1.

The Australopithecus species:

a. Emerged 500,000 years ago.

b. Was chimp like in its gait.

c. Had the brain the size of a chimp, but a more complex prefrontal cortex may have emerged.?

d. Left behind spears and stone tools in the fossil record.

3. In the 1950’s, the first antidepressant medications were first developed as

a. Specific monoamine oxidase inhibitors.

b. Anti-convulsant medications.

c. Anti-tuberculosis medication.

d. Dual serotonergic-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors.

4. A key advantage of Homo Erectus was:

a. Brain size equivalent to modern humans.

b. Advanced language and culture.

c. Larger bodies to withstand the cold of the Ice Age.

d. Ability to sweat meant better thermoregulation for long range hunting?

5. What was “Krapelin’s Error”?

a. There is a clear distinction between disorders such as mania and schizophrenia that can be separated by
over symptoms alone.

b. The belief that poor mothering caused schizophrenia.

c. Cycling of mood does not really exist.

d. Multiple disorders can share the same symptoms

6. What is an “endophenotype”?

a. The exact DNA sequence of a gene for a disorder.

b. An underlying neurobiological factor that is associated with the risk for a disorder.

c. The DSM-5 diagnosis based on structured research interview.

 d. The long term outcome of a childhood mental disorder.

7. The FOXP2 gene:

a. Is identical in chimps and humans.

b. May have been related to the development of language.

c. Lead to greater brain growth.

d. Governs the development of the opposable thumb

8. Epigenetics involves:

a. The control of DNA expression by methylation of DNA and acetylation of histone proteins.

b. Mutation of DNA by random forces such as chemicals or radiation

c. Mutation of DNA by environmental effects.

d. The role of genetic effects in the risk for a psychiatric disorder.

9. What is TRUE regarding the emergence of modern humans:

a. All modern humans emerged from a small group (~1000-1500) of homo sapiens who lived in Africa
50,000 to 80,000 years ago.

b. Evolved from the Neanderthals

c. Evolved from Homo erectus; each race emerging separately 100,000 years ago

d. Evolved from the Australopithecus species.

10. A positive selection sweep is:

a. A genotype is culled from the populations because it is deleterious to reproduction.

b. Due to conscious breeding by humans, as in the case with dogs.

c. Elimination of unwanted DNA sequences

d. The method which differentiates hair color in different populations.

11. The genetic differences between chimpanzees and humans that most likely to account for the dramatic difference in brain
function are:

a. Point mutations in about 30 million non-coding DNA sequences.

 b. A single mutation in the FOXP2 gene.

c. 200-450 genes for neuronal communication that are expressed later in life in humans compared to
chimpanzees.

d. Mutation of the SRGAP2 gene which leads to larger brain size in humans.

12. The classic 60’s hit which played a role in the development of neuroimaging was:

a. “Henry the Eighth, I am, I am” by Herman’s Hermits.

b. “I wanna hold your hand” by The Beatles.

c. “Daydream Believer” by the The Monkees”.

d. “Ballad of the Green Beret” by Barry Sadler

13. The patient HM:

a. Had intact long term memory but short-term memory was impaired.

b. Had temporal lobe damage due to a stroke.

c. Had his hippocampi resected bilaterally in order to treat his epilepsy.

d. Suffered damage to the prefrontal cortex in a railway accident and showed personality changes
afterwards.

14. The Fornix:

a. Connects the mammillary body and the hippocampus.

b. Connects the anterior thalamus and the hippocampus.

c. Connects the amygdala and the hippocampus.

d. Is part of the basal ganglia.

15. Which is NOT true regarding the basal ganglia

a. The basal ganglia play a major role in initiating movement.

b. The globus pallidus is a “mound” of tissue on the lateral side of the putamen.

c. The amygdala is adjacent and anterior to the tail of the caudate.

d. Unilateral Injury to the subthalamic nucleus results in hemiballism.

16. Which the correct flow of the Papez Circuit:

a. External World→Hippocampus→Fornix→Mamillary Body→Ant. Thalamus→Cingulate→Hippocampus.

b. External World→Hippocampus→Amygdala→Fornix→Mamillary Body→Ant.

Thalamus→Cingulate→Hippocampus.

c. External World→Hippocampus →Mamillary Body→Fornix →Ant. Thalamus→Cingulate→Hippocampus.

d. External World→Cingulate→Fornix→Mamillary Body→Ant. Thalamus →Hippocampus

17. Which structure plays a key role in processing signals of reward/reinforcement?

a. Amygdala

b. Hippocampus

c. Dorsal striatum

d. Ventral striatum (nucleus accumbens)

18. Which neuronal signaling system has the receptor for ligand inside the cytosol of the neuron:

a. Ligand gaged ion channel.

b. Steroid receptor.

c. G protein receptor system.

d. Tyrosine Kinase Receptor (RTK)

19. Which governs the refractory period of the neuron:

a. The amount of potassium (K) leaving the neuron.

b. The amount of sodium (Na) leaving the neuron.

c. The ATP-dependent Na/K pump

d. The level of potassium in the extracellular space.

20. When a neurotransmitter binds to the G protein linked receptor, the following occurs:

a. An ion channel opens and Na and K are exchanged, leading to an action potential.

b. GTP replaces GDP, and the α-γ unit dissociates from the β unit

c. The neuron is inhibited from firing.

d. GTP replaces GDP, and the β-γ unit dissociates from the α-GTP unit.
21. Neurons are grown in a petri dish. Glutamate is placed in the dish and action potentials are produced. Now Norepinephrine is
placed in the dish. Which of the following is TRUE in the example we studied:

a. Adenylyl cyclase is activated→increased cAMP→increased Protien Kinase A→ Phosphorylation of

voltage gated K channel→Decreased permeability of K channel→reduced refractory period of neuron.

b. Phospholipase C is activated→increased cAMP→increased Protien Kinase A→ Phosphorylation of

voltage gated K channel→Decreased permeability of K channel→reduced refractory period of neuron.

c. Phospholipase C is activated→increased DAG→increased Protien Kinase C→ Phosphorylation of

voltage gated K channel→Decreased permeability of K channel→reduced refractory period of neuron is
activated→increased cAMP→increased Protien Kinase A→ Phosphorylation of voltage gated K
channel→Decreased permeability of K channel→reduced refractory period of neuron.

d. Adenylyl cyclase is deactivated→decreased cAMP→decreased Protien Kinase A→ Reduced

phosphorylation of voltage gated K channel→increased permeability of K channel→increased refractory period
of neuron.

22. Which is true regarding the Tyrosine Receptor Kinase system?

a. Growth factors like BDNF bind to the dimer receptors that cross the membrane

b. The enzyme mTOR is inhibited.

c. Cell death (apoptosis) is activated.

d. The MEK/ERK pathway is inhibited.

23. Which is TRUE regarding the metabotropic glutamate receptors:

a. The AMPA/Kainate subtype can trigger an action potential.

b. Class I (mGluR1, mGluR5) enhance neuronal excitability.

c. Class II (mGluR2, 3) are are postsynaptic on the neuron.

d. mGluR4 are only found post-synaptically.

24. Which is true regarding the GABA A receptor:

a. It is linked to a G protein that inhibits Adenylyl Cyclase.

b. The GABA binding site is inside the Chloride channel.

c. The benzo binding sites is on the outside of the channel, spanning the alpha and gamma subunits.

d. Ethanol does not act at a particular binding site on the chloride channel
25. Which type of GABA interneuron influences the output of cortical pyramidal cells?

a. Basket

b. Chandelier

c. Martinotti

d. Wide arbor

26. Dopamine neurons of the ventral tegmental area project to :

a. The occipital cortex

b. The ventral striatum

c. The pituitary

d. All of the above.

27. Reward prediction error is defined as:

a. The ventral striatum responds to all rewarding stimuli

b. Norepinephrine inhibits dopamine respond to reward during stress.

c. Dopamine release is enhanced when reward appears but decreases when reward fails to appear.

d. The ventral striatum fails to response to reward in individuals with major depressive disorder.

28. Which neurotransmitter system can be characterized as the “Stop Look and Listen, get ready”?

a. Dopamine

b. Norepinephrine

c. Serotonin

d. Acetylcholine

29. Which neurotransmitter system can be characterized as the “Let’s go” system?

a. Dopamine

b. Norepinephrine

c. Serotonin

d. Acetylcholine
30. Which of the following neuropeptides is released from adipose tissue and enters the brain to provide negative feedback
(reduced food intake)?

a. Leptin

b. Ghrelin

c. Peptide YY

d. Orexin

31. Which is TRUE regarding the role of norepinephrine and dopamine in prefrontal cortex neuron functioning?

a. Dopamine increases the effect of random noise, disrupting executive function

b. Moderate levels of norepinephrine, acting at alpha-2 receptors, enhance incoming signal

c. High levels of norepinephrine, acting through beta receptors, effect the flow of information at the level of
the axon.

d. Norepinephrine actions at alpha-1 receptors enhances executive function.

32. Which type of neuron originates in the Locus Coerulus?

a. Dopamine

b. Norepinephrine

c. Serotonin

d. Acetylcholine

33. Heritability is a measure of:

a. The degree to which genetics influences the mean value of a trait in a population.

b. The degree to which genetics influences the variance of a value of a trait in a population.

c. Whether specific genes are involved in a disorder

d. How much of an individual’s intelligence is determined solely by genetics.

34. If an individual inherits an “short” allele of the serotonin transporter, then:

a. They are less likely to respond to SSRI’s.

b. They are highly resistant to stress and less likely to develop PTSD.
 c. They are more likely to develop a depressive episode and suicidal ideation if exposed to stressful event.

d. They are more likely to develop treatment resistant depression

35. The Capsi study of MAO A activity and child abuse showed that:

a. Persons with high levels of MAO A were more vulnerable to the effects of stressful life events.

b. Those with low levels of MAO A were more likely to engage in antisocial behavior if they had been
exposed to severe child abuse/neglect.

c. Stimulants worked better in people with ADHD who had low levels of MAO A

d. SSRI’s worsened aggression in persons with low levels of MAO A.

36. A copy number variant (CNV) is defined as :

a. A piece of DNA that is either duplicated or deleted.

b. A substitution of a single nucleotide for another.

c. A mutation that always causes a neurodevelopmental syndrome.

d. Results in methylation of DNA and silencing of a gene.

37. Which of the following is true regarding epigenetics in the rat:

a. Licking and grooming behavior activates norepinephrine receptors in the hippocampus.

b. Rat pups who receive high levels of licking and grooming behaviors show reduced ACTH and cortisol
secretion in response to stress.

c. Epigenetic responses are pre-programmed genetically before birth and are not influenced by
environment.

d. Oxytocin receptors are not affected by maternal licking and grooming.

38. Which structure of the basal ganglia has tonic GABA activity that inhibits the corticothalamic loop:

a. Globus Pallidus Interna/Substantia Nigra Retiulata.

b. Substantia Nigra Compacta.

c. Subthalamic Nucleus

d. Dorsal Striatum.
39. Which BEST describes the role of the ventral striatum/nucleus accumbens

a. When it is active, the person is always experiencing pleasure.

b. It integrates information from amygdala, hippocampus and orbitofrontal cortex.

c. It only responds to instinctual rewards like food and sexual stimuli.

d. It does NOT respond to learning.

40. Which is TRUE regarding the role of the Direct and Indirect Basal Ganglia Pathway:

a. The Direct Pathway inhibits initiation of motor movement, while the Indirect Pathway facilitates it.

b. The Direct Pathway facilitates initiation of motor movement, while the Indirect Pathway “brakes” and
opposes rapid initiation.

c. Dopamine input is restricted to the Direct Pathway

d. Both the Direct and Indirect Pathway inhibit unnecessary motor movement

41. Which is NOT TRUE regarding motor behavior in humans

a. There are five different cortico-striatal loops which govern different aspects of motor behavior, including
thinking about motor actions.

b. Dopamine facilitates the Direct Pathway and inhibits the indirect pathway.

c. The Substantia Nigra Compacta is critical to ongoing, on-line modulation and correction of motor
movement

d. There are repeated “hand offs” between the cortico-striatal and cortico-cerebellar cirucits as motor
behavior is initiated and executed.

42. Which is true regarding amygdala function:

a. The amygdala can process facial features at a preconscious level.

b. The amygdala receives input regarding the physiological state of the body.

c. The amygdala can directly control facial expression.

d. All of the above

43. Which of the following is true regarding Anthony Grace’s “Bear and Butterfly” analogy:

a. The analogy is helpful in understanding the role of prefrontal cortex in behavior.

 b. The hippocampus governs more long term, contextual behavior while the amygdala responds to
immediate threats or needs

c. Dopamine input to the ventral striatum makes the hippocampal influence stronger.

d. It explains how amygdala activity triggers aggressive behavior.

44. The top down attention system consists of:

a. The frontal eye fields (FEF) and the Intra-Parietal Sulcus (IPS) bilaterally

b. Right lateralized frontal eye fields (FEF) and the Intra-Parietal Sulcus (IPS).

c. Temporoparietal junction (TFJ) and Ventral Frontal Cortex (RVFC) bilaterally.

d. Right lateralized Temporoparietal junction (TFJ) and Ventral Frontal Cortex (RVFC).

45. The bottom up attention system consist of:

a. The frontal eye fields (FEF) and the Intra-Parietal Sulcus (IPS) bilaterally

b. Right lateralized frontal eye fields (FEF) and the Intra-Parietal Sulcus (IPS).

c. Temporoparietal junction (TFJ) and Ventral Frontal Cortex (RVFC) bilaterally.

d. Right lateralized Temporoparietal junction (TFJ) and Ventral Frontal Cortex (RVFC).

46. Which is a principal role of the dorsal anterior cingulate cortex

a. Impulse control

b. Short term memory

c. Monitoring of ongoing behavior and response to error

d. Mood regulation

47. Which is true regarding the default mood network:

a. It is an at-rest system that plays no role in cognition or memory..

b. It is linked to the Anterior-Temporal memory system.

c. The dorsal anterior cingulate cortex is a key hub for the default mood network.

d. It is distributed between the precuneus, posterior cingulate cortex, and medical frontal cortex.
48. Joe goes to meet his friend Bill from college. He has not seen Bill in many years. They plan to meet at the Old Burger Shop
near campus, a famous campus restaurant and bar. As he approaches the Old Burger Shop he remembers he took Sheila, his first
date, there 20 years ago. He remembers they drank Budweiser beer and wonders where Sheila is now. What parts of the memory
circuit are most critical for this process

a. Amygdala because it involves a possible romantic relationship.

b. The Posterior memory system because it involves temporal and social context.

c. The “bottom up” ventral attention system.

d. Brain derived neurotrophic factor activation of transcription of mRNA for neuronal proteins.

49. What is the principle function of Slow Wave Sleep:

a. It is when dreaming occurs and unconscious conflicts are revealed.

b. Memories are replayed in order to write them into long term memory.

c. Long term potentiation occurs.

d. The Papez circuit is reset for the next day.

50. Long term potentiation relevant to memory occurs in:

a. The amygdala

b. The CA3 of the hippocampus

c. The ventral striatum

d. The entorhinal cortex

51. Wernike’s area performs the following function:

a. Recognizes speech sounds as part of a language

b. Contains the brain’s “dictionary” of words

c. Maintains meaning of verbs

d. Inputs language into the default mood network

52. Which is NOT a function of right hemisphere mechanisms?

a. Prosody of speech

b. Visual spatial skills.

 c. Holistic processing.

d. Recognition of detail,

53. A phoneme is

a. The smallest part of a written word which conveys meaning or usage.

b. A recognizable word in a human language.

c. Smallest sound that is recognized as a unit of language.

d. A non-verbal gesture that is combined with language to produce emotional meaning.

54. Which is a function of medial prefrontal cortex:

a. It calculates the value or rewards or punishments.

b. It modulates “Hot” emotional stimuli

c. It is part of the Verbal Working Memory system.

d. It is part of the Visual Spatial sketch pad in working memory.

55. A 72 year old man suffered an apparently mild stroke. Gross neurological exam is normal. He is oriented X 4. During the
interview he points to a water bottle and says, “I want the..” and then appears confused. He then makes a motion of lifting a water
bottle to his lips and points at it again. The man has most likely suffered an infarct in:

a. The Subthalamic Nucleus

b. Left Temporal lobe

c. Right Temproal lobe

d. Hippocampus

56. In the Beyer et al study subjects thought they were playing a video game with a partner whose picture was in the upper right
had corner of the screen. The “partner” had either a scowling or neutral expression. Some subjects acted very aggressively when
“punishing” their opponent. Which of the following was true regarding the imaging finding in this study:

a. Aggressive subjects had less activation of the amygdala

b. Non-aggressive subjects had less activation of the amygdala

c. Aggressive subjects had less activation of the orbitofrontal cortex

d. Non-Aggressive subjects had less activation of the orbitofrontal cortex

57. Children with ADHD whose symptoms remit in adulthood show:

a. A slower rate of pruning of the cortical thickness

b. A higher rate of pruning of the cortical thickness

c. Increased cerebellar size

d. Increase in orbitofrontal volume.

58. Which is TRUE regarding structural MRI findings in ADHD

a. Declines in right sided prefrontal cortex thickness occur earlier in ADHD than controls

b. Stimulant treatment results in smaller grey matter volume globally.

c. Cortical volume in unchanged in ADHD compared to controls.

d. The amygdala is smaller in ADHD vs. controls in children.

59. Which is TRUE regarding the Default Mode Network (DMN) in ADHD (Liddle et al study)

a. The DMN is affected by incentive in controls, but incentive does not affect the DMN in children with
ADHD.

b. When controls and ADHD children off medication are compared in the low incentive condition, ADHD do
not deactivate the DMN, while controls do.

c. The DMN shows stronger internal connectivity in ADHD compared to controls.

d. When on stimulants, the DMN fails to deactivate during the go-nogo task

60. Which is true regarding the networks involved in ADHD (compared to controls):

a. The default mode network has greater internal connectivity.

b. The default mode network has lesser internal connectivity.

c. The active attention network and default mode network oppose each other more strongly than in controls.

d. Dopaminergic input to the ventral striatum is unchanged in ADHD compared to controls.

61. Which is true regarding the role of ADHD in future criminal behavior:

a. ADHD alone, without conduct disorder comorbidity, markedly increased the risk of criminality

b. ADHD and depression markedly decreases the risk of criminality

c. When Conduct Disorder is comorbid with ADHD, risk of criminality increases dramatically.
 d. Conduct Disorder without ADHD in childhood shows no relationship to adult criminal behavior

62. Children with Conduct Disorder notice fewer cues when observing a conflictual social situation than controls. This is due to
difficulties in;

a. Encoding

b. Attribution

c. Response generation

d. Expectancies

63. Which is NOT TRUE regarding the genetics of criminal behavior

a. Genome Wide Association Studies have not shown any single major genes for antisocial behavior.

b. Low levels of MAO A activity, when combined with an abusive environment, lead to a higher risk of
antisocial behavior.

c. In persons with ADHD, the Val/Val polymorphisms leads to a lower risk for conduct disorder.

d. Low CSF 5-HIAA (metabolite of serotonin) is associated with aggression in both humans and primates.

64. Nicotine mostly likely exerts its rewarding effect in the brain by:

a. Inhibiting GABA interneurons in the ventral tegmental area.

b. Stimulating nicotinic receptors on the Locus Coerulus.

c. Stimulating presynaptic hetereoreceptors on the end of ventral tegmental area neurons.

d. Activating the dorsal raphe (serotonin)

65. Which is true regarding the role of the habenula in substance abuse circuitry

a. It activates the ventral tegmental area, increasing release of dopamine and producing a greater high.

b. It is inhibited by the Globus pallidus during withdrawal symptoms

c. It has a direct connection to the “Hot” areas of the medical prefrontal cortex.

d. It inhibits the ventral tegmental area, decreasing release of dopamine and contributing to tolerance.

66. Which is TRUE regarding Gray matter volume (structural MRI) in Successful vs Unsuccessful Psychopaths:

a. Both groups of psychopaths have reduced amygdala volume.

 b. Only unsuccessful psychopaths have reduced amygdala volume.

c. Only successful psychopaths have reduce medical prefrontal cortex grey matter volume.

d. Unsuccessful psychopaths have increased amygdala volume compared to successful psychopaths.

67. When a naturalistic sample of patients with major depressive disorder (MDD) are given an initial trial of an SSRI, the STAR D
showed what percent of patients achieved remission:

a. 15%

b. 28%

c. 50%

d. 66%

68. Which statement is most true regarding neuroimaging of emotional states:

a. The amygdala and insula activate more strongly for positive than negative emotion.

b. The default mode network responds only to positive emotion.

c. Oribitofrontal and default mode areas respond to both positive and negative emotions.

d. The cerebellum plays a role in modulating emotion related to movement.

69. Which is true regarding the mechanisms of antidepressants:

a. Through either direct or indirect methods, they increase brain levels of serotonin.

b. People carrying the s allele respond less well to antidepressants.

c. Tianeptine, a serotonin reuptake enhancer, worsens depression.

d. BDNF and other anti-apoptotic factors may enhance neurogenesis and synaptogenesis

70. Which is an effect of ketamine when it is given to normal volunteers:

a. It increases BOLD signal in the anterior cingulate cortex.

b. One hour after administration, glutamate level in the brain increase.

c. Task based fMRI is altered and these alterations correlate with depressive symptoms.

d. EEG alpha rhythms are enhanced

71. Which is true regarding Deep Brain Stimulation (DBS)

a. Controlled trials show it to be as efficacious as ECT.

b. The BROADEN trial ended with a positive result and is being reviewed by the FDA

c. Success of DBS may depend on adequately activating orbitofrontal and anterior cingulate areas.

d. Needs to be combined with ketamine treatment to be achieve long term remission.

72. Which is NOT a predictors of long term PTSD in blast-injured veterans:

a. Degree of white matter damage

b. Pre injury IQ

c. Number of Neurobehavioral symptoms at baseline

d. Pre-service emotional trauma

73. Soldiers in training whose Amygdala EEG fingerprint did NOT activate during an anger inducing film:

a. Looked away from the film

b. Intently looked at the film and processed it more deeply

c. Had higher rate of post-traumatic stress syndrome later during their service

d. Had higher cortisol levels during the task

74. Which structure is found in both the Anterior and Posterior Memory system?

A. Amygdala

B. Ventral Striatum

C. Default Mode Network

D. Hippocampus