PSYCHIATRY

PRELIMS SAMPLEX
SAMPLEX 1

7. Medical School Graduation

I. PRELIMS A. Positive Stress
1. The following are symptoms of Fight or Flight: B. Negative Stress
A. Vasodilation of the arteries to the body’s periphery A. Positive Stress
B. Decreased blood flow rate
C. Bradycardia 8. Death of a pet
D. Hypotension A. Positive Stress
A. Vasodilation of the arteries to the body’s periphery B. Negative Stress
The fight-or-flight is characterized by hypertension, tachycardia,
B. Negative Stress
and increased cardiac output.
9. Failing in the Board Exam
2. The core skills for stress management include:
A. Positive Stress
A. Positive Thinking
B. Negative Stress
B. Acceptance
C. Re-framing B. Negative Stress
D. Cognitive Restructuring
10. Break-up with a sweetheart
D. Cognitive Restructuring
A. Positive Stress
Stress-Management Training includes five skills: Self-Observation,
B. Negative Stress
Cognitive Restructuring, Relaxation Training, Time Management
and Problem Solving. B. Negative Stress

3. The General Adaptation Syndrome was introduced by: 11. Bullying

A. Walter Cannon A. External Stressor
B. John Romano B. Internal Stressor
C. Hans Selye A. External Stressor
D. Karl Jaspers
C. Hans Selye 12. Noise
Hans Selye (1907-1982) developed a model of stress that he A. External Stressor
called general adaptation syndrome. B. Internal Stressor
A. External Stressor
4. Stage of Resistance:
A. Alarm Reaction 13. Brownout
B. Stage of Adaptation A. External Stressor
C. Stage of Exhaustion B. Internal Stressor
D. None of these
A. External Stressor
B. Stage of Adaptation
Resistance Stage – The body adapts to the continued presence of
14. Pessimism
the stressor; In this stage, adaptation is ideally achieved.
A. External Stressor
B. Internal Stressor
5. It is the most common psychosocial variable associated
with illness onset? B. Internal Stressor
A. Exhaustion
B. Stress 15. Ruminating on the Past
C. Anxiety A. External Stressor
D. Depression B. Internal Stressor

B. Stress B. Internal Stressor

6. Birth of a healthy baby boy. 16. Computer Malfunction

A. Positive Stress A. External Stressor
B. Negative Stress B. Internal Stressor

A. Positive Stress A. External Stressor

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17. Rigid Thinking B. Gustatory Hallucination
A. External Stressor C. Cenesthetic Hallucination
B. Internal Stressor D. Hypnopompic Hallucination
b. Internal Stressor C. Cenesthetic Hallucination
Cenesthetic hallucinations are unfounded sensations of altered
18. Perfectionism states in bodily organs. Examples of cenesthetic hallucinations
A. External Stressor include a burning sensation in the brain, a pushing sensation in
B. Internal Stressor the blood vessels, and a cutting sensation in the bone marrow.
Bodily distortions may also occur.
B. Internal Stressor

27. Features weighing towards a good prognosis in

19. Getting Robbed
schizophrenia include:
A. External Stressor
A. A family history of schizophrenia
B. Internal Stressor
B. Poor premorbid history
A. External Stressor C. Disorganized features
D. Undulating course
20. Obsessive-Compulsive Thinking
D. Undulating Course
A. External Stressor Features weighing toward a good prognosis in Schizophrenia
B. Internal Stressor include:
B. Internal Stressor Late Onset
Obvious Precipitating Factors
21. Stomach ache Acute Onset
A. Physical Symptom of Stress Good Premorbid Social, Sexual, and Work Histories
B. Mental Symptom of Stress Mood Disorder Symptoms (especially depressive disorders)
C. Behavioral Symptom of Stress Married
D. Emotional Symptom of Stress Family History of Mood Disorders
Good Support Systems
A. Physical Symptom of Stress Positive Symptoms

22. Panic Attacks 28. Possible risk factors for the development of schizophrenia
A. Physical Symptom of Stress A. Increased number of birth complications
B. Mental Symptom of Stress B. Social class
C. Behavioral Symptom of Stress C. Recent immigration status
D. Emotional Symptom of Stress D. All are correct
Mental Symptom of Stress D. All are correct

23. Jumpiness 29. Childhood schizophrenia

A. Physical Symptom of Stress A. Tends to have a chronic course
B. Mental Symptom of Stress B. Tends to have abrupt
C. Behavioral Symptom of Stress C. Tends to have a better prognosis than adult schizophrenia
D. Emotional Symptom of Stress D. Is not diagnosed using the same symptoms as are used for
C. Behavioral Symptom of Stress adult schizophrenia
A. Tends to have a chronic course
24. Rage The diagnosis of childhood schizophrenia may be based on the
A. Physical Symptom of Stress same symptoms used for adult schizophrenia. Its onset is usually
B. Mental Symptom of Stress insidious, its course tends to be chronic, and the prognosis is
C. Behavioral Symptom of Stress mostly unfavorable.
D. Emotional Symptom of Stress
30. Emil Kraeplin
Emotional Symptom of Stress
A. Latinized the term defence precoe into dementia precox
B. Coined the term schizophrenia
25. Unhappiness
C. Expressed the presence of schisms among thought, emotion,
A. Physical Symptom of Stress and behavior in patients with the disorder.
B. Mental Symptom of Stress
D. Described psychosis as defence precoe
C. Behavioral Symptom of Stress
D. Emotional Symptom of Stress A. Latinized the term defence precoe into dementia precox

D. Emotional Symptom of Stress

31. He coined the term Schizophrenia
A. Eugen Bleuler
26. Gerry has schizophrenia. He feels that his brain ir burning. B. Emil Kraeplin
He is most likely experiencing
C. Kurt Schneider
A. Delusional Feeling
D. None of these

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 A. Eugen Bleuler A. the patient believes that another person has been
Eugen Bleuler (1857) coined the term Schizophrenia. physically transformed into themselves.

32. He described a number of first-rank symptoms of 38. A rare condition in which a non-pregnant patient has the
schizophrenia that are considered of pragmatic value in signs and symptoms of pregnancy.
making the diagnosis of schizophrenia, although they are A. Bulimia
not specific to the disease. B. Pica
A. Eugen Bleuler C. Hypersomnia
B. Emil Kraeplin D. Pseudocyesis
C. Kurt Schneider D. Pseudocyesis
D. None of these Pseudocyesis is a rare condition in which a patient has the signs
C. Kurt Schneider and symptoms of pregnancy such as abdominal distention, breast
Kurt Schneider (1887-1976) contributed a description of first- enlargement, pigmentation, cessation of menses, and morning
rank symptoms, which, he stressed, were not specific for sickness.
schizophrenia and were not to be rigidly applied but were useful
for making diagnoses. 39. A patient’s belief that insects are crawling in his arm is
called:
33. The postpartum blues A. Illusion
A. Occur in 50% of women after childbirth B. Paresthesia
B. Self-limited C. Dyskinesia
C. Begin shortly after childbirth and lessens in severity over the D. Formication
course of a week. D. Formication
D. All are correct Formication is when a patient believes that bugs are crawling over
D. All are correct. the skin; often associated with cocainism.

34. Postpartum psychosis 40. Patient Bogart went for consult clinic. He was had
disheveled hair with poor personal hygiene and poor eye
A. Occurs more commonly in multiple gravid women
contact. he gave irrelevant answers to queries and would
B. IS rarely correlated with perinatal complications
burst into laughter without any apparent reason. What could
C. Almost always begins within eight weeks of delivery
he be experiencing?
D. Is essentially an episode of a psychotic disorder
A. Paranoid Schizophrenia
C. Almost always begins within eight weeks of delivery. B. Catatonic Schizophrenia
Postpartum Psychosis sometimes called as Puerperal Psychosis; C. Disorganized Schizophrenia
It is an example of a psychotic disorder not otherwise specified D. Residual Schizophrenia
that occurs in women who have recently delivered a baby.
C. Disorganized Schizophrenia
35. The patient believes that someone close to him has been
replaced by an exact double. 41. The patient with this disorder would occasionally show
peculiar behaviors or thought disorders but do not
A. Cotard’s Syndrome
consistently manifest psychotic symptoms.
B. Clerambault’s Syndrome
A. Latent Schizophrenia
C. Fregoli’s Syndrome
B. Disorganized Schizophrenia
D. Capgra’s Syndrome
C. Undifferentiated Schizophrenia
D. Capgra’s Syndrome D. Paranoid Schizophrenia
Capgra’s Syndrome is a belief that a familiar person has been
replaced by an impostor. A. Latent Schizophrenia
Also termed as Borderline Schizophrenia; These patients may
occasionally with peculiar behaviors or thought disorders but do
36. In schizoaffective disorder, all of the following indicate a
not consistently manifest psychotic symptoms
poor prognosis, except:
A. Depressive type
42. The negative symptoms of Schizophrenia does NOT
B. No precipitating factor
include:
C. Bipolar type
A. Alogia
D. A predominance of psychotic symptoms
B. Affective Flattening
C. Bipolar type C. Avolition
D. Aggressivity
37. Delusional of doubles
D. Aggressivity
A. The patient believes that another person has been physically
In the Active Phase of Schizophrenia, the following manifestations
transformed into themselves
must be present for atleast one month:
B. Is caused by frontal lobe lesions
Delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, grossly
C. Is an early stage of schizophrenia
disorganized behavior, and negative symptoms such as flat affect,
D. All are true avolition, and alogia.

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43. Which of the following is not typically associated with 49. Erotomania, the delusional disorder in which the person
Catatonia? makes repeated efforts to contact the object of the delusion
A. Mutism through letter, phone call and stalking, is also referred to as
B. Verbigeration A. Cotard’s Syndrome
C. Stereotypes B. Clerambault’s Syndrome
D. Waxy Flexibility C. Fregoli’s Syndrome
B. Verbigeration
D. Capgra’s Syndrome
Associated features of Catatonia include: Stereotypies. B. Clerambault’s Syndrome
Mannerisms, Waxy Flexibilities, and Mutism is particularly Erotomania is a delusional belief, more common in women than in
common. men, that someone is deeply in love with them; also known as
Clerambault- Kandinsky Complex.
44. Late onset of Schizophrenia
A. Is clinically distinguishable from Schizophrenia 50. Delusional Disorder
B. Is more common in Men A. Is less common than Schizophrenia
C. Has an asset after 60 B. Is cause by frontal lobe lesion
D. Is associated with a preponderance of paranoid symptoms C. Is an early stage of Schizophrenia
D. Is associated with a preponderance of paranoid symptoms
D. Usually begins by age 20
Late Onset Schizophrenia is clinically indistinguishable from A. Is less common than Schizophrenia
Schizophrenia, has an onset of after 45 years, tends to appear Delusional Disorder are false fixed beliefs that are not keeping
more frequently in women, and tends to be characterized by a with the culture. With a later onset than schizophrenia,
preponderance of paranoid symptoms. neurological conditions are most commonly associated with
delusions affecting the limbic system and basal ganglia.
45. Appropriate Psychosocial Therapies in the Management
and Treatment of Schizophrenia include: 51. The best documented risk factor for delusional disorder is:
A. Social Skills Training A. Sensory Impairment
B. Individual Psychotherapy B. Recent Immigration
C. Group Therapy C. Family History
D. All are correct D. Social Isolation
D. All are correct. C. Family History

46. One of the following statements is a factor that does not 52. Loss of Normal Speech Melody is:
increase the risk of Schizophrenia A. Stuttering
A. Having a family member with Schizophrenia B. Stammering
B. Having a history of temporal love epilepsy C. Aphonia
C. Having a deviant course of personality maturation and D. Dysprosody
development
D. Dysprosody
D. Having previously attempted suicide
D. Having previously attempted suicide 53. Physiological Disturbances associated with Mood:
A. Hyperphagia
47. In Schizoaffective Disorder, the following variables B. Anorexia
indicates good prognosis: C. Hypersomnia
A. Depressive Type D. All are correct
B. No precipitating Factor
D. All are correct
C. A predominance of psychotic symptoms
D. Bipolar Type
54. Perceptual Disturbances include all of the following except:
D. Bipolar Type A. Hypnagogic Experiences
B. Hallucinations
48. Postpartum Psychosis C. Echolalia
A. Occurs more commonly in multigravida women D. Depersonalization
B. Is rarely correlated with perinatal complications
C. Echolalia
C. Almost always begins within the first 8 weeks of pregnancy
D. Is essentially an episode of a psychotic disorder
55. A psychiatric patient, although coherent, never goes to the
C. Almost always begins within the first 8 weeks of point, has a disturbance in the form of thought called:
pregnancy. A. Tangentiality
Postpartum Psychosis sometimes called as Puerperal Psychosis; B. Circumstantiality
It is an example of a psychotic disorder not otherwise specified C. Word Salad
that occurs in women who have recently delivered a baby. D. Blocking
A. Tangentiality

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 Tangentiality is the inability to have goal directed associations of E. Gatophobia
thought; speaker never gets from point to desired goal
C. Acrophobia

56. Sundowning 63. Fear of Cats:

A. Usually occurs in the young A. Ophidiophobia
B. Is associated with stupor B. Triskaidekaphobia
C. Is the result of overmedication C. Acrophobia
D. Occurs frequently as a function of mania D. Amathophobia
C. Is the result of overmedication E. Gatophobia
E. Gatophobia
57. Disturbances in attention include: Ailurophobia is the fear of cats; also known as Elurophobia,
A. Hypervigilance Gatophobia, or Felinophobia.
B. Twilight State
C. Somnolence 64. Fear of Number 13:
D. Sundowning A. Ophidiophobia
A. Hypervigilance B. Triskaidekaphobia
C. Acrophobia
58. Coexistence of two opposing impulses: D. Amathophobia
A. Anxiety E. Gatophobia
B. Ambivalence B. Triskaidekaphobia
C. Guilt
D. Abreaction 65. Fear of Snakes:
B. Ambivalence A. Ophidiophobia
Ambivalence is the coexistence of two opposing impulses toward B. Triskaidekaphobia
the same thing in the same person at the same time. C. Acrophobia
D. Amathophobia
59. Emotional discharge after recalling a painful experience: E. Gatophobia
A. Anxiety A. Ophidiophobia
B. Ambivalence
C. Guilt 66. Fear of dust:
D. Abreaction A. Ophidiophobia
D. Abreaction B. Triskaidekaphobia
Abreaction is the emotional release or discharge after recalling a C. Acrophobia
painful experience. D. Amathophobia
E. Gatophobia
60. Feeling of apprehension
D. Amathophobia
A. Anxiety
B. Ambivalence
67. Illusion of Auditory Recognition:
C. Guilt
A. Déjà vu
D. Abreaction
B. Deja entendu
A. Anxiety C. Deja pense
Anxiety is the feeling of apprehension caused by anticipation of D. Jamais vu
danger, which may be internal or external.
B. Deja Entendu
61. Emotion resulting from doing something perceived as
68. Regarding new thought as a repetition of a previous
wrong:
thought:
A. Anxiety
A. Déjà vu
B. Ambivalence
B. Deja entendu
C. Guilt
C. Deja pense
D. Abreaction
D. Jamais vu
C. Guilt
C. Deja Pense
Guilt is the emotion secondary to doing what is perceived as
Deja pense is an illusion that a new thought is recognized as a
wrong.
thought previously felt or expressed.

62. Fear of heights:

69. Feeling of unfamiliarity with a familiar situation:
A. Ophidiophobia
A. Déjà vu
B. Triskaidekaphobia
B. Deja entendu
C. Acrophobia
C. Deja pense
D. Amathophobia
D. Jamais vu

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 D. Jamais Vu D. Klein Levine Syndrome
Jamais vu is a false feeling of unfamiliarity with a real situation that C. Restless Leg Syndrome
a person has experienced. In restless leg syndrome, persons feel deep sensations of
creeping inside the calves whenever sitting or lying down. The
70. Regarding a new situation as a repetition of a previous dysesthesias are rarely painful but are agonizingly relentless and
experience: cause an almost irresistible urge to move the legs; thus, this
A. Déjà vu syndrome interferes with sleep and with falling asleep.
B. Deja entendu
C. Deja pense 76. Spontaneous but incoherent speech:
D. Jamais vu A. Broca’s aphasia
B. Coprophasia
A. Déjà vu
C. Syntactical aphasia
Déjà vu is an illusion or visual recognition in which a new situation
is incorrectly regarded as a repetition of a previous experience. D. Wernicke’s aphasia
D. Wernicke’s Aphasia
71. Occur as a part of a seizure activity, and are typically brief Sensory Aphasia is the organic loss of ability to comprehend the
and stereotyped: meaning of words; Fluid and spontaneous but inhcoherent and
A. Haptic hallucinations nonsensical speech; “Wernicke’s fluent and receptive aphasia.”
B. Olfactory hallucination
C. Ictal hallucinations 77. The Hamilton Anxiety Rating Scale
D. Autoscopic hallucinations A. Is a ten-item scale
B. Includes an item on mood
C. Ictal Hallucinations
The symptoms during the ictal event are determined primarily by
C. Addresses suicidality
the site of origin in the brain for the seizure and by the pattern of D. Is exclusively history-based
the spread of seizure activity through the brain; Brief, B. Includes an item on mood.
disorganized, and uninhibited behavior characterizes ictal events.
78. Obsessive-Compulsive Symptoms
72. False belief about a spouse’s jealousy: A. Brief Psychiatric Rating Scales
A. Delusional jealousy B. Hamilton Rating Scale
B. Fregoli’s phenomenon C. Yale-Brown Scale
C. Delusion of doubles D. Social and Occupational Functioning Scale
D. Erotomania E. None of the above
A. Delusional Jealousy C. Yale-Brown Scale
Delusion of Infidelity/Delusional Jealousy is a false belief derived Yale-Brown Scale measures the severity of symptoms in OCD;
from pathological jealousy about a person’s lover being unfaithful. This is the standard instrument for assessing OCD severity.

73. Strangers are identified as familiar persons in the patient’s 79. Psychotic Disorders
life: A. Brief Psychiatric Rating Scales
A. Fregoli’s phenomenon B. Hamilton Rating Scale
B. Delusion of doubles C. Yale-Brown Scale
C. Erotomania D. Social and Occupational Functioning Scale
D. Capgra’s Syndrome
A. Brief Psychiatric Rating Scales
A. Fregoli’s Phenomenon Rating Scales used to assess Psychotic Disorders include: Brief
Fregoli’s Phenomenon is a variant of Capgra’s Syndrome; It is a Psychiatric Rating Scales (BPRS), Positive & Negative Syndrome
delusion that prosecutors or familiar persons can assume the Scale (PANSS), Scale for the Assessment of Positive Symptoms
guise of strangers. (SAPS) and Scales for the Assessment of Negative Symptoms
(SANS).
74. Sudden attacks of irresistible sleepiness:
A. Cataplexy 80. Depression and Anxiety
B. Narcolepsy A. Brief Psychiatric Rating Scales
C. Restless Leg Syndrome B. Hamilton Rating Scale
D. Klein Levine Syndrome C. Yale-Brown Scale
B. Narcolepsy D. Social and Occupational Functioning Scale
Narcolepsy is marked by sleep attacks, usually with loss of muscle B. Hamilton Rating Scale
tone. Hamilton Rating Scale for Depression (HAM-D), Hamilton Anxiety
Rating Scale (HAM-A).
75. Peculiar feelings during sleep causing an irresistible need
to move around: 81. Abnormal Involuntary Movements:
A. Cataplexy A. Brief Psychiatric Rating Scales
B. Narcolepsy B. Hamilton Rating Scale
C. Restless Leg Syndrome C. Yale-Brown Scale

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 D. Social and Occupational Functioning Scale C. 2013
See Ratio for Number 84.
E. None Of The Above
Abnormal Involuntary Movement Scale (AIMS) is a 12-item
clinician-rated scale to assess severity of dyskinesias (specifically, 86. This is the official classification system used in Europe and
orofacial movements and extremity and truncal movements) in many other part of the world:
patients taking neuroleptic medications. Additional items assess A. DSM 5
the overall severity, incapacitation, and the patient’s level of B. ICD 10
awareness of the movements, and distress associated with them. C. Both of these
D. None of these
82. The purpose of Classification is/are: B. ICD 10
A. To distinguish one psychiatric diagnosis from another, so that
clinicians can offer the most effective treatment. 87. Mild Intellectual Disability
B. To provide a common language among healthcare A. IQ = 50-55 to 70
professionals. B. IQ = 30-40 to 50-55
C. To explore still unknown causes of many mental disorders. C. IQ = 20-25 to 35-40
D. All of these D. IQ = Below 20-25
D. All of these A. IQ = 50-55 to 70
Purpose of Systems of Classification for Psychiatric Diagnoses: In DSM-5, Intellectual Disability (ID) is classified as mild,
- To distinguish one psychiatric diagnosis from another. moderate, severe, or profound based on overall functioning;
- To provide a common language among health care
professionals. In DSM-IV, it was classified according to intelligence quotient (IQ):
- To explore the still unknown causes of many mental disorders. - Mild (50-55 to 70)
- Moderate (35-40 to 50-55)
83. The most important Psychiatric Classification/s: - Severe (20-25 to 3 5-40)
A. Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM)
developed by the American Psychiatric Association in 88. This is characterized by difficulty in fluency, rate, and
collaboration with other groups of mental health professionals rhythm of speech:
B. International Classification of Diseases (ICD), developed by A. Stuttering
the World Health Organization B. Language Disorder
C. Both of these C. Speech Sound Disorder
D. None of these D. Pragmatic Communication Disorder
C. Both of these A. Stuttering
The two most important Psychiatric Classifications are The Childhood-Onset Fluency Disorder (Stuttering) is characterized by
Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM) and difficulty in fluency, rate, and rhythm of speech.
the International Classification of Diseases (ICD).
89. The central features of the disorder are persistent
84. The First Edition of DSM was published in the year: inattention, hyperactivity and impulsivity, or both that cause
A. 1950 clinically significant impairment in functioning.
B. 1952 A. Autism
C. 1968 B. ADHD
D. 1980 C. Dyslexia
B. 1952 D. None of these
B. ADHD
Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)’s Central
Features:
- Persistent inattention
- Hyperactivity and Impulsivity
- Both causes clinically significant impairment in functioning

90. Tourette’s Disorder

A. Tic Disorder
B. Developmental coordination Disorder
C. Stereotypic Movement Disorder
D. None of these
A. Tic Disorder
85. The DSM 5 was published in: Tourette’s Disorders is a type of tic Disorder characterized by
A. 2011 motor and vocal tics, including coprolalia.
B. 2012
C. 2013
D. 2014

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91. In Schizophrenia, this is the stage where there is
deterioration in function before the onset of the active 96. An eating disorder characterized by loss of body weight
psychotic phase: and refusal to eat. Appetite is usually intact.
A. Prodrome Phase A. Anorexia Nervosa
B. Active Phase B. Bulimia Nervosa
C. Residual Phase C. Binge Eating Disorder
D. None of these D. None of these
A. Prodrome Phase A. Anorexia Nervosa
Three Phases of Schizophrenia Recognized by Clinicians:
- The Prodrome Phase: Deterioration in function before the onset 97. Eating of non-nutritional substances (e.g., Starch):
of the active psychotic phase. A. Pica
- The Active Phase: Delusions, hallucinations, disorganized B. Rumination Disorder
speech, grossly disorganized behavior; or negative symptoms C. Both of these
such as flat affect, avolition, and alogia – must be present for at D. None of these
least 1 month.
- The Residual Phase: Follows the active phase. A. Pica
B. Rumination Disorder – essential feature is repeated
regurgitation of food, usually beginning in infancy of childhood.
92. Follie a deux:
A. Shared Delusional Disorder
98. This is characterized by emotional instability, excitability,
B. Erotomania
overreactivity, vanity, immaturity, dependency, and self-
C. Schizoaffective Disorder
dramatization that is attention seeking and seductive.
D. Brief Psychotic Disorder
A. Borderline Personality Disorder
A. Shared Delusional Disorder B. Histrionic Personality Disorder
Follie A Deux is also known as Shared Delusional Disorder, C. Narcissistic Personality Disorder
termed in DSM-IV, renamed to Delusional Symptoms in partner D. None of these
with Delusional Disorder in DM-5.
B. Histrionic Personality Disorder
93. A mild, chronic mood disorder with numerous depressive
and hypomanic episodes over the course of at least 2 years. 99. Rubbing against another person:
A. Cyclothymia A. Voyeurism
B. Dysthymia B. Transvestism
C. Bipolar I Affective disorder C. Frotteurism
D. Bipolar II Affective Disorder D. Pedophilia

A. Cyclothymia C. Frotteurism
Cyclothymic Disorder (cyclothymia) is the bipolar equivalent of A. Voyeurism – Watching Sexual Acts
Dysthymic Disorder; It is a mild, chronic mood disorder with B. Transvestism – Cross-Dressing
numerous depressive and hypomanic episode over the course of D. Pedophilia – Sexual attraction toward children
at least 2 years.
100. Watching Sexual Acts:
94. Persistent Depressive Disorder A. Voyeurism
A. Dysthymia B. Transvestism
B. Major Depressive Disorder C. Frotteurism
C. Melancholia D. Pedophilia
D. Atypical Depression A. Voyeurism
A. Dysthymia B. Transvestism – Cross-Dressing
Dysthymia is also known as Persistent Depressive Disorder. C. Frotteurism – Rubbing against another person
D. Pedophilia – Sexual attraction toward children
95. This is characterized by the fear of being embarrassed or
humiliated in front of others. 101. Cross-Dressing:
A. Social Anxiety Disorder A. Voyeurism
B. Social Phobia B. Transvestism
C. Both of these C. Frotteurism
D. None of these D. Pedophilia

C. Both of these B. Transvestism

Social Anxiety or Social Phobia is characterized by the fear of
being embarrassed or humiliated in front of others.

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 PSYCHIATRY
MIDTERMS SAMPLEX
SAMPLEX 2

I. MIDTERMS 7. Depressive episodes in adolescents are characterized by

1. The episode lasts for at least 4 days and is not sufficiently A. School phobia
severe to cause impairment in social or occupational B. Social isolation
functioning and without psychosis C. Concurrent physical illness
A. Mania D. Sexual promiscuity
B. Hypomania
D. Sexual Promiscuity
C. Cyclothymia
D. Dysthymia
8. Anhedonia
B. Hypomania A. Fatigue
A hypomanic episode lasts at least 4 days and is similar to a B. Loss of interest in pleasurable activities
manic episode except that it is not sufficiently severe to cause C. Loss of appetite
impairment in social or occupational functioning, and no psychotic D. Irritability
features are present.
B. Loss of interest in pleasurable activities
2. In Bipolar Disorder
9. Features associated with increased risk for completed
A. Manic episodes are more common in males
suicide
B. Depressive episodes are more common in women
A. Male
C. Both of these
B. Single
D. None of these
C. Both of these
C. Both of these D. All of these
A. Male
3. Comorbidity/ies of Bipolar Disorder
Marital status had no significant effect on suicide risk.
A. Panic disorder
B. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
10. Inappropriate guilt
C. Alcohol abuse
A. Depression
D. All of these
B. Mania
D. All of these C. Both of these
D. All of these
4. The Bipolar Disorder characterized by at least four
A. Depression
episodes of a mood disturbance in the previous 12 months
that meet criteria for a major depressive, manic, mixed, or
11. Suicidal thoughts
hypomanic episode.
A. Depression
A. Cyclothymia
B. Mania
B. Major depressive disorder
C. Both of these
C. Dysthymia
D. All of these
D. All of these
A. Depression
B. Major Depressive Disorder

12. Distractibility
5. The Psychodynamic Factor/s involved in Depression
A. Depression
A. Real or imagined loss
B. Mania
B. Introjection of the departed object
C. Both of these
C. Feeling of anger towards the lost object is directed
towards the self D. All of these
D. All of these B. Mania
D. All of these
13. Grandiosity
6. Sexual problem/s in depressed patients A. Depression
A. Abnormal menses B. Mania
B. Decreased sexual performance C. Both of these
C. Both of these D. All of these
D. None of these B. Mania
C. Both of these

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14. Decreased need for sleep B. Normal Anxiety
A. Depression
B. Mania 22. Andy has been experiencing muscle tension, irritability,
C. Both of these difficulty sleeping and restlessness. He had excessive
D. All of these anxiety and worry about several activities which is difficult
to control.
C. Both of these
A. Panic disorder
B. Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)
15. Over-involvement in pleasurable activities
C. Phobia
A. Depression
D. None of these
B. Mania
C. Both of these B. Generalized Anxiety Disorder
D. All of these
23. Carlos came for consult due to sleeplessness. He has
B. Mania
been experiencing discrete periods of intense fear or
discomfort, accompanied by palpitations, trembling,
16. Anhedonia
shortness of breath, sweating and feelings of choking with
A. Depression intense fear and a sense of impending death and doom.
B. Mania
A. Panic disorder
C. Both of these B. Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)
D. All of these C. Phobia
A. Depression D. None of these
A. Panic Disorder
17. Anxiety
A. Depression
24. Arminda was in the office when she was trapped after an
B. Mania earthquake two months ago. She was rescued after 48
C. Both of these hours. Since then, she had recurrent or intrusive or
D. All of these distressing recollection of the event and distressing
A. Depression dreams of what happened. She may be having
A. Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
18. Irritability B. OCD
A. Depression C. Panic disorder
B. Mania D. Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)
C. Both of these A. Posttraumatic Stress Disorder
D. All of these
B. Mania 25. Pipay has been avoiding parties and places where she
may be exposed to unfamiliar people or to possible
19. Difficulty in concentration scrutiny by others for fear of being embarrassed
A. Depression A. Space phobia
B. Mania B. Social phobia
C. Both of these C. Specific phobia
D. All of these D. None of these
A. Depression B. Social Phobia

20. Mood 26. Clinical manifestations of Generalized anxiety disorder

A. Pervasive emotion (GAD)
B. Sustained emotion A. Feeling restless, keyed up or on edge
C. Colors a person’s perception of the world B. Having tense, tight or sore muscles
D. All of these C. Mind going blank
D. All of these
D. All of these
D. All of these
21. A diffuse, unpleasant, vague sense of apprehension, often
accompanied by autonomic symptoms, such as headache, 27. The inability to verbalize feeling states w/c is a common
perspiration, palpitations, tightness in the chest, mild feature of those who have survived severe trauma
stomach discomfort, and restlessness as indicated by an A. Agoraphobia
inability to sit or stand still for long. B. Panic attack
A. Panic attack C. Alexithymia
B. Normal anxiety D. All of these
C. Both of these C. Alexithymia
D. None of these

Transers: MGA KA-UTAK 2 of 8

28. Psychosocial factors involved in GAD according to the A. Agoraphobia
psychoanalytic school B. Space phobia
A. anxiety is a symptom of unresolved unconscious conflicts C. Social phobia
B. respond to incorrectly and inaccurately perceived D. None of these
dangers
B. Space Phobia
C. an overly negative view of the person’s own ability to
cope
35. A discrete period of intense fear or discomfort,
D. selective attention to negative details in the environment
accompanied by at least four somatic or cognitive
A. Anxiety is a symptom of unresolved unconscious conflicts symptoms such as palpitations, trembling, shortness of
breath, sweating and feelings of choking.
29. This may occur with agoraphobia A. Worry
A. Panic disorder B. Panic attack
B. Generalized anxiety disorder C. Social phobia
C. OCD D. None of these
D. None of these B. Panic Attack
A. Panic disorder
36. Substance/s that can cause anxiety
30. Clinical feature/s of phobia include: A. Caffeine
A. Arousal of severe anxiety when the patient is exposed to B. Amphetamines
a specific situation or object or when the patient even C. LSD
anticipates exposure to the situation or object D. All of these
B. Major finding on mental status examination is the
A. Caffeine
presence of irrational and ego-dystonic fear of the specific
situation, activity, or with object
37. The highest prevalence of generalized anxiety disorder
C. Both of these
symptoms in a medical disorder seems to be in
D. None of these
A. Graves’ disease (hyperthyroidism)
C. Both of these B. MI
C. Sjogren’s syndrome
31. Recurrent and persistent thoughts, impulses, or images D. None of these
that are experienced at some time during the disturbance,
A. Grave’s disease (hyperthyroidism)
as intrusive and inappropriate and that cause marked
anxiety or distress.
38. It is a disorder in which skin picking is the target of self-
A. Compulsions
inflicted injury
B. Obsessions
A. Trichotillomania
C. Delusions
B. Excoriation disorder
D. None of these
C. Both of these
B. Obsessions D. None of these
B. Excoriation disorder
32. The most common type of obsession
A. Obsession of contamination
39. Hair-pulling disorder is also known as
B. Pathological doubt
A. Trichotillomania
C. Obsession of symmetry
B. Excoriation disorder
D. None of these
C. Both of these
A. Obsession of Contamination D. None of these
A. Trichotillomania
33. Behaviors or mental acts aimed at preventing or reducing
distress or preventing some dreaded event or situation;
40. The disorder is characterized by acquiring and not
discarding things that are deemed to be of little or no value
however, these behaviors or mental acts either are not
resulting in excessive clutter of living spaces
connected in a realistic way with what they are designed to
neutralize or prevent or are clearly excessive. A. Obsessive compulsive disorder
A. Compulsions B. Mania
B. Obsessions C. Hoarding disorder
C. Both of these D. None of these
D. None of these C. Hoarding Disorder
A. Compulsions

34. Fear of falling when there is no nearby support, such as

wall or chair; abnormal function in right hemisphere with
visual-spatial impairment.

Transers: MGA KA-UTAK 3 of 8

41. Anorexia nervosa is associated with D. All of these
A. Depression D. All of these
B. Social phobia (1) an individual voluntarily reduces and maintains an unhealthy
C. Obsessive compulsive disorder degree of weight loss or fails to gain weight proportional to growth;
D. All of these (2) an individual experiences an intense fear of becoming fat, has
D. All of these a relentless drive for thinness despite obvious medical starvation,
or both;
(3) an individual experiences significant starvation-related medical
symptomatology, often, but not exclusively, abnormal reproductive
hormone functioning, but also hypothermia, bradycardia,
orthostasis, and severely reduced body fat stores; and
(4) the behaviors and psychopathology are present for at least 3
months.

44. Patients with Anorexia Nervosa exhibit unusual

behavior/s such as:
A. Hiding food all over their house
B. Carrying large quantities of candies in their pockets and
purses.
C. While eating, they try to dispose the food in their napkins
or hide it in their pockets and spend a great time
rearranging the pieces on their plates.
D. All of these
`wq2

E. All of the Above

- They hide food all over the house and frequently carry
large quantities of candies in their pockets and purses.
- While eating meals, they try to dispose of food in their
napkins or hide it in their pockets.
- They cut their meat into very small pieces and spend a
great deal of time rearranging the pieces on their plates.

45. The patient with Anorexia Nervosa who may be

relentlessly and compulsively overactive, with athletic
injuries is of this subtype.
A. Food restricting category
B. Purging category
C. Both of these
D. None of these
42. Neurotransmitter/s involved in regulating eating
A. Food Restricting Category
behaviour
A. Serotonin
46. Purging category
B. Dopamine
A. patients alternate attempts at rigorous dieting with
C. Norepinephrine
intermittent binge
D. All of these
B. represents a secondary compensation for the unwanted
C. Norepinephrine calories.
Neurochemically, diminished norepinephrine turnover and activity C. both of these
are suggested by reduced 3-methoxy-4-hydroxyphenylglycol D. none of these
(MHPG) levels in the urine and the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) of
some patients with anorexia nervosa. C. Both of these

43. Anorexia nervosa is present when 47. Patient may be socially isolated and have depressive
disorder symptoms and diminished sexual interest
A. An individual voluntarily reduces and maintains an
unhealthy degree of weight loss or fails to gain weight A. Food restricting category
proportional to growth. B. Purging category
B. An individual experiences an intense fear of becoming C. both of these
fat, has a relentless drive for thinness despite obvious D. none of these
medical starvation, or both. C. Both of these
C. An individual experiences significant starvation-related
medical symptomatology, often, but not exclusively, 48. Over exercising and perfectionist may be common in
abnormal reproductive hormone functioning, but also A. Food restricting category
hypothermia, bradycardia, orthostasis, and severely B. Purging category
reduced body fat stores.

Transers: MGA KA-UTAK 4 of 8

 C. both of these B. Bulimia Nervosa
D. none of these
A. Food Restricting category 55. Social factor/s involved in Bulimia Nervosa
A. Patients tend to be a high achievers and to respond to
49. Treatment for anorexia nervosa societal pressures to be slender
A. Hospitalization B. Patients are depressed and have increased familial
B. Psychotherapy depression
C. Medication/s C. Patients describe their parents as neglectful and rejecting
D. All of these D. All of the above
D. All of these D. All of the Above

50. Many adolescent patients with this disorder have delayed 56. Psychological factor/s associated with Bulimia Nervosa
psychosocial sexual development; in adults, a markedly A. Patients are more outgoing, impulsive and angry
decreased interest in sex often accompanies onset of the B. Alcohol dependence, shoplifting, and emotional lability
disorder. including suicide attempts are associated with bulimia
A. Anorexia nervosa nervosa
B. Bulimia nervosa C. Both of these
C. both of these D. None of these
D. none of these B. Both of these
A. Anorexia Nervosa
57. Patients with Bulimia nervosa may have
51. This disorder is characterized by episodes of binge eating A. A morbid fear of fatness
combined with inappropriate ways of stopping weight gain B. A relentless drive for thinness
A. Anorexia nervosa C. A disproportionate amount of self-evaluation that
B. Bulimia nervosa depends on body weight and shape
C. both of these D. All of these
D. none of these D. All of these
B. Bulimia Nervosa
58. Patients with bulimia nervosa have increased rates
52. Derived from the terms of “ox-hunger” from Greek and A. anxiety disorders
from Latin term “nervous involvement” B. bipolar disorder
A. Anorexia nervosa C. dissociative disorders
B. Bulimia nervosa D. all of these
C. both of these E. All of these
D. none of these Patients with bulimia nervosa also have increased rates of anxiety
B. Bulimia Nervosa disorders, bipolar I disorder, dissociative disorders, and histories
of sexual abuse.
53. Criteria for metabolic syndrome include
A. Type 2 diabetes 59. Patient eats an abnormally large amount of food over a
B. BMI>30kg/m3 and hypertension short time.
C. Both of these A. Binge eating disorder
D. None of these B. Anorexia nervosa
C. Both of these
A. Type 2 Diabetes
D. None of these
A. Binge Eating disorder

60. The consumption of large amounts of food after the

evening meal is a feature of this disorder.
A. Bulimia Nervosa
B. Purging Disorder
C. Night Eating Syndrome
D. None of these
C. Night Eating Disorder

54. Which of the two is more prevalent? 61. La Belle Indifference is often associated with
A. Anorexia nervosa A. Illness Anxiety Disorder
B. Bulimia nervosa B. Functional neurological symptom disorder (Conversion
C. both of these Disorder)
D. none of these C. Somatic Symptom Disorder (Hypochondriasis)

Transers: MGA KA-UTAK 5 of 8

 D. Body Dysmorphic Disorder C. Body Dysmorphic Disorder
B. Functional Neurological Symptom Disorder (Conversion
Disorder) 68. The following are clinical features of pain disorder
A. Low back pain
62. This disorder is characterized by preoccupation with B. Headache
having or acquiring a serious illness. There is a high level C. Atypical facial pain
of anxiety about health and the individual is easily alarmed D. All of these
about personal health status.
D. All of these
A. Body Dysmorphic Disorder
B. Illness Anxiety Disorder
69. Patients with this disorder simulate, induce, or aggravate
C. Pain Disorder
illness to receive medical attention, regardless of whether
D. Functional neurological symptom disorder (Conversion
or not they are ill. The motivation is simply to receive
Disorder)
medical care and to partake in the medical system.
B. Illness Anxiety Disorder A. Factitious Disorder
B. Pain Disorder
63. Treatment for hypochondriasis C. Functional neurological symptom disorder (Conversion
A. Cognitive behavioral therapy Disorder)
B. Antidepressants like SSRIs D. All of these
C. Both of these A. Factitious Disorder
D. None of these
C. Both of these 70. Mong always complains of headache. He thinks that he is
suffering from brain cancer despite being told by his
64. Unexplained headache or abdominal pain occurs at least neurologist that he has migraine.
once a week in 10 – 30% of children and adolescents. A. Factitious Disorder
A. Body Dysmorphic Disorder B. Functional neurological symptom disorder (Conversion
B. Pain Disorder Disorder)
C. Somatic Symptom Disorder (Hypochondriasis) C. Pain Disorder
D. Functional neurological symptom disorder (Conversion D. Somatic Symptom Disorder (Hypochondriasis)
Disorder) D. Somatic Symptom Disorder (Hypochondriasis)
B. Pain Disorder
71. In patients with this disorder, there are few or no somatic
65. This is a kind of somatoform disorder that is symptoms and persons are primarily concerned with the
characterized by recurring, multiple, clinically significant idea that they are ill.
complaints about pain, gastrointestinal, sexual and A. Pain Disorder
pseudoneurological symptoms B. Illness anxiety disorder
A. Illness Anxiety Disorder C. Functional neurological symptom disorder (Conversion
B. Pain Disorder Disorder)
C. Somatic Symptom Disorder (Hypochondriasis) D. None of this
D. None of these B. Illness Anxiety Disorder
C. Somatic Symptom Disorder (Hypochondriasis)
72. The symptoms of this disorder are viewed as a request
66. Paralysis, blindness, and mutism are the most common for admission to the sick role made by a person facing
symptoms of this disorder seemingly insurmountable and insolvable problems.
A. Illness Anxiety Disorder A. Somatic Symptom Disorder (Hypochondriasis)
B. Functional neurological symptom disorder (Conversion B. Ganser’s Syndrome
Disorder) C. Pain Disorder
C. Body Dysmorphic Disorder D. Functional neurological symptom disorder (Conversion
D. Somatic Symptom Disorder (Hypochondriasis) Disorder)
B. Functional Neurological Symptom Disorder (Conversion A. Somatic Symptom Disorder (Hypochondriasis)
Disorder)
73. Patient embellish their personal history, chronically
67. This disorder is characterized by a preoccupation with an fabricate symptoms to gain hospital admission, and move
imagined defect in appearance that causes clinically from hospital to hospital.
significant distress or impairment in important areas of A. Illness Anxiety Disorder
functioning B. Ganser’s Syndrome
A. Pain Disorder C. Munchausen syndrome
B. Functional neurological symptom disorder (Conversion D. Malingering
Disorder)
C. Munchausen Syndrome
C. Body Dysmorphic Disorder
D. Somatic Symptom Disorder (Hypochondriasis)

Transers: MGA KA-UTAK 6 of 8

74. Patient may be frequently hospitalized when younger due D. All of these
to abuse or deprivation, and regarded the healthcare staff
D. All of these
to be more loving and caring than the parents
A. Malingering
82. Risk factor/s for Alzheimer’s Disease (AD)
B. Pain disorder
A. Age
C. Hypochondriasis
B. Head injury
D. Factitious disorder
C. Genetics
A. D. Factitious Disorder D. All of these
D. All of these
75. Factitious disorder by proxy
A. Factitious Disorder Imposed on Self
83. Alzheimer’s disease is diagnosed by
B. Factitious Disorder Imposed on Another
A. CT scan
C. Both of these
B. Magnetic resonance imaging
D. None of these
C. SPECT
B. Factitious Disorder Imposed on Another D. All of these
D. All of these
76. Most common cause of pneumonia in AIDS patients
A. Streptococcus pneumonia
84. Problems recognizing family and friends and inability to
B. Pneumocystis carinii learn new things
C. Klebsilla pneumonia
A. Predementia
D. Mycoplasma pneumonia B. Mild dementia
B. Pneumocystis carinii C. Moderate dementia
D. Advance dementia
77. Neurological factors C. Moderate Dementia
A. Lymphoma
B. Kaposi’s Sarcoma
85. Non-pharmacological Treatment for AD
C. Encephalopathy A. Use of memory aids
D. All of these
B. Daily exercise
D. All of these C. Participating in support groups
D. All of these
78. A poor prognostic sign D. All of these
A. HIV associated dementia
B. HIV encephalopathy 86. Mr. Jose, 78 years old was brought for consult due to
C. Both of these impulsive behavior. He was noted to have problems
D. None of these recognizing family and friends, with inability to learn new
A. HIV-Associated Dementia things, He was also noted to be suspicious. He needs
assistance, but is still able to take care of his personal
79. Mania most commonly appears in this stage of HIV hygiene. What stage of Alzheimer’s disease is this?
infection A. Mild
A. Early Stage B. Moderate
B. Late Stage C. Severe
C. Both of these D. None of these
D. None of these B. Moderate
C. Both of these
Mania can occur at any stage of HIV infection for 87. Delusions and paranoia may begin to manifest in this
individuals with preexisting bipolar disorder. stage of Alzheimer’s dementia
A. Pre dementia
80. AIDS mania is a syndrome that appears to be specifically B. Mild
associated with C. Moderate
A. Early stage HIV infection D. Severe
B. Intermediate stage HIV infection C. Moderate
C. Late stage HIV infection
D. None of these 88. As years went by, Mr. Cruz became incapacitated with
A. Late Stage HIV Infection severe to total loss of verbal skills. He had problems with
swallowing, and incontinence. He had mood, behavioral
81. Risk factor/s for Alzheimer’s Disease (AD) problems and hallucinations. What is the stage he is in?
A. Age A. Pre dementia
B. Head injury B. Mild
C. Genetics C. Moderate

Transers: MGA KA-UTAK 7 of 8

 D. Severe D. All of these
D. Severe
96. Delirium characterized by tachycardia may be due to
89. The acute onset of fluctuating cognitive impairment and a A. Hyperthyroidism
disturbance of consciousness B. Stokes Adams Syndrome
A. Delirium C. Increased intracranial pressure
B. Dementia D. All of these
C. Amnesia A. Hyperthyroidism
D. None of these
A. Delirium 97. Respiration of a delirious patient with cardiac failure is
characterized by
90. The hallmark symptom of delirium is A. Tachypnea
A. Impairment of consciousness, occurring in association B. Shallow
with global impairments of cognitive functions C. None of these
B. Tremors, asterixis, nystagmus, incoordination, urinary D. Both of these
incontinence A. Tachypnea
C. Abnormality of mood, perception, and behaviour
D. Insiduous onset 98. Impaired remote memory
A. Impairment of consciousness, occurring in association A. Delirium
with global impairments of cognitive functions B. Dementia
B. Dementia
91. Delirium
A. Organic brain syndrome 99. The most common form of dementia is
B. Encephalopathy A. Vascular dementia
C. Sundowning B. Alzheimer’s dementia
D. All of these C. Huntington’s disease
D. All of these D. None of these
B. Alzheimer’s Dementia
92. Cause/s of Post-operative delirium
A. Insomnia 100. The second most common type of dementia
B. Electrolyte imbalance A. Vascular dementia
C. Blood loss B. Alzheimer’s dementia
D. All of these C. Mixed vascular and Alzheimer’s dementia
D. All of these D. None of these
A. Vascular Dementia
93. Factors that predispose patients to delirium
A. Visual impairment
B. Alcohol abuse
C. Cognitive impairment
D. All of these
A. All of these

94. Hallmark of Alzheimer’s disease

A. Accumulation of amyloid plaques
B. Neurofibrillary tangles
C. Increase in acetylcholine
D. All of these
A. Accumulation of amyloid plaques
B. Neurofibrillary tangles

95. The core feature/s of delirium:

A. Altered consciousness (i.e. Decreased level of
consciuosness)
B. Altered attention (i.e.diminished ability to focus, sustain,
or shift attention)
C. Impairment in other realms of cognitive function (i.e.
Disorientation to time and space, decreased memory)
D. All of these

Transers: MGA KA-UTAK 8 of 8

1. This disorder is characterised by a child's 7. Most severe form of tic disorder and is marked
temper outbursts, active refusal to comply with by both vocal and motor tics.
rules, and annoying behaviors exceed A. Tardive dyskinesia
expectations for these behaviors for children of B. Chronic tic disorder
the same age. The disorder is an enduring C. Transient tic disorder
pattern of negativistic, hostile, and defiant D. Tourette’s Disorder
behaviors in the absence of serious violations
of the rights of others. 8. Pica
A. Oppositional Defiant Disorder A. Eating soil while planting
B. ADHD B. Ingesting cookies while playing
C. Cyclothymia C. Both of these
D. Adjustment Disorder D. None of these

2. Bart experiences a defect of the systems used 9. There is evidence of conduct disorder with
in reading, he has onset before age 15 years. This is a criteria for
A. Stuttering A. Antisocial personality disorder
B. Dyslexia B. Schizotypal personality disorder
C. Aphasia C. Histrionic personality disorder
D. Communication disorder D. Paranoid personality disorder

3. Autistic Disorder 10. Severe social stressors that make children

A. Qualitative impairment in social vulnerable to depression
interaction A. Chronic family discord
B. Psychosis B. Physical and psychological abuse and
C. ADHD neglect
D. Paranoia C. Academic failure
D. All are correct
4. The following are affected by personality
disorders 11. Causes of Reactive Attachment Disorder
A. Cognition A. Loss of a parent
B. Impulse control B. Neglect or impaired caregiving
C. Interpersonal functioning C. Abuse or pain
D. All of these D. All are correct

5. Parasuicidal behavior is a symptom of 12. Encopresis

A. Borderline personality disorder (PD) A. Bed wetting
B. Paranoid personality disorder B. Fecal incontinence
C. Narcissistic personality disorder C. Both are correct
D. Antisocial personality disorder D. None are wrong

6. Basic types of abuse in bullying 13. Personality disorders

A. Emotional abuse A. Symptoms are able to adapt to, and alter,
B. Verbal abuse the external environment
C. Physical abuse B. Symptoms are acceptable to the ego
D. All are correct - Bullying is defined as the C. Both of these
use of one 's strength or status to intimidate, D. None of these
injure, or humiliate another person of lesser
strength or status. It can be categorized as 14. This consists of a persistent pattern of
physical, verbal, or social. Physical bullying inattention and/or hyperactive and impulsive
involves physical injury or threat of injury to behavior that is more severe than expected on
someone. Verbal bullying refers to teasing children of that age and level of development
or insulting someone. Social bullying refers A. Autism
to the use of peer rejection or exclusion to B. Asperger’s disorder
humiliate or isolate a victim. C. ADHD
D. Clumsy Child Syndrome
15. Urinary incontinence 22. Defense mechanisms used by patients with
A. Enuresis personality disorders
B. Encopresis A. Splitting
C. Constipation B. Isolation
D. UTI C. Both are correct
D. Both are wrong
16. This is a universal human developmental
phenomenon emerging in infants less than 1 23. This is the most common substance used and
year of age and marking a child's awareness of abused
a parting from his or her mother or primary A. Cocaine
caregiver. B. Nicotine
A. Separation anxiety C. Marijuana
B. OCD D. Methamphetamine
C. Social phobia
D. Adjustment Disorder 24. This is a disruption in the normal flow or rhythm
of speech.
17. Psychiatric Treatment for Children and A. Stuttering
Adolescents include B. Dyslexia
A. Individual Psychotherapy and Group C. Aphasia
Psychotherapy D. Astasia abasia
B. Residential, Day, and Hospital Treatment
C. Pharmacotherapy 25. Stereotypic movement/s:
D. All are correct A. Hand flapping and body rocking
B. Hand waving and hair-twirling
18. Disability that significantly subaverage C. Liplicking, skin picking, or self-hitting
intellectual functioning present from birth or D. All of these
early infancy causing limitation in the ability to
conduct normal activities of daily living. 26. Schizotypal PD
A. ADHD A. Cluster A (odd and eccentric)
B. Intellectual disability B. Cluster B (dramatic, emotional, erratic)
C. Autism C. Cluster C (anxious and fearful)
D. Dyslexia
27. Patients with this personality disorder are prone
19. Cause/s of mental retardation during pregnancy to illness and may have a history of chronic
A. Intake of valproic acid by the mother physical illness in childhood
B. Preeclampsia A. Dependent PD
C. Severe maternal malnutrition B. Histrionic PD
D. All are correct C. Narcissistic PD
D. Schizotypal PD
20. The most common type of tic disorder that can
affect up to 20 percent of children under the age 28. This is usually consumed as peyote “buttons”
of 18 years. A. Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD)
A. Transient tics B. Mescaline
B. Tourette’s disorder C. Psilocybin Analogs
C. Chronic/Vocal Tic Disorder D. None of these
D. Simple tic
29. Avoidant PD
21. Hannah exhibits an effortless and painless A. Cluster A (odd and eccentric)
regurgitation of partially digested food into the B. Cluster B (dramatic, emotional, erratic)
mouth soon after a meal, which is either C. Cluster C (anxious and fearful)
swallowed or spit out.
A. Rumination disorder
B. Anorexia Nervosa
C. Pica
D. Bulimia nervosa
30. William’s main personality trait is timidity. He B. Schizoid PD
frequently express uncertainty and shows lack C. Dependent PD
of self-confidence, and speaks in self-effacing D. Borderline PD
manner.
A. Avoidant PD 38. This personality disorder is said to be highly
B. Schizoid PD prevalent among prisoners
C. Narcissistic PD A. Obsessive Compulsive PD
D. Histrionic PD B. Antisocial PD
C. Schizotypal PD
31. Paranoid PD D. Histrionic PD
A. Cluster A (odd and eccentric)
B. Cluster B (dramatic, emotional, erratic) 39. David has poor interpersonal relationships. He
C. Cluster C (anxious and fearful) believes in superstitions. He resorts to child-like
fantasies and magical thinking.
32. Ralph has a heightened sense of A. Borderline PD
self-importance, he lacks empathy, and has B. Schizotypal PD
grandiose feelings of uniqueness. and he has C. Narcissistic PD
an unrealistic sense of omnipotence. He is D. Obsessive-compulsive PD
likely to have a
A. Paranoid PD 40. Common symptoms associated with caffeine
B. Narcissistic PD intoxication include:
C. Borderline PD A. Restlessness and irritability
D. Histrionic PD B. Diuresis
C. Tingling in the fingers
33. This substance of abuse is known colloquially D. All of these
as Angel Dust
A. Phencyclidine 41. Antisocial PD
B. Ibogaine A. Cluster A (odd and eccentric)
C. Psilocybin Analogs B. Cluster B (dramatic, emotional, erratic)
D. Aya hua sca C. Cluster C (anxious and fearful)

34. Vivian is excitable and emotional and behaves 42. Cannabis-induced psychotic disorder is also
in a colorful, dramatic, extroverted fashion.She called
is unable to maintain deep and long-lasting A. Hemp insanity
attachments. B. Cold turkey
A. Paranoid PD C. Bad trip
B. Narcissistic PD D. None of these
C. Borderline PD
D. Histrionic PD 43. Fred consults with his wife Linda before he
makes decisions. Linda's approval is extremely
35. Other name for borderline personality disorder important to him. He relies on her for major
A. Anancastic personality disorder issues in his life. He believes that he could not
B. As-if personality make it without her.
C. Dissocial personality disorder A. Schizotypal PD
D. Anxious personality disorder B. Dependent PD
C. Depressive PD
36. Cold turkey D. Schizoid PD
A. Piloerection or gooseflesh
B. Restlessness 44. Caffeine intoxication may occur with
C. Irritability consumption of
D. Depression A. 200 mg of caffeine
B. 100 mg of caffeine
37. Paula is said to have inferiority complex. She is C. 150 mg of caffeine
so sensitive to rejection by others. She is timid D. Over 250mg of caffeine - (DSM-5)
and shows lack of self-confidence. Diagnostic Criteria for caffeine intoxication
A. Avoidant PD
 includes the recent consumption of caffeine,
usually in excess of 250 mg.
45. The classic sign of alcohol withdrawal is
A. Tremulousness
B. Delirium tremens
C. Psychotic and perceptual symptoms
D. Epilepsy
46. Bogs has been noted to have psychotic
symptoms associated with a “bad trip,” This is
commonly associated with the use of
A. Alcohol
B. LSD
The most common adverse effect of LSD
and related substances is a “bad trip”.
C. Cigarette smoking
D. None of these
47. Patients with schizoid personality disorder
A. Life histories reflect solitary interests and
success at noncompetitive
B. Cold and aloof
C. Invest in nonhuman interests such as
mathematics and astronomy
D. All of these
48. This is/are true of inhalant abuse
A. In small initial doses, can be disinhibiting
and produce feelings of euphoria and
excitement as well as pleasant floating
sensations
B. High doses can cause psychological
symptoms of fearfulness, sensory illusions,
auditory and visual hallucinations, and
distortions of body size
C. Both of these
D. None of these
49. Martin considers himself special and always
expects special treatment. He cannot show
empathy, and he often feigns sympathy only to
achieve his selfish needs
A. Narcissistic PD
B. Borderline PD
C. Histrionic PD
D. Paranoid PD
50. An acute neurological disorder characterized by
ataxia, vestibular dysfunction, confusion, and a
variety of ocular motility abnormalities, including
horizontal nystagmus, lateral orbital palsy, and
gaze palsy.
A. Wernicke’s encephalopathy
B. Alcoholic encephalopathy
C. Both are true
D. Both are wrong
51. In determining suicide risk, which of the
following is/are considered high risk
characteristic/s?
A. Active suicidal ideation and planned
B. History of suicide attempt
C. Access to fatal or lethal methods
D. All are correct - There is epidemiological
evidence to suggest that depressed youth
with recurrent active suicidal ideation,
including a plan, and who have made prior
attempts, are at higher risk to complete
suicide, compared to youth who express
only passive suicidal ideation.
52. Substance intoxication
A. The development of a substance-specific
syndrome due to the cessation of (or
reduction in) substance use that has been
heavy and prolonged.
B. The development of a reversible
substance-specific syndrome due to
recent ingestion of a substance.
Choices A and C are definitions of
Substance Withdrawal.
C. The substance-specific syndrome causes
clinically significant distress or impairment in
social, occupational, or other important
areas of functioning.
D. None of these
53. 2nd most widely used illicit substances
A. Cannabis
B. Amphetamines
On a global basis, use of amphetamine-type
stimulants, including methamphetamine, is
also a major concern, ranking as the second
most widely used substance, following
marijuana, according to a report from the
United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime.
C. Opiods
D. Ecstasy
54. The following are pharmacologic options for
acute management of agitated patients,
EXCEPT *
A. Olanzapine
B. Lorazepam
C. Haloperidol
D. Sertraline
55. Poppers refer to
A. Pentobarbital
B. Nitrite inhalants
C. Ephedra
 D. γ-hydroxybutyrate reduction in) substance use that has been
heavy and prolonged.
56. The following are pharmacologic options for B. The substance-specific syndrome causes
acute management of agitated patients clinically significant distress or impairment in
A. Fluoxetine social, occupational, or other important
B. Carbamazepine areas of functioning.
C. Escitalopram C. Both are correct
D. Haloperidol D. Both are wrong

57. At 0.3 percent blood alcohol level
A. Voluntary motor actions usually become
perceptibly clumsy
B. A person is commonly confused or may
become stuporous
C. The person falls into a coma
D. The primitive centers of the brain that
control breathing and heart rate are
affected, and death ensues
58. In determining suicide risk, which of the
following is/are considered low risk
characteristic/s? *
A. Poor insight
B. Socially isolated
C. Family is unresponsive or uninvolved
D. Socially integrated
61. In determining suicide risk, which of the
following is/are considered high risk
characteristic/s?
A. Female
B. Separated/divorced
C. Employed
D. All are correct
62. Which of the following psychiatric symptoms
is/are considered emergencies?
A. Active suicidal ideations
B. Severe depression
C. Insomnia
D. Auditory hallucinations
63. A patient comes to the ER presenting with
agitation, which among the following should you
prioritize?
A. Ask about suicidal ideations
B. Establish safety
C. Rule out general medical conditions
D. Rule out impending psychosis

64. Liquid ecstasy

A. γ-hydroxybutyrate
B. nitrite inhalants
C. nitrous oxide
D. ephedra

65. In determining suicide risk, which of the

following is/are considered high risk
characteristic/s?
A. With a chronic illness
B. With a substance use disorder
C. With major depressive disorder
D. All are correct

59. What would you consider as differential
diagnoses for violent or agitated patients?
A. CNS Infections
B. Substance-induced psychosis
C. Bipolar affective disorder
D. All are correct
60. Substance withdrawal
A. The development of a substance-specific
syndrome due to the cessation of (or
66. “reds and blues,” “rainbows,” “double- trouble”
A. Secobarbital
B. Pentobarbital
C. Secobarbital–Amobarbital combination
67. Hospitalization is NOT indicated for which of the
following suicide cases? *
A. Persistent suicidal plan
B. Passive suicidal ideation or no actual
plans or attempts
 C. Recent suicide attempt be treated on an outpatient basis. But the
D. Suicidal ideation in psychotic, impulsive absence of a strong social support system,
patient a history of impulsive behavior, and a
suicidal plan of action are indications for
68. In the clinical history, which of the following hospitalization. To decide whether
salient features is the best indicator for outpatient treatment is feasible, clinicians
increased suicide risk? should use a straightforward clinical
A. History of suicide attempt approach: Ask patients who are considered
B. Diagnosis of persistent depressive suicidal to agree to call when they become
C. History of alcohol abuse uncertain about their ability to control their
D. All are correct suicidal impulses. Patients who can make
such an agreement with a doctor with whom
69. Mood lability is observed when a person has they have a relationship reaffirm the belief
this blood alcohol concentration that they have sufficient strength to control
A. 10–30 mg/dL such impulses and to seek help.
B. 40–70 mg/dL B. Having dysthymia
C. 80–200 mg/dL C. Having history of alcoholism
D. None of these D. Schizophrenia

70. In suicide and safety assessment, which of the 72. Which of the following statements regarding
following should be elicited? hospitalization for suicide is/are true?
A. Intent to die A. Passive suicidal thoughts
B. Suicide plans B. A suicide attempt is an indication for
C. Previous suicide attempts hospitalization
D. All are correct C. Hospitalization is indicated for all patients
with suicidal ideations
D. Suicidal ideations with underlying anxiety
disorder is an indication for hospitalization

73. Substance abuse

A. Recurrent substance use resulting in a
failure to fulfill major role obligations at
work, school, or home (e.g., repeated
absences or poor work performance related
to substance use; substance-related
absences, suspensions, or expulsions from
school; neglect of children or household)
B. Recurrent substance use in situations in
which it is physically hazardous (e.g.,
driving an automobile or operating a
machine when impaired by substance use)
C. Recurrent substance-related legal problems
(e.g., arrests for substance-related
disorderly conduct)
D. All of these

74. This is characterized by anxiety, tremulousness,

dysphoric mood, lethargy, fatigue, nightmares
(accompanied by rebound rapid eye movement
[REM] sleep), headache, profuse sweating,
muscle cramps, stomach cramps, and
insatiable hunger
71. Which of the following best determine/s
A. Cold turkey
decision to hospitalize a patient with suicidal
B. Crash
ideations?
C. Bad trip
A. Having a plan of action - Not all such
D. None of these
patients require hospitalization; some can

75. In determining suicide risk, which of the
following is/are considered high risk
characteristic/s? *
A. With comorbid substance use disorder
B. Mildly depressed
C. History of social drinking
D. Neurotic
76. This involves the question of whether patients
are suicidal and thus a danger to themselves or
homicidal and thus a danger to others. The
application for admission to a hospital may be
made by a relative or a friend because the
people in question do not recognize their need
for hospital care.
A. Informal Admission
B. Voluntary Admission
C. Temporary Admission
D. Involuntary Admission
77. Forensic psychiatry deals with which of the
following?
A. Expert opinion or evaluation of patient’s
capacity to give consent or make decisions
B. Evaluation of an accused person to
determine ability to stand trial
C. Evaluating mental status in the legal
determination of criminal responsibility
D. All are correct
78. Which of the following psychiatric symptoms
is/are considered as emergency?
A. Methamphetamine use
B. Alcoholic seizures
C. Psychosis
D. Suicidal ideations
79. Which of the following psychiatric symptoms
is/are considered as emergency?
A. Active suicidal ideations
B. Alcohol withdrawal such as alcohol delirium
C. Violent behavior
D. All are correct
80. A patient presenting with impulsivity would
make you consider which of the following
differential diagnoses? *
A. Borderline Personality Disorder
B. Bipolar Affective Disorder
C. ADHD
D. All are correct
81. This allows the state to intervene and to act as
a surrogate parent for those who are unable to
care for themselves or who may harm
themselves.
A. Tarasoff I
B. Tarasoff II
C. The doctrine of parens patriae
The Doctrine of Parens patriae allows the
state to intervene and act as surrogate
parent for those who are unable to care for
themselves.
D. All are correct
82. A person charged with a criminal offense is not
responsible for an act if the act was committed
under an impulse that the person was unable to
resist because of mental disease.
A. M’Naghten Rule
B. Policeman-at-the-elbow law
The committee suggested broadening the
concept of insanity in criminal cases to
include the irresistible impulse test; Rules
that a person charged with a criminal
offense is not responsible for an act if the
act was committed under an impulse that
the person was unable to resist because of
mental disease. The courts have chosen to
interpret this concept in such a way that it
has been called policeman-at-the-elbow
law.
C. Tarasoff Rule
D. Durham Rule
83. Forensic psychiatry deals with which cases
involving children?
A. Juvenile offenders
B. Child custody
C. Child abuse
D. All are correct
84. Which of the following terms refers to the
capacity to weigh decision-making factors and
make reasonable decisions?
A. Competence
B. Consent
C. Confidentiality
D. Judgment
85. Evil intent
A. Mens rea
B. Actus reus
C. Both are correct
D. Both are wrong
86. Confidentiality can be breached under which of
the following conditions?
A. A subpoena from the court
B. Patient is at high risk for suicide
 C. Patient is at high risk for homicide
D. All are correct
87. This is the professional obligation to keep
patient information secret
A. Confidentiality
B. Data privacy
C. Privilege
D. Informed Consent
88. Which of the following clinical features should
alert you to child abuse
A. Precocious sexual behavior
B. Failure to thrive in cases of neglect
C. Unusually fearful or docile
D. All are correct
89. The following clinical features should alert you
to psychopathology in children
A. Delinquent behavior
B. Precocious sexual behavior
C. A drop in academic performance
D. All are correct
90. Persons are not guilty by reason of insanity if
they labored under a mental disease such that
they were unaware of the nature, the quality,
and the consequences of their acts or if they
were incapable of realizing that their acts were
wrong
A. Right-wrong test
B. M’Naghten Rule
C. Both are correct
M’Nagthen Rule is more commonly known
as Right-Wrong Test
D. Both are wrong
91. Which of the following psychiatric symptoms
is/are considered as emergency?
A. Depressive episode
B. Psychotic episode
C. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
D. Passive suicidal ideations
92. An accused person is not criminally responsible
if his or her unlawful act was the product of
mental disease or mental defect.
A. M’Naghten Rule
B. Policeman-at-the-elbow law
C. Tarasoff Rule
D. Durham Rule
93. Mental health professionals have a duty to
protect identifiable, endangered third parties
from imminent threats of serious harm made by
their outpatients.
A. Tarasoff Rule
B. The doctrine of parens partiae
C. M’Naghten Rule
D. Durham Rule
94. A 30 year old male patient comes to the ER
presenting with agitation, which of the following
clinical features would point to an underlying
acute medical condition?
A. Lateralizing neurological signs
B. Loss of consciousness
C. Non-auditory hallucination
D. All are correct
95. The following are pharmacologic options for
acute management of agitated patients,
EXCEPT
A. Benzodiazepines
B. First-generation antipsychotics
C. Atypical antipsychotics
D. SNRIs
96. Voluntary conduct
A. Mens rea
B. Actus reus
C. Both are correct
D. Both are wrong
97. The following clinical features should alert you
to psychopathology in children
A. Delinquency
B. Precocious sexual behavior
C. Poor academic performance
D. All are correct
98. This operates on the general hospital model, in
which a patient is admitted to a psychiatric unit
of a general hospital in the same way that a
medical or surgical patient is admitted.
A. Informal Admission
B. Voluntary Admission
C. Temporary Admission
D. Involuntary Admission
99. Which of the following constitutes medical
malpractice?
A. A deviation from standard of care
B. A defined doctor-patient relationship
C. Negligence causing harm to patient
D. All are correct - To prove malpractice, the
plaintiff (e.g., patient, family, or estate) must
establish by a preponderance of evidence
that (1) a doctor–patient relationship existed
that created a duty of care, (2) a deviation
from the standard of care occurred, (3) the
patient was damaged, and (4) the deviation
 directly caused the damage. These
elements of a malpractice claim are
sometimes referred to as the 4 Ds (duty,
deviation, damage, direct causation).

100. A service user may set out his or her

preference in relation to treatment through a
signed, dated, and notarized advance directive
executed for the purpose. An advance directive
may be revoked by a new advance directive or
by a notarized revocation.
A. True
B. False

101. A service user may designate a person of

legal age to act as his or her legal
representative through a notarized document.
In case the service user fails to appoint a legal
representative, the spouse, even though
estranged, shall act as representative.
A. True
B. False