NMDCAT

FULL LENGTH PAPER–1

HALF SYLLABUS – I
Total MCQs: 210 Max. Marks: 210
BIOLOGY
Q.1 Which pair of structures is usually found in both plant and animal cells?
A. Nucleus and cell wall B. Nucleolus and chloroplast
C. Cell membrane and cell wall D. Cell membrane and nucleolus
Q.2 The nuclear equivalent of prokaryotic organisms is known as prokaryon and it:
A. Has one true chromosome B. Is composed of ssDNA
C. Has a proper nuclear membrane D. Does not divide by proper mitosis
Q.3 The murein found in bacterial cell wall is a derivative of:
A. Fats B. Sugars
C. Proteins D. Vitamins
Q.4 Endoplasmic reticulum of a rapidly dividing cells is:
A. Absent B. Non-functional
C. Poorly developed D. Highly developed
Q.5 Which of the following is associated with the structure of Golgi complex?
A. Quantasome B. Cristae
C. Cisternae D. Spheroplast
Q.6 Lysosomes are never involved in:
A. Autophagy B. Extracellular digestion
C. Digestion of their host cell D. Synthesis of lysosomal enzymes
Q.7 Passive processes for the movement of molecules across cell surface membrane are:
A. Facilitated diffusion and osmosis B. Diffusion and exocytosis
C. Pinocytosis and facilitated diffusion D. Osmosis and phagocytosis
Q.8 β-oxidation of fatty acids occurs in:
A. Microsomes B. Glyoxysomes
C. Mitochondria D. Golgi apparatus
Q.9 Which of the following is not a function of vacuole in the plant cell?
A. Storage B. Waste disposal
C. May help in protection D. Production of hydrogen peroxide
Q.10 Primary and secondary active transport both:
A. Generate ATP
B. Use ATP directly
C. Include the passive movement of glucose molecule
D. Can move solutes against their concentration gradients
Q.11 Which of the following statements regarding mitochondrial membrane is not correct?
A. The outer membrane resembles a sieve
B. The outer membrane is permeable to all kind of molecules
C. The enzymes of the electron transport chain are embedded in the outer membrane
D. The inner membrane is highly convoluted forming a series of infoldings
Q.12 The characteristic that is common in all lipids:
A. They all contain nitrogen B. None of them dissolves in water
C. They are all acidic when mixed with water D. They all are made of fatty acids and glycerol
Q.13 In general formula of carbohydrates, ‘x’ and ‘y’ are whole numbers which are same in:
A. Glucose B. Maltose
C. Sucrose D. Starch
Q.14 It is an example of branched carbohydrate:
A. Sucrose B. Amylopectin
C. Amylose D. Cellulose
Q.15 The carbon without hydroxyl group in straight chain structure of glucose is:
A. Carbon 1 B. Carbon 5
C. Carbon 3 D. Carbon 6
Q.16 Select the odd from the following:
A. Oleic acid B. Linoleic acid
C. Palmitic acid D. Glutamic acid

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Q.17 In protoplasm, fat is stored in the form of:
A. Polypeptide B. Triglyceride
C. Nucleosides D. Polysaccharide
Q.18 Non-essential amino acids are not:
A. Needed in the diet B. Essential for growth
C. Synthesized in the body D. Required for protein synthesis
Q.19 In a hydrolysis reaction __________ and in this process water is __________.
A. A polymer breaks up to form monomers; produced
B. A monomer breaks up to form polymers; produced
C. A polymer breaks up to form monomers; consumed
D. A monomers assembled to produce a polymer; consumed
Q.20 A peptide chain assumes secondary structure through the formation of:
A. Peptide bonds B. Inter-chain ionic bonds
C. Intra-chain hydrogen bonds D. Intra-chain disulphide linkages
Q.21 Which form of carbohydrate is found in RNA?
A. Aldo pentose B. Keto pentose
C. Aldo hexose D. Keto hexose
Q.22 What is common among lipase, rennin and trypsin?
A. All these are proteins B. These act at a pH lower than 7
C. These are produced in stomach D. These all are proteolytic enzymes
Q.23 Cyanide is a metabolic poison as it:
A. Inhibits glycolysis
B. Stops protein synthesis
C. Inhibits the enzymes of TCA cycle
D. Inhibits cytochrome oxidase and blocks cellular respiration
Q.24 Which one of the following is wrongly matched?
A. Fungi - Chitin B. ATP - Nucleotide derivative
C. Antibody - Glycoprotein D. Enzyme - Lipopolysaccharide
Q.25 Which is not correct for cyclic photophosphorylation?
A. No oxygen is given off B. No water is consumed
C. No NADPH2 is synthesized D. PS-I and PS-II are involved
Q.26 Which of the following phenomenon is observed during cyclic as well as non-cyclic
photophosphorylation?
A. Formation of ATP B. Release of O2
C. Involvement of both pigment systems D. Formation of NADPH2
Q.27 When light is passed through a solution of chlorophyll in alcohol and then allowed to fall
upon a glass, the spectrum is different from the spectrum of white light and shows the
chlorophyll has absorbed certain colours. These colours are much of:
A. Red and blue B. Yellow and blue
C. Green and blue D. Green and orange
Q.28 In a chlorophyll molecule, the magnesium is situated in the:
A. Centre of porphyrin B. Corners of porphyrin
C. Start of the phytol chain D. End of phytol chain
Q.29 Photosynthesis consists of essentially two reaction phases, one followed by the other. The
second of these does which of the following?
A. Traps light energy B. Synthesizes starch
C. Fixes carbon dioxide D. Works only in the presence of light
Q.30 Action spectrum of photosynthesis was described in 1883 by:
A. R. Hill B. M. Calvin
C. T. W. Engelmann D. Hatch and Slack
Q.31 When protein is used as a respiratory substrate, then the respiration is called:
A. Dark respiration B. Protoplasmic respiration
C. Floating respiration D. Photorespiration
Q.32 Fats contain more energy than:
A. Carbohydrates B. Proteins
C. Amino acids D. All A, B, C
Q.33 In Krebs cycle, GTP is formed due to:
A. Substrate level phosphorylation B. Oxidative phosphorylation
C. Photophosphorylation D. Decarboxylation
Q.34 During one Krebs cycle, number of carbon dioxide molecules released is/are:
A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4

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Q.35 It is not a main function perform by the oral cavity:
A. Grinding B. Digestion
C. Lubrication D. Absorption
Q.36 Parotid glands are situated in front of the:
A. Jaws B. Ears
C. Tongue D. Eyes
Q.37 The epithelial lining of the stomach is protected from the damage by HCl because:
A. HCl is too dilute B. HCl is neutralized in stomach
C. Epithelial cells are resistant to action of HCl D. Epithelial cells are covered by mucous
Q.38 Bilirubin and biliverdin are found in:
A. Bile B. Succus entericus
C. Saliva D. Pancreatic juice
Q.39 Ptyalin of saliva acts in:
A. Slightly acidic medium B. Slightly alkaline medium
C. Neutral acidic medium D. All types of media
Q.40 Carboxypeptidase is an enzyme secreted by:
A. Stomach B. Pancreas
C. Small intestine D. Gall bladder
Q.41 The enzyme not found in human pancreatic juice is:
A. Lipase B. Nucleotidase
C. Amylase D. Nuclease
Q.42 Which of these does not contain cartilage?
A. Bronchioles B. Larynx
C. Trachea D. Bronchi
Q.43 The color of oxyhemoglobin is:
A. Purple Red B. Light red
C. Bright purple D. Bright red
Q.44 Breathing rate is lowest while we are:
A. Eating B. Sleeping
C. Playing tennis D. Delivering lecture
Q.45 C-shaped cartilaginous rings supporting the trachea are made up of:
A. Elastic cartilage B. Hyaline cartilage
C. Fibrous cartilage D. Calcified cartilage
Q.46 People living at sea level have around 5 million RBCs per cubic millimeter of their blood
whereas those living at an altitude of 5400metres have around 8 million. This is because
at high altitude:
A. People eat more nutritive food, therefore more RBCs are formed
B. People get pollution free air to breathe and more oxygen is available
C. Atmospheric O2 level is less and hence more RBCs are needed to absorb required amount of O2
D. There is more UV-radiation which enhances RBC production
Q.47 Given these structures of the conduction system of the heart:
1. Atrioventricular bundle
2. AV node
3. Bundle branches
4. Purkinje fibres
5. SA node
Choose the arrangement that lists the structures in an order of an action potential passes
through them.
A. 2, 5, 3, 1, 4 B. 5, 2, 1, 3, 4
C. 2, 5, 1, 3, 4 D. 5, 2, 4, 1, 3
Q.48 If nerves of heart are cut, then heart will:
A. Stop B. Shrink
C. Beat rhythmically D. Beat arhythmically
Q.49 Which correctly pairs an ECG phase with the cardiac event responsible?
A. P wave - Depolarization of the ventricles
B. P wave - Depolarization of the AV-node
C. QRS wave - Depolarization of the ventricles
D. T wave - Repolarization of the atria
Q.50 The pulse pressure is a measure of the:
A. Number of heart beats per minute
B. Sum of the diastolic and systolic pressure
C. Difference between the arterial and venous pressure
D. Difference between the systolic and diastolic pressure
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Q.51 Valves in veins check backflow of blood flowing under:
A. No pressure B. Low pressure
C. High pressure D. Atmospheric pressure
Q.52 All of the following statements about WBCs are true except:
A. They are formed in lymph nodes B. They destroy bacteria
C. They are formed in bone marrow D. They can’t move
Q.53 Which of the following is an incorrect statement about leucocytes?
A. They are nucleated
B. They are approximately in an average of 6000-8000mm-3 of blood cells in number
C. Two main types includes granulocytes and agranulocytes
D. Monocytes are most abundant WBCs
Q.54 Select the incorrect statement from the following:
A. Coagulum is composed of fibrin and damaged formed element of blood
B. Inactive fibrinogen is converted to fibrin by the hormone thrombin
C. Prothrombin is converted into thrombin by the thrombokinase
D. Injured tissue released certain factors which initiate coagulation
Q.55 Serum differs from blood in:
A. Lacking albumins B. Lacking antibodies
C. Lacking clotting factors D. Lacking globulins
Q.56 One of the common symptoms observed in people infected with Dengue fever is:
A. Significant decrease in RBC count B. Significant decrease in platelet count
C. Significant decrease in WBC count D. Significant increase in platelet count
Q.57 Pathogens reaching the stomach along with food are destroyed by:
A. Hydrochloric acid B. Bile
C. Mucus D. Sodium bicarbonate
Q.58 Blood clot is also a part of our defense system. It represents:
A. Physical barrier B. Chemical barrier
C. Cellular barrier D. Mechanical barrier
Q.59 Acquired immunity is due to:
A. NK cells B. Erythrocytes
C. Lymphocytes D. Physiological and inflammatory barriers
Q.60 Suspension of attenuated pathogen that stimulates antibody formation is:
A. Serum B. Vaccine
C. Antitoxin D. Antibody
Q.61 Swelling of wooden doors during rainy season is due to:
A. Endosmosis B. Deplasmolysis
C. Capillarity D. Imbibition
Q.62 Water absorption through roots can be increased by:
A. Increased transpiration B. Increased humidity
C. Decreased transpiration D. Decreased absorption of ions
Q.63 Which one of the following is not placed in hypotonic solution then water will move
inside the cell. Which force causes this?
A. Cohesion and adhesion of water molecules B. Continuity of water column
C. Pressure in tracheary elements D. Transpiration pull
Q.64 The upward movement of sap by the xylem is:
A. Ascent of sap B. Plasmolysis
C. Deplasmolysis D. Guttation
Q.65 Which processes are involved in transport in both phloem and xylem?
1. Diffusion 2. Mass flow 3. Osmosis
A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only D. 2 and 3 only
Q.66 In plants, facilitated diffusion helps in the transport of minerals across the cell membrane
by using:
A. Phospholipids B. Membrane proteins
C. Cholesterol molecules D. Membrane carbohydrates
Q.67 Flow of lymph is maintained by all except:
A. Skeletal movements B. Visceral movements
C. Breathing movements D. Reflex movements
Q.68 The ultimate destination of lymph is:
A. Lymph node B. Lymphoid organs
C. Lymph capillaries D. Subclavian vein

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 CHEMISTRY
Q.69 The number of water molecules present in a drop of water weighing 0.018g is
A. 6.02 × 1026 B. 6.02 × 1020
23
C. 6.02 × 10 D. 6.02 × 1019
Q.70 Which of the following electronic configuration corresponds to an element with the
highest ionization energy
A. 1s2, 2s2, 2p3 B. 1s2, 2s2, 2p5
2 2 6
C. 1s , 2s , 2p D. 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s1
Q.71 For a gaseous phase reaction, when number of moles of reactants and products are equal
A. The values of Kn and Kc are different B. The value of Kp is greater than Kc
C. The value of Kc is greater than Kc D. The value of Kp and Kc are equal
Q.72 Purification of table salt (NaCl) by passing HCl gas through its saturated aqueous
solution is an example of
A. Law of mass action B. Hess’s law
C. Common ion effect D. Henry’s law
Q.73 The equation N 2g + 3H 2g 2NH 3g represents:
A. Contact process B. Haber’s process
C. Solvay process D. Avogadro’s law
Q.74 Which of the following reaction has greater Kp than Kc (Kp > Kc)?
A. 2 NOCl 2 NO + Cl2 B. 2 SO2 + O2 2 SO3
C. 2 NOCl . NO + Cl2 D. N2 + 3H2 2 NH3
Q.75 For the equation NO −3 + 4H + + X e ⎯⎯ → 2H 2O + NO . The number of electrons in its
balanced form would be
A. 6 B. 3
C. 5 D. 9
Q.76 After 3 half lives of a chemical reaction, the percentage fraction of the amount left is
A. 6.25 B. 25
C. 12.5 D. 20
Q.77 The number of atoms are same as 18g of Mg in
A. 20g of Ca B. 16g of O2
C. 9g of C D. 18g of H2
Q.78 The highest value of lattice energy which one of these ionic compound has
A. NaI B. NaF
C. NaBr D. NaCl
Q.79 The pKa of a weak acid is 4.8 what should be the ratio of log [salt] / [acid], if a buffer of
pH = 5.8 is required?
A. 1 B. 0.1
C. 10 D. 2
Q.80 The equation for the rate constant k = Ae-Ea/ RT a chemical reaction will proceed more
rapidly if there is a decrease in
A. k B. Ea
C. A D. T
Q.81 The unit of 1st order rate constant is expressed as
A. Mol dm–3Sec–1 B. Mol–2dm+6Sec–1
–1
C. Sec D. Mol–1dm+3Sec–1
Q.82 If pressure and temperature of 4dm3 of carbon dioxide gas is doubled, then the volume
of carbon dioxide gas would be
A. 2dm3 B. 4dm3
C. 3dm3 D. 8dm3
Q.83 An ideal gas cannot be liquefied because
A. Its critical temperature is above 0°C B. It solidifies before becoming a liquid
C. Its molecules are relatively small in size D. Forces acting between its molecules are negligible

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Q.84 The mass of one molecule of O2 is
23
A. 6.02×10 g B. 0.32g
32
32
C. 32g D. ×10-23 g
6.02
Q.85 The number of moles of CO which contain 8g of oxygen are
A. 0.25 B. 0.50
C. 0.125 D. 1.00
Q.86 The energy of activation (Ea) of an endothermic reaction is 103.410 kJ/mol. The
activation energy for reverse step may be
A. 101.210 kJ/mol B. 105.110 kJ/mol
C. 107.410 kJ/mol D. 109.111 kJ/mol
Q.87 Which of the following has the maximum bond energy
A. N-O B. N-Cl
C. N-F D. N-Br
Q.88 Among the following compounds the one that is polar and has the central atom with sp2
hybridization is
A. H2S B. SO2
C. BF3 D. CH4
Q.89 A ring has 18g of diamond in it, what is the number of atoms in this diamond
A. 6.02 × 1023 B. 1.5 × 6.02 × 1023
C. 2 × 6.02 × 1023 D. 3 × 6.02 × 1023
Q.90 Principal, azimuthal and magnetic quantum numbers are respectively related to
A. Shape, size and orientation B. Orientation, size and shape
C. Size, orientation and shape D. Size, shape and orientation
Q.91 The total number of electrons present in all the p–orbitals of 35 Br
A. 5 B. 18
C. 17 D. 35
Q.92 Arrange the elements according to the trends of ionization energies C, N, Ne, B.
A. Ne < N < C < B B. B < N < C < Ne
C. B < C < N < Ne D. Ne < B < C < N
Q.93 Which of the following electronic configuration is not possible
A. 1s2, 2s2, B. [Ar] 3d10, 4s2, 4p2
2 2 6
C. 1s , 2s , 2p D. 1s2, 2s2, 2p2, 3s1
Q.94 In a container pure water is boiled maintaining the external pressure of 14.7 PSI. The
boiling point will be
A. 69oC B. 98oC
o
C. 100 C D. 120oC
Q.95 The nature of canal rays depends on
A. Nature of electrodes B. Pressure maintained inside
C. Nature of gas molecules D. Nature of battery attached
Q.96 Select correct statement
A. When a covalent bond is formed, transfer of electrons take place
B. Pure H2O does not contain any ion
C. A bond is formed when attractive forces overcome repulsive forces
D. HF is less polar than HBr
Q.97 Among which of the following factor the specific reaction rate of a 1st order reaction
depends upon
A. Temperature B. Concentration of reactants
C. Pressure D. Volume
Q.98 A standard hydrogen electrode has zero electrode potential because
A. Hydrogen is easiest to oxidized B. Its electrode potential is assumed to be zero
C. Hydrogen atom has only one electron D. Hydrogen is the lightest element
Q.99 Electrolysis of dilute H2SO4 will give
A. SO2 and O2 B. H2O and H2
C. SO2 and H2 D. H2 and O2
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Q.100 The correct order of atomic size of C, N, O and F follows the order
A. C < N < O < F B. C < F < O < N
C. F < O < N < C D. F < O < C < N
Q.101 An orbital may never be occupied by
A. 1 electron B. 3 electrons
C. 2 electrons D. 0 electron
Q.102 In air at STP, the average kinetic energy of
A. Nitrogen molecules is greater than oxygen molecules
B. Oxygen molecules is less than nitrogen molecules
C. Nitrogen molecules is less than oxygen molecules
D. Oxygen molecules is equal to nitrogen molecules
Q.103 The formation of compounds like PF5, BCl3 and SF6 indicates that
A. These halides are ionic B. These halides are not covalent
C. They are Lewis acids D. Octet rule is not always obeyed
Q.104 In ground state an element has 13 electrons in its M shell. The element is
A. Copper B. Nickel
C. Iron D. Chromium
39
Q.105 The number of electrons in 19 K +1 is
A. 18 B. 20
C. 19 D. 40
Q.106 The correct set of quantum number is
A. n = 2 , = 1, m = –2, s = 0 B. n = 2, = 2, m = –1, s = –1/2
C. n = 2, = –2, m = 1, s = +1/2 D. n = 2, = 1, m = 0, s = +1/2
Q.107 The number of oxygen atoms in 4.4g of CO2 is
A. 6×1023 B. 12×1023
C. 11×1023 D. 1.2×1023
Q.108 The Cl– ion present at the corner of the unit cell is NaCl crystal, contributes
1 1
A. th B. th
4 2
1
C. th D. 1
8
Q.109 In the reaction 3Br2 + 6CO 32− + 3H 2O ⎯⎯
→ 5Br − + BrO 3− + 6HCO 3−
A. Bromine is oxidized and carbonate is reduced
B. Bromine is reduced and water is oxidized
C. Bromine is neither reduced nor oxidized
D. Bromine is both reduced and oxidized
Q.110 2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g) in the above reaction Kp and Kc are related as
A. Kp = Kc × (RT)2 B. Kc = Kp (RT)2
C. Kp = Kc × (RT)–1 D. Kp = Kc × (RT)–2
Q.111 Identify the state function among the following
A. w/q B. q/w
C. q  w D. q + w

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Q.112 Which of the following equilibrium in gaseous phase, would be unaffected by an increase
in pressure
A. N2+3H2 2NH3 B. N2O4 2NO2
C. N2+O2 2NO D. CO+1/2O2 CO2
Q.113 Which of the following is correct about ionization energy
A. It is independent of atomic radii B. It decreases with increase in atomic radii
C. It increases with increase in atomic radii D. It increases with increase in shielding effect
Q.114 Which of the following hydrogen bonds is the strongest
A. O–H…..O B. O–H…..F
C. O–H…..N D. F–H…..F
Q.115 The enthalpies of combustion of carbon and carbon monoxide are –393.5 and –283 kJ
mol–1 respectively. The enthalpy of formation of carbon monoxide per mole is
A. –676.5kJ B. 110.5kJ
C. –110.5kJ D. 676.5kJ
Q.116 The solubility product of a salt having general formula MX2 in water is 4×10–12 the
concentration of M2+ ions in the aqueous solution of the salt is
A. 1.6 × 10–4 M B. 2.0 × 10–6
C. 4×10–10M D. 1.0 × 10–4M
Q.117 How many number of oxygen atoms are in 7.5 gram of CH2O
1 1
A.  NA B.  NA
2 4
C. 1× NA D. 2  NA
Q.118 Which of the following have highest heat of vaporization
A. F2 B. I2
C. Cl2 D. Br2
Q.119 Efficiency of reaction can be determined by
A. Limiting reactant B. Law of mass action
C. Percentage yield D. Stoichiometry
Q.120 The number of covalent bonds formed in beryllium chloride is
A. 3 B. 4
C. 2 D. 5
Q.121 In a crystal the cations and anions are held together by
A. Metallic bond B. Covalent bonds
C. London forces D. Electrostatic forces
Q.122 What temperature would be required to change 6dm3 of gas at 1 atm pressure and 27°C
to 10dm3 at 0.8 atm pressure
A. 350 K B. 480 K
C. 400K D. 500 K
Q.123 In crystal lattice of ice, each O-atom of water molecule is attached to?
A. Four H-atoms B. Three H-atoms
C. Two H-atoms D. One H-atom
Q.124 Which of the following species has lone pair of electrons on central atom
A. CH4 B. SO3
C. NH +4 D. PCl3

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 PHYSICS
Q.125 At what angle of projection of a projectile the range becomes half of its maximum value.
A. 14o B. 20o
o
C. 15 D. 40o
Q.126 For an ideal machine, the efficiency is
A. Greater than unity B. Less than unity
C. Equal to unity D. Depends on the value of load
Q.127 To monitor blood flow through major arteries, ultrasonic waves of which frequencies
are employed?
A. to 10 Hz B. 5 to 10 MHz
C. 15 – to 100 MHz D. None of these
Q.128 The potential energy of a particle executing a linear S.H.M., at a distance x from the
equilibrium position is directly proportional to
A. x B. x²
C. x³ D. None
Q.129 A crane can raise a body of mass 120kg vertically upward with a speed of 4.5 ms-1. What
is the power of its engine?
A. 5.3 kw B. 7.3 kw
C. 6.3 kw D. 8.3 kw
Q.130 A body of mass 2kg is being rotated in a circle by 0.5m long string. The work done by
centripetal force is
A. 1 erg B. 0.4 erg
C. 1 J D. zero
Q.131 Unit of energy is
A. Js B. Jm
C. Kilowatt D. watt.s
–1
Q.132 The velocity of sound in air is 330 ms . The fundamental frequency of an organ pipe open at
both ends and length 0.3 m will be.
A. 200 Hz B. 300 Hz
C. 275 Hz D. 550 Hz
Q.133 Velocity of sound is maximum on
A. A hot dry day B. Hot humid day
C. A cool day D. A cool humid day
Q.134 Frequency range of audible sound is
A. 0Hz to 30Hz B. 20 Hz to 20 kHz
C. 20 kHz to 20000 Hz D. 20 Hz to 20 MHz
Q.135 When an aero plane move towards airport, then the frequency of reflected wave from the
aeroplane received by radar
A. Decreases B. Increases
C. Remain some D. Become zero
Q.136 In stationary wave
A. Strain is maximum at nodes B. Strain is maximum at antinodes
C. Strain is minimum at nodes D. Strain is minimum at antinodes
Q.137 Two electrons are brought closer together. The potential energy of the system will be
A. Zero B. Less
C. More D. Infinity
Q.138 Kinetic energy of a body of mass m and momentum P is given by:
2 m2
A. P m B.
2P
P2
C. mP D.
2m
Q.139 In which of the processes, internal energy of system remains constant?
A. Adiabatic B. Isobaric
C. Isochoric D. Isothermal

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Q.140 Work done by a variable force making angles at different points with displacement in
moving the particle from one point to another is equal to the area under the curve of
A. F Sin θ versus d B. F Cos θ versus d Cos θ
C. F Cos θ versus d D. F versus d Cos θ
Q.141 A car of mass 1000 kg moving on a horizontal road with a steady speed of 10 m/sec has
total frictional force on it of 400 N. The power due to engine is
A. 40 W B. 400 W
C. 4000 W D. 20 W
Q.142 To improve the jumping record, a long jumper should jump at an angle of:
A. 30o B. 45o
o
C. 60 D. 90o
Q.143 A car, initially at rest, travels 20 m in 4 s along a straight line with constant acceleration.
The acceleration of the car is:
A. 0.4 m/s2 B. 2.5 m/s2
2
C. 1.3 m/s D. 4.9 m/s2
Q.144 A thermodynamic system goes from states (i) P1, V to 2P1, V (ii) P, V to P, 2V. Then
work done in the two cases is
A. Zero, Zero B. PV, Zero
C. Zero, PV D. PV1, P1V1
Q.145 A baseball is hit straight up and is caught by the catcher 2.0 s later. The maximum
height of the ball during this interval is:
A. 4.9 m B. 9.8 m
C. 7.4 m D. 12.6 m
Q.146 The power needed to lift a mass of 5000g to height of 1m in 2 second is
A. 2.45-watt B. 24.5 watt
C. 245-watt D. 2.45 k watt
Q.147 Work in negative when angle between F and d is:
A. 0º B. 90º
C. 45º D. 180º
Q.148 The distance between two consecutive crests in a wave front produced in a string is 5
cm. If two complete waves pass through any point per second, then the velocity of the
wave is
A. 10 cm s–1 B. 2.5 cm s–1
C. 15 cm s–1 D. 5 cm s–1
Q.149 If r = 4iˆ and  = 4ˆj then v is along
A. +x–axis B. –z–axis
C. +z–axis D. –y–axis
Q.150 Stationary wave is produced in a string fixed at its both ends. When oscillating in its 4th
mode with wavelength  the length of string would be.
A. Twice the wave length B. Thrice the wavelength
C. Four times the wavelength D. Twice the half wavelength
Q.151 An observer is moving towards a stationary source with a speed one fifth of the speed of
sound. The frequency of sound heard by the observer will be if v is the speed and f is the
original frequency of the sound waves
5 6
A. f B.
6 5f
4f 6f
C. D.
5 5
Q.152 The rate of change of momentum of a freely falling body is equal to its
A. Mass B. Weight
C. Acceleration D. Velocity
Q.153 An impulse is applied to a moving object at an angle of 120o with respect to velocity
vector. The angle between the impulse vector and change in momentum vector is:
A. 120o B. 60o
C. 0o D. 240o
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Q.154 The time in which a force of 2 N produces a change of momentum of 0.4 kg ms-1 in the
body is:
A. 0.2s B. 0.5s
C. 0.02s D. 0.05s
Q.155 The area of acceleration-time graph gives
A. Displacement B. Velocity change
C. Force D. Momentum
Q.156 Required form of output/total input energy) × 100 is equal to
A. % power B. % efficiency
C. % stress D. % strain
Q.157 Slope of force displacement is measured in unit
A. ms −1 B. kgs−1
C. ms −2 D. kgs−2
Q.158 A ball of mass 100 g is dropped from height 100 m. Its velocity when its height from
ground is 20 m
A. 40 m/s B. 10 m/s
C. 20 m/s D. 10 2m / s
Q.159 A body falls from height 0.25 m gain K.E 1.25 J. What is the weight of body?
A. 2 N B. 5 N
C. 4 N D. 7 N
Q.160 3.6 MJ is equal to
A. 1 kWh B. 1 eV
C. 1 M Watt D. 3600 eV
Q.161 A particle of rigid body is at a distance 0.1 m from axis of rotation to rotate with linear
speed 3 m/s. What is angular speed of the rigid body
A. 0.3 rad/s B. 30 rads–1
C. 3 rad s–1 D. 1.5 rad/s
Q.162 A block of mass 100 g slides across a frictionless floor with speed 3 m/s. The block
strikes with a wall and bounce back with a speed 3 m/s in opposite direction. Net work
done on block is
A. 3 J B. Zero
C. 6 J D. –6 J
Q.163 The frequency of an open organ pipe is n. If one end is closed, then its fundamental
frequency will be
A. n/2 B. n
C. 3n/4 D. 2n
Q.164 The time taken by a particle to travel between a trough and a crest in a transverse wave is
A. T B. T/2
C. 3T/4 D. T/4
Q.165 The third harmonic in an open organ pipe is known as
A. Fundamental frequency B. Third overtone
C. Second overtone D. First overtone
Q.166 Motion of sound source towards the listener results to produce apparent increase in the
________ for the listener
A. Speed of sound waves B. Number of waves received per second
C. Wavelength of sound waves D. Both B and C
Q.167 In an organ pipe system that is closed at one end if the length of pipe is 10 cm then the
wavelength of wave next to second harmonic
A. 6 cm B. 12 cm
C. 4 cm D. 8 cm
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Q.168 The state of thermal equilibrium between two systems is determined by equality of
A. Pressure B. Temperature
C. Volume D. None of these
Q.169 The work done on the system is taken as
A. Positive B. Negative
C. Same D. Zero
Q.170 In order to double the period of a simple pendulum:
A. Its length should be doubled B. Its length should be quadrupled
C. The mass of bob should be double D. Mass of bob should be quadrupled
Q.171 A boy swinging on a swing in the sitting position. If he stands up the period of the swing
will be:
A. Shorter B. Longer
C. Remains unchanged D. None of these
Q.172 The ratio of K.E at mean position to P.E when the displacement is half of the amplitude is:
4 2
A. B.
1 3
4 1
C. D.
3 2
Q.173 The time period of a single simple pendulum is 2sec. If the length is increased by 4 times,
then its period become
A. 16 sec B. 12 sec
C. 8 sec D. 4 sec
Q.174 A bomb of mass 30 kg at rest explodes into two pieces of masses 18 kg and 12 kg. The
velocity of 18 kg mass is 6 ms–1. The KE of other mass is
A. 324 J B. 486 J
C. 256 J D. 524 J
Q.175 Which of given become zero at maximum height
A. Acceleration B. Horizontal velocity
C. Velocity D. Vertical velocity
Q.176 A car can be stopped over a distance S when its momentum is P. What will be the
stopping distance when the momentum is 2P?
A. 5 S B. 2 S
C. 4 S D. 8 S
Q.177 A cricket ball is hit at 45° to the horizontal with a kinetic energy KE. The kinetic energy
at the highest point is:
KE
A. B. K.E sin 45°
2
C. KE D. Zero
Q.178 The linear momentum of a particle increases by 50%: The increase in kinetic energy
should be,
A. 225% B. 100%
C. 50% D. 125%
Q.179 The coefficient of restitution for a perfectly elastic collision is
A. 1 B. 0
C. ∞ D. –1
Q.180 A machine does 2500 J of work in 1 min. What is the power developed by the machine?
A. 21 W B. 42 W
C. 150 W D. 2500 W

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 ENGLISH
Q.181 Chips had received (A) his farewell presentations (B) and made(C) a speech in July(D), 1913.
A. received B. presentations
C. made D. in July
Q.182 These (A) people were(B) enjoying the music more(C) than those that (D)sat inside.
A. These B. were
C. more D. that
Q.183 The population has(A) been reduced(B) not only by(C) famine and also(D) by war.
A. has B. reduced
C. by D. and also
Q.184 He asked(A) the new boys that if(B) they had(C) any family connection at Brookfield(D).
A. asked B. that if
C. had D. at Brookfield
Q.185 The first adventure (A) was to go round(B) through(C) the world at minimum cost(D).
A. first adventure B. go round
C. Through D. at minimum cost
Q.186 After saving (A) some money and to gain (B) experience in(C) the business, he returned to the
village (D).
A. saving B. to gain
C. in D. the village
Q.187 It makes me yearned (A) to borrow a collecting box (B) and go (C) round doing (D) good myself.
A. yearned B. a collecting box
C. go D. doing
Q.188 We were ten miles up(A) the highway when(B) I happened to seeing(C) this classified(D)
advertisement.
A. up B. when
C. to seeing D. classified
Q.189 We thought(A) you had better looked(B) her over and tell(C) us what(D) the matter is.
A. thought B. looked
C. tell D. what
Q.190 Even if (A) everything would go (B) well(C), the rest of the journey would not be pleasant(D).
A. Even if B. would go
C. well D. pleasant
Choose the correct option.
Q.191
A. He was perhaps even more of a patriot than of a scientist.
B. He was perhaps even more of a patriot than a scientist.
C. He was perhaps even more of a patriot than scientist.
D. He was perhaps even more a patriot than of a scientist.
Q.192
A. It was the most strongest weapon yet forged in the fight against disease.
B. It was the stronger weapon yet forged in the fight against disease.
C. It was a strongest weapon yet forged in the fight against disease.
D. It was the strongest weapon yet forged in the fight against disease.
Q.193
A. I don’t need anything more from His unlimited treasure of divine blessing.
B. I don’t need nothing more from His unlimited treasure of divine blessing.
C. I don’t need something more from His unlimited treasure of divine blessing.
D. I don’t need anything more than His unlimited treasure of divine blessing.
Q.194
A. He suddenly remembered that he has left his house unlocked.
B. He suddenly remembered that he had left his house unlocked.
C. He suddenly remembered that he was left his house unlocked.
D. He suddenly remembered that he had been left his house unlocked.
Q.195
A. When the fact failed him, he questions his senses.
B. When the fact failed him, he questioned his senses.
C. When the fact fails him, he questions his senses.
D. When the fact will fail him, he will question his senses.

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Q.196
A. As she said, the computer was programmed by Mona.
B. Just like she said, the computer was programmed by Mona.
C. As like she said, the computer was programmed by Mona.
D. Like she had said, the computer was programmed by Mona.
Q.197
A. Their culture plates were contaminated, for the air was too pure.
B. Their culture plates were contaminated, the air was too pure.
C. Their culture plates were contaminated, and the air was too pure.
D. Their culture plates were contaminated, yet the air was too pure.
Q.198
A. Each letter contained nothing but blank sheet of paper.
B. Each letter contained nothing and blank sheet of paper.
C. Each letter contained nothing or blank sheet of paper.
D. Each letter contained nothing nor blank sheet of paper.
Q.199
A. Pay for the salt lest it should become a custom.
B. Pay for the salt lest it becomes a custom.
C. Pay for the salt lest it should not become a custom.
D. Pay for the salt lest it may not become a custom.
Q.200
A. Everyone should mind every own business.
B. Everyone should mind one’s own business.
C. Everyone should mind his/her own business.
D. Everyone should mind their own business.
Fill in the Blanks
Q.201 He tried to _____a living at his country farm.
A. do B. take
C. have D. make
Q.202 He is not averse to _______ a drink now and then.
A. have B. having
C. had D. has
Q.203 I am sure John _______ a first class in the coming exams.
A. get B. got
C. will get D. is getting
Q.204 Let’s put our gifts aside. They are ________use now.
A. too nice to B. very nice to
C. much nice to D. so nice to
Q.205 The evening air was _____black and thick.
A. not longer B. no longer
C. never longer D. nothing longer
Choose the best option to complete the sentence.
Q.206 A son who is unable to look his father in the face is____.
A. aweful B. arrogant
C. timid D. stout
Q.207 The accused ----------- having made any statement.
A. refused B. rejected
C. declaimed D. denied
Q.208 She is so ----------- that she easily catches cold.
A. sober B. sincere
C. sensitive D. sensible
DIRECTION: Choose the correct SYNONYM:
Q.209 DISTRACT
A. Entertain B. Weary
C. Engross D. Intimate
Q.210 DILAPIDATED
A. Stalwart B. Sturdy
C. Shabby D. Moulded

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 LOGICAL REASONING
Q.211 Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures that would replace the question mark (?).

A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4
E. 5
Q.212 Find the odd figure out.

A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4
E. 5
Q.213 Find the missing terms:
JN 28 27 GP
CE 12 45 TU
LR ? ? MS
A. 30, 41 B. 30, 32
C. 34, 36 D. 35, 35
Q.214 Find the value of X in the following figure:
15 4
33 2
27 2
36 8
32 X
18 9
22 11
12 3
A. 3 B. 4
C. 8 D. 12
Directions: Questions 215 to 217
Minhas and Rashid are in the same team of hockey. Parizad defeated Rashid in badminton but
lost to Saqib in tennis. Naveed teams with Salman in football and with Saqib in hockey.
Rashid defeated Saqib in chess. Those who play cricket do not paly badminton, volleyball or
tennis. Minhas and Parizad are in opposite teams of basketball. Naveed represents his state in
cricket while Salman does so at the district level. Boys who play chess do not play football,
basketball or volleyball. Minhas and Parizad are together in the volleyball team. Boys who
play football also play hockey.
NMDCAT FLP–1 (HALF SYLLABUS–I) PAGE 15 OF 16
Q.215 Which is the most popular game with this group?
A. Cricket B. Hockey
C. Football D. Badminton
Q.216 Who plays the largest number of games?
A. Salman B. Rashid
C. Parizad D. Naveed
Q.217 Which boy plays both badminton and hockey?
A. Saqib B. Rashid
C. Naveed D. Parizad
Q.218 Statements:
Some towels are brushes. No brush is soap. All soaps are rats.
Conclusions:
I. Some rats are brushes.
II. No rat is brush.
III. Some towels are soaps.
A. None follows B. All follows
C. Only II follows D. Only I and III follow
Q.219 Statements:
Some books are tables. Some tables are mirrors.
Conclusions:
I. Some mirrors are books.
II. No book is mirror.
A. Only conclusion I follows B. Only conclusion II follows
C. Either I or II follows D. Both I and II follow
Q.220 Danish, Kashif, Nouman, Ali and Pasha are standing facing to the North in a playground
such as given below:
• Kashif is at 40m to the right of Ali.
• Danish is 60m in the south of Kashif.
• Nouman is at a distance of 25m in the west of Ali.
• Pasha is at a distance of 90m in the North of Danish.
Which one is in the North-East of the person who is to the left of Kashif?
A. Danish B. Nouman
C. Ali D. Pasha

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