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Main Mock Test 09 - (Test Paper)
Main Mock Test 09 - (Test Paper)
Paper – 09
DURATION ::180
DURATION Minutes
90 Minutes M.MARKS : 300
Topics Covered
Physics: Latest Full Syllabus Declared by NTA
Chemistry: Latest Full Syllabus Declared by NTA
Mathematics: Latest Full Syllabus Declared by NTA
General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
4. There are three Sections in the question paper, Section I, II & III consisting of Section-I (Physics), Section-II
(Chemistry), Section-III (Mathematics) and having 30 questions in each part in which first 20 questions are
compulsory and are of Objective Type and Last 10 questions are integers type in which you have to attempt
5 questions only.
5. There is only one correct response for each question.
6. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong response.
7. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any
electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.
However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
9. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).
OMR Instructions:
1. Use blue/black dark ballpoint pens.
2. Darken the bubbles completely. Don't put a tick mark or a cross mark where it is specified that you fill the bubbles
completely. Half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read by the software.
3. Never use pencils to mark your answers.
4. Never use whiteners to rectify filling errors as they may disrupt the scanning and evaluation process.
5. Writing on the OMR Sheet is permitted on the specified area only and even small marks other than the specified area
may create problems during the evaluation.
6. Multiple markings will be treated as invalid responses.
7. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).
[1]
SECTION-I (PHYSICS)
Single Correct Type Questions 4. A uniform ring of mass m lies at a distance of 3 a
1. The viscosity of a gas depends on the long-range from the centre of a solid sphere of mass M. Axis
attractive part of the intermolecular force, which of the ring is the diameter of the sphere. Both
varies with molecular separation r according to F objects have same radius a. Force of interaction
= r–n where n is a number and is a constant. If between ring and sphere, is
is a function of mass m of the molecules, their mean
speed v and the constant , then which of
following is correct
(1) mn+1vn+3n–2
n+1 n+3 −2
(2) m n−1v n−1 n−1 (1)
GMm
(2)
GMm
(3) m v
n –n –2 3a2 a2
(4) mv–n 3 GMm 3 GMm
(3) (4)
8a 2 4 a2
2. The velocity v of a particle moving along a straight
line decreases linearly with its displacement s from 5. A point object is placed at a distance of 12 cm on
20 ms–1 to a value approaching zero at s = 30 m. the axis of a convex lens of focal length
10 cm. On the other side of lens, a convex mirror
is placed such that there principle axis coincide, at
a distance of 10 cm from the lens and the image
formed by the combination coincides with the
object itself. Focal length of convex mirror is
(1) 52 cm
Acceleration of the particle at s = 15 m is (2) 25 cm
2 2 (3) 32 cm
(1) ms−2 (2) − ms−2 (4) 15 cm
3 3
20 −2 20
(3) ms (4) − ms−2 6. A uniform rod of mass 2m and length L is hinged
3 3 at one end and carries a particle of mass m at the
other end. Two springs each of force constant k are
3. A body is projected from the ground with velocity installed at distances as shown. The whole
v at an angle of projection . Then match the arrangement rests on a smooth horizontal surface.
following. The frequency of small oscillations will be
Column-I Column-II
I Change in P Remains
momentum unchanged
II Angle at the Q Independent of
highest point projected
velocity
III Kinetic energy of R At highest point 1 k
body is zero (1)
2 m
IV Horizontal S Minimum at
component of highest point 1 k
(2)
velocity 2 3m
I II III IV
(1) P Q R S
1 k
(3)
(2) Q R S P 4 3m
(3) Q P R S 1 3k
(4) S Q R P (4)
2 m
[2]
7. A uniformly charged thin spherical shell of radius 2
0 I b V
R carries uniform surface charge density of per (3) 2 ln a R
unit area. It is made of two hemispherical shells,
2
held together by pressing them with force F. F is V 0 IV b
ln
R 2
equal to (4)
a
2 2 S2
(3) (4)
2 0 R 0 R 2
2
R 0 IV b The focal length of lens is
ln
V 2
(1)
a (1) 40 cm
2 (2) 20 cm
0 I b 1 (3) 10 cm
(2) 2 ln a VR
(4) 15 cm
[3]
14. In the shown setup the current carrying wires are 18. A solid non-conducting sphere having uniform
parallel and amperean loop is in a plane charge density and radius R is shown in figure. A
perpendicular to wires. The magnetic circulation R
along the loop is (in SI units) (Assume that all spherical cavity of radius is hollowed out. The
2
wires cross the loop)
potential at centre of bigger sphere is (Assuming
2A 3A
zero potential at infinity)
5A
[4]
Integer Type Questions 26. Two blocks A and B of mass 1 kg and 2 kg
21. A heavy chain with a mass per unit length is respectively are connected by a string, passing
pulled by the constant force F along a horizontal over a light frictionless pulley. Both the blocks are
surface consisting of a smooth section and a rough resting on a horizontal floor and the pulley is held
section. The chain is initially at rest on the rough such that string remains just taut. At the moment t
surface with x = 0. If the coefficient of kinetic = 0, a force F = 20t newton starts acting on the
friction between the chain and the rough surface is pulley along vertically upward direction as shown
k, then the velocity v of the chain when x = L is in figure. Find velocity of A (in m/s) when B loses
SF
contact with the floor. (g = 10 m/s2)
− k Lg . The force F is greater than kgL in
order to initiate motion. Find the value of S.
[5]
SECTION-II (CHEMISTRY)
Single Correct Type Questions
36. Product
31. A metal oxide has the formula Z2O3. It can be
reduced by hydrogen to give free metal and water.
0.1596 gm of metallic oxide required 6 mg of Product formed in the above reaction is
hydrogen for complete reduction. The atomic (1)
weight of metal is
(1) 27.9 (2) 159.6
(3) 79.8 (4) 55.8
(2)
32. A stream of electrons from a filament was passed
between two charged plates kept at a potential
difference of V e.s.u. If ‘e’ and ‘m’ are charge and
mass of an electron respectively, then the value of (3)
h
(where λ = wavelength associated with electron
(4)
wave) is given by
(1) 2 meV (2) meV
(3) 2meV (4) meV 37. For the reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g)→2NH3(g) under
certain conditions of temperature and partial
33. The correct order of the (O – O) bond length in O2; pressure of the reactants, the rate of formation of
H2O2 and O3 is NH3 is 10–3 kg h–1. The rate of deformation of H2
(1) O2 > O3 > H2O2 under same condition is
(2) O3 > H2O2 > O2
(1) 1.5 × 10–3 kg h–1
(3) H2O2 > O3 > O2
(4) O2 > H2O2 > O3 (2) 1.76 × 10–4 kg h–1
(3) 6.67 × 10–4 kg h–1
34. The correct order of heat of hydrogenation is
(4) 3 × 10–3 kg h–1
[6]
39. An aromatic amine (X) was treated with alcoholic 44. Relative basic strength of following compounds is
potash and another compound (Y), a foul smelling
gas was formed with formula C6H5NC. (Y) was
formed by reacting a compound (Z) with Cl2 in the
presence of slaked lime. The compound (Z) is:
(1) C6H5NH2 (1) IV > II > III > I
(2) CH3COOH (2) II > IV > I > III
(3) CH3COCH3 (3) I > III > II > IV
(4) CHCl3 (4) III > I > IV > II
40. The geometry of [Ag(NH3)2]+ and [Cu(NH3)4]2+ are 45. What is correct increasing order of bond lengths of
respectively bond indicated as I, II, III and IV in following
(1) Tetrahedral and octahedral compounds?
(2) Tetrahedral and square planar
(3) Linear and square planar
(4) Square planar and linear
(1) I < II < III < IV
(2) IV < II < III < I
41. Choose the correct option among the following? (3) II < III < IV < I
(1) C > Si > Ge > Sn > Pb (correct order of (4) IV < I < II < III
melting point)
(2) BF3 < BCl3 < BBr3 < BI3(Correct order of 46. Correct order of ionic size is
acidity) (1) Be2+ Li+ < Na+ < Mg2+
(3) Al2Cl6 has two 3c-2e– bonds (2) Be2+ < Mg2+ Li+ < Na+
(4) C > Si > Ge > Sn > Pb (correct order of iH1) (3) Mg2+ < Na+ < Be2+ < Li+
(4) Li+ < Be2+ < Mg2+ < Na+
42. During the reaction given below
CO + I2O5 → CO2 + I2 47. The electron affinities of N, O, S and Cl are
What are the equivalent weights of CO and I2O5 if (1) O = Cl < N = S
their molar masses are M1 and M2 respectively? (2) O < S < Cl < N
M1 M2 M1 M2 (3) N < O < S < Cl
(1) , (2) , (4) O < N < Cl < S
4 5 2 5
M1 M2 M1 M2
(3) , (4) , 48. Carbene is formed as the reaction intermediate in
4 10 2 10
(1) Kolbe’s reaction
(2) Friedel-Crafts reaction
43. Given below are two statements: (3) Perkin reaction
Statement I: Bohr’s theory accounts for the (4) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
stability and line spectrum of Li+ ion.
Statement II: Bohr’s theory was unable to 49. Correct order of boiling points of hydrides of
explain the splitting of spectral lines in the nitrogen family is
presence of a magnetic field. (1) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3
In the light of the above statements, choose the (2) PH3 < AsH3 < NH3 < SbH3
most appropriate answer from the options given (3) NH3 < SbH3 < PH3 < AsH3
below. (4) PH3 < NH3 < SbH3 < AsH3
(1) Both statement I and statement II are true
(2) Statement I is false, but statement II is true 50. pH of HCl aq. solution is 6. If it is 100 times
(3) Both statement I and statement II are false diluted, then the pH of diluted solution will be
(4) Statement I is true, but statement II is false (1) 8 (2) 6
(3) 6.97 (4) 6.5
[7]
Integer Type Questions 3R
value of 10x is______. [Assume CV = for both
51. M(OH)x has Ksp = 4 × 10–12 and solubility 10–4 M. 2
The value of ‘x’ is_____. gases]
52. Kf for H2O is 1.86 K. kg mol–1. If your automobile 57. Ac227 decays through parallel reaction. It has half
radiator holds 1.0 kg of water; how many grams life of 20 years.
of ethylene glycol must be added to get the
freezing point of the solution lowered to –2.8°C?
(Nearest integer)
54. The gm equivalent weight of As2S3 in given 58. Zn|Zn+2(aq) || Cu+2 (aq)|Cu, given cell initially has
reaction is [At. mass S : 32, As : 75), use the concentration 1 M of both Cu+2 (aq) and
(5.5)–1 = 0.18] Zn+2(aq). Calculate the change in emf (in mV) (at
14H2O + As2S3 → 2AsO4−3 + 3SO2 + 22e + 28H − +
298 K temp) of cell at some point of time when
(Nearest integer) [Cu2+] is found to be 10 times of the [Zn2+] in the
solution without change in the volume. [Given
55. The maximum number of atoms present in same 2.303 RT
plane in Cr(CO)6 is _______. = 0.06 volt at 298 K temp.]
F
56. A thermally insulated vessel is divided into two 59. What is oxidation number of Cr in CrO5 Mention
compartments A and B by a partition of insulating your answer in integer value
material. Compartment A has 0.1 mole of Helium at
427°C and 1 atm and compartment B has x mol of 60. Equilibrium constant for a reaction of acid with
Neon at 127°C and 1 atm. If partition is removed strong base is of the form A × 10B (Scientific
and final temperature of gas is 227°C, then the notation). What is value of A + B if Ka = 4×10–8?
SECTION-III (MATHEMATICS)
Single Correct Type Questions
k ( x − )2 − 1, x
61. The values of x satisfying the equality |x2 + 8x + 64. If the function f ( x) = 1 is
k2 cos x, x
7| = |x2 + 4x + 4| + |4x + 3| for x R are
−3 twice differentiable, then the ordered pair (k1, k2)
(1) (–2, ) (2) −,
4 is equal to :
−3 (1) (1, 0)
(3) , −2 (4) None of these
4 1
(2) ,1
2
( ) ( )
2
3log 2−2log log103 +log log106 (3) (1, 1)
62. Let N = 10 where base 1
of the logarithm is 10. The characteristic of the (4) , − 1
2
logarithm of N to the base 3, is equal to
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 5 65. The equation of the locus of the point whose
distances from the point P (3, 4) and the line
63. If the quadratic equations 3x2 + ax + 1 = 0 and 2x2 + x + 3y = 3, are equal, is
bx + 1 = 0 have a common root, then the value of (1) 9x2 + y2 – 6xy – 54x – 62y + 241 = 0
expression |2a2 – 5ab + 3b2| is, where (2a 3b). (2) x2 + 9y2 + 6xy – 54x + 62y – 241 = 0
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 9x2 + 9y2 – 6xy – 54x – 62y – 241 = 0
(3) 2 (4) 3 (4) x2 + y2 – 2xy + 27x + 31y – 120 = 0
[8]
7 9 7 9 43 43
66. If I1 =
1
x2 (1 − x ) 2
dx and
1
I2 =
(1 − x ) 2
x2
dx
(3)
34
(4)
77
0 ( x + 5)
30 10
0
I1 72. The value of
and = 5a3 a where a N, Then the value of x +1 x is
I2 lim x tan −1 − tan −1
x→ x+2 x + 2
a is
(1) 1 (2) –1
(1) 24 (2) 26
1 1
(3) 28 (4) 30 (3) (4) −
2 2
67. Let an = 111......1. The remainder when a124 is
73. If the function f (x) is defined as
n times
divided by 271 is x2
− for x 0
(1) 23 (2) 25 f ( x) = 2 is continuous but not
(3) 27 (4) 29 xn sin 1 for x 0
x
68. If f(x) = sin2x – 3cos2 x + 2ax – 4 is increasing for derivable at x = 0, then the range of n is
all x, then a is an element of (1) (0, 1] (2) [–1, 0)
(1) −2,0 ) (2) ( −, −2 (3) [–1, 1] (4) [–1, 0]
(3) 2, ) (4) ( −, 2 )
74. Let x1 = (tan )cot, x2 = (cot )cot, x3 = (tan ) tan
and x4 = (cot )tan where 0 < < /4, then
69. A signal which can be green or red with
(1) x1 < x2 < x3 < x4
4 1
probability and respectively is received (2) x1 < x3 < x4 < x2
5 5 (3) x1 < x4 < x3 < x2
by the station A and transmitted to B. The (4) x1 < x2 < x4 < x3
probability each station receive signal correctly is
3 75. In a triangle ABC, co-ordinates of A are (1, 2) and
equal to . If signal received by B is green.
4 the equations of the medians through B and C are
The probability that original signal was green. x + y = 5 and x = 4 respectively. Then the
3 6 co-ordinates of B and C will be
(1) (2) (1) (–2, 7), (4, 3) (2) (7, –2), (4, 3)
5 7
(3) (2, 7), (–4, 3) (4) (2, –7), (3, –4)
20 9
(3) (4)
23 20 76. If P be a point on the parabola y2 = 3 (2x – 3) and
M is the foot of perpendicular drawn from P on
70. Let A and B are square matrices of same order the directrix of the parabola, then length of each
satisfying AB = A and BA = B, then (A2021 + side of an equilateral triangle SMP, where S is
B2021)2022 is equal to focus of the parabola, is
(1) 2022 (A + B) (2) 22021 (A + B) (1) 2 (2) 4
(3) 22022 (A + B) (4) A + B (3) 6 (4) 8
[9]
standard deviation is 12, the mean of wi’s is 55
78. The function f : R– → R– defined by and standard deviation of wi’s is 15, then the
f(x) = 10x − 10 x is (where || represents modulus value of 100a + 10b is
function)
85. Urn A contains 6 red & 4 black balls and urn B
(1) One-one-onto function
contains 4 red & 6 black balls. One ball is drawn
(2) One-one into function
at random from urn A & placed in urn B. Then
(3) Many-one onto function
one ball is drawn at random from urn B & placed
(4) Many-one into function
in urn A. If one ball is now drawn at random from
p
cos x − sin x + 1 − x
dx = loge ( f ( x ) ) + g ( x ) + c
urn A, and the probability that it is red is , then
79. e x + sin x + x
q
where c is the constant of integration and f (x) is (p + q) is equal to
positive. Then f (x) + g (x) has the value equal to
(1) ex + sinx + 2x (2) ex + sinx 86. A cubic polynomial y = f(x) is such that A(–1, 3) and
(3) ex – sinx (4) ex + sinx + x B(1, –1) are the relative maximum and relative
minimum points respectively. The value of f(2) is
2018 x − 2019
80. If f(x) = and f(f(x)) = x, then is 87. In the following figure, AS = 4 and SP = 9. The
x+ value of SZ is
equal to
(1) 2018 (2) 2019
(3) –2019 (4) –2018
c c3 c4 − 1 21
a b
then the value of abc (ab + bc + ca) – (a + b + c) is 90. In the expansion of 3 + 3 the term
b a
84. Let x1, x2, x3 …….. xn be n observations. containing same powers of a and b is Pth term,
Let wi = axi + b for i = 1, 2, …, n, where a > 0 and then value of P is
b are constants. If the mean of xi’s is 48 and their
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[10]