SBI PO Mains 2023 Previous Year Paper

SBI PO Mains 2023 Previous Year Paper
Direction:
Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Twelve people O, P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X, Y, and Z living in a building containing nine floors in it. The ground floor is
numbered as one and the top floor numbered as nine. Not more than 2 people live in a floor. There are five females
out of twelve people and rests are man. They all like different fruits such as Apple, Banana, Pear, and Mango not
more than three people like the same fruit, each fruit is like by at least one female person.
(i) The female who like Banana lives on sixth number floor with X. There are two people who live between the male
person who likes Apple and the one who likes mango and the person who likes Apple live below the one who likes
Mango. There are two empty odd floors. Either the top floor or the bottom most floor is empty.
(ii) O, who likes Banana lives above to the Y who is a female and likes Mango. There are six floors between the one
like Banana and Y. There are five floors between S and Z and S lives one of the floors above Z, who is a female and
likes Apple. S does not live on floor number eight.
(iii) Z lives alone. U shares the floor with person who likes Pear. There are two floors on which a single man and a
single woman are living on floors who are living between two floors which are occupied by two persons each.
(iv) The two man who like Banana, live on the same floor. Any two females do not share the same floor. V lives just
below the floor on which X lives who like Pear. U likes mango.
(v) There are two floors between the one who likes Pear and the empty floor and the one who like Pear lives below
to the empty floor. Q is a female who likes Apple and share her floor with W, who likes mango. T is a male person,
lives immediate above the empty floor and like Pear.
Question No. 1
Who amongst the following lives on floor number five?
Options :
1. P
2. R
3. Q
4. V
5. U
Answer : V
Direction:
Question No. 2
Find out Correct combination of fruit-gender-floor for U in the following given options?
Options :
1. Mango – female – 4
2. Pear – Female – 4
3. Mango – Male – 4
4. Cannot be determined
5. None of these
Answer : Mango – Male – 4
Direction:
Question No. 3
Who lives immediately above the empty floor?
Options :
1. Y
2. P
3. R
4. W
5. Both (1) and (4)
Answer : Both (1) and (4)
Direction:
Question No. 4
Who amongst the following lives immediately below the floor on which R lives?
Options :
1. V
2. Q
3. T
4. Z
5. Can’t be determined
Answer : Can’t be determined
Direction:
Question No. 5
Who among the following lives on the topmost floor?
Options :
1. O
2. P
3. R
4. W
5. T
Answer : O
Direction:
Answer the questions based on the information given below. A five-letter word arrangement machine when given
an input line of words it arranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and
rearrangement.
Input: CJEOT ENBNF DATEF FHEIM HEATD LOINT
Step I: BIFPS FMAOE CBSFE EGFJL GFBSC KPJMS
Step II: BIFPS CBSFE EGFJL FMAOE GFBSC KPJMS
Step III: BRFKS CYSUE ETFQL FNALE GUBHC KKJNS
Step IV: FRBKS SYCUE FTEQL ANFLE BUGHC JKKNS
Step V: KWGPX XDHZJ KYJVQ FSKQJ GZLMH OPPSX
Step VI: M N F D A I
And the step VI is the last step of the rearrangement. As per the rules followed in the above step, find out each of
the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.
Input: ITBDF OPTBN IJIHT UFTXF TODBA YTPNI
Question No. 6
How many alphabets are between the first alphabet from the left end and second alphabet from the right end in
Step VI of the given input as per the English alphabetical series?

Options :
1. 5
2. 6
3. 4
4. 9
5. None of these
Answer : 4
Direction:
rearrangement.
Question No. 7
Which of the following element is third from the right end in Step V of the given input?
Options :
1. OWOYX
2. XQUER
3. HPXEG
4. XAAIJ
5. TMCSO
Answer : HPXEG
Direction:
rearrangement.
Question No. 8
The following is one of the steps of the given input after the rearrangement. What should come in the place of 'X'
and 'Y' respectively?
JRJTS ‘X’ SLPZM ‘Y’ SVVDE OHXNJ
Options :
1. HJAXE, MYRKL
2. CKSZB , HJAXE
3. AHJXE, CKSZB
4. CKSZB , RPFTS
5. None of these
Answer : AHJXE, CKSZB
Direction:
rearrangement.
Question No. 9
Which of the following is/are not among one of the steps of the given input after the rearrangement?
Options :
1. JRJTS AHJXE SLPZM CKSZB SVVDE OHXNJ
2. JSACE POSAM JIJGS VESWE SPCAB XSOMJ
3. J C G B O E
4. JIJGS JSACE POSAM SPCAB VESWE XSOMJ
5. Both 1 and 2
Answer : J C G B O E
Direction:
rearrangement.
Question No. 10
What will be the step VI?
Options :
1. J, I, C, F, A, N
2. I, D, F, A, N, E
3. J, D, G, N, A, E
4. E, N, A, J, F, C
5. None of these
Answer : I, D, F, A, N, E
Direction:
The question given below consists of two statements I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data
provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all the statements and give answer.
Question No. 11
Seven persons, L, M, N, O, P, Q and R goes for vacation in seven different months among January, February, March,
April, May, June and July of the same year. How many persons goes before Q?
Statement I: Only two persons goes after L. M goes two months before L. N goes immediately after P. O does not
go in the month, which has only 30 days. R goes two months before Q.
Statement II: P goes two months before M. R goes immediately after M. O goes three months after R. L and Q goes
one after the other.
Options :
1. Data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while data in statement II is not sufficient to
answer the question.
2. Data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while data in statement I is not sufficient to
3. Data in statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
4. Data in either statement I or statement II is sufficient to answer the question.
5. Data given in both the statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
Answer : Data in statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
Direction:
The question given below consists of two statements I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data
provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all the statements and give answer.
Question No. 12
Eight cartons contain eight different items (Pens, Rubber band, Tiffin box, Purse, Wallet, Watches, Shoes and Shirts).
Each of them is kept one above another. How many cartons are kept above the carton which contains Pens?
Statement I: The carton which contains Pens is kept immediately above the carton which contains Tiffin box. Three
cartons are kept between the carton which contains Tiffin box and the carton which contains Shirts. There are at
least three cartons above the carton which contains Pens. The carton which contains Shoes is kept at the bottom.
The carton which contains Rubber band is kept immediately above the carton which contains Wallet and neither is
kept adjacent to the carton which contains Pens. The carton which contains Watches is kept immediately above
the carton which contains Purse.
Statement II: The carton which contains Purse is kept two cartons above the carton which contains Tiffin box
carton. The carton which contains Shirts carton is kept two cartons above the carton which contains Purse. There
are two cartons between the carton which contains Shoes and the carton which contains Purse. The carton which
contains Rubber band is kept five cartons above the carton which contains Pens. The carton which contains
Watches is kept two cartons below the carton which contains Wallet.
Options :
1. Data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while data in statement II is not sufficient to
2. Data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while data in statement I is not sufficient to
3. Data in statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
4. Data in either statement I or statement II is sufficient to answer the question.
5. Data given in both the statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
Answer : Data in statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
Direction:
Each of the questions given below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You
have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question or not. Read both
the statements and answer the question.
Question No. 13
Six persons A, B, X, Y, Z, and T are sitting at a circular table facing the center of the table. Who among the following
sits opposite to X?
I. Z sits second to the right of A. T sits immediately left of B, who is not an immediate neighbour of Z and A.
II. T sits second to the left of Y. Z sits fourth to the right of B, who is an immediate neighbour of Y. Z is not an
immediate neighbour of Y.
Options :
1. If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone
are not sufficient to answer the question.
2. If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone
are not sufficient to answer the question
3. If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
4. If the data in both statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
5. If the data in both statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
Answer : If the data in both statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
Direction:
Each of the questions given below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You
have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question or not. Read both
the statements and answer the question.
Question No. 14
Seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting in a straight line facing north. Who among the following sits second
to the left of D?
I) There are only two persons sitting between C and B, who sits to the right of C. G is not an immediate neighbour
of B. D is not an immediate neighbour of C, who does not sit at any of the extreme end.
II) E sits third to the left of A and both of them does not sitting at the extreme ends. A is an immediate neighbor of
B. Not more than one person sits to the left of C. G sits to the right of D.
Options :
1. Data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.
2. Data in statement II alone is sufficient
3. Data in statement I alone or statement II alone is sufficient
4. Data given in both statement I and statement II together are not sufficient
5. Data in both statement I and statement II together are sufficient

Answer : Data in both statement I and statement II together are sufficient
Question No. 15
rd th th th
If it is possible to make a meaningful English word from the 3 , 6 , 8 , and 10 letter of the word ‘DESCENDING’
using all the letters only once then which letter will be second letter of the word so formed from the left end? If no
meaningful English word can be made then mark your answer as (Z). If more than one meaningful English word can
be formed then mark your answer as (X).
Options :
1. S
2. N
3. G
4. X
5. Z
Answer : X
Direction:
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
There are nine persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I sitting on the edges of two different polygons of which one is
square and other is pentagon. Both the polygon is concentric such that square is inside the pentagon. All the
persons are facing inside the polygons.
E is the immediate neighbour of C. A is not the immediate neighbour of F. G sits to the immediate left of B. D is
sitting third to the right of I. H is sitting third to the left of C. F is neither the immediate neighbour of E nor I.
After each person gets their seats, they started playing a game Ludo with dice. Each person throws the dice and
passes it on to the person on its immediate right. They changes their positions on the basis of the outcomes and
exchange their position with the person sitting on their right.
Ex- If a person gets outcome 2, then he exchanges the position on its second right person. The game continues till
all the persons sitting around one of the polygon gets a minimum one chance to throw a dice. The game starts with
A among the persons sitting on the polygon and it starts with B among the person sitting on the other polygon.
The possible outcomes are –

1. The outcome of H and C is 4
2. The outcome of D, E, G and I is 3
3. The outcome of A and F is 2
4. The outcome of B is 1.
Question No. 16
What is the position of C, in the new arrangement with respect to its old position?
Options :
1. It is sitting just behind B
2. C is in exact between A and F
3. It is on the immediate left of A
4. All are correct
5. C has moved to its immediate left
Answer : All are correct
Direction:
Question No. 17
Which is the odd one out among the following in the new arrangement?
Options :
1. D
2. F
3. I
4. G
5. B
Answer : F
Direction:

Question No. 18
How many persons are sitting between A and E, when counted from right of E, after playing the game?
Options :
1. One
2. None
3. Three
4. None of these
5. Two
Answer : Two
Direction:
Question No. 19
Before playing the game who is sitting just opposite to D in the arrangement?
Options :
1. A
2. B
3. G
4. I
5. None of these
Answer : G
Direction:

Question No. 20
Who is sitting on the second left of A in the arrangement before playing the game?
Options :
1. G
2. E
3. H
4. A
5. None of these
Answer : None of these
Direction:
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Eight people namely working in a hotel – J, K, L, M, N, O, P and Q lives in a eight floored building marked in such a
way that lowermost floor is marked 1 and floor above it marked as 2 and so on till top most floor marked as 8. Each
person goes to different cities viz. Chennai, Bangalore, Calicut, Bansi, Manipur, Nagpur, Shimla and Pune. Each
person works in a different designations viz. DIRECTOR, MANAGER, ASSISTANT MANAGER, HR, COORDINATOR, CR,
CHEFS and HSS.
At least three person lives between one who is a CR and P, who lives on even numbered floor and also goes to
Pune. K neither goes to Shimla nor Bansi, lives at a gap of two floors from the one who is a DIRECTOR. Only two
person lives between the one who goes to Manipur and O, who doesn’t live adjacent to the one who is a
COORDINATOR. Only two person lives between J and the one who is an ASSISTANT MANAGER. At least three
person lives above the one who goes to Bansi and lives on odd numbered floor. N, who is a CR, lives at a gap of two
floors from the one who goes to Bansi. One who is a CR lives just below the one who goes to Shimla. Only three
person lives between the one who goes to Calicut and L, who neither lives on odd numbered floor nor lives
adjacent to M. One who goes to Chennai is a HSS. Only two person lives between the one who goes to Pune and
the one who is a HR. One who is a DIRECTOR lives on the floor immediately below to the one who goes to Pune.
One who is a MANAGER lives exactly between P and K. One who is a HSS does lives at a gap of two floors from Q,
who neither is a DIRECTOR nor he goes to Shimla. The one who goes to Nagpur lives at a gap of one floor from the
one who is a COORDINATOR.
Question No. 21
How many person lives above the one who is an ASSISTANT MANAGER?
Options :
1. Four
2. Two
3. One
4. Three
5. None of these
Answer : Four
Direction:
CHEFS and HSS.
Question No. 22
Who among the following goes to Chennai?
Options :
1. J
2. Q
3. P
4. M
5. None of these
Answer : None of these
Direction:
CHEFS and HSS.
Question No. 23
Which of the following statement is correct?
Options :
1. J lives just above one who is a HSS.
2. One who goes to Bansi lives just below one who goes to Nagpur.
3. One who is a HR also goes to Shimla.
4. One who is a MANAGER lives just below one who goes to Pune.
5. All the given statements are not true.
Answer : All the given statements are not true.
Direction:
CHEFS and HSS.
Question No. 24
Which of the following combination of Cities and designation of M?
Options :
1. Bangalore – HR
2. CHEFS – Pune
3. Calicut – HR
4. DIRECTOR – Bangalore
5. None of these
Answer : DIRECTOR – Bangalore
Direction:
CHEFS and HSS.
Question No. 25
Which of the following combination of elements is odd among other and doesn’t form a group?
Options :
1. Manipur – MANAGER
2. Calicut – COORDINATOR
3. Pune – CR
4. Nagpur – HSS
5. Calicut – DIRECTOR
Answer : Pune – CR
Direction:
Given below is the family arrangement provided in the form of symbols $, &, %, # and @. You have to make the
family setup on the basis of the given data.
A $ B – A is parent of B.
A & B – A and B are siblings of same gender.
A % B – A and B are siblings of different gender.
For Male – ‘#’
For Female – ‘@’
Family arrangement on the basis-
W $ B, D & C, C $ # T, T & @ W, D $ R, R # % S.
Question No. 26
How is B related to T?
Options :
1. Nephew
2. Son
3. Daughter
4. Niece
5. Cannot be determined
Answer : Cannot be determined
Direction:

W $ B, D & C, C $ # T, T & @ W, D $ R, R # % S.
Question No. 27
If N would have the wife of C, then how is N related to S?
Options :
1. Mother in law
2. Mother
3. Sister
4. Aunt
5. Cousin
Answer : Aunt
Direction:
W $ B, D & C, C $ # T, T & @ W, D $ R, R # % S.
Question No. 28
How many siblings does person R has?
Options :
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. None
5. None of these
Answer : One
Direction:
W $ B, D & C, C $ # T, T & @ W, D $ R, R # % S.
Question No. 29
If V is the mother of R, then who is the husband of V?
Options :
1. W
2. T
3. C
4. D
5. None of these
Answer : D
Direction:
In the following questions, the symbols @, #, $ and % are used with the following meanings as illustrated below.
Study the following information and answer the given questions. In each of the questions given below statements are
followed by some conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance
from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically
follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
A@B - All A are B.
A#B – Only a few A is B.
A$B - No A is B.
A%B - Only A is B.
? - possibility case.
Note: if ? is placed after any of the symbols mentioned above then it will be considered as possibility case of the
symbol. E.g. A#?B means Only a few A being B is a possibility.
Question No. 30
Statements:
pause @ stop
comment # stop
pause $ fact
Conclusions:
I. stop #? fact
II. comment $? Pause
III. fact $ comment
Options :
1. Only III follows
2. Only II and III follow
3. Only II follows
4. Only I and II follow
5. All follow
Answer : Only II follows

Direction:
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Ten boxes are filled with different fruits viz. Mango, Guava, Banana, Orange, Apple, Peaches, Watermelon,
Strawberries, Kiwi and Grapes which are placed in two different stacks viz. Stack 1 and Stack 2, but not necessarily
in the same order. Stack 1 is to the west of Stack 2. Each stack has five shelves in such a way that the lowermost
shelf is numbered as 1, the shelf immediately above the lowermost shelf is numbered as 2 and so on till the topmost
shelf is numbered as 5. Each box is of different weight viz. 0.5kg, 1kg, 1.5kg, 2kg, 2.5kg, 3kg, 3.5kg, 4kg, 4.5kg and 5kg
but not necessarily in the same order. Apple was placed on an even-numbered shelf and is three boxes below the
box with 4kg, which is placed in different stacks. Mango box was placed in shelf 4 of stack 1 and is immediately
above the box with the highest weight in the same stack. Kiwi box is placed two boxes above the box with 5kg
weight in the different stack and is immediately above Banana box which is 3kg in weight. The weight of the box
placed on the lowermost shelf in stack 2 is half of the weight of the Banana box. Guava box is placed immediately
below Apple box in the same stack and is two boxes below the box with second highest weight. Watermelon box
is the least weighted item and is placed in different stacks immediately below Peaches box which is placed on an
odd-numbered shelf. The weight of the Apple box is four times the weight of the Watermelon box and half of the
weight of the Orange box. The total weight of the boxes placed on the lowermost shelves is equal to the weight of
the Strawberries box which is double the weight of the Kiwi box.
Question No. 31
Which of the following boxes has the second highest weight?
Options :
1. Strawberries
2. Grapes
3. Kiwi
4. Peaches
5. None of these
Answer : Peaches
Direction:
Question No. 32
What is the weight of the Grapes box?
Options :
1. 2.5kg
2. 3.5kg
3. 3kg
4. 1.5kg
5. None of these
Answer : 3.5kg
Direction:
Question No. 33
In which of the following shelf and stack does the Orange box is placed?
Options :
1. Shelf 5 stack 1
2. Shelf 5 stack 2
3. Shelf 3 stack 1
4. Shelf 3 stack 2
5. None of these
Answer : Shelf 5 stack 1
Direction:
Question No. 34
If the fruits are arranged in alphabetical order from top to bottom (first in stack 1 then in stack 2) then the position
of how many fruits remain unchanged?
Options :
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. More than three
5. None
Answer : Two
Direction:
Question No. 35
What will be the difference between the weights of boxes in shelf 3 (including stack 1 and stack 2) and boxes in
shelf 5(including stack 1 and stack 2)?
Options :
1. 1kg
2. 2kg
3. 2.5kg
4. 3kg
5. 0.5kg
Answer : 3kg
Direction:
Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions:
In a family of 10 members they use different apps i.e. Facebook Messenger, Skype, Discord, Hangout, Kik, Slack,
Snapchat, Telegram, Viber and WhatsApp are sitting in two parallel rows containing five persons each, in such a
way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1 Naveen, Manisha, Peter, Rohit and Chetna
are seated (not necessarily in the same order) and all of them are facing south. In row-2 Ankit, Amit, John, Meghna
and Mohit are seated (not necessarily in the same order) and all of them are facing north. Therefore in the given
seating arrangement each member seated in row faces another member of the other row. All of them have relation
with each other.
(i)Only one person sits between Peter’s sister and Naveen’s brother. Only two person sit between Peter’s father and
Meghna’s father. Neither Manisha nor Meghna’s grandfather faces Meghna. Amit uses Hangout and Manisha neither
use Facebook Messenger nor WhatsApp.
(ii) Meghna’s husband, who uses Slack, sits third to the right of Meghna’s uncle. Ankit sits second to the left of
Meghna’s husband. Naveen has two sons and one daughter.
(iii) The person facing Meghna’s brother, who uses Discord, sits immediate right of Naveen’s daughter. Chetna is the
grandmother of Ankit and Meghna. Rohit is the brother-in-law of Chetna.
(iv) Peter is the father of Ankit and brother of Manisha. Ankit’s grandfather, who uses Facebook Messenger, is not
an immediate neighbour of Manisha.
(v) Mohit is the husband of Meghna and brother of the one, who uses Kik. Meghna uses Snapchat and Chetna uses
Viber.
(vi) Peter neither uses Telegram nor Skype. John uses Kik. Rohit does not use Skype.
Question No. 36
How is Peter related to John’s brother?
Options :
1. Mother-in-law
2. Father-in-law
3. Father
4. Uncle
5. None of these
Answer : Father-in-law
Direction:
with each other.
Viber.
Question No. 37
Manisha uses which of the following apps?
Options :
1. Discord
2. WhatsApp
3. Facebook Messenger
4. Skype
5. Telegram
Answer : Skype
Direction:
with each other.
Viber.
Question No. 38
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and hence form a group. Which
of them does not uses that group?
Options :
1. Chetna
2. Naveen
3. Manisha
4. Mohit
5. Meghna
Answer : Manisha
Direction:
with each other.
Viber.
Question No. 39
What is the position of Mohit with respect of Mohit’s wife?

Options :
1. Third to the right
2. Second to the right
3. Immediate left
4. Immediate right
5. Second to the left
Answer : Immediate left
Direction:
with each other.
Viber.
Question No. 40
In which of the following pairs sits on the left end of both rows?
Options :
1. Manisha- Naveen
2. Meghna- Naveen
3. Rohit - Meghna
4. Naveen- Amit
5. Amit- Rohit
Answer : Amit- Rohit
Question No. 41
Directions: A situation/problem statement is given followed by three statements. Choose the one/s which is/are the
correct course of action/s to be followed from the problem statement.
Both Russia and the United States are major spacefarers. America’s allies in Europe and Asia are also key sources of
technologies that support the use of space. Even Ukraine has a significant aerospace industry. The risk to space
cooperation could come in three ways. The first is through sanctions on Russia due to the Ukraine-Russia conflict.
The second is through physical destruction or control of aerospace facilities in Ukraine. The third is potential
attempts by either side to disrupt the other’s use of space for military purposes. As India navigates a treacherous
diplomatic landscape, it will need to keep an eye on how much of these risks could affect its interests.
Course of actions:
I. India should offer to launch satellites left stranded by sanctions on Russia.
II. India should develop a private sector-led space economy to take advantage of opportunity due to the lessening
of space cooperation amongst the US and Russia.
III. India should delay its ongoing projects which rely on Russian cooperation.
Options :
1. Only III
2. Only II
3. Both I and III
4. Both I and II
5. All of I, II and III
Answer : Both I and II
Question No. 42
Directions: A passage is given followed by three statements. Read the following passage and answer the question
that follows.
On December 30, 2019, an Artificial Intelligence-driven health monitoring platform called Blue Dot spotted a cluster
of unusual pneumonia cases occurring in Wuhan, China. The Canadian company sent out a warning to its customers
the next day. They had identified what would come to be known as Covid-19 a week before the Centre for Disease
Control and Prevention in USA or 2 weeks before WHO was able to spot it. AI has played a key role in identifying
and addressing the pandemic.
I. Many technology executives have expressed uncertainty about their investments in machine learning Artificial
intelligence.
II. In future workforce would be able to translate whatever the results of AI models to give out into real business
tangible actions and to product ionize AI solutions.
III. A lot of technocrats are dissatisfied with the ways their organization was adopting Artificial Intelligence.
Which of the above statements weakens the overall contention that Artificial Intelligence would be adopted by the
industry in the future?
Options :
1. Only I
2. Only II
3. Both I and II
4. Both II and III
5. Both I and III
Answer : Both I and III

Question No. 43
Directions: Read the following group of statements and choose the best assumption on which the argument is based.
As per the latest Indian military inputs, Pakistan continues to host 350-400 terrorists at border launch pads. Plus,
with Taliban’s return to power in Afghanistan- which simply wouldn’t have been possible without Islamabad’s
support- it is doubtful that Pakistan’s military ISI complex is ready to abandon it’s tried and tested strategy of
promoting cross-border terrorism. Therefore, if at all Pakistan is serious about peace with India and benefitting from
geo-economics, the ball is in its own court.
Options :
1. Pakistan has to give up its destabilizing activities in the region.
2. Geo-economic and peace talks are subject matter for India-Pakistan bilateral relationships only when the
promotion of cross-border terrorism ends.
3. Pakistan’s economy will benefit immensely only if relations with India normalize.
4. Anti-India obsession has had disastrous consequences for Pakistan.
5. State policy of Pakistan promotes cross-border terrorism.
Answer : Geo-economic and peace talks are subject matter for India-Pakistan bilateral relationships only when the
promotion of cross-border terrorism ends.
Question No. 44
In the question given below, there are two statements (I) and (II). These statements may be either independent
causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the
other statement. Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the
relationship between these two statements.
Statement I: Government welfare schemes now project greater empathy for women voters.
Statement II: Greater participation of women in the electoral process is now a phenomenon cast in stone going by
the higher female voter turnout percentage in many recent elections.
Options :
1. Statement I is the cause and statement II is the effect.
2. Statement II is the cause and statement I is the effect.
3. Both statements I and II are independent causes.

4. Both statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
5. Both statements I and II are effects of some common cause.
Answer : Statement II is the cause and statement I is the effect.
Question No. 45
The passage given below is followed by three statements. Choose the one that can be the correct assumption on
which the passage is based.
How are our girls faring? In a large and diverse country, anecdotal evidence cuts several ways. But one hard,
remorseless, empirical reality is son preference. That distressing social bias flourishes. As against a Sustainable
Development Goal of achieving a sex ratio at birth of 954 by 2030, a Niti Aayog update finds the national average
still at a distant 899.
I. Offenders are unafraid of laws that prohibit sex selection in India.
II. Sex determination and diagnosis at prenatal and preconception stage in India are not prohibited.
III. Policymakers will have to come up with specific incentives-perhaps, more attractive grants for bringing up
daughters.
Options :
1. Only I
2. Only II
3. Both I and II
4. Both I and III
5. Only III
Answer : Only I
Direction:
Bar graph (i) shows the number of total balls of three different colors (Red + Blue + Green) in four different (A, B, C
& D) bags and bar graph (ii) shows the probability of picking a red ball from each of bag’s A and C and probability of
picking a green ball from each of bag’s B and D. Read the data and answer the following questions.
Question No. 46
Blue balls in bag A are 2 more than the number of green balls in bag B. Find the probability of picking two green
balls from bag A
Options :
1. 2/37
2. 1/39
3. 3/38
4. 5/37
5. 6/41
Answer : 3/38
Direction:
Question No. 47
In bag D, the number of red balls is the lowest prime number and number of green balls is the highest one-digit
number. If the probability of picking one blue ball from bag D is three time that of picking red balls from bag A,
then find the blue balls in D.
Options :
1. 9
2. 12
3. 8
4. 11
5. 7
Answer : 9
Direction:
Question No. 48
Sum of green balls in all the bags is 30 and green balls in C is 4 more than that of in A. Find the difference between
total blue balls in A and C.
Options :
1. 12
2. 25
3. 22
4. 23
5. 18
Answer : 22
Direction:
Question No. 49
If the number of blue balls is perfect cube and green balls in bag A is perfect square, then what can be the value of
green balls in bag A.
Options :
1. 6
2. 16
3. 19
4. 21
5. 17
Answer : 16
Direction:
Question No. 50
Blue balls in C is 20% more than green balls in D. Find the sum of probability of picking one green balls from bag C
and one green balls in B.
Options :
1. 1/2
2. 2/3
3. 3/4
4. 1/6
5. 1/4
Answer : 3/4
Direction:
There are two series I and II given below. Both series containing wrong term and both the series follow different
patterns. Solve the series and answer the following questions given below.
Series I: a, b+5, c+8, 87,412, 2185,13326
Series II: b+4, c + 8,36, a + 50, 79,111, 152
Note – (i) roots of the equation z/10 and y/20 (where z/10>y/20).
(ii) any multiple of y give a number with unit digit zero.
(iii) c – z = 9 and LCM of z and 5 is 15.
Question No. 51
Find the difference between wrong term of series II and correct term of series I in place of wrong term.
Options :
1. Composite number
2. Prime number
3. Odd number
4. Even number
5. Both (a) and (d)
Answer : Both (a) and (d)
Direction:
Series I: a, b+5, c+8, 87,412, 2185,13326
Series II: b+4, c + 8,36, a + 50, 79,111, 152
Question No. 52
If a new series starting from z follows same logic as series I, then find the third term.
Options :
1. 12
2. 15
3. 17
4. 18
5. 16
Answer : 16
Direction:
Series I: a, b+5, c+8, 87,412, 2185,13326
Series II: b+4, c + 8,36, a + 50, 79,111, 152
Question No. 53
Find the LCM of y, z and c
Options :
1. 60
2. 30
3. 120
4. 45
5. 90
Answer : 60
Direction:
Series I: a, b+5, c+8, 87,412, 2185,13326
Image not found or type unknown

Series II: b+4, c + 8,36, a + 50, 79,111, 152 Note – (i) roots of the equation z/10 and
y/20 (where z/10>y/20).
Question No. 54
If wrong term of series I is subtracted from 15, then find the resultant term.
Options :
1. 9
2. 7
3. 8
4. 11
5. 18
Answer : 8
Question No. 55
Rajesh whose speed is (1/2) He reaches from one point of diagonal to another in 5 seconds. Find the bigger
dimension of the rectangle.
Options :
1. 20
2. 24
3. 22
4. 18
5. 17
Answer : 18
Question No. 56
b a d c d c b a
If a b (c + d ) = c d (a + b ), then which of the following statement is /are correct (a/b/c/d is not equal to 0)
b c d a
1. If a – d = 0, then c must be equal to b , for all real values of a, b, c & d.
b a
2. Given c =0, then a + b = 1, given d is a non-zero number.
a b d c
3.(1/b )+(1/a ) = (1/c ) + (1/d )
Options :
1. Only 1
2. Only 2
3. Only 1 & Only 2
4. Only 2 & Only 3
5. Only 1 & Only 3
Answer : Only 1 & Only 3
Direction:
Read the information and answer the following questions.
There are three classes A, B and C consisting girls and boys. Two teams P and Q are formed. Team P consist of
students who plays hockey and team Q who plays football. Each student participated only in one game. The boys in
A are x more than the girls. Total girls in B are x and boys are 20 than that of girls. The boys and girls in C are 20%
more than that of boys and girls in B respectively. Boys in P is 13 less than that of girls, which is 60% of the
combination of girls in two classes (except A and C). Ratio of girls in team P to team Q is 3:4. Boys in P is 50% of the
combination of boys of two classes (except A and B).
Question No. 57
Find the average number of girls in both the teams.
Options :
1. 108
2. 100
3. 104
4. 105
5. 210
Answer : 105
Direction:
Question No. 58
In team P 30% of girls joined team Q and from team Q 10% of the girls joined team P. Girls in team Q is what
percentage of girls in team P.
Options :
1. 160%
2. 140%
3. 150%
4. 180%
5. 170%
Answer : 180%
Direction:
Question No. 59
20% girls in class C got injured and 25% of them are in team P, then find the girls who are not injured in team Q.
Options :
1. 101%
2. 115%
3. 111%
4. 114%
5. 113%
Answer : 111%
Direction:
Question No. 60
Find the difference between girls and boys in both the teams
Options :
1. 94
2. 96
3. 92
4. 98
5. 97
Answer : 94
Direction:
Read the data and answer the following questions.
The bar graph shows the monthly income of Uma, Pallavi and Sonia and line graph shows the percentage of
monthly expenditure of these people. Each of them deposits their saving in a bank on which they get awarded with
a credit card (silver and platinum) of the bank.
In silver credit card – deposit amount is less than Rs 21000, credit limit is sum of half of the salary and 5% of the
saving while late payment is 5% of the amount due.
th
In platinum credit card – deposit amount is more than Rs 21000, credit limit is sum of 3/4 of the salary and 25% of
the saving while late payment is 3% of the amount due.

Note - (i) Amount payable to bank = cash withdrawn + expense from credit limit + late payment of 5% if
applicable.
(ii) Cashback of 5% is given on any transaction except cash withdrawal.
(iii) The payment done in any month should be cleared in the immediate month if not then penalty should be
given.
Question No. 61
Uma bought a gold ring costing 10% of credit limit, spend 15% of credit limit on shopping, withdrew cash of 8000.
Find the difference between her savings and the amount payable to the bank.
Options :
1. 3095
2. 3025
3. 3015
4. 3010
5. 3020
Answer : 3095
Direction:
th

applicable.
given.
Question No. 62
Sonia bought a cycle costing 3/7th of credit limit and has delayed the payment by a month. Find the amount
payable to bank?
Options :
1. 8977
2. 8525
3. 8977.5
4. 8520.5
5. None of these
Answer : 8977.5
Direction:
th

applicable.
given.
Question No. 63
Find the difference between credit limit of Uma and Pallavi.
Options :
1. 49000
2. 47150
3. 10000
4. 47600
5. 31700
Answer : 31700
Direction:
th

applicable.
given.
Question No. 64
Salary of Aayush is 20% more than that of Pallavi and he spend 30% of income. If he spends all his credit limit on
shopping, then find the cash back he gets.

Options :
1. 1660
2. 1665
3. 1556
4. 1220
5. 1225
Answer : 1665
Direction:
th

applicable.
given.
Question No. 65
Pallavi withdrew 10% cash for house rent, 20% on shopping. Find the amount payable by Pallavi to bank
Options :
1. 4611
2. 4523
3. 4636
4. 4536
5. 4892
Answer : 4611
Direction:
The scatter graph given below shows total number of three different cookies (Butter, Oatmeal and Sugar) baked by
three different bakeries A, B and C on y-axis and percentage of sold cookies out of total backed cookies on x-axis.
Read the graph carefully and answer the questions.
Note : ‘a’ is the two-digit number whose unit digit is perfect cube of its tens digit.
Question No. 66
If the sum of oatmeal cookies and Butter baked by C is a perfect cube of the one-digit number and the number of
Sugar cookies baked by A, B and C are square of two-digit consecutive natural number. A baked least number of
Sugar cookies and C baked largest number of cookies, then find the number of oatmeal cookies baked all the
bakers if the ratio of oatmeal to butter cookies baked by A, B and C is in the ratio of 2: 1, 1: 3 and 1: 2 respectively.
Options :
1. 109
2. 110
3. 111
4. 125
5. 112
Answer : 111
Direction:
The scatter graph given below shows total number of three different cookies (Butter, Oatmeal and Sugar) baked by
three different bakeries A, B and C on y-axis and percentage of sold cookies out of total backed cookies on x-axis.
Read the graph carefully and answer the questions.
Note : ‘a’ is the two-digit number whose unit digit is perfect cube of its tens digit.
Question No. 67
If number of oatmeal sold by A is (2a – 6) and the number of butter cookies sold by A is less than oatmeal which is
less than sugar cookies, then find the sum of maximum number of sugar cookies and minimum number of sugar
cookies sold by A. (Note: Number of Butter cookies sold by A must be a perfect square)
Options :
1. 195
2. 188
3. 186
4. 176
5. 196
Answer : 186
Direction:
The table given below shows the information about five customers visited a store. All customers are awarded with
reward points according to purchase they made. Read the table and information given below carefully and answer
the questions given below.
Note – (i) Customer awarded rewards points according to the amount spent on store
i.e., When price amount
When price amount between (5000 – 10000) Rs, then reward point = 100
When price amount > 10000 Rs, then reward amount = 200
(ii) Final amount on the bill = Original price – discount
(iii) Per reward point = Re 1
(iv) Reward given on original price and non-member reward points is given on final amount.
(v) Q, R and T each has membership of the store, while P and Q do not have membership of store.
(vi) Reward points received by R is 50% of the total rewards points received by T.
Question No. 68
Find which of the following statement/s is or are can be true.
I . Rs 7200 could be the original price of an article for S.
II. Reward amount received by P is equal to average reward amount received by Q and R.
Options :
1. Only I
2. Only II
3. Only I&Only II
4. Cant be determined
5. None of these
Answer : Only I
Direction:
The table given below shows the information about five customers visited a store. All customers are awarded with
reward points according to purchase they made. Read the table and information given below carefully and answer
the questions given below.

Note – (i) Customer awarded rewards points according to the amount spent on store
i.e., When price amount
When price amount between (5000 – 10000) Rs, then reward point = 100
When price amount > 10000 Rs, then reward amount = 200
(ii) Final amount on the bill = Original price – discount
(iii) Per reward point = Re 1
(iv) Reward given on original price and non-member reward points is given on final amount.
(v) Q, R and T each has membership of the store, while P and Q do not have membership of store.
(vi) Reward points received by R is 50% of the total rewards points received by T.
Question No. 69
Q purchased article A from the store and after availing it he received reward points, he paid Rs 12500 to the store. T
purchased article B from the store and after availing he received reward points, he paid Rs 4700 to the store. Find
the difference between the original price of article A and B.
Options :
1. 6000
2. 9000
3. 10500
4. 11000
5. 12500
Answer : 11000
Question No. 70
Which of the combination of column (I) is correct for obtaining both statement in column (II) is correct.
Column I
Column II
1 . Profit of A and B are equal and profit of C is greater than profit of D. investment period of A and C are equal.
I)Both A and B either invested for 6 months or 9 months.
2 . Investment of C is double the investment of A and 10/9 of the investment of D
II) Investment of B is Rs.5000.
3. Profit of B is 6000
4 . total profit is less or equal to Rs 15000
Note: (i) Maximum time period of investment is 12 months.
(ii) Profit share of D is 4500 and he invested for 12 months.
(iii) The time period/investment done by all four is integer.
Options :
1. 1,2
2. 1,2,3
3. 1,2,4
4. 1,3
5. 3,4
Answer : 1,3
Question No. 71
A cube is cut into 8 pieces equal pieces and nine identical circles of maximum radius drawn on one face of each
piece of cube. The sum of diameter of two circles is 8 unit. Find one third of maximum volume of cylinder that can
be fit in the initial cube.
Options :
1. 120x3.14
2. 320x3.14
3. 1152x3.14
4. 1145x3.14
5. None of these
Answer : 1152x3.14
Question No. 72
Boat A covers z km upstream distance in nine hours. Boat B’s upstream speed is equal to downstream speed of
boat A and covers m km downstream in one hour. The speed of B in still water is (m – 4) km/hr and speed of boat A
in still water is 8 km/hr. find the relation between z and m.
(i) z:m = 9:5
(ii) m+ z = even number
(iii) z
Options :
1. only i and ii
2. only ii and iii
3. only i and iii
4. All i, ii and iii
5. None of these
Answer : only i and ii
Question No. 73
The age of four sister is in a series of consecutive composite number. The age of the oldest sister is multiple of 25 &
x
less than 100 while the age of second youngest sister eight years ago is 2 where x is a positive integer. Find the
age (in years) of youngest sister after seven years
Options :
1. 77
2. 79
3. 80
4. 53
5. 28
Answer : 77
Direction:
There are three equations I, II and III given below. Solve these three equations and answer the questions given
below.
Note – (i) Equation I + Equation II = Equation III
(ii) ‘n’ is the smallest whole number, while A and P are the integer.
Question No. 74
If y = 1.4 in equation III, then which of the following is the root of the equation?
Options :
1. 7,11
2. -21, 11
3. 8,9
4. 11,21
5. None of these
Answer : 8,9
Direction:
There are three equations I, II and III given below. Solve these three equations and answer the questions given
below.
Note – (i) Equation I + Equation II = Equation III
(ii) ‘n’ is the smallest whole number, while A and P are the integer.
Question No. 75
Which of the statement/s is/are true? 1. A is a prime number 2. A is one of the factors of P 3. product of A and 15 = 32
Options :
1. Only 1 and 3
2. Only 2
3. Only 2 and 3
4. Only 1 and 2
5. None of these
Answer : Only 1 and 2
Direction:
The provided pie chart outlines the percentage breakdown of the quantity of Rice, Wheat, and Pulses in a mixture
relative to the total quantity of the entire mixture (Rice + Wheat + Pulses).
Please take note:If 20% of the mixture is substituted with 50 grams of Wheat, the resulting ratios within the
mixture shift. Specifically, the ratio of the quantity of Rice to Wheat becomes 48:61, and the ratio of Rice to Pulses
adjusts to 3:1.
Question No. 76
Determine the percentage of Rice quantity in the new mixture.
Options :
1. 25.25%
2. 15.02%
3. 38.4%
4. 45.22%
5. none of these
Answer : 38.4%
Direction:
adjusts to 3:1.
Question No. 77
What will be the initial quantity of mixture in the container?
Options :
1. 120 grams
2. 300 grams
3. 100 grams
4. 220 grams
5. 250 grams
Answer : 250 grams
Direction:
adjusts to 3:1.
Question No. 78
Calculate the remaining quantity of Wheat in the mixture after the replacement.
Options :
1. 122 grams
2. 140 grams
3. 120 grams
4. 100 grams
5. 150 grams
Answer : 122 grams
Direction:
Answer the following questions.In a medical college, three students, Asmita, Bhavana, and Chetna, are assigned to
complete four dissertations. Each dissertation has a different number of sheets. All three students worked on each
dissertation, but no two worked together. The sequence of work on each dissertation was Asmita, followed by
Bhavana, and then Chetna. The line graph illustrates the total number of days each student worked on each
dissertation.
Points to be Noted:-
1. The working efficiency of each student was consistent across all dissertations.
2. Dissertation 'C' required writing 300 more sheets than Dissertation 'A'.
3. The ratio of the number of sheets required for Dissertation 'B' to 'D' was 4:3.
4. If Asmita and Bhavana worked together on Dissertation 'C', they would complete it in 30 days.
Question No. 79
What will be the ratio of the number of sheets written by 'Asmita' to that written by 'Chetna' each day.
Options :
1. 1:2
2. 3:2
3. 3:1
4. 3:5
5. none of these
Answer : 3:2
Direction:
Answer the following questions.In a medical college, three students, Asmita, Bhavana, and Chetna, are assigned to
complete four dissertations. Each dissertation has a different number of sheets. All three students worked on each
dissertation, but no two worked together. The sequence of work on each dissertation was Asmita, followed by
Bhavana, and then Chetna. The line graph illustrates the total number of days each student worked on each
dissertation.
Points to be Noted:-
1. The working efficiency of each student was consistent across all dissertations.
2. Dissertation 'C' required writing 300 more sheets than Dissertation 'A'.
3. The ratio of the number of sheets required for Dissertation 'B' to 'D' was 4:3.
4. If Asmita and Bhavana worked together on Dissertation 'C', they would complete it in 30 days.
Question No. 80
If all three students worked together, determine the time needed to finish Dissertation 'D.'
Options :
1. 12 days
2. 22 days
3. 25 days
4. 15 days
5. none of these
Answer : 15 days
Question No. 81
What is the extended validity date of the Payments Infrastructure Development Fund (PIDF) scheme by the Reserve
Bank of India?
Options :
1. December 31, 2025
2. January 1, 2026
3. March 31, 2026
4. June 30, 2027
5. October 15, 2030
Answer : December 31, 2025
Question No. 82
What is the penalty amount imposed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on Paytm Payments Bank for non-
compliance with KYC directions, cybersecurity guidelines, and payments banks regulations?
Options :
1. Rs 3.2 crore
2. Rs 5.4 crore
3. Rs 7.8 crore
4. Rs 2.5 crore
5. Rs 6.0 crore
Answer : Rs 5.4 crore
Question No. 83
What is the disinvestment target set by the Government of India in Union Budget 2023-24?
Options :
1. Rs 31,500 crore
2. Rs 35,000 crore
3. Rs 37,000 crore
4. Rs 40,000 crore
5. Rs 51,000 crore
Answer : Rs 51,000 crore
Question No. 84
How many Whole Time Directors (WTDs), including the Managing Director and Chief Executive Officer, has the
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) advised private sector banks to appoint on their boards?
Options :
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
5. Five
Answer : Two
Question No. 85
For what specific contribution did the Nobel Prize in Physics 2023 recipients, Anne L'Huillier, Pierre Agostini, and
Ferenc Krausz, receive the award?

Options :
1. The development of advanced laser technology
2. The discovery of new particles in subatomic physics
3. Pioneering research on dark matter
4. Experimental methods generating attosecond pulses for studying electron dynamics
5. Breakthroughs in quantum computing algorithms
Answer : Experimental methods generating attosecond pulses for studying electron dynamics
Question No. 86
What is the maturity period of the bond scheduled to be auctioned for Rs 10,000 crore in the week of October 30 -
November 3, 2023?
Options :
1. 30 years
2. 40 years
3. 50 years
4. 60 years
5. 75 years
Answer : 50 years
Question No. 87
In the context of ethanol blending with petrol in India, for which Economic Scheduling Year (ESY) has the
government set a target of achieving 15 per cent ethanol blending?
Options :
1. ESY 2021–22
2. ESY 2022–23
3. ESY 2023–24
4. ESY 2024–25
5. ESY 2025–26
Answer : ESY 2023–24
Question No. 88
Which of the following Asian countries is not a member of G 20 Organization?
Options :
1. India
2. Indonesia
3. Japan
4. Malaysia
5. South Korea
Answer : Malaysia
Question No. 89
In the 2023 Global Crypto Adoption Index by Chainalysis, what is India's rank among 154 nations in grassroots crypto
adoption?
Options :
1. 1st
2. 3rd
3. 5th
4. 10th
5. 12th
Answer : 1st
Question No. 90
Which government owns Temasek Holdings (Private) Limited, a global investment company?
Options :
1. Malaysia
2. China
3. Singapore
4. Indonesia
5. Germany
Answer : Singapore
Question No. 91
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) imposed a penalty of Rs 12.19 crore on ICICI Bank for the violation:
Options :
1. Violation of customer data privacy
2. Non-compliance with anti-money laundering regulations
3. Contravention of norms related to loans and advances
4. Failure to maintain adequate liquidity
5. Breach of cybersecurity protocols
Answer : Contravention of norms related to loans and advances
Question No. 92
Tata Electronics Pvt Ltd (TEPL) is acquiring Wistron's operations in India for $125 million, making it the first Indian
company to manufacture Apple iPhones. What is the equivalent amount in Indian Rupees (Rs)?
Options :
1. Rs 75 crore
2. Rs 125 crore
3. Rs 500 crore
4. Rs 1,000 crore
5. Rs 2,000 crore
Answer : Rs 1,000 crore
Question No. 93
Which of the following is the third Project 15B stealth guided missile destroyer recently delivered to the Indian
Navy by Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL)?
Options :
1. INS Visakhapatnam
2. INS Mormugao
3. INS Chennai
4. INS Kolkata
5. INS Imphal
Answer : INS Imphal
Question No. 94
What is the percentage decline in FY2023 in the ratio of insured deposits to assessable deposits in the banking
system, as per the latest Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) data, from 49% in FY2022?
Options :
1. 41.69%
2. 46.31%
3. 43.00%
4. 44.71%
5. 45.69%
Answer : 46.31%
Question No. 95
What is the proposed increase in the minimum amount for offering non-callable term deposits (TDs) based on the
recent announcement by RBI?

Options :
1. ₹50 lakh
2. ₹75 lakh
3. ₹1 crore
4. ₹1.5 crore
5. ₹2 crore
Answer : ₹1 crore
Question No. 96
Which company is producing its first original Indian animated series, "Mighty Little Bheem," based on the popular
character Chhota Bheem?
Options :
1. Disney
2. Amazon Prime Video
3. Sony Pictures Animation
4. Nickelodeon
5. Netflix
Answer : Netflix
Question No. 97
Project Tiger completes its 50 years in 2023, the International Big Cats Alliance (IBCA) is dedicated to the protection
and conservation of seven major big cats. Which of the following animals are included in this alliance?
Options :
1. Tiger
2. Lion
3. Leopard
4. Panther
5. Puma
Answer : Panther
Question No. 98
What is the maximum remittance limit per transaction from India to Nepal when the sender maintains an account
with any NEFT enabled bank branch in India?
Options :
1. ₹1 lakh
2. ₹1.5 lakhs
3. ₹2 lakhs
4. ₹2.5 lakhs
5. ₹3 lakhs
Answer : ₹2 lakhs
Question No. 99
The requirement for Reporting Entities (REs) to release all original movable/immovable property documents and
remove charges registered within 30 days after full repayment/settlement of the loan account is stipulated in
which regulatory code?
Options :
1. Banking Regulation Act
2. Fair Practices Code
3. The Negotiable Instruments Act
4. Payment and Settlement Systems Act
5. Banking Companies (Nomination) Rules
Answer : Fair Practices Code
Question No. 100

The Persian film Endless Borders directed by Abbas Amini received the Golden Peacock award for the Best Film at
the 54th IFFI. What is the Prize Money for the Golden Peacock award?
Options :
1. Rs 25 Lakh
2. Rs 30 Lakh
3. Rs 40 Lakh
4. Rs 50 Lakh
5. Rs 75 Lakh
Answer : Rs 40 Lakh
Question No. 101
The Sri Lankan government has extended the petroleum products license granted to Lanka IOC, the Indian Oil
Corporation subsidiary, for an additional period. What is the duration of the extension?
Options :
1. 10 years
2. 15 years
3. 20 years
4. 25 years
5. 30 years
Answer : 20 years
Question No. 102
What is the designated brand name for India's premium Cotton in the world cotton trade, representing Whiteness,
Brightness, Softness, Purity, Luster, Uniqueness, and Indianness?
Options :
1. Shakti Cotton
2. Ashvi Cotton
3. Divya Cotton
4. Swarna Cotton
5. Kasturi Cotton
Answer : Kasturi Cotton
Question No. 103
The ECO Mark Scheme is boeing administered by the Bureau of Indian Standards, instituted by the Government of
India, and is designed for the labeling of which type of products?
Options :
1. Environment-friendly Products
2. Organic Food Products
3. Electronics and Gadgets
4. Leather made Goods
5. Educational Materials
Answer : Environment-friendly Products
Question No. 104
What is the revised maximum deposit limit for the Senior Citizens Savings Scheme (SCSS) in India, following the
recent increase by the government?
Options :
1. ₹20 lakhs
2. ₹25 lakhs
3. ₹30 lakhs
4. ₹35 lakhs
5. ₹50 lakhs
Answer : ₹30 lakhs

Question No. 105
Which of the following countries is not included in the Visa Free countries for Indian Passport Holders?
Options :
1. Qatar
2. Sri Lanka
3. Angola
4. Israel
5. Seychelles
Answer : Israel
Question No. 106
Following the decision by the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI), what is the revised
minimum capital requirement for Foreign Reinsurance Business (FRBs)?
Options :
1. Rs 25 crore
2. Rs 50 crore
3. Rs 75 crore
4. Rs 100 crore
5. Rs 150 crore
Answer : Rs 50 crore
Question No. 107
Which of the following Articles of the constitution of India is related to the Financial annual Statements?
Options :
1. Article 108
2. Article 110
3. Article 111
4. Article 112
5. Article 115
Answer : Article 112
Question No. 108
What is the penalty amount imposed by the Competition Commission of India (CCI) on tech giant Google for
abusing its dominant position in the playstore ecosystem?
Options :
1. Rs 563 crore
2. Rs 754 crore
3. Rs 936 crore
4. Rs 1,212 crore
5. Rs 1,531 crore
Answer : Rs 936 crore
Question No. 109
IBM Inc. has collaborated with which Indian ministry to advance and accelerate innovation in AI, semiconductor,
and quantum technology?
Options :
1. Ministry of New & Renewable Energy
2. Ministry of Earth Sciences
3. Ministry of Education
4. Ministry of Environment & Forests
5. Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
Answer : Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology

Question No. 110
Among the states in India, which one secures the third position in the production of Maize as of Economic Survey
2022-23, the country's third most produced crop?
Options :
1. Uttar Pradesh
2. Punjab
3. Karnataka
4. Madhya Pradesh
5. Maharashtra
Answer : Maharashtra
Question No. 111
What is the current interest rate per annum offered by the RBI Floating Rate Savings Bonds (FRSB) 2020 (Taxable) as
of January 1, 2024?
Options :
1. 7.50%
2. 7.75%
3. 8.05%
4. 8.25%
5. 8.50%
Answer : 8.05%
Question No. 112
How many gold medals did Sharath Kamal win for India at the Commonwealth Games 2022?
Options :
1. No gold medals
2. One gold medal
3. Two gold medals
4. Three gold medals
5. Four gold medals
Answer : Three gold medals
Question No. 113
What are the predominant colors in the Mastercard logo design?
Options :
1. Red and Orange
2. Red and Yellow
3. Blue and White
4. Yellow and Orange
5. Orange and White
Answer : Red and Yellow
Question No. 114
In the context of tokenisation of assets, what type of network is commonly mentioned where discussions between
banks and the RBI have taken place?
Options :
1. Social Network
2. Neural Network
3. Blockchain Network
4. Mesh Network
5. Satellite Network
Answer : Blockchain Network

Question No. 115
What is the name of the app that serves as an all-in-one source for detailed air quality data, real-time pollution
levels, health tips, and allows users to share photos of specific locations on social media?
Options :
1. IQAir AirQuality
2. BreatheSafe IQAir
3. PollutionGuard Pro
4. CleanAir IQAir
5. IQAir AirVisual
Answer : IQAir AirVisual
Question No. 116
The Mission Amrit Sarovar, launched on 24th April 2022, with the objective of conserving water for the future, is
spearheaded by which ministry?
Options :
1. Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change
2. Ministry of Water Resources
3. Ministry of Rural Development
4. Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers' Welfare
5. Ministry of Jal Shakti
Answer : Ministry of Rural Development
Question No. 117
What is the revised bulk deposit limit for scheduled commercial and small finance banks, as per the recent change?
Options :
1. Rs 50 lakh and above

2. Rs 1 crore and above
Answer : Rs 2 crore and above
Question No. 118
What is the name of the innovative whatsapp chatbot platform that facilitates easy and hassle-free train travel,
allowing users to book train tickets, check PNR status, search for trains between stations, and order food on trains?
Options :
1. RailEase
2. TrainBot Pro
3. RailNavi
4. Railofy
5. EasyAssist
Answer : Railofy
Question No. 119
In which country does the Government-to-business Public eProcurement center called GeBIZ operate, where
suppliers can engage in electronic commerce with the government?
Options :
1. Malaysia
2. Singapore
3. Thailand
4. India
5. Australia
Answer : Singapore
Question No. 120
Which concepts are woven into life according to the vision of Mission LiFE, as mentioned by PM Modi in COP 26?
Options :
1. Conserve, Contribute, Consume
2. Produce, Protect, Preserve
3. Reduce, Reuse, Recycle
4. Innovate, Implement, Integrate
5. Adapt, Advance, Achieve
Answer : Reduce, Reuse, Recycle
Question No. 121
Given below is a sentence with or without an error. The error, if any, is in one part of the sentence. Choose the
correct part which contains the error. In case no error; choose option e ‘no error’.
The happiness index is a measure that accesses the overall well-being and contentment of a population, taking into
account various factors such as economic stability, social support, and life satisfaction.
Options :
1. The happiness index is a measure that accesses the overall well-being
2. and contentment of a population,
3. taking into account various factors such as
4. economic stability, social support, and life satisfaction
5. No error
Answer : The happiness index is a measure that accesses the overall well-being
Question No. 122
Countries often striving to improve their happiness index by implementing policies focused on mental health
support, access to education, and creating environments conducive to positive social interactions.
Options :
1. Countries often striving to improve their happiness index by
2. implementing policies focused on mental health support,
3. access to education, and creating environments
4. conducive to positive social interactions
5. No error
Answer : Countries often striving to improve their happiness index by
Question No. 123
The poverty index is a statistical measure used to gauge the extension of poverty within a population, typically by
considering income levels, access to basic necessities, and socioeconomic disparities.
Options :
1. The poverty index is a statistical measure used to gauge
2. the extension of poverty within a population, typically by
3. considering income levels, access to basic necessities,
4. and socioeconomic disparities
5. No error
Answer : the extension of poverty within a population, typically by
Question No. 124
Governments and international organizations use the poverty index to identify regions or communities in need of
targeted interventions, such as welfare programs, job creation initiatives, and infrastructure development, aimed at
elevating poverty and promoting economic empowerment.
Options :
1. Governments and international organizations use the poverty index to identify
2. regions or communities in need of targeted interventions, such as welfare programs, job creation
3. initiatives, and infrastructure development,
4. aimed at elevating poverty and promoting economic empowerment
5. No error
Answer : aimed at elevating poverty and promoting economic empowerment
Question No. 125
Japan's GDP, one of the largest in the world, reflect its robust industrial sector, innovative technology, and highly
skilled workforce.
Options :
1. Japan's GDP, one of the largest in the world,
2. reflect its robust industrial sector,
3. innovative technology,
4. and highly skilled workforce
5. No error
Answer : reflect its robust industrial sector,
Direction:
Rearrange the following sentences which are jumbled, to form a meaningful paragraph and answer the questions
that follow it.
A. The U.S. dollar is the currency of record most used in international transactions and is the world's reserve
currency, backed by a large U.S. treasuries market, its role as the reference standard for the petrodollar system, and
its linked eurodollar.
B. Several countries use it as their official currency and in others it is the de facto currency.
C. It is the world's largest economy by nominal GDP, and the second-largest by purchasing power parity (PPP)
behind China.
D. The U.S. accounted for 25.4% of the global economy in 2022 in nominal terms, and around 15.6% in PPP terms.
E. The United States is a highly developed/advanced mixed economy.
F. It has the world's seventh-highest per capita GDP (nominal) and the eighth-highest per capita GDP (PPP) as of
2022.
Question No. 126
Which should be the first sentence after rearrangement?
Options :
1. E
2. B
3. F
4. D
5. A
Answer : E
Direction:
that follow it.
behind China.
2022.
Question No. 127
Which should be the last sentence after rearrangement?
Options :
1. B
2. E
3. A
4. D
5. C
Answer : B
Direction:
that follow it.
behind China.
2022.
Question No. 128
Which should be the third sentence after rearrangement?
Options :
1. C
2. F
3. A
4. E
5. B
Answer : F
Direction:
that follow it.
behind China.
2022.
Question No. 129
Which should be the second sentence after rearrangement?
Options :
1. C
2. F
3. E
4. A
5. B
Answer : C
Direction:
that follow it.
behind China.
2022.
Question No. 130
Which should be the fourth sentence after rearrangement?
Options :
1. C
2. D
3. E
4. A
5. B
Answer : D
Direction:
that follow it.
behind China.
2022.
Question No. 131
Which should be the fifth sentence after rearrangement?
Options :
1. C
2. D
3. E
4. A
5. B
Answer : A
Question No. 132
The following statements have two blanks which are to be filled in with options given below. Choose the correct
combination of words in the same order which will most suitably complete the sentence without altering the
meaning of the statement. In none of the combination is correct, choose option 5. None of these your answer.
The company's new CEO __________ a comprehensive restructuring plan to streamline operations and boost
efficiency, along with implementing __________ measures to address financial challenges.

Options :
1. Rolled up, derelict
2. Rolled out, stringent
3. Rolled off, lenient
4. Rolled in, lax
5. None of the above
Answer : Rolled out, stringent
Question No. 133
The chef __________ a delectable array of dishes for the gala dinner, including exquisite appetizers and succulent
__________ entrees.
Options :
1. Whipped up, pedestrian
2. Whipped off, bland
3. Whipped in, mediocre
4. Whipped out, exceptional
5. None of these
Answer : Whipped up, pedestrian
Question No. 134
The project manager __________ a detailed timeline for the construction project, ensuring __________
milestones are met to keep the project on schedule.
Options :
1. Laid out, critical
2. Laid off, arbitrary
3. Laid in, trivial
4. Laid up, random
5. None of these
Answer : Laid out, critical
Question No. 135
The students __________ an impressive presentation on climate change, highlighting __________ data to
support their arguments.
Options :
1. Put in, anecdotal
2. Put off, empirical
3. Put out, hypothetical
4. Put forward, factual
5. None of these
Answer : Put forward, factual
Question No. 136
The organization __________ a series of workshops on leadership development, focusing on __________ skills
such as communication and decision-making.
Options :
1. Conducted in, abstract

2. Conducted off, concrete
3. Conducted for, obscure
4. Conducted on, practical
5. None of these
Answer : Conducted on, practical
Direction:
Read the following passage and answer the questions based on it.
The Middle East, a region at the crossroads of continents and civilizations, boasts a diverse tapestry of cultures,
histories, and economies. Among the array of nations nestled within this region, each possesses its unique blend of
resources, industries, and economic challenges. Understanding the economy of a Middle Eastern country requires
navigating through layers of complexity shaped by geopolitical factors, cultural nuances, and global economic
trends.
At the heart of many Middle Eastern economies lies the abundance of natural resources, particularly oil and gas.
Countries like Saudi Arabia, the United Arab Emirates (UAE), and Qatar possess vast reserves of hydrocarbons,
making them pivotal players in the global energy landscape. The revenue generated from oil exports fuels
economic growth, funds ambitious development projects, and sustains generous welfare systems in these nations.
However, heavy reliance on oil revenues renders these economies vulnerable to fluctuations in global oil prices,
necessitating diversification efforts to mitigate risks and foster long-term sustainability.
Diversification strategies vary across Middle Eastern countries, reflecting their unique economic landscapes and
development priorities. While some nations have successfully diversified their economies beyond oil and gas,
leveraging sectors such as finance, tourism, and technology, others face significant challenges in reducing
dependence on hydrocarbons. Countries like Iraq and Iran grapple with political instability, sanctions, and internal
conflicts, hindering their efforts to diversify and modernize their economies.
Moreover, the demographic dynamics in the Middle East pose both opportunities and challenges for economic
development. With a youthful population and a burgeoning labor force, countries in the region possess a
demographic dividend—a potential source of economic growth if harnessed effectively through education,
employment, and entrepreneurship. However, high youth unemployment rates, particularly among university
graduates, underscore the urgent need for job creation and skills development initiatives to unlock the region's
economic potential and address socio-economic disparities.
In addition to internal dynamics, Middle Eastern economies are intricately intertwined with global markets and
geopolitical realities. The region's strategic location as a crossroads of trade routes and its geopolitical significance
fuel regional rivalries, conflicts, and alliances that impact economic stability and growth. Geopolitical tensions, such
as those between Iran and its Gulf neighbors or the ongoing conflict in Yemen, disrupt trade, investment, and
confidence, posing challenges to economic development and regional integration efforts.
Furthermore, the COVID-19 pandemic has exacerbated existing economic vulnerabilities and introduced new
uncertainties for Middle Eastern countries. The pandemic-induced economic slowdown, coupled with sharp
declines in oil prices, strained public finances, exacerbated unemployment, and widened socio-economic
inequalities. Governments in the region responded with a mix of fiscal stimulus measures, monetary policy
interventions, and structural reforms to mitigate the impact of the crisis and lay the groundwork for recovery.
Looking ahead, Middle Eastern countries face a myriad of economic challenges and opportunities on their path to
sustainable development. Achieving economic diversification, enhancing human capital, fostering innovation, and
promoting inclusive growth will be critical priorities for policymakers. Moreover, strengthening regional
cooperation, resolving conflicts through diplomacy, and embracing economic reforms are essential for unlocking
the region's full economic potential and improving the livelihoods of its diverse populations.
In conclusion, the economy of a Middle Eastern country is a multifaceted mosaic shaped by historical legacies,
natural resource endowments, demographic dynamics, geopolitical realities, and global economic forces.
Navigating through these complexities requires visionary leadership, strategic planning, and concerted efforts to
harness the region's rich potential and overcome its formidable challenges in pursuit of a prosperous and inclusive
future.
Question No. 137
Which factor is identified as a key driver of economic growth in many Middle Eastern countries?
Options :
1. Political stability
2. Tourism industry
3. Cultural heritage
4. Global trade agreements
5. Religious diversity
Answer : Tourism industry
Direction:
trends.
future.
Question No. 138
What is mentioned as a major challenge hindering economic diversification efforts in some Middle Eastern nations?
Options :
1. Abundance of natural resources
2. Youth unemployment
3. Strong government intervention
4. Access to international markets
5. Technological advancements
Answer : Youth unemployment
Direction:
trends.
future.
Question No. 139
How did the COVID-19 pandemic impact Middle Eastern economies according to the passage?
Options :
1. Strengthened public finances
2. Reduced geopolitical tensions
3. Narrowed socio-economic inequalities
4. Strained public finances
5. Increased oil prices
Answer : Strained public finances
Direction:
trends.
future.
Question No. 140
What is suggested as a potential solution to address high youth unemployment rates in the Middle East?
Options :
1. Embracing political instability
2. Reducing investment in education
3. Implementing stricter immigration policies
4. Job creation and skills development initiatives
5. Encouraging reliance on oil revenues
Answer : Job creation and skills development initiatives
Direction:
trends.
future.
Question No. 141
What is the central focus of the passage on the economy of Middle Eastern countries?
Options :
1. Political dynamics in the Middle East
2. Cultural diversity in the region
3. Socio-economic challenges and opportunities
4. Historical architecture of Middle Eastern cities
5. Environmental sustainability initiatives in the region
Answer : Socio-economic challenges and opportunities
Direction:
trends.

future.
Question No. 142
What is the tone of the passage discussing the economy of Middle Eastern countries?
Options :
1. Optimistic
2. Critical
3. Analytical
4. Conversational
5. Dramatic
Answer : Analytical
Direction:
trends.

future.
Question No. 143
Which of the following word is not similar in meaning to the given word ‘conflict’ as used in the passage?
Options :
1. Dispute
2. Strife
3. Harmony
4. Discord
5. Contention
Answer : Harmony
Direction:
trends.
future.
Question No. 144
Which word is similar in meaning to the given word ‘disrupt’ as has been used in the passage?
Options :
1. Maintain
2. Facilitate
3. Interrupt
4. Preserve
5. Stabilize
Answer : Interrupt
Direction:
Fashion, a dynamic expression of individuality and culture, is in a perpetual state of flux, constantly evolving with
the shifting tides of society, technology, and creativity. The change in fashion trends reflects the ever-changing
tastes, preferences, and lifestyles of people across different epochs and regions, serving as a mirror to the zeitgeist
of each era.
Throughout history, fashion trends have undergone transformative shifts, influenced by a myriad of factors such as
social norms, economic conditions, technological advancements, and cultural movements. From the elaborate
garments of ancient civilizations to the avant-garde designs of modern haute couture, the evolution of fashion
trends is a testament to humanity's quest for self-expression and innovation.
One of the most notable drivers of change in fashion trends is the phenomenon of cultural globalization, which has
facilitated the cross-pollination of styles, aesthetics, and traditions from diverse cultures around the world. As
borders become increasingly porous and communication technologies enable instant connectivity, fashion
designers and enthusiasts draw inspiration from a rich tapestry of global influences, resulting in eclectic and
hybridized fashion trends that transcend geographical boundaries.
Moreover, the democratization of fashion, propelled by the rise of social media and digital platforms, has
empowered individuals to participate actively in shaping and disseminating fashion trends. Influencers, bloggers,
and fashion enthusiasts leverage online platforms to showcase their personal style, challenge traditional norms, and
catalyze new trends, democratizing the fashion landscape and fostering a culture of inclusivity and diversity.
In recent years, sustainability has emerged as a defining paradigm in the fashion industry, driving aseismic shift
towards more ethical and eco-conscious practices. As consumers become increasingly aware of the environmental
and social impacts of fast fashion, there is a growing demand for transparent supply chains, ethical labor practices,
and environmentally friendly materials. This shift towards sustainable fashion has catalyzed a renaissance of
artisanal craftsmanship, vintage clothing, and slow fashion movements, challenging the hegemony of disposable
consumerism and fostering a more mindful approach to consumption.

Furthermore, the COVID-19 pandemic has accelerated certain trends in the fashion industry, reshaping consumer
behavior and preferences in profound ways. With lockdowns and social distancing measures necessitating remote
work and virtual interactions, there has been a surge in demand for comfortable and versatile clothing that
seamlessly transitions between home and office settings. The pandemic has also underscored the importance of
digital innovation and e-commerce in driving sales and engaging consumers in an increasingly digitized world.
As we navigate the complexities of a rapidly changing world, the evolution of fashion trends serves as a barometer
of societal values, aspirations, and aspirations. While fashion trends may come and go, the enduring allure of self-
expression, creativity, and innovation ensures that the journey of fashion evolution continues unabated, inspiring
generations to embrace change and celebrate the transformative power of style.
Question No. 145
What is identified as one of the most notable drivers of change in fashion trends?
Options :
1. Technological advancements
2. Political ideologies
3. Traditional customs
4. Economic fluctuations
5. Geological formations
Answer : Technological advancements
Direction:
of each era.

Question No. 146
What has accelerated certain trends in the fashion industry according to the passage?
Options :
1. Environmental activism
2. Cultural isolation
3. Technological stagnation
4. The COVID-19 pandemic
5. Astronomical phenomena
Answer : The COVID-19 pandemic
Direction:
of each era.
Question No. 147
Which factor has led to the democratization of fashion, according to the passage?
Options :
1. Decline in social media usage
2. Increase in fashion elitism
3. Proliferation of digital platforms
4. Restricted access to information
5. Cultural homogenization
Answer : Proliferation of digital platforms
Direction:
of each era.

Question No. 148
What has emerged as a defining paradigm in the fashion industry, driving a shift towards ethical and eco-conscious
practices?
Options :
1. Mass production
2. Consumer apathy
3. Sustainability
4. Fast fashion
5. Industrialization
Answer : Sustainability
Direction:
of each era.
Question No. 149
What is the central theme of the passage discussing fashion trends?
Options :
1. Technological innovation in the fashion industry
2. Economic fluctuations and their impact on fashion trends
3. Evolution and change in fashion trends over time
4. Environmental sustainability practices in the fashion industry
5. Cultural diversity and globalization in fashion trends
Answer : Evolution and change in fashion trends over time
Direction:
of each era.
Question No. 150
Which of the following is not similar in meaning to seismic as given in the passage?
Options :
1. Insignificant
2. Tremendous
3. Earth-shattering
4. Cataclysmic
5. Groundbreaking
Answer : Insignificant
Direction:
of each era.

Question No. 151
Which of the following is not similar in meaning to seismic as given in the passage?
Options :
1. Authoritarianism
2. Centralization
3. Liberalization
4. Monopolization
5. Oligarchy
Answer : Authoritarianism
Direction:
Below is given a paragraph with four blanks. Choose the correct options from given below to fill the blanks to make
the paragraph meaningful.
The US economy, a ______________1. of innovation and productivity, encompasses diverse sectors ranging from
technology and finance to manufacturing and agriculture. With a ___________2. GDP exceeding trillions of dollars
annually, the economy drives global markets and ____________3. geopolitical dynamics. Entrepreneurial spirit,
coupled with a strong regulatory framework and access to capital, fuels business growth and job creation.
However, challenges such as income inequality, trade imbalances, and fluctuating market conditions require
____________4. management and policy interventions to ensure sustainable prosperity for all citizens.
Question No. 152
Choose the correct option to fill blank number 1.
Options :
1. Powerhouse
2. Weakling
3. Ineffectual
4. Lightweight
5. Incompetent
Answer : Powerhouse
Direction:
Question No. 153

Options :
1. Robust
2. Robotic
3. Rob
4. Rodent
5. Rudiment
Answer : Robust
Direction:
Question No. 154
Options :
1. Affluence
2. Influence
3. Implies
4. Implicates
5. Injects
Answer : Influence
Direction:
Question No. 155
Options :
1. Vigilant
2. Vigil
3. Virgin
4. Valiant
5. Valour
Answer : Vigilant
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likes Apple. S does not live on floor number eight.

lives immediate above the empty floor and like Pear.

Who amongst the following lives on floor number five?

likes Apple. S does not live on floor number eight.

lives immediate above the empty floor and like Pear.

Answer : Mango – Male – 4

likes Apple. S does not live on floor number eight.

lives immediate above the empty floor and like Pear.

Who lives immediately above the empty floor?

5. Both (1) and (4)

Answer : Both (1) and (4)

likes Apple. S does not live on floor number eight.

lives immediate above the empty floor and like Pear.

Answer : Can’t be determined

likes Apple. S does not live on floor number eight.

lives immediate above the empty floor and like Pear.

Who among the following lives on the topmost floor?

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Step VI of the given input as per the English alphabetical series?

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and 'Y' respectively?

JRJTS ‘X’ SLPZM ‘Y’ SVVDE OHXNJ

Answer : AHJXE, CKSZB

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2. JSACE POSAM JIJGS VESWE SPCAB XSOMJ

4. JIJGS JSACE POSAM SPCAB VESWE XSOMJ

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What will be the step VI?

one after the other.

answer the question.

answer the question.