BIDYASAGAR CLASSES, BHUABNESWAR

OUAT-2017
PHYSICS
1. If g is the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of a Show Answer
the earth, the gain in potential energy of an object of mass 9. The coefficient of cubical expansion of sulphur is
m raised from the earth’s surface to a height equal to the 0.000223 per ° A piece of sulphur is found to displace 48
radius R of the earth is cc of water at 0°C. It will displace the volume of water at
(a) mgR/4 (b) mgR/2 35°C
(c) mgR (d) 2 mgR (a) 48.374 cc (b) 48.743 cc
2. A body floats in water with 40% of its volume outside (c) 49.374 cc (d) 49.743 cc
water. When the same body floats in an oil, 60% of its 10. The equation of displacement of two waves are given
volume remains outside oil. The relative density of oil is
(a) 0.9 (b) 1.0
(c) 1.2 (d) 1.5 as and t
3. If the Earth were to suddenly contract to 1/nth of its hen what is the ratio of their amplitude?
present radius without any change in its mass, the duration (a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1
of the new day will be nearly (c) 1 : 1 (d) 1 : 4
(a) 24 n hr. (b) 24 hr. 11. An iron rod of length 100 cm and 10 cm2 cross-section
(c) 24/n2 mgR (d) 24 n2 hr. is heated from 0°C to 100° If it is not allowed to bend or
Hide Answer expand, what force is developed in it ? Given that Y –
4. Two temperature scales A and B are related 1012 dyne/cm2 and α = 10−5/°C
(a) 108 dyne (b) 109 dyne
10
(c) 10 dyne (d) 1011 dyne
by At which temperature two scales have 12. A thin glass bulb is sealed at 27°C, the internal
the same reading ? pressure being 1 atmosphere. The maximum internal
(a) −42° (b) 42° pressure the blub can withstand is 95 cm of mercury. At
(c) 12° (d) −40° the temperature at which the bulb will burst,
5. The resistances across A and B in the figure below will (a) 101°C (b) 102°C
be (c) 374°C (d) 375°C
13. A string in a musical instrument is 50 cm long and its
fundamental frequency is 800 Hz. If a frequency of 1000
Hz is to be produced, the required length of string is
(a) 37.5 cm (b) 40 cm
(a) 3R (b) R (c) 50 cm (d) 62.5 cm
(c) R/3 (d) None of these 14. An ideal mono-atomic gas of given mass is heated at
6. Air inside a closed container is saturated with water constant pressure. In this process, the fraction of supplied
vapour. The air pressure is p and the saturated vapour that energy used for the increase of t he internal energy of
the gas is
pressure of water is If the mixture is compressed to (a) 3/8 (b) 3/5
one half of its volume by maintaining temperature (c) 3/4 (d) 2/5
constant, the pressure becomes 15. Water is flowing in streamline motion through a
horizontal tube. The pressure at a point in the tube is p
(a) (b) where the velocity of flow is v. At another point, where
the pressure is p/2, the velocity of flow is [density of
water = ρ]
(c) (d)
7. What happens when the prongs of a vibrating tuning
fork are immersed in water ? (a) (b)
Which of the following statements is TRUE about the
waves propagating outwards?
(a) The velocity decreases. (c) (d)
(b) The amplitude increases. 16. If the terminal speed of a sphere of gold [density =
(c) The frequency decreases. 19.5 g/cm3] is 0.2 m/s in a viscous liquid [density = 1.5
(d) The wavelength increases. g/cm3], find the terminal speed of a sphere of silver
8. Steel has Young’s modulus 21 × 10 dyne/cm and
11 2
[density = 10.5 g/cm3] of the same size in the same liquid.
density 7.8 gm/cc. The velocity of sound through steel is (a) 0.133 m/s (b) 0.1 m/s
(a) 350 m/s (b) 700 m/s (c) 0.2 m/s (d) 0.4 m/s
(c) 5000 m/s (d) 5189 m/s

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OUAT-2017
17. A charge +q is placed at the origin O of X-Y axes as
shown in figure below. The work done in taking a charge
Q from A to B along the straight line AB is

(a) (b) −3 μF
(c) 6 Μf (d) 5 μF
(a) (b) 24. The ratio of magnetic field and magnetic moment at
the centre of a current carrying circular loop is x. When
(c) (d) both the current and radius I s doubled the ratio will be
18. Two spherical conductors A and B of radii 1 mm and (a) x/8 (b) x/4
2 mm are separated by a distance 5 cm and are uniformly (c) x/2 (d) 2x
charged. If the spheres are connected by a conducting wire 25. The decimal equivalent of the binary number
then in the equilibrium condition, ratio of the magnitude (11010.101) 2 is
of electric fields at the surfaces of sphere A and B is (a) 9.625 (b) 25.262
(a) 1 ; 2 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 26.525 (d) 26.265
(c) 1 :4 (d) 4 : 1 26. In a common emitter configuration, a transistor has β
19. Five equal resistances, each of resistance R, are = 50 and input resistance 1 kΩ. If the peak value of ac.
connected as shown in figure below. A battery of V volt is input is 0.01 V then the peak value of collector current is
connected between A and B. The current flowing in FC (a) 0.01 μA (b) 0.25 μA
will be (c) 100 μA (d) 500 μA
27. 3 moles of a mono-atomic gas (γ = 5/3) is mixed with
1 mole of a diatomic gas (γ = 7/3). The value of γ for the
mixture will be
(a) 9/11 (b) 11/7
(c) 12/7 (d) 15/7
28. Some water drops of radius r each coalesce to form a
big drop of radius R. The rise in temperature is given by

(a) 3V/R (b) V/R

(c) V/2R (d) 2V/R (a) (b)
20. The magnetic field at the point of intersection of
diagonals of a square wire loop of side L carrying a
current I is (c) (d)
29. Which of the following statement is INCORRECT?
(a) All reversible cycles have same efficiency.
(a) (b) (b) Reversible cycle has more efficiency than an
irreversible one.
(c) (d) (c) Carnot cycle is a reversible one.
21. An electric dipole is placed at an angle 30° to a non- (d) Carnot cycle has the maximum efficiency in all cycles.
uniform electric field. The dipole will experience a 30. In which of the process, internal energy of system
(a) translational force only in a direction normal to the remains constant?
direction of the field (a) Adiabatic (b) Isochoric
(b) torque as well as a translational force (c) Isobaric (d) Isothermal
(c) torque only 31. In Young’s double slit experiment, an interference
(d) translational force only in the direction of the field pattern is obtained on a screen by a light of wavelength
22. An electric bulb marked as 50 W – 200 V is connected 6000 Å coming from the coherent sources S1 and S2. At
across a 100 V supply. The present power of the bulb is certain point P on the screen third fringe is formed. Then
(a) 37.5 W (b) 25 W the path difference S1P – S2P is microns is
(c) 12.5 W (d) 10 W (a) 0.75 (b) 1.5
23. In the figure below, the capacitance of each capacitor (c) 3.0 (d) 4.0
is 3 μ The effective capacitance between A and B is 32. In compound microscope the intermediate image is
(a) virtual, inverted and magnified
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(b) real, inverted and diminished (d) the transmitting antenna length is very large and
(c) virtual, erect and magnified impracticable
(d) real, inverted and magnified 40. Which of the following is NOT electromagnetic in
33. In the following circuit the output Y becomes zero for nature?
the inputs (a) X-rays (b) Gamma rays
(c) Cathode rays (d) Microwaves
41. A ray of light enters from a denser medium into the
rarer medium. The speed of light in the rarer medium is
twice that in denser medium. What is the critical angle for
total internal reflection to take place ?
(a) 30° (b) 45°
(c) 60° (d) 75°
42. Focal length of a convex lens of refractive index 1.5 is
2 cm. Focal length of lens when immersed in a liquid of
(a) A =1, B = 0, C = 0 (b) A = 0, B= 0, C = 0 refractive index of 1.25 will be
(c) A = 1, B = 1, C = 1 (d) A = 1, B = 1, C = 0 (a) 10 cm (b) 2.5 cm
34. In n – p – n transistor the collector current is 10 mA. If (c) 5 cm (d) 7.5 cm
90% of the electrons emitted reach the collector, then 43. The least distance of vision of a longsighted person is
(a) emitter current is 9 mA 60 cm. By using a spectacle lens, this distance is reduced
(b) emitter current is 11.1 mA to 12 cm. The power of the lens is
(c) base current is 0.1 mA (a) +5.0 D (b) +(20/3)D
(d) base current is 0.01 mA (c) −(10/3)D (d) +2.0 D
35. The r.m.s. value of the electric field of the light 44. A thin prism (μ = 1.5) in the position of minimum
coming from the sun is 720 N/C. The average total energy deviation deviates the monochromatic light ray by 10°, the
density of the electromagnetic wave is refracting angle of prism is
(a) 6.37 × 10−9 J/m3 (b) 81.35 × 1012 J/m3 (a) 10° (b) 20°
(c) 3.3 × 10−3 J/m3 (d) 4.58 × 10−6 J/m3 (c) 30° (d) 45°
36. A bar magnet of magnetic moment pm is divided into 45. If the work function of a metal is 4.2 eV, the cut off
two equal parts by cutting parallel to its length. The wave length is
magnetic moment of either piece will be (a) 8000 Å (b) 7000 Å
(a) pm/4 (b) pm/2 (c) 1472 Å (d) 2950 Å
(c) pm (d) 2pm 46. A nucleus raptures into two nuclear parts which have
37. If the electron in a hydrogen atom jumps from an orbit their velocity ratio equal to 2 : 1. What will be the ratio of
with level n1 = 2 to an orbit with level n2 = 2 to an orbit their nuclear size (nuclear radius) ?
with level n2 = 1, the emitted radiation has a wavelength (a) 21/3 : 1 (b) 1 : 21/3
given by 1/2
(c) 3 : 1 (d) 1 : 31/2
47. What is de Broglie wavelength of the alpha particle
accelerated through a potential difference V ?
(a) (b)

(a) (b)
(c) (d)
38. In frequency modulation (c) (d)
(a) the amplitude of modulated wave varies as frequency 48. Fusion reaction takes place at high temperature
of carrier wave because
(b) the frequency of modulated wave varies as amplitude (a) atoms are ionized at high temperature
of the modulating wave (b) molecules break up at high temperature
(c) the amplitude of modulated wave varies as amplitude (c) nuclei break up at the high temperature
of carrier (d) kinetic energy is high enough to overcome repulsion
(d) the frequency of modulated wave varies as frequency between nuclei
of modulating wave 49. A radioactive substance decays to 1/16th of its initial
39. Audio signal CANNOT be transmitted because activity in 40 days. The half life of the radioactive
(a) the signal has more noise substance expressed in days is
(b) the signal cannot be amplified for distance (a) 2.5 (b) 5 (c) 10 (d) 20
communication
(c) the transmitting antenna length is very small to design

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50. Given that M is the mass suspended from a spring of 59. The instantaneous height y and the horizontal distance
x covered by a particle are as follows y = bt2 and x = ct2.
force constant k. The dimensional formula for is same What is the speed of the particle one second after the
for that of firing ?
(a) frequency (b) time period (a) 2(b + c) (b) 2(b – c)
(c) velocity (d) wave length (c) 2(b 2
+ c2 1/2
) (d) 2(b2 − c2)1/2
51. The side of a cubical block when measured with a 60. An automobile engine of mass N accelerates and a
vernier caliper is 2.50 cm. The vernier constant is 0.01 constant power p is applied by the engine. The
cm. The maximum possible error in the area of the side of instantaneous speed of the engine will be
the block is
(a) ±0.01 cm2 (b) ±0.02 cm2
2 (a) (b)
(c) ±0.05 cm (d) ±0.10 cm2
52. The time (t) and displacement (x) are related as t =
ax2 + bx. What is the acceleration of the particle at the (c) (d)
origin of the coordinate axes ? 61. A long spring when stretched by x cm has a potential
(a) −2ab3 (b) −2ab energy U. On increasing the stretching to ‘nx’ the
(c) −2a/b3 (d) −2a/b potential energy stored in the spring will be
53. Consider three (a) n2U (b) U/n2
(c) U/n (d) nU
vectors and A 62. A body initially at rest explodes and breaks into three
fragments in the ratio 1 : 1 : 3. The two pieces of equal
vector of the from (where and are numbers) is mass fly off perpendicular to each other with a velocity of
perpendicular to . The ratio of α and β is 30 ms−1. What is the velocity of the heavier fragment?
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 2 : 1 (a) 10√2 ms−1 (b) 10.5 ms−1
−1
(c) −1 : 1 (d) 3 : 1 (c) 11.4 ms (d) 10.95 ms−1
54. A particle located at x = 0 at a time t = 0, starts 63. A material has Poisson’s ratio 0.50. If a uniform rod of
moving along the positive X-direction with a velocity v it suffers a longitudinal strain of 2 × 10−3, then the
that varies as v = α√x. The displacement of the particle percentage change in volume is
varies with time as (a) 0.6 (b) 0.4
(a) t (b) t 1/2 (c) 0.2 (d) zero
(c) t 3
(d) t 2 64. A body is moving along a circular path with constant
55. In the stable equilibrium position, a body has speed. If the direction of rotation is reversed and the speed
(a) maximum potential energy is doubled, then
(b) minimum potential energy (a) the direction of centripetal acceleration is doubled
(c) minimum kinetic energy (b) the magnitude of centripetal acceleration is doubled
(d) neither maximum nor minimum potential energy (c) the direction of centripetal acceleration remains
56. A constant torque acting on a uniform circular wheel unchanged
changes its angular momentum from L to 4L in 4 second. (d) the magnitude of centripetal acceleration is halved
The magnitude of this torque will be 65. A ring and a disc of different masses are rotating with
(a) L (b) 4L the same kinetic energy. If we apply a retarding torque τ
(c) 3L/4 (d) 12L on the ring it stops after making n revolution. After how
57. For a given material the Young’s modulus is 2.4 times many revolution will the disc stop if the retarding torque
that of rigidity modulus. Its Poisson’s ratio is on it is also τ ?
(a) 2.4 (b) 1.2 (a) n/2 (b) n
(c) 0.4 (d) 0.2 (c) 2n (d) 4n
58. The range of projection is maximum. If the range is R. 66. The ratio of radii of two spheres of the same mass,
what is the maximum h height? having the same moment of inertia about their diameters,
(a) 2R (b) R one hollow and other solid is
(c) R/2 (d) R/4 (a) 9 : 25 (b) 25 : 9
(c) √5 : √3 (d) √3 : √5
CHEMISTRY
67. 67. Reaction of ethyl formate with excess of CH3MGl 68. The reaction of an ester ROOR’ with an alcohol
followed by hydrolysis gives R’’OH is presence of an acid gives
(a) n-Propyl alcohol (b) Ethanal (a) R’COOR’’ (b) R’COOH
(c) Propanal (d) Isoproppylalcohol (c) RCOOR’’ (d) R’’COOR

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69. In the diazotization of aniline with the sodium nitrate (c) p-n-type (d) None of these
and hydrochloric acid, the excess of hydrochloric acid is 81. Schottky defect is due to missing of
used primarily to (a) anion form lattice
(a) suppress the concentration of free aniline (b) catin from lattice
(b) suppress the hydrolysis of phenol (c) cation and anion both form lattice
(c) ensure a stoichiometric amount of nitrous acid (d) None of these
(d) neutralize the base liberated 82. Out of the following compounds, which one would
70. Benzene diazonium chloride on reaction with phenol have a zero dipole moment ?
in weakly basis medium gives (a) 1, 1-Dichloroethylene
(a) diphenyl ether (b) cis-1, 2-dichloroethylene
(b) p-Hydroxyazobenzene (c) trans-1, 2-Dichloroethylene
(c) Chlorobenzene (d) None of these compounds
(d) Benzene 83. 1-Chlorobutance on reaction with alcoholic potash
71. Which is correct statement ? gives
(a) Starch is polymer of α-glucose. (a) 1-Butene (b) 1-Butanol
(b) Amylose is a component of cellulose. (c) 2-Butene (d) 2-Butanol
(c) Proteins are composed of only one type of amino acid. 84. Among the following compounds, the strongest acid is
(d) In cyclic structure of furanose, there are four carbons (a) HC ≡ CH (b) C6H6
and one oxygen atom. (c) C2H6 (d) CH3OH
72. The number of chiral carbons in β-D(+)- glucose is 85. Identify the correct statement below concerning the
(a) three (b) four structure of CH3 = C = CH2.
(c) five (d) six (a) The molecular is planar.
73. The reason for double helical structure of DNA is (b) One of the three carbon atoms is in an sp3 hybridized
operation of state.
(a) electrostatic attraction (c) The molecule is non-planar with the two CH2 groups
(b) hydrogen bonding being in planar perpendicular to each other.
(c) Van der Waal’s forces (d) All the carbon atoms are sp-hybridized.
(d) dipole-dipole interaction 86. Which of the following is correct regarding the –I-
74. Number of atoms of oxygen present in 10.6 g effect of the substituents ?
Na2CO3 will be (a) −NR2 < − OR < − F
(a) 6.02 × 1022 (b) 12.04× 1022 (b) −NR2 > − OR < − F
(c) 1.806 × 10 23
(d) 31.80 × 1028 (c) −NR2 < − OR > − F
75. If 30 ml of H2 and 20 ml of O2 react to form water, (d) −NR2 > − OR > − F
what is left at the end of the reaction? 87. Which of the following is NOT a Ca ore?
(a) 10 ml of H2 (b) 5 ml of H2 (a) Gypsum (b) Magnesite
(c) 10 ml of O2 (d) 5 ml of O2 (c) Dolomite (d) Carnallite
76. 2. 76 of silver carbonate (At. Mass = 108) on being 88. Among KO2, AlO2, BaO2 and NO2, unpaired electron
heated strongly yields at residue weighing is present in
(a) 2.16 g (b) 2.48 g (a) NO2 + and BaO3 (b) KO2 and AlO2−
(c) 2.32 g (d) 2.64 g (c) KO2 only (d) BaO2 only
77. What mass of silver nitrate will react with 5.85 g of 89. pH of water is 7. When a substance Y is dissolved in
sodium chloride to produce 14.35 of silver chloride and water, the pH becomes 13. the substance Y is a salt of
8.5 g of sodium nitrate, if the law of conservation of mass (a) weak acid and weak base
is TRUE? (b) strong acid and strong base
(a) 7.15 g (b) 17.0 g (c) strong acid and weak base
(c) 3.3 g (d) 4.88 g (d) weak acid and strong base
78. Which of the following polymers is used for making 90. Which of the following sulphides has the lowest
switch board, heater handle ? solubility product ?
(a) Polythene (b) Rubber (a) FeS (b) MnS
(c) PET (d) Bakelite (c) PbS (d) ZnS
79. Isoprene is the monomeric unit of which of the 91. In a mixture of a weak acid and salt, the ratio of the
following polymers ? concentration of acid to salt is increased ten-fold. The pH
(a) Dacron (b) Natural rubber of the solution
(c) Bakelite (d) Polyvinyl chloride (a) decreases by one (b) decreases by one
80. Indium doped Silicon is an _______ semiconductor. tenth
(a) p-type (b) n-type (c) increases by one (d) increases by ten-fold

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92. The solubility of CaCO3 in water is 3.05 × (a) N2 (b) O2
10−4 moles/litre. Its solubility product will be (c) NH3 (d) CH4
(a) 6.1 × 104 (b) 9.3 104. A gas would show maximum deviation from ideal
(c) 3.05 × 10−4 (d) 9.3 × 10−8 behavior at
93. Which of the following solution will have pH close to (a) 150°C, 2 atm (b) 10°C, 1 atm
1.0 ? (c) 75°C, 0.5 atm (d) −100°C, 5 atm
(a) 100 ml of (M/10) HCl + 100 ml of (M/10) NaOH 105. Of the following pairs, each of 0.1 m solution, the
(b) 55 ml of (M/10)HCl + 45 ml of (M/10) NaOH isotonic solution at the same temperature will be
(c) 10 ml of (M/10) HCl + 90 ml of (M/10) NaOH (a) glucose and KCI (b) MgCl2 and NaCl
(d) 75 ml of (M/5) HCl + 25 ml of (M/5) NaOH (c) urea and ZnSO4 (d) Na2SO4 and Ca(NO3)2
94. One mole of N2O4(g) at 300 K is kept in a closed 106. A gaseous mixture contains 56g N2, 44g CO2 and 16g
container under one atmospheric pressure. It is heated to CH4. The total pressure of the mixture is 720 mm Hg.
600 K when 20% by mass of N2O4(g) decomposes to What is the partial pressure of CH4.
NO2(g). The resultant pressure is (a) 160 mm (b) 394 mm
(a) 1.2 atm (b) 2.4 atm (c) 180 mm (d) 225 mm
(c) 2.0 atm (d) 1.0 atm 107. The first use of quantum theory to explain the
95. A(g) + 3B(g) ⇌ The initial concentration of A is equal structure of atoms was made by
to that of B. The equilibrium concentration of A and C are (a) Heisenberg (b) Bohr
equal KC = ? (c) Plank (d) Einstein
(a) 0.08 (b) 0.8 108. Which of the following complexes is non-conducting
(c) 8 (d) 80 ?
96. For a weak acid with α as its degree of dissociation, (a) CoCl3 . 3NH3 (b) CoCl3 . 6NH3
the value of dissociation constant is given by (C is (c) CoCl3 . 4NH3 (d) CoCl3 . 5NH3
concentration of acid in mole per litre) 109. The IUPAC name Na2[Fe(CN)5NO] the IUPAC
(a) Ka = Cα (b) Ka = Cα2 name is
(c) Ka = C2α (d) Ka = C2α2 (a) sodium pentacyanonitrate
97. A litre of solution containing 0.1 mole of CH3COOH (b) sodium pentacyanonitrosylferous (II)
and 0.1 mole of CH3COONa provide a buffer of pH 4.74. (c) sodium pentacyanonitrosylferrate (II)
Calculate the pH of the solution after the addition of 0.02 (d) disodium pentacyanonitrosyferrate (II)
mole of NaOH. Ka = 1.8 × 10−5 110. A catalyst increase the rate of reaction because it
(a) 4.92 (b) 4.03 (a) increases the activation energy
(c) 8.56 (d) 5.32 (b) lowers the energy barrier for reaction
98. Calculate the pH of 0.625 M solution of CH3COONa (c) decreases the collision diameter
(Ka value of CH3COOH is 1.754 × 10−5). (d) increases the temperature coefficient
(a) 8.25 (b) 9.28 111. Inert pair effect is exhibited by
(c) 10.2 (d) 11.26 (a) Pb (b) B
99. The dissociation constant Kb, the hydrolysis constant (c) Si (d) Al
Kh and ionic product Kw are related to each other by the 112. The isotope used for dating archaeological finding is
relation (a) 1H3 (b) 6C14
18
(a) Kw/Kb = Kh (b) Kw/Kh = Kb (c) 8O (d) 92U235
(c) Kw = Kh × Kh (d) All of these 113. Isomers which can be interconverted through rotation
100. In Hittorf method of determination of transport around a single bond are
numbers we make use of a(n) (a) conformers (b) diastereomers
(a) H-tube (b) V-tube (c) enantiomers (d) positional isomers
(c) U-tube (d) L-tube 114. The reagent used for separation of acetaldehyde and
101. The mass in grams of copper will be deposited from acetophenone is
a solution of Cu2+ by a current of 2.50 A in 2 hours, is (a) NaHSO3 (b) C6H5NHNH2
(a) 23.7 (b) 0.187 (c) NH2OH (d) NaOH-I2
(c) 1.65 (d) 5.93 115. Number of sigma bonds in P4O10 is
102. Which of the following sets contains only (a) 6 (b) 7
isoelectronic ions ? (c) 16 (d) 17
(a) Na+ , Ca2+, Ga3+, Al3+ (b) K+, Ca2+, Sc3+, Cl− 116. One mole of a perfect gas expands isothermally to
3− −
3+
(c) P , Sc , Cl , K +
(d) Na+, Al3+, Mg2, Cl− ten times its original volume. The change in entropy is
103. The value of Van der Waals constant a for the glass (a) 0.1 R (b) 2.303 R
N2, O2, NH3 and CH4 are 1.39, 1.36, 4 and 2.25 dm6 atm (c) 10.0 R (d) 100.0 R
mol−2 The most easily liquefiable gas is 117. Which one of the following statements is FALSE?

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(a) Work is a state function. 124. Saturated solution of KNO3 is used to make ‘salt
(b) Temperature is a state function bridge’ because
(c) Change in the state is completely defined when the (a) velocity of K is greater than that of NO3−
initial and final states are specified. (b) velocity of of K is less than that of NO3−
(d) Work appears at the boundary of the system. (c) velocity of both K− and NO3− are nearly the same
118. The enthalpy of vaporization of liquid water using (d) KNO3 is highly soluble in water
the date 125. Zn(s) + Cl2 (1 atm) → Zn2+ + 2Cl−. The E° of the cell
H2(g)+ 12O2(g) H2O(l), ∆H = −285.77 kJ/mol is 2.12 V. To increase E
H2(g)+ 12O2(g) H2O (g) ∆H = −241.84 kJ/mol (a) Zn2− concentration should be increased
(a) +43.93 kJ/mol (b) −43.93 kJ/mol (b) Zn2− concentration should be decreased
(c) +527.61 kJ/mol (d) −527.61 kJ/mol (c) Cl− concentration should be increased
119. An aqueous solution of 6.3g oxalic acid dehydrate is (d) partial pressure of Cl2 should be decreased
made up to 250 ml. The volume of 0.1 N NaOH required 126. Alums purify muddy water by
to completely neutralize 10 ml of this solution is (a) dialysis (b) adsorption
(a) 10 ml (b) 20 ml (c) coagulation (d) forming a true solution
(c) 40 ml (d) 4 ml 127. Which of the following is correctly matched ?
120. Equimolar solutions in the same solvents have (a) Emulsion-Card (b) Foam-Mist
(a) same boiling point but different freezing point (c) Aerosol-Smoke (d) Solid sol-Cake
(b) same freezing point but different boiling point 128. The coagulating power of an electrolyte for arsenious
(c) same boiling point but same freezing point sulphide sol decreases in the order
(d) different boiling point and different freezing point (a) Na− > Al− > Ba2− b) Al3− > Ba2+ > Na2−
− − 2−
121. The freezing point of equimolar aqueous solution (c) Na > Al > Ba (d) Na− > Ba2− > PO43−
will be highest for 129. The electronic configuration of gadolinium (At. No.
(a) C6H5NH3Cl− (b) Ca(NO3)2 64) is
(c) La(NO3)2 (d) C6H12O6 (a) [Xe]4f85d06s2 (b) [Xe]4f75d16s2
122. The standard reduction potential for Fe2+| Fe and (c) [Xe]4f35d56s2 (d) [Xe]4f65d26s2
Sn | Sn electrodes are −44 and −0.14V respectively for
2+
130. Which of the following does NOT react with AgCl ?
the cell reaction : (a) Na2SO3 (b) NH4OH
Fe2+ + Sn → Fe + Sn2+, the standard emf is (c) NaNO3 (d) Na2CO3
(a) +0.30 V (b) −0.58 V 131. The number of moles of KMnO4 that will be needed
(c) +0.58 V (d) −0.30 V to react with one mole of sulphite in an acidic solution is
123. Equivalent conductance of NaCl, HCl and C2H5- (a) 2/5 (b) 3/5
COONa at infinite dilution are 126.45, 426.16 and 91 (c) 4/5 (d) 1
ohm−1 cm2 The equivalent conductance of C2H5COOH is : 132. Which of the following is NOT an actinide?
(a) 201.28 ohm−1 cm2 (b) 390.71 ohm−1 cm2 (a) Curium (b) Californium
−1
(c) 698.28 ohm cm 2
(d) 540.48 ohm−1 cm2 (c) Uranium (d) Terbium
BIOLOGY
ty133. The greatest threat to genetic diversity in 138. In which stage of the first meiotic division two sister
agricultural crops is chromatids are formed?
(a) extensive mixed cropping (a) Leptotene (b) Zygotene
(b) introduction of high yielding varieties (c) Pachytene (d) Diplotene
(c) extensive use of fertilizers 139. In the absence of acrosome, the sperm CANNOT
(d) extensive use of insecticides and pesticides (a) get energy (b) penetrate the egg
134. Structural lipids of cell membrane are (c) swim (d) get food
(a) simple lipids (b) chromolipids 140. In genetic code, 61 codons code for 20 different
(c) steroid (d) phospholipids types of amino acids. This is called
135. Longest phase of meiosis is (a) colinearity (b) commaless
(a) Prophase I (b) Prophase II (c) degeneracy (d) non-ambiguity
(c) Anaphase I (d) Metaphase II 141. In C4 pathway, the CO2 fixation in mesophyll cells is
136. Insulin is a polymer of carried out by the enzyme
(a) glucose (b) galactose (a) Rubisco
(c) fructose (d) arabinose (b) PEP carboxylase
137. Kupffer’s cells are (c) Pyruvate decarboxylase
(a) Phagocytic (b) Actin (d) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
(c) Myosin (d) Fibrin 142. In a tissue culture media, the resource of the
phytohormone is
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(a) agar agar (b) glucose (c) ‘Appiko’ movement
(c) micronutrients (d) coconut milk (d) conservation of fauna and flora of the western ghats
143. Glucose and amino acids are reabsorbed in the 157. When a fresh water profozoan is placed in marine
(a) proximal tubule (b) distal tubule water
(c) collecting duct (d) loop of Henle (a) the contractile vacuole disappears
144. Fertilization occurs in (b) the contractile vacuole increases in size
(a) uterus (b) ureter (c) a number of contractile vacuoles appear
(c) vagina (d) fallopian tube (d) the contractile vacuole remains unchanged
145. An animals which has both exoskeletal and 158. Which of the following is a mineralocorticold?
endoskeletal structures is (a) Testosterone (b) Progesterone
(a) tortoise (b) frog (c) Adrenalin (d) Aldosterone
(c) jelly fish (d) fresh water mussel 159. Which one of the following is polysaccharide ?
146. How many pairs of contrasting characters in pea pod (a) Glycogen (b) Sucrose
were chosen by Mendel? (c) Lactose (d) Maltose
(a) 7 (b) 5 160. Which one of the following is an example of
(c) 3 (d) 9 chlorophyllous thallophyte ?
147. Gametophyte is the dominant phase in the lifecycle (a) Volvarialla (b) Spirogyra
of (c) Nephrolepis (d) Gnetum
(a) Hibiscus (b) Nephrolepis 161. Hybridoma technique was first discovered by
(c) Cycas (d) Funaria (a) Kohler and Milstein (b) Robert Koch
148. Gastrula has a pore which is known as (c) ‘D’ Herelle (d) Land Steiner
(a) Gonophore (b) Blastopore 162. Approximately what percentage of human genome
(c) Oospore (d) Zoospore encodes protein ?
149. In the absence of the enterokinase, the digestion of (a) 2% (b) 25%
_______ would be affected in our intestine. (c) 90% (d) 99%
(a) amino acid (b) albumin 163. Cycas belongs to the class
(c) starch (d) maltose (a) Gentopsida (b) Cycadopsida
150. Mitotic stages are NOT observed in (c) Coniferopsida (d) Sphenopsida
(a) Cosmarium (b) E. coil 164. Which group is meant for Endemic species of birds?
(c) Saccharomyces (d) Chlorella (a) Nilgiri-pipit, Rofous, babbler, Lesser-Florican
151. Which stage of material parasite is infective to man ? (b) Lesser-Florican, Nilgiri wood pigeon, Malabar
(a) Gametocyte (b) Merozoite parakeet
(c) Cryptomerozoite (d) Sporozoite (c) Malabar parakeet, Niligiri pipit, Rofoous babbler
152. Which one of the following reaction is an example of (d) Flycatcher, Jungle babbler, Nilgiri pipit
oxidative decarboxylation? 165. Species diversity is responsible for which
(a) Conversion of succinate to fumerate phenomena?
(b) Conversion of fumerate to malate (a) Process of Evolution
(c) Conversion of private to acetyl CoA (b) Speciation
(d) Conversion of citrate to isocitrate (c) For alternative types (allele) of gene
153. Spindle fibre is made up of (d) For stability and normal function of ecosystem
(a) Humulin (b) Intermediate filament 166. Flax fibre is obtained from
(c) Flagellin (d) Tubulin (a) Cannabis sativa (b) Crotalaria juncea
154. Restriction enzymes are used to cut (c) Cocs nucifera (d) Linum usitatissimum
(a) single stranded RNA Show Answer
(b) double stranded DNA 167. An embryo may sometimes develop from cell of an
(c) single stranded DNA embryo sac other than egg is called
(d) double stranded RNA (a) apospory (b) parthenogenesis
155. The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration (c) parthenocarpy (d) apogamy
would depend on the 168. The roots which develop from any portion of the
(a) nature of the substrate plant EXCEPT the radical are known as
(b) amount of carbon dioxide released (a) tap roots (b) stilt roots
(c) amount of oxygen utilized (c) fibrous roots (d) adventitious roots
(d) nature of enzymes involved 169. Angiosperms differ from gymnosperms
156. The name of Smt. Thimmakka is associated with the (a) being ever green
(a) planting and conservation of avenue trees (b) being smaller size
(b) agitations against hydroelectric project (c) having compounds leaves
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(d) having ovules enclosed in ovary (c) Rhodophyceae (d) Pheophyceae
170. Osteomalacia is a deficiency disease of 185. By the statement ‘survival of the fittest’, Darwin
(a) infants due to protein energy malnutrition meant that
(b) adults due to protein energy malnutrition (a) the strongest of all species survives
(c) adults due to vitamin D deficiency (b) the most intelligent of the species survives
(d) infants due to vitamin K deficiency (c) the cleverest of the species survives
171. The function of vitamin K is in (d) the most adaptable of the species to changes survives
(a) regulation of C and P metabolism 186. BT brinjal is an example of transgenic crops. In this,
(b) carbohydrate metabolism BT refers to
(c) blood clotting (a) Bacillus tuberculosis (b) Biotechnology
(d) respiration (c) Betacarotene (d)Bacillus thuringiensis
172. Liver is characterized b presence of 187. Which one of the following is related to humoral
(a) Glisson’s capsule (b) Kupffer’s cells immunity?
(c) Both (A) and (B) (d) None of these (a) Platyhelminthes (b) Annelida
173. Vertebral column is derived from (c) Mollusca (d) Echinodermata
(a) Dorsal nerve cord (b) Ventral nerve cord 188. Which one of t he following animal phyla does NOT
(c) Notochord (d) Outgrowth possess a coelom?
174. Cosmoplites stordidus is the pest of (a) Platyhelminthes (b) Annelida
(a) sugarcane (b) jowar (c) Mollusca (d) Echinodermata
(c) banana (d) cotton 189. Which of the following would be in insignificant
175. The sterile male technique comes under _______ amount in xylem sap ?
control. (a) Nitrates (b) Phosphates
(a) chemical (b) mechanical (c) Water (d) Sugar
(c) biological (d) autocidal 190. Which of the following two hormones are essential
176. _______ is the resinous material collected from trees. for induced breeding of fishes?
(a) Royal jelly (b) Honey (a) TSH and ACTH
(c) Propolis (d) Venom (b) Oestrogen and Progesterone
177. When colony is in danger worker bee performs (c) FSH and LH
(a) circular dance (b) wriggle dance (d) Vassopressin and oxytocin
(c) DVAV (d) alarm dance 191. Which of the following in the correct pathway for
178. Number of flower visited per minute is called as propagation of cardiac impulse ?
(a) Foraging rate (b) Foraging speed (a) SA node-AV node – Bundle of His – Purkinje fibers
(c) Foraging flow (d) Foraging (b) AV node – Bundle of His – SA node – Purkinje fibers
179. Mammary glands are modified (c) SA node – Purkinje fibers – AV node – Bundle of His
(a) Sebaceous glands (d) Purkinje fibers – AV node – SA node – Bundle of His
(b) Sudorfic glands/ Sweat 192. When DNA replication starts
(c) Cultaneous glands (a) the hydrogen bonds between the nucleotides of two
(d) Scant glands strands break
180. Hair, nails, hoofs and horns are formed with the help (b) the phosphodiester bonds between the adjacent
of protein, known as nucleotide break
(a) Keratin (b) Globulin (c) the bonds between the nitrogen base and deoxyribose
(c) Chitin (d) Histone sugar break
181. The poison glands of poisonous snake are modified (d) the leading strand produces okiazaki fragments
(a) Buccal glands (b) Palantine glands 193. What is a genophore ?
(c) Salivery glands (d) Lacrymal glands (a) DNA in prokaryotes
182. Sex-linked genes refers to (b) DNA and RNA in prokaryotes
(a) present in a particular sex (c) DNA and protein in prokaryotes
(b) controlling secondary sexual characters (d) RNA in prokaryotes
(c) controlling both primary and secondary sexual 194. Transpiration facilitates
characters (a) opening of stomata
(d) present on sex chromosomes (b) absorption of water by roots
183. Clover-leaf model of tRNA was proposed (c) excretion of minerals
(a) Khorana (b) Lederberg (d) electrolyte balance
(c) Nirenberg (d) Holley 195. The types of ribosomes found in prokaryotic cell are
184. Spirulina belongs to (a) 100 S (b) 80 S
(a) Xanthophyceae (b) Cyanophaceae (c) 60 S (d) 70 S
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196. The space between the plasma membrane and the cell (c) Cerebellum (d) Medulla Oblongata
wall of a plasmolyzed cell surrounded by a hypertonic 199. The rosette habit of cabbage can be changed by
solution is occupied by the application of
(a) hypotonic solution (b) isotonic solution (a) IAA (b) GA
(c) hypertonic solution (d) water (c) ABA (d) Ethaphon
197. The single horned Rhinoceros is protected at 200. The presence of corollary corona, sagittate anthers
(a) Kaziranga National Park and dumb-bell shaped stigma are the characteristic
(b) Kanha National Park features of
(c) Rajiv Gandhi National Park (a) Hibiscus rosa-sinensis
(d) Anashi National Park (b) Musa paradisiaca
198. The part of the brain where the centre for hunger and (c) Ravenala madagascariensis
thirs is located is (d) Catheranthus roseus
(a) Cerebrum (b) Hypothalamus
ANSWERS
1. D 21. B 41. A 61. A 81. C 101. B 121. A 141. B 161. A 181. B
2. D 22. C 42. B 62. D 82. B 102. D 122. A 142. D 162. C 182. D
3. C 23. D 43. B 63. D 83. A 103 B 123. B 143. A 163. B 183. D
4. C 24. B 44. A 64. C 84. A 104. D 124. D 144. D 164. B 184. C
5. C 25. B 45. C 65. A 85. C 105. B 125. D 145. A 165. B 185. D
6. A 26. B 46. C 66. D 86. A 106. A 126. C 146. A 166. D 186. D
7. D 27. B 47. B 67. D 87. D 107. C 127. C 147. C 167. C 187. B
8. A 28. C 48. A 68. B 88. B 108. B 128. B 148. B 168. D 188. A
9. B 29. B 49. B 69. D 89. D 109. D 129. B 149. A 169. D 189. D
10 .B 30. A 50. B 70. B 90. C 110. A 130. B 150. B 170. C 190. D
11 .C 31. B 51. C 71. D 91. B 111. A 131. B 151. D 171. C 191. A
12. D 32. D 52. C 72. C 92. D 112. B 132. D 152. D 172. B 192. D
13. B 33. D 53. A 73. B 93. C 113. C 133. A 153. D 173. C 193. B
14. B 34. C 54. D 74. B 94. B 114. B 134. D 154. C 174. C 194. A
15. D 35. A 55. D 75. D 95. A 115. B 135. A 155. A 175. C 195. D
16. A 36. C 56. C 76. A 96. B 116. D 136. A 156. A 176. C 196. B
17. B 37. D 57. D 77. B 97. A 117. C 137. A 157. B 177. B 197. A
18. C 38. B 58. C 78. D 98. B 118. A 138. B 158. D 178. A 198. C
19. B 39. D 59. C 79. B 99. D 119. B 139. B 159. A 179. A 199. A
20. A 40. C 60. B 80. A 100. A 120. A 140. D 160. B 180. A 200. C

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