peasants in India:
(a) 1 and 2 only
1. Crash in the cotton prices after the end
(b) 1 and 3 only of the American Civil War in 1864.
(c) 2 and 3 only 2. Due to the impact of the war, the British
(d) 1, 2 and 3 India Government decided to reduce the
land revenue by 50% all over India.
3. Agrarian riots started in parts of
14. Which of the following measures were Maharashtra.
4

Which of the statements given above is/are How many of the above pairs are correctly
correct? matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) Only one
(b) 1 and 3 only (b) Only two
(c) 3 only (c) All three
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None

17. He was defeated by the Gurjara Pratihara and 20. Consider the following statements about
Rashtrakuta kings but eventually carved out Raziya Sultan of Delhi Sultanate:
a kingdom embracing Bengal, Bihar, large 1. She was the first woman to ascend the
parts of Orissa, Nepal, and Assam. A copper throne of the Delhi Sultanate.
plate inscription discovered at Khalimpur
2. Her rule witnessed a power struggle
provides valuable information on his reign.
between the monarchy and the Turkish
He held a grand assembly in the city of
chiefs.
Kanauj. He was among the great patrons of
Buddhism and the university he founded 3. Her unconventional behaviour was
soon rivalled Nalanda. welcomed by the nobility as a symbol of
her strength and defiance against
Who amongst the following personalities is
traditional gender norms.
best described in the passage given above?
(a) Gopala Which of the statements given above are
correct?
(b) Dharmapala
(a) 1 and 2 only
(c) Devpala
(b) 2 and 3 only
(d) Mahipala
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
18. With reference to the Chishti Order of
Sufism, consider the following statements:
1. The Chisti Order was established in 21. Consider the following campaigns by
India by Nizamuddin Auliya. Alauddin Khalji:
2. Baba Farid was related to the Chisti 1. Mandu
Order of Sufism. 2. Ranthambore
3. Ajmer is a prominent centre relating to 3. Dwarasamudra
the Chisti Order. 4. Thanjavur
How many of the above statements are Which one of the following is the correct
correct? chronological order of the above events,
(a) Only one starting from the earliest?
(b) Only two (a) 1-2-3-4
(c) All three (b) 2-1-3-4
(d) None (c) 2-1-4-3
(d) 2-3-1-4
19. Consider the following pairs:
Towns Known for 22. Consider the following statements regarding
1. Vijayanagara : Capital of the Cholas the Mansabdari System:
2. Kudamukku : Centre of betel nut 1. Akbar introduced the Mansabdari
3. Palaiyarai : Weaving Industry Centre system in his administration.
5

2. The Mansabdari system incorporates 25. Consider the following sites:


the institutions of the Army, Nobility 1. Lakhudiyar
and Civil service. 2. Bhimbetka
3. Zat number of the Mansab indicates the 3. Attirampakkam
number of horses he has to maintain for How many of the above places belong to the
the state. Paleolithic period?
4. The Mansabdari system was hereditary (a) Only one
in nature. (b) Only two
How many of the above statements are (c) All three
correct? (d) None
(a) Only one
(b) Only two 26. Consider the following places :
(c) Only three 1. Lichchhavi
(d) All four 2. Pawapuri
3. Kosala
23. Which of the following statements is 4. Magadha
incorrect with reference to Aurangzeb? How many of the above were associated with
(a) He assumed the title of Alamgir. the life of the Vardhamana Mahavira?
(b) The Jats of Mathura and the Satnamis of (a) Only one
Mewar rebelled during his regime. (b) Only two
(c) He defeated Sikandar Shah of Bijapur (c) Only three
and annexed his kingdom. (d) All four
(d) Guru Arjan Dev, the fifth Sikh Guru,
was executed by him. 27. Which of the following inscriptions comme-
morates the accomplishments of King Khara-
24. Consider the following statements regarding vela?
the impact of the Mughal Empire on Indian (a) Hathigumpha inscription
society: (b) Nanaghat cave inscription
1. Akbar banned the sale of wives and (c) Garud pillar inscription
children of rebels by his troops. (d) Eran stone inscription
2. The conquests of the Mughal Empire
ensured a steady supply of slaves. 28. With reference to the contact of Central Asia
3. Abdullah Khan Firuz Jang deported with India, consider the following state-
peasants' wives and children to Persia ments:
for sale. 1. The Sakas and Parthians were contem-
4. The Mughals adopted a policy of poraries of each other.
settling Afghans in areas of insurgency. 2. The Sakas and Kushans strengthened
Which of the statements given above are the idea of the divine origin of kingship.
correct? Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
6

29. Consider the following statements with 4. Land taxes decreased in number and
respect to the Kushan Dynasty: those on trade and commerce increased.
1. The Mathura School of Art flourished Which of the above statements are incorrect
during the rule of Kushans. in the context of the Gupta empire?
2. They issued their coins and inscriptions (a) 1 and 2 only
in the Greek, Kharoshthi, and Brahmi (b) 2 and 3 only
scripts.
(c) 1 and 4 only
3. They belonged to one of the five clans
(d) 3 and 4 only
of the Yueh-chi tribe.
How many of the above statements are 32. Consider the following statements with
correct? reference to Chalcolithic culture in India:
(a) Only one 1. The Malwa culture is the most predo-
minant chalcolithic culture in central
(b) Only two
India.
(c) All three
2. The Jorwe culture is the most important
(d) None
and characteristic chalcolithic culture of
Maharashtra.
30. Consider the following statements with
3. The Ahar culture is among the earliest
reference to Agriculture during the Gupta
Chalcolithic cultures of India.
empire:
1. King was the sole proprietor of the land. How many of the above statements are
correct?
2. Agriculture declined in the Gupta period
due to the lack of irrigation. (a) Only one
3. Cultivators were asked to maintain their (b) Only two
crops properly from damages and those (c) All three
indulged in damaging the crops were (d) None
punished.
4. The position of peasants was under- 33. With reference to prehistoric paintings of
mined and were reduced to serfs.
Bhimbetka Caves, consider the following
How many of the above given statements are statements:
correct?
1. Mesolithic paintings are smaller in size
(a) Only one
as compared to the Upper Palaeolithic
(b) Only two period.
(c) Only three 2. In Mesolithic paintings, animals are
(d) All four painted in a naturalistic style while
31. Consider the following statements: humans are painted in a stylistic manner
1. Kingship was hereditary and there was only.
a firm practice of primogeniture. Which of the statements given above is/are
2. The judicial system was far more correct?
developed under the Guptas than in (a) 1 only
earlier times.
(b) 2 only
3. The caste system became rigid and there
(c) Both 1 and 2
was a proliferation of numerous sub-
castes. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
34. Which of the following correctly describes
7

the term “ kalam ezhuthu”? 3. The use of beetle wings to create an


(a) It is the ritual floor painting of Kerala. effect of the emerald stone.
(b) It is a folk dance practised in the 4. The most popular theme of Basohli
southern states of India. painters was the Rasamanjari of Bhanu
(c) It is a kind of music performed by males Datta.
on the occasion of Onam. How many of the above are the distinctive
(d) It is a traditional martial art performed features of the Basohli School of Pahari
by the Ezhava caste of Kerala. painting?
(a) Only one
35. With reference to the ‘Rajasthani Schools of (b) Only two
Painting’, consider the following statements: (c) Only three
1. The Malwa and Pahari Schools were in (d) All four
the ambit of Rajput Schools.
2. The painting activity was involved
38. Consider the following pairs:
teamwork.
Paintings Artists
3. The paintings were influenced by the
Vaishnavism cults of Rama and Krishna. 1. Radhika : Raja Ravi Varma

Which of the statements given above is/are 2. Rasa-Lila : Kshitindranath


correct? Majumdar
(a) 1 and 3 only 3. City in the Night : Gaganendranath
(b) 2 only Tagore

(c) 2 and 3 only How many of the above pairs are correctly
matched?
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) Only one

36. Consider the following: (b) Only two

1. Use of vibrant and contrasting colours (c) All three


2. Detailed depiction of court scenes (d) None
3. Absence of human figures
4. Influence of Persian art 39. Consider the following statements with
How many of the above are characteristics of reference to Mithila Painting:
the Mughal School of Miniature Painting? 1. The painting has a lot of blank spots.
(a) Only one 2. People of the Mithila region trace the
(b) Only two origin of the painting to Ramayana.
(c) Only three 3. Women use bamboo twigs to which
(d) All four some cotton swab, rice straw or fibre is
attached for the painting.

37. Consider the following statements: How many of the statements given above are
correct?
1. The school did not receive any royal
patronage. (a) Only one
2. Strong use of primary colours and warm (b) Only two
yellows. (c) All three
(d) None
8

40. With reference to the Bharhut sculptures, 43. Consider the following statements about
consider the following statements: Cirque:
1. They used pictorial language very 1. It is a horseshoe-shaped depression
effectively to communicate stories. representing a glaciated Valley head.
2. Maximum development of cirques is
2. They depict only the main character in
seen in the mature stage of the glacial
the story.
cycle.
3. They are modelled in low relief main- Which of the statements given above is/are
taining linearity. correct?
How many of the statements given above are (a) 1 only
correct? (b) 2 only
(a) Only one (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) Only two (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) All three
(d) None 44. Consider the following pairs:
Dams States
1. Indira sagar : Madhya Pradesh
41. With respect to the Islands of India, consider
2. Tehri : Rajasthan
the following pairs:
3. Bhavani sagar : Uttarakhand
Islands Location
How many of the above pairs are correctly
1. Vypin : Karnataka matched?
2. Netrani : Kerala (a) Only one
3. Van Tivu : Goa (b) Only two
How many of the above pairs are incorrectly (c) All three
matched? (d) None
(a) Only one
(b) Only two 45. Which of the following statements is
incorrect with reference to the Himalayan
(c) All three
Mountain Ranges?
(d) None
(a) The Himalayan ranges are devoid of
igneous rocks.
42. Consider the following statements: (b) Tethys Geosynclines accumulated rocks
1. Diastrophic forces are very slow forces that were folded to form the Himalayan
whose effects are observable only after ranges.
thousands of years. (c) The Duns are the longitudinal valleys
that run between the lesser Himalayas
2. They are a part of Exogenetic forces
and the Shiwaliks.
3. They are restricted to a small area under (d) The folds of the Great Himalayas are
the influence of local weathering agents. asymmetrical in nature.
How many of the above given statements are
correct regarding Diastrophic forces? 46. Consider the following:
(a) Only one 1. Differential ground movement
(b) Only two 2. Landslides
(c) All three 3. Soil liquefaction
(d) None 4. Avalanches
9

How many of the above mentioned pheno- 3. Amensalism : Remora getting pro-
mena are the effects of an earthquake? tection from shark
(a) Only one 4. Mutualism : Bees helping in polli-
(b) Only two nation during nectar
(c) Only three extraction
(d) All four Which of the pairs given above are correctly
matched?
47. With reference to the Indian Nino, consider (a) 1 and 4 only
the following statements: (b) 2 and 3 only
1. It develops due to the difference in sea (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
surface temperature between the (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Western pole in the Arabian Sea and the
Eastern pole (South of Indonesia).
50. With reference to the Forest Survey Report
2. A positive Indian Nino can worsen the
effects of El Nino in India. 2021, consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are 1. Madhya Pradesh has the largest forest
correct? cover in the country in terms of area.
(a) 1 only 2. The maximum increase in forest cover
(b) 2 only was witnessed in Meghalaya.
(c) Both 1 and 2 3. Mangrove cover has decreased in 2021
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 as compared with the 2019 assessment.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
48. Which of the following are the characteristics
of the equatorial region? (a) 1 and 2 only
1. Prevalence of bacteria and insect pests (b) 2 and 3 only
2. Commercial extraction of timber (c) 1 only
resources (d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Intensive Livestock farming
4. Development of plantation farming 51. Consider the following statements:
5. Rapid deterioration of tropical soil 1. Most of the waste produced by the nuclear
Select the correct answer using the code power industry is high-level waste.
given below: 2. In April 1986, the Chernobyl nuclear
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only power plant in the USSR underwent a
(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only catastrophic explosion due to a power
(c) 1, 4 and 5 only surge.
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only 3. Non-ionizing radiations have longer
wavelengths as compared to Ionizing
49. Consider the following pairs: radiations.
Population Examples How many of the above mentioned state-ments
Interaction are correct regarding radioactive pollution?
1. Parasitism : Roundworms living (a) Only one
in humans (b) Only two
2. Commensalism : Penicillium inhibiting (c) All three
the growth of bacteria (d) None
10

52. Which of the following statements is correct impacts of ocean acidification?


with reference to Biomagnification? 1. The concentration of hydrogen ions in
(a) It trickles down from higher species to the ocean increases and the concen-
lower species. tration of carbonate ions decreases.
(b) It takes place only in aquatic habitats 2. Oceans enhance their capacity to absorb
(c) It refers to an increase in the concen- carbon dioxide, impacting global carbon
tration of toxins at successive trophic cycles.
levels. 3. Marine organisms develop thicker shells,
(d) The process by which organisms evolve adapting to changing oceanic conditions.
to become better suited to their environ-
Select the correct answer using the code
ment over time.
given below:
53. Consider the following pairs:
(a) 1 only
Species Conservation Status (b) 1 and 2 only
1. Ganges Dolphin Endangered (c) 2 and 3 only
2. Malabar Civet Critically Endangered (d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Snow Leopard Vulnerable
4. Red Panda Endangered 56. Consider the following statements with
reference to the Great Green Wall initiative:
How many of the pairs given above are
correctly matched? 1. It aims to increase the amount of arable
(a) Only one land in the Sahel, the region bordering
Africa's Sahara Desert.
(b) Only two
2. The project was initiated and adopted by
(c) Only three
the United Nations Convention to
(d) All four
Combat Desertification (UNCCD).
Which of the statements given above is/are
54. With reference to the Eco-Sensitive Zone
correct?
(ESZ), consider the following statements:
(a) 1 Only
1. The concept of an Eco-Sensitive Zone
was conceived during the 2002 meeting (b) 2 Only
of the Indian Board for Wildlife. (c) Both 1 and 2
2. Lands falling within 100 km of the (d) Neither 1 nor 2
boundaries of national parks and sanc-
tuaries can be notified as eco-fragile 57. With reference to the various types of
zones distribution in different economic systems,
3. The ESZ notification involves the consider the following pairs:
displacement and evacuation of farmers
Type of Economy Distribution
/people living in the villages.
System
Which of the statements given above is/are
1. Capitalist economy : Market
correct?
2. State economy : State without ta-
(a) 1 and 2 only
king the help of
(b) 1 only
the market.
(c) 2 and 3 only
3. Mixed economy : Both state and
(d) 1, 2 and 3
market.
55. Which of the following are the possible
11

Which of the pairs given above are correctly 3. The key operational target for fiscal
matched? deficit should be set at 3% of GDP for
(a) 1 and 2 only three consecutive years.
(b) 2 and 3 only 4. The committee proposed a flexible glide
(c) 1 and 3 only path for deficit targets.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 5. In the case of unforeseen events, the
committee specified a deviation in the
58. Consider the following statements regarding fiscal deficit target of not more than 0.5
the restructuring of statistical agencies in percentage points.
India as of 2019: How many of the above are the
1. The Central Statistics Office (CSO) and recommendations made by the N.K. Singh
the National Sample Survey Office Review Committee on Fiscal Responsibility
(NSSO) were merged to establish the and Budget Management (FRBM) Act?
National Statistical Office (NSO) for (a) Only two
improved coordination. (b) Only three
2. The National Statistical Commission (c) Only four
(NSC) was created in 2006 based on the (d) All five
recommendations of the Rangarajan
Commission.
61. Consider the following statements regarding
3. The Chief Statistician of India (CSI)
Gross Domestic Savings (GDS):
leads the NSO.
1. Gross Domestic Savings refer to income
4. The NSC's primary role is to conduct
utilized for immediate consumption.
census operations and provide data for
public policy formulation. 2. Household savings in India are pri-
Which of the statements given above are marily influenced by the demo-graphic
correct? factors of age distribution.
(a) 1 and 2 only 3. Forced savings may occur when the
government provides tax incentives for
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
citizens to save.
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
4. Financial reforms, such as the intro-
(d) 1 and 4 only
duction of Payments Banks and Small
Finance Banks, can negatively impact
59. Which of the following dimension is not savings.
included in the Organisation for Economic
Which of the statements given above are
Co-operation and Development (OECD’s)
correct?
Better Life Index?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) Housing
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) Technology
(c) 1 and 4 only
(c) Jobs
(d) 3 and 4 only
(d) Community

62. Consider the following statements regarding


60. Consider the following statements:
the effect of inflation:
1. Establishment of a new Fiscal Council.
1. Inflation benefits the creditors, whereas
2. Reduction of the debt-to-GDP ratio
it causes losses to the borrower.
from the current 68% to 60%, with the
Centre contributing 20% and the States 2. Inflation benefits exporters due to the
contributing 40%. depreciation of the exchange rate.
12

Which of the statements given above is/are 65. Which of the following terms describes the
correct? visible manifestation of a beam of sunlight in
(a) 1 only a smoke-filled room or sunlight passing
(b) 2 only through a misty forest canopy?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) Rayleigh Scattering
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) Tyndall Effect
(c) Photoelectric Effect
63. Consider the following statements regarding (d) Compton Scattering
government securities in India:
1. Government securities, often referred to
as gilt-edged instruments, derive their
66. Consider the following statements:
name from the golden borders originally
issued by the British government. 1. A primary battery, after use, can be
recharged by passing a current through
2. Savings Bonds and National Savings
it in the opposite direction.
Certificates (NSCs) are examples of
government securities that may not be 2. In secondary batteries, the reaction
tradable. occurs only once, and after use over a
3. Dated Government Securities can have period of time, the battery becomes dead
tenures of up to 99 years. and cannot be reused again.
4. Non-resident Indians (NRIs) and Which of the statements given above is/are
Foreign Institutional Investors (FII) are correct?
not eligible to invest in Government of (a) 1 only
India (GOI) dated securities. (b) 2 only
How many of the statements given above are (c) Both 1 and 2
correct?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Only one
67. Consider the following statements:
(b) Only two
Statement-I: The protein binders are known
(c) Only three
to affect the biological and nutritive value of
(d) All four milk proteins.
Statement-II: The Food Safety and Stan-
64. With reference to the ‘National Payments dards Authority of India (FSSAI) per-mitted
Corporation of India (NPCI)’, consider the the addition of protein binders to dairy
following statements:
products.
1. It was launched by the Indian Banks’
Which one of the following is correct with
Association under the provisions of the
respect to the above statements?
Companies Act, 2013.
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
2. RuPay, Bharat Interface for Money
correct and Statement-II is the correct
(BHIM), and Unified Payments Inter-
face (UPI) are initiatives developed by explanation for Statement-I
the NPCI. (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Which of the statements given above is/are correct, and Statement-II is not the
correct? correct explanation for Statement-I
(a) 1 only (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II
(b) 2 only is incorrect
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
13

68. Consider the following statements with Which of the statements given above is/are
reference to the Synthetic Biology: correct?
1. It is an area of science that involves (a) 1 only
redesigning organisms for useful pur- (b) 2 only
poses. (c) Both 1 and 2
2. These can be utilised for developing (d) Neither 1 nor 2
microorganisms which helps in the
Bioremediation of pollutants.
71. With reference to Ransomware and Malware,
3. This doesn't involve the introduction of
consider the following statements:
any foreign or new gene to the target
1. Unlike malware, which is malicious
organism.
code that damages a system by gaining
How many of the statements given above are
unauthorized access, ransomware locks
correct?
up system files and demands a fee to
(a) Only one unlock the system.
(b) Only two 2. Malware affects home computers and
(c) All three laptops, whereas ransomware only
(d) None affects ATM machines.
Which of the statements given above is/are
69. Consider the following statements regarding correct?
Tuberculosis: (a) 1 only
1. It is a bacterial disease which affects the (b) 2 only
lungs. (c) Both 1 and 2
2. India has the highest TB burden in the (d) Neither 1 nor 2
world accounting for more than half of
the global total.
72. Consider the following pairs:
3. India seeks to eliminate TB by 2025,
Satellites Launching Vehicle
five years ahead of the global target by
the World Health Organisation. 1. Indian Regional Geosynchronous
How many of the statements given above are Satellite Launch
incorrect? Vehicle (GSLV)
(a) Only one Navigation Satellite
System
(b) Only two
(c) All three 2. Aditya-L1 Polar Satellite
Launch Vehicle
(d) None
(PSLV)
3. OneWeb Small Satellite
70. With reference to the Cyber-Physical
Launch Vehicle
Systems (CPS), consider the following state-
(SSLV)
ments:
Satellites Launching Vehicle
1. It captures the data using sensors and
computes and communicates alerts to How many of the above pairs are correctly
the systems. matched?
2. These are a complex combination of (a) Only one
physical and computational elements (b) Only two
that interact in real-time to achieve (c) All three
specific goals. (d) None
14

73. The ‘Silkworm eating strategy’ is sometimes 76. Which of the following Indian villages has
mentioned in the news with reference to been named by the UN World Tourism
which of the following? Organization as one of the best tourism
(a) A diplomatic strategy employed by villages in the world?
Japan to resolve territorial disputes (a) Dhordo
peacefully. (b) Madla
(b) India's campaign promoting traditional (c) Kongthong
silk production methods for global
(d) Nawanpind Sardaran
markets.
(c) China's gradual territorial expansion
without a strong adversary response. 77. With reference to the ‘International Health
Regulations’, consider the following state-
(d) Iran's economic plan addressing infla-
tion and agricultural challenges. ments:
1. It is a legally binding instrument of
international law on all WHO Member
74. Which of the following statements is correct
States.
with reference to the ‘Washington Decla-
ration’? 2. It protects the rights of travellers in
(a) A nuclear deterrence strategy between relation to the treatment of personal
U.S.-South Korea. data.
(b) A strategic partnership agreement bet- 3. It outlines the criteria to determine a
ween the U.S. and India. public health emergency of inter-
(c) A trade negotiations between the United national concern.
States and China. Which of the statements given above is/are
(d) A nuclear arms reduction agreement correct?
between the U.S. and Russia. (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
75. Consider the following statements: (c) 2 and 3 only
1. The Central Drugs Standard Control (d) 1, 2 and 3
Organisation sets the ceiling price for all
essential medicines listed nationally.
78. 'Migration Partnership Agreement' was
2. Evergreening is when companies extend established between India and which one of
drug patents by making slight modi- the following countries?
fications just before the 20-year term
(a) Canada
ends.
(b) Australia
3. India became a party to TRIPS, which
mandated granting exclusive marketing (c) United States
rights for new products. (d) United Kingdom
How many of the statements given above are
correct? 79. Consider the following Communities:
(a) Only one 1. Bharia
(b) Only two 2. Baiga
(c) All three 3. Kamar
(d) None 4. Sahariya
15

How many of the above have been given (c) South Asian Association for Regional
habitat rights under the Scheduled Tribes and Cooperation (SAARC)
Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recog- (d) Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-
nition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006? Sectoral Technical and Economic Coo-
(a) Only one peration (BIMSTEC)
(b) Only two
(c) Only three 83. Which one of the following countries
(d) All four withdrew from the Organization of the
Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) due
to disagreements over production targets in
80. In which of the following locations the Union
recent times?
Ministry of Environment has granted the
Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) clearance, to (a) Algeria
construct the Dr. Kalaignar pen monument? (b) Angola
(a) Chennai (c) Congo
(b) Rameswaram (d) Gabon
(c) Puducherry
(d) Kanyakumari 84. The ‘Mephedrone or Meow Meow’ is
sometimes mentioned in the news with
reference to which of the following?
81. With reference to the ‘‘Project PRAYAS”,
(a) Narcotics
consider the following statements:
(b) Social media platforms
1. It is part of the United Nations
Children’s Fund and the International (c) Cybersecurity threats
Labour Organization. (d) Environmental pollutant
2. It seeks to address the challenges faced
by migrants and develop policy 85. With reference to the ‘Open Network for
recommendations to improve migration Digital Commerce (ONDC)’, consider the
practices. following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are 1. It is an open network initiative of the
correct? Ministry of Electronics and Infor-
(a) 1 only mation Technology.
(b) 2 only 2. It assists MSMEs by connecting them
(c) Both 1 and 2 all on a single platform and encou-
raging fair competition.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. It is mandatory for all e-commerce
companies to use the ONDC platform.
82. Which one of the following organisations
Which of the statements given above is/are
recently adopted the ‘Bangkok Vision 2030’
correct?
master plan?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(a) Shanghai Cooperation Organisation
(b) 2 only
(SCO)
(c) 1 only
(b) Association of Southeast Asian Nations
(ASEAN) (d) 2 and 3 only
16

86. With reference to the ‘Digital Time Voucher’, 4. Russia


consider the following statements: 5. India
1. It is launched and regulated by the How many of the above-mentioned countries
Reserve Bank of India for facilitating
are part of the Black Sea Grain Initiative?
transactions.
(a) Only two
2. It is a form of digital currency that
allows users to pay for goods and (b) Only three
services online. (c) Only four
Which of the statements given above is/are (d) All five
correct?
(a) 1 only 90. Which among the following has received the
(b) 2 only UNESCO World Heritage inscription to
(c) Both 1 and 2 become the world’s first living heritage
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 university?
(a) University of Calcutta
87. The ‘National e-Governance Service (b) Banaras Hindu University
Delivery Assessment’ (NeSDA) is a portal
(c) Visva-Bharati University
launched by which of the following?
(a) Department of Telecommunications (d) Bharatiya Vidya Bhavan
(b) Department of Consumer Affairs
(c) Department of Financial Services 91. Which among the following unveils the
(d) Department of Administrative Reforms World's first 3D-printed temple?
and Public Grievances (a) Telangana
(b) Tamil Nadu
88. Consider the following: (c) Karnataka
1. United States (d) Kerala
2. New Zealand
3. Vietnam
92. With reference to the ‘Special Development
4. Malaysia
Council (SDC)’, consider the following
5. India statements:
How many of the above-mentioned countries
1. It is a statutory body established by the
are part of the Comprehensive and Pro-
Central government to develop and
gressive Agreement for Trans-Pacific Part-
support tribal communities nationwide.
nership (CPTPP)?
(a) Only two 2. It focuses on the preservation of tribal
(b) Only three culture and traditions, heritage and
unique identity of each tribe.
(c) Only four
(d) All five Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
89. Consider the following: (a) 1 only
1. Ukraine (b) 2 only
2. France (c) Both 1 and 2
3. Turkey (d) Neither 1 nor 2
17

93. The ‘‘Gnanamuyarchi’, sometimes mentioned How many of the statements given above are
in the news related to which of the following? correct?
(a) Palm manuscripts (a) Only one
(b) Stone inscriptions (b) Only two
(c) Buddhist scriptures (c) All three
(d) Terracotta artefacts (d) None

94. The ‘Commission on the Ethics of Scientific 97. Consider the following rivers:
Knowledge and Technology (COMEST)’ 1. Adyar
was established under which of the following 2. Godavari
organisations? 3. Satluj
(a) World Health Organization (WHO) 4. Mandovi
(b) International Atomic Energy Agency How many of the above rivers are covered
(IAEA) under the National River Conservation Plan
(c) United Nations Environment Pro- (NRCP)?
gramme (UNEP) (a) Only one
(d) United Nations Educational, Scientific (b) Only two
and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) (c) Only three
(d) All four
95. Consider the following pairs:
Temples Locations 98. Which among the following organisation
1. Veerbhadra : Andhra Pradesh publishes the ‘Global Innovation Index’?
2. Ekambareswarar : Tamil Nadu (a) International Monetary Fund
3. Kalaram : Maharashtra (b) World Economic Forum
How many of the above pairs are correctly (c) World Intellectual Property Organi-
matched? zation
(a) Only one (d) United Nations Development Pro-
(b) Only two gramme
(c) All three
(d) None 99. Consider the following pairs:
War Peace Treaty
96. With reference to the Garba Dance, consider 1. 1962 Sino-India Border Peace and
the following statements: War Tranquility
1. It is an elitist dance form that is Agreement
restricted to certain communities and 2. 1965 Indo-Pak Tashkent
castes. War Declaration
2. It is dedicated to the worship of the
3. 1971 Bangladesh Simla Agreement
feminine energy or Shakti. Liberation War
3. It has been inscribed on the UNESCO
4. 1999 Kargil War Lahore
Representative List of the Intangible
Declaration
Cultural Heritage.
18

How many of the above pairs are correctly 3. The BIMSTEC Charter allows the
matched? admission of new countries into the
(a) Only one organisation.
(b) Only two How many of the statements given above are
(c) Only three correct?
(d) All four (a) Only one
(b) Only two
100. Consider the following statements with (c) All three
reference to Bay of Bengal Initiative for (d) None
Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic
Cooperation (BIMSTEC):
1. BIMSTEC Secretariat was established
in Dhaka in 2014.
2. Ministerial Meetings is the supreme
decision-making body of BIMSTEC.
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