BIDYASAGAR CLASSES, BHUABNESWAR

OUAT-2018
PHYSICS
−1
1. The rate of change of current of 10 A s in a coil (C) intensity (D) frequency
produces an emf of 5 V. Then the self-inductance of the 10. If the kinetic energy of a free electron doubles, its de
coil in henry is : Broglie wavelength changes by the factor
(A) 0.5 (B) 0.25 (A) 1/√2 (B) √2
(C) 1.0 (D) 1.25 (C) ½ (D) 2
2. The phase difference between the alternating current 11. The decimal equivalent of the binary number (1 1 0 1
and emf is π/2. Which of the following CANNOT be the 0. 1 0 1)2 is :
constituent of the circuit? (A) 9.625 (B) 25.265
(A) L, C (B) L alone (C) 26.625 (D) 26.265
(C) C alone (D) R, L 12. Application of a forward bias to a p-n junction :
3. An electric motor operating on 15 V supply draws a (A) widens the depletion zone
current of 5 A and yields mechanical powers of 60 W. The (B) increases the potential difference across the depletion
energy lost as heat in one hour (in kJ) is : zone
(A) 0.54 (B) 5.4 (C) increases the number of donors on the n-side
(C) 54 (D) 540 (D) increases the electric field in the depletion zone
4. The ratio of amplitude of magnetic field to the 13. If force (F), velocity (V) and time (T) are taken as
amplitude of electric field for an electromagnetic wave fundamental units, then the dimensions of mass are :
propagating in vacuum is equal to: (A) FV−1T−1 (B) FVT−1
(A) the speed of light in vacuum (C) FV−1T (D) FVT−2
(B) reciprocal of speed of light in vacuum 14. If the error in measurement of radius of a sphere is
(C) the ratio of magnetic permeability to the electric 2%, then the error in the determination of volume of the
susceptibility of vacuum sphere will be :
(D) unity (A) 2% (B) 4%
5. The ratio of the speed of an object to the speed of its (C) 6% (D) 8%
real image of magnification m in the case of a convex 15. A particle is travelling along a straight line OX. The
mirror is : distance x(in meters) of the particle from O at a time t is
(A) −1/m 2
(B) m 2
given by x = 37 + 27t – t3, where t is in seconds. The
(C) –m (D) 1/m distance of the particle from O when it comes to rest is :
6. An air bubble is contained inside water. It behaves as a (A) 81 m (B) 91 m
(A) concave lens (C) 101 m (D) 111 m
(B) convex lens 16. Value of ratio between cross product and dot product
(C) neither concave nor convex of two vectors is 1/3. The angle between two vectors is:
(D) None of these (A) 30° (B) 45°
7. An eye specialist prescribes spectacles having a (C) 60° (D) 120°
combination of a convex lens of focal length 40 cm in 17. A body of mass M hits normally a rigid wall with
contact with a concave lens of focal length 25 cm. The velocity V and bounces back with the same velocity. The
power of this lens combination will be : impulse experienced by the body is :
(A) +1.5 D (B) −1.5 D (A) MV (B) 1.5 MV
(C) +6.67 (D) −6/67 (C) 2 MV (D) Zero
8. Two monochromatic light waves of amplitudes A and 18. For an object sliding on a plane, the force of friction is
2A interfering at a point have a phase difference of 600. less if the plane is inclined, instead of being horizontal
The intensity at that point will be proportional to : (A) because, effective mass decreases
2 2
(A) 3 A (B) 5 A (B) because, normal force decreases
2 2
(C) 7 A (D) 9 A (C) because, co-efficient of friction decreases
9. Photoelectric emission occurs only when the incident (D) for an angle of inclination θ, friction is inversely
light has more than a certain minimum : proportional to tan θ
(A) power (B) wavelength

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19. If a body travels along a circular path with uniform stretched by a stress S within its elastic limit. The stored
speed then its acceleration energy density in the wire will be
(A) is zero (A) S/2Y (B) 2Y/S2
2
(B) acts along its circumference (C) S /2Y (D) S2/Y
(C) acts along its tangent 29. Which of the following works on Pascal’s law?
(D) acts along its radius (A) Sprayer (B) Hydraulic lift
20. A force is acting on a mass of 6 kg. Displacement x of (C) Barometer (D) Venturimeter
the mass is related with time t as x = t2/4 meter. Work 30. Surface energy of a water drop of radius r will be
done by the force in 2 sec. is : directly proportional to
(A) 3 J (B) 6 J (A) r (B) r2
(C) 9 J (D) 12 J (C) r3 (D) 1/r
21. A particle is projected from the ground with kinetic 31. A spherical ball is falling with a uniform velocity v
energy E at an angle of 60° with the horizontal. Its kinetic through a viscous medium of coefficient of viscosity n. If
energy at the highest point of its motion will be : the viscous force acting on the spherical ball is F then
(A) F/√2 (B) E/2 (A) F ∝ η and F ∝ 1/v (B) F ∝ η and F ∝ v
(C) E/4 (D) E/8 (C) F ∝ 1/n and F ∝ 1/v (D) F ∝ 1/n and F ∝ v
22. Power required to raise a mass of 120 kg vertically 32. Apparent weight of a body immersed in water at 20°C
upwards at a velocity of 4.5 m.s−1 is : is W1. When temperature is increased to 40°C, the
(A) 5 Kw (B) 5.3 kW apparent weight becomes W2. In this case
(C) 8 kW (D) 11.2 kW (A) for different solids W2 may be greater than or less than
23. A body falling vertically downwards under gravity W1
breaks in two parts of unequal masses. The centre of mass (B) W2 is always equal to W1
of the two parts taken together shifts horizontally towards (C) W2 is always less than W1
(A) lighter piece (B) heavier piece (D) W2 is always greater than W1
(C) depends on the vertical velocity at the time of breaking 33. An ideal gas is expanding such that pT2 = constant.
(D) does not shift horizontally The coefficient of volume expansion of the gas is
24. Angular momentum of a moving body remains (A) 1/T (B) 2/T
constant if (C) 3/T (D) 4/T
(A)a pressure acts on the body 34. During boiling water at 100°C, what will be its
(B) an external force acts on the body specific heat?
(C) an external torque acts on the body (A) zero (B) 0.5
(D) no external torque acts on the body (C) 1 (D) infinite
25. Moment of inertia of circular wire of mass m and 35. If the temperature of a black body raises from T to 2T,
radius r about its diameter is how many times will its rate of radiation be ?
(A) 1/2mr2 (B) 1/4 mr2 (A) 16 (B) 8
(C) mr2 (D) 2mr2 (C) 4 (D) 2
26. If the diurnal motion of the earth ceases al on a 36. In a given process of an ideal gas, dW = 0 and dQ < 0.
sudden, then the value of the acceleration due to gravity of Then for the gas
a body at the equator will (A) the temperature will decrease
(A) remains same (B) be zero (B) the volume will increase
(C) increase (D) decrease (C) the pressure will remain constant
27. Two satellites of masses m1 and m2 (m1 > m2) are (D) the temperature will increase
revolving around the earth in orbits of radii r1 and r2 (r1 > 37. Even Carnot engine CANNOT give 100% efficiency,
r2) with velocities v1 and v2 In this case because we CANNOT
(A) v1 = v2 (B) v1 < v2 (A) eliminate friction
(C) v1 > v2 (D) v1/r1 = v2/r2 (B) prevent radiation
28. A wire of initial length L and area of cross-section A (C) reach absolute zero temperature
has Young’s modulus Y of its material. The wire is (D) find ideal sources

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38. 3 mol of a monatomic gas (υ = 5/3) is mixed with 1 (C) directly proportional to √E
mol of a diatomic gas (υ = 7/3). The value of υ for the (D) directly proportional to E
mixture will be 45. Three resistances P, Q, R each of 2 ohm and an
(A) 9/11 (B) 11/7 unknown resistance S form the four arms of a
(C) 12/7 (D) 15/7 Wheatstone’s bridge circuit. When a resistance of 6 ohm
39. Time period of a simple pendulum on the surface of the is connected in parallel to S the bridge gets balanced.
earth is T1 and at a height R above the surface of the earth What is the value of S?
is T2, here R is the radius of the earth. The ratio T1/T2 : (A) 2Ω (B) 3Ω
(A) 1 (B) √2 (C) 6Ω (D) 1Ω
(C) 4 (D) 2 46. A heater coil is a cut into two equal parts and only one
40. When a force F1 acts on a particle, frequency is 6 Hz part is now used in the heater. The heat generated will
and when a force F2 acts, frequency is 8 Hz. Now if both now be
the forces act simultaneously in same direction, then its (A) one fourth (B) halved
frequency becomes (C) doubled (D) four times
(A) 20 Hz (B) 14 Hz 47. An electric bulb marked as 50 W-200 V is connected
(C) 10 Hz (D) 2 Hz across a 100 V supply. The present power of the bulb is
41. When a fundamental tone is produced from pipe of (A) 37.5 W (B) 25 W
length l, open at both ends, the wavelength of the (C) 12.5 W (D) 10 W
stationary wave is 48. A circular coil carrying a certain current produces a
(A) l (B) 2l magnetic field B0 at its centre. The coil is now rewound so
(C) l/2 (D) 4l as to have 3 turns and the same current is passed through
42. A source of sound with frequency 256 Hz is moving it. The new magnetic field at the centre is
with a velocity υ towards a wall and an observer is (A) B0/9 (B) 9B0
stationary between the source and wall. When the (C) B0/3 (D) 3B0
observer is between the source and the wall, he will 49. A straight wire of length 2 m carries a current of 10 A.
(A) hear beats (B) hear no beats If this wire is placed in a uniform magnetic field of 0.15 T
(C) not get any sound making an angle of 45° with the magnetic field, the
(D) get the sound of same frequency applied force on the wire will be
43. If a charge q is placed at the centre of the line joining (A) 1.5 N (B) 3√2 N
two equal charges Q such that the system is in (C) 3 N (D) 3/√2
equilibrium, then the value of q is 50. Nickel shows ferromagnetic property at room
(A) Q/2 (B) −Q/2 temperature. If the temperature is increased beyond Curie
(C) −Q/4 (D) Q/4 temperature, then it will show
44. If a linear isotropic dielectric is placed in an electric (A) anti-ferromagnetism
field of strength E, then the polarization P is (B) paramagnetism
(A) independent of E (C) diamagnetism
(B) inversely proportional to E (D) no magnetic property
CHEMISTRY
51. 101. At 250°C, the correct order of molar ionic (D) nature of the reactants
conductances of the ions H+, Li+, Na+ and K+ in infinite 53. The bottle of liquor ammonia is cooled before opening
dilute aqueous solution is the cork because it
+ + + +
(A) H < Li < Na < K (A) is a mild explosive
(B) K+ < Na+ < Li+ < H+ (B) is a corrosive liquid
+ + + +
(C) Li < Na < K < H (C) is harmful to lung
+ + + +
(D) Li < K < H < Na (D) exerts high vapour pressure
52. The activation energy of a reaction depends on 54. Which of the following substances form a colloidal
(A) temperature solution in water?
(B) initial concentration of the reactant (A) Glucose (B) Urea
(C) effective collisions among the reactant molecules (C) BaSO4 (D) Starch

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55. Adsorption of a gas on a solid surface is an exothermic 66. If two particles are associated with same kinetic
process, because energy, then the de-Broglie’s wavelength (λ) of these
(A) change in free energy of the system increases particles is
(B) enthalpy of the system increases (A) directly proportional to the velocity
(C) entropy of the system increases (B) inversely proportional to the velocity
(D) enthalpy of the system decreases (C) independent of mass and velocity
56. In the manufacture of steel, the process in which O2 is (D) cannot be predicted
used instead of air is 67. The increasing order of the first ionization enthalpies
(A) Open-hearth process of the elements B, P S and F is
(B) Acidic Bessemer’s process (A) F < S < P < B (B) P < S < B < F
(C) Alkaline Bessemer’s process (C) B < P < S < F (D) B < S < P < F
(D) LD process
57. The ore that does NOT contain aluminium is 68. In the relation, Electronegativity = ,r
(A) fluorspar (B) Feldspar is
(C) Cryolite (D) Mica (A) Metallic radius (B) Ionic radius
58. Which of the following nitrogen oxides is ionic ? (C) van der Waals radius (D) Covalent radius
(A) Nitrogen trioxide 69. The species in which the central atom uses sp2 hybrid
(B) Nitrogen pentoxide orbitals in its bonding is
(C) Dinitrogen tetroxide (A) NH3 (B) PH3
(D) Nitric oxide (C) CH3+ (D) SbH3
59. Which one of the following is used as the 70. The molecule with the highest dipole moment is
photosensitive substance in Xerox machines (A) CH2Cl2 (B) CH3Cl
(A) Hg (B) Black P (C) CHCl3 (D) CCl4
(C) Se (D) Te 71. The dimension of coefficient of viscosity
60. Fe can be differentiated from Fe3+ with the help of
2+
(A) MLT (B) ML−1T−1
(A) BaCl2 (B) AgNO3 (C) MLT−1 (D) MLT−2
(C) NH4SCN (D) None of these 72. At STP, O2 gas present in a flask was replaced by
61. The salt of the d-block element that is used as a SO2 under similar conditions. The mass of SO2 present in
catalyst in the dissociation of the bleaching powder is the flask will be
(A) Ni (B) CO (A) half that of O2 (B) equal to that of O2
(C) V (D) Cr (C) twice that of O2 (D) one-third of O2
62. The reagent used for identifying Nickel ion is 73. In a reversible process, if the changes in entropy of the
(A) Potassium ferrocyanide system and its surroundings are ∆S1 & ∆S2 respectively,
(B) Phenolphthalein then
(C) Dimethylglyoxime (A) ∆S1 + ∆S2 > 0 (B) ∆S1 + ∆S2 < 0
(D) EDTA (C) ∆S1 + ∆S2 = 0 (D) ∆S1 + ∆S2 ≥ 0
63. When 800g of a 40% solution by weight was cooled, 74. The volume of a gas is reduced to half from its
100 g of solute was precipitated. The percentage original volume. The specific heat will
composition of the remaining solution is (A) double (B) remain constant
(A) 20.0% (B) 25.0% (C) reduce to half (D) increase four times
(C) 31.4% (D) 50.0% 75. The reaction, A(g) + 2B(g) ⇌ 2C(g) + D(g) was
64. A sample of Na2CO3. H2O weighing 0.62 g is added to studied using an initial concentration of B which was 1.5
100 ml of 0.1 NH2SO4. The resulting solution will be times that of A. The equilibrium concentration of A and C
(A) Basic (B) Neutral were found to be equal. SO, Kc for the equilibrium is
(C) Acidic (D) Amphoteric (A) 0.32 (B) 2.73
65. An anion X3− has 36 electrons and 45 neutrons. What (C) 4.0 (D) 8.17
is the mass number of the element X? 76. A mixture containing N2 and H2 in a mole ratio 1 : 3 is
(A) 81 (B) 84 allowed to attain equilibrium when 50% of the mixture
(C) 78 (D) 88
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has reacted. If P is the pressure at equilibrium, then the
partial pressure of NH3 formed is
(A) P/2 (B) P/3
(C) P/5 (D) P/9
77. Oxidation number of P in pyrophosphoric acid is
(A) +1 (B) +3
(C) +4 (D) +5
78. The amount of H2O2 required for decolourising 1mol Thus, in acidic and alkaline medium, electrophilic
of KMnO4 in an acid solution is substitution occurs at
(A) 1.5 mol (B) 2.0 mol (A) a, c (B) a, d
(C) 2.5 mol (D) 3.0 mol (C) b, c (D) b, d
79. The process by which hydrogen is prepared by the 87. Incomplete combustion of gasoline produces
reaction of silicon, iron alloy and NaOH, is (A) CO2 (B) CO
(A) Haber’s process (B) Silicon process (C) SO2 (D) NO2
(C) Wood process (D) Bosch process 88. Cause of byssinosis diseases
80. Which of the followings does NOT get reduced by (A) fly-ash (B) cement particles
H2 in its aqueous solution? (C) cotton fibre (D) lead particles
(A) Cu2+ (B) Fe3+ 89. Which one is NOT favourable for SN1 reaction
(C) Zn2+ (D) Ag+ (A) Polar solvent
81. The compound which is used to extinguish fire caused (B) Strong nucleophile
by combustion of alkali metals is (C) Low concentration
(A) CCl4 (B) Sand (D) 3° alkyl halide
(C) Water (D) Kerosene 90. Consider the following reaction :
82. The compound whose aqueous solution is called ‘baryta
water’ is
The product Z is
(A) BaSO4 (B) BaO
(A) Benzaldehyde (B) Benzene
(C) BaCO3 (D) Ba(OH)2
(C) Benzoic acid (D) Toluene
83. The optically active alkane of lowest molecular mass
91. Which converts carboxylic acids directly into
which is also chiral is
alcohols?
(A) 3-methylhexane (B) 2,3-dimethylpentane
(A) LiAlH4 (B) Na + C2H5OH
(C) 2-methylhexane (D) 2, 5-dimethylhexane
(C) NaBH4 (D) All of these
84. Bond lengths C – H, C – O, C – C and C = C follow
92. In the reaction of acetaldehyde with aniline, the
the sequence
product formed is
(A) C – H < C – O < C – C < C = C
(A) Schiff’s base (B) Carbylamine
(B) C – H < C = C < C – O < C – C
(C) Imine (D) None of these
(C) C – C < C = C < C – O < C – H
93. Complete hydrolysis of cellulose yields
(D) C – O < C – H < C – C < C = C
(A) D-fructose (B) D-ribose
85. Nitrobenzene is prepared from benzene by using conc.
(C) D-glucose (D) L-glucose
HNO3 and conc. H2SO4. In the nitrating mixture, nitric
94. Monomers of Buna-S are
acid acts as a/an
(A) Styrene and Butadiene
(A) Base (B) Acid
(B) Butadiene
(C) Reducing agent (D) Catalyst
(C) Isoprene and Butadiene
86. In strong acidic and alkaline medium, p-aminophenol
(D) Vinyl chloride and Sulphur
exists in (X) and (Y) forms respectively
95. Chemical name of aspirin is
(A) Methyl Benzoate
(B) Ethyl Salicylate
(C) Acetylsalicyclic acid
(D) Hydroxybenzoic acid

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96. Which of the following crystal systems does NOT (C) Mole fraction (D) Formality
have body-centered lattice? 99. At a given temperature, which one of the following
(A) Orthorhombic (B) Tetragonal solutions would have the highest vapour pressure?
(C) Monoclinic (D) Cubic (A) 0.1 m glucose solution
97. NaCl has face-centered unit cell. In its crystal, the (B) 0.1 m NaCl solution
number of Cl−ions present in contact with a Na+ ion is (C) 0.1 m CaCl2 solution
(A) 4 (B) 6 (D) 0.1 m Al2 (SO4)3 solution
(C) 8 (D) 10 100. Which one of the following does NOT give
98. Which of the following concentration units does NOT precipitate on reaction with lead acetate?
depend on temperature? (A) HI (B) HBr
(A) Molarity (B) Normality (C) HCl (D) HF
BIOLOGY
101. Neo-Darwinism believes that new species develop (D) E. coli
through 110. Animals with built in thermostat are
(A) mutations with natural selection (A) poikilothermic (B) oligothermic
(B) continuous variations with natural selection (C) homeothermic (D) biothermic
(C) hybridisation 111. The lowest category in taxonomic hierarchy is
(D)mutations (A) class (B) kingdom
102. Genetic drift operates in ………….. population (C) species (D) phylum
(A) small (B) large 112. Most primitive number in which roots are NOT
(C) island (D) Mendelian present is
103. Which of the following is quartan in periodicity? (A) Rhynia (B) Psilotum
(A) P. ovale (B) P. vivax (C) Lycopodium (D) Selaginella
(C) P. falciparum (D) P. malariae 113. Angiosperms differ from gymnosperms in having
104. B.C.G is vaccine against? (A) seeds (B) large leaves
(A) Typhoid (B) Tuberculosis (C) tap roots (D) covered seeds
(C) German measles (D) Chicken pox 114. Green glands are the excretory organs of
105. In tissue culture variations appeared are (A) Insecta (B) Myriapoda
(A) Somatic variation (B) Clonal variation (C) Arachnida (D) Crustaceans
(C) Somaclonal variation 115. Which tissue give mechanical strength to plant
(D) Tissue culture variation organs ?
106. A common bio control agent for the control of plant (A) Accessory cells (B) Collenchyma
diseases is (C) Parenchyma (D) Stomata
(A) Bacillus (B) Trichoderma 116. In which flower epipetalous stamen is found ?
(C) Baculovirus (D) Glomus (A) Calotropis (B) Sesbania
107. The technique for breakage of DNA fragment and (C) Datura (D) Acalypha
inserting it into another DNA molecule, is related to 117. Which of the following is uperficial of calf muscle?
(A) Gene cloning (B) Gene typing (A) Trapezius (B) Latissimus
(C) Gene splicing (D) DNA fingerprinting (C) Gluteus (D) Gastrocnemius
108. Which type of restriction enzymes are used in 118. During inspiration in cockroach the respiratory
recombinant DNA technology? passage is
(A) Type – I (B) Type – II (A) Stigmata
(C) Type – III (D) All of these (B) Air chamber
109. Which of the following bacteria has found extensive (C) Spiracle and trachea
use in genetic engineering work in plants/best genetic (D) Longitudinal respiratory tube
vector used in plants? 119. The function of the collaterial gland in cockroach is
(A) Bacillus thuringiensis to
(B) Xanthomonas citri (A) store eggs (B) store sperms
(C) Agrobacterium tumefaciens (C) keep vagina moist (D) secretate the egg case
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120. Golgi apparatus takes part in (B) Kreb’s cycle
(A) Carbohydrate synthesis (C) Oxidative decarboxylation
(B) Lipid synthesis (D) EMP
(C) Protein synthesis 131. The maximum growth rate occurs in
(D) Oxydative photophosphorylation (A) exponential phase (B) lag phase
121. The longest living cells amongst the following are (C) stationary phase (D) senescent phase
(A) T-cells (B) B-cells 132. Mobilisation of stored food in germinating seed is
(C) Memory cells (D) RB triggered by
122. Mitochondria increases in the cells of (A) Auxin (B) Cytokinin
(A) dry seed (B) dormant seed (C) Gibberellin (D) Ethylene
(C) germinating seed (D) Ripening fruits 133. Digestive enzymes are released by pancreas and bile
123. What holds the ribosomes together in a is released by liver in response to the hormone
polyribosome? (A) Zymogen (B) Cholecystokinin
(A) mRNA (B) rRNA (C) Insulin (D) Secretin
(C) tRNA (D) mRNA, rRNA, & tRNA 134. After O2 diffusion into pulmonary capillaries, it
124. Some inorganic ions are required for enzyme diffused into ……….. and binds with ……….
activity. These inorganic substance are (A) RBC, haemoglobin
(A) enzyme (B) co-factor (B) RBC, CO2
(C) prosthetic group (D) activator (C) Interstitial fluid, CO2
125. Diploid chromosome number being 8, what shall be (D) Interstitial fluid, RBC
the number of chromatids in each daughter after Meiosis- 135. If vagus/parasympathetic nerve to heart is cut, the
I? heart beat will
(A) 2 (B) 4 (A) stop (B) remain normal
(C) 8 (D) 16 (C) increase (D) decrease
126. Potassium ion exchange hypothesis of opening and 136. Which of the following hormones causes
closing of stomata was proposed by reabsorption of Na+ and excretion of K+, H+ and H2O ?
(A) Sayre (B) Stewart (A) LH (B) FSH
(C) Levitt (D) Bose (C) TSH (D) Aldosterone
127. If a cell ‘X’ has op = 6 and TP = 5 and is surrounded 137. Which of the following animals having longitudinal
by the cell with op = 4 and TP = 2, then what will be the binary fission?
direction of water movement? (A) Hydra (B) Plasmodium
(A) From other cell to cell ‘X’ (C) Paramoecim (D) Euglena
(B) From cell ‘X’ to other cell 138. Vegetative propagation in mint occurs by
(C) Water absorption is not affected by temperature (A) Offset (B) Runner
(D) Water will move freely (C) Sucker (D) Rhizome
128. Bidirectional translocation of minerals takes place 139. Formation of an organism from a single, male gamete
through without fusion with egg is an example of
(A) xylem (B) phloem (A) Apogamy (B) Parthenogenesis
(C) parenchyma (D) cambium (C) Parthenocarpy (D) Apospory
129. The intermediate between Glycolysis and TCA cycle 140. Decrease in levels of which of the following causes
is menstrual flow ?
(A) Oxaloacetate (A) Progesterone (B) Vasopressin
(B) Glucose-1-6 diphosphate (C) FSH (D) Oxytocin
(C) Pyruvic acid 141. Spermatozoa are nourished during development by
(D) Acetyl Co-A (A) Leydig cell (B) Sertoli cell
130. Out of 38 ATP molecules produced per glucose, 22 (C) Germinal epithelium (D) Mitochondria
ATP molecules are formed from NADH/FASH2 in 142. Genital warts STD is a viral disease and is caused by
(A) Respiratory chain (A) Trichomonas vaginalis

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 BIDYASAGAR CLASSES, BHUABNESWAR
OUAT-2018
(B) Treponema pallidum (D) masked by dominance
(C) Human papilloma virus 146. Down’s syndrome is a typical case of
(D) Chlamydia trachomatis (A) Nullisomy (B) Monosomy
143. The technique called gamete intrafallopian transfer (C) Gene mutation (D) Trisomy
(GIFT) is recommended for those females 147. Leading strand during DNA replication is formed
(A) who cannot retain foetus inside uterus (A) is short segment (B) continuously
(B) who cannot produce ovum (C) first (D) ahead of replication
(C) who cannot provide suitable environment for 148. An abnormal gene is replaced by normal gene. It is
fertilization called
(D) whose cervical canal is too narrow, to allow passage for (A) Gene therapy (B) Cloning
sperms (C) Mutation (D) None of these
Show Answer 149. Geographic limit within which a population exists is
144. A method of birth control is called
(A) IUDs (B) HJF (A) Biome (B) Habitat
(C) IVF-ET (D) GIFT (C) Niche (D) Ecosystem
145. The linked characters would always inherit together ∆𝑁𝑛
150. =B represents
∆𝑁𝑡
till they are
(A) Natality (B) Growth rate
(A) mutated
(C) Mortality (D) All of these
(B) delinked due to segregation
(C) separated due to crossing over
ANSWERS
1. A 17. C 33. C 49. D 65. C 81. A 97. B 113. D 129. D 145. C
2. A 18. C 34. C 50. B 66. D 82. D 98. C 114. D 130. A 146. D
3. C 19. D 35. A 51. A 67. D 83. A 99. A 115. B 131. A 147. B
4. B 20. A 36. A 52. A 68. D 84. B 100 .D 116. C 132. C 148. A
5. B 21. C 37. D 53. D 69. C 85. A 101. B 117. D 133. B 149. A
6. A 22. B 38. A 54. D 70. B 86. A 102. A 118. C 134. A 150. B
7. B 23. C 39. C 55. D 71. B 87. B 103. A 119. D 135. C
8. C 24. D 40. B 56. C 72. C 88. C 104. B 120. A 136. D
9. C 25. A 41. B 57. A 73. A 89. B 105. C 121. C 137. D
10. A 26. C 42. A 58. B 74. B 90. C 106. A 122. D 138. C
11. C 27. B 43. C 59. C 75. C 91. A 107. A 123. A 139. B
12. C 28. C 44. D 60. C 76. B 92. A 108. B 124. B 140. A
13. C 29. B 45. B 61. B 77. D 93. C 109. C 125. B 141. B
14. C 30. B 46. B 62. C 78. A 94. A 110. C 126. C 142. C
15. B 31. B 47. C 63. C 79. B 95. C 111. C 127. A 143. B
16. A 32. C 48. D 64. C 80. C 96. C 112. B 128. B 144. A

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