(NEET) OG_SR & LT [ALL INDIA] [NEET-2021 MODEL] DATE: 30.08.

2021

Time: 3.00 Hrs GT-12 (FINAL PHASE) Max.Marks: 720

Important Instructions:
1. On the Answer Sheet, fill in the particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 carefully with
blue/black ball point pen only.

2. The test is of 3 hours duration and this Test Booklet contains 200 questions. Each
question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks.
For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The
maximum marks are 720.

3. In this Test Paper, each subject will consist of two sections. Section A will consist of
35 questions (all questions are mandatory) and Section B will have 15 questions.
Candidate can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of these 15 questions. In case
if candidate attempts more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted questions will
be considered for marking.

4. In case of more than one option correct in any question, the best correct option will be
considered as answer.

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responses.

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only.

7. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to
the Invigilator before leaving the Room/Hall. The candidates are allowed to take
away this Test Booklet with them.

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stray marks on the
Answer Sheet. Do not write your Form No. anywhere else except in the specified space
in the Test Booklet/ Answer Sheet.

9. Use of white fluid for correction is not permissible on the Answer Sheet.
 BOTANY (4) All vascular plants
SECTION – A 05. Bulliform cells are found in
01. Saprophytic protists are (1) Stem of maize
(1) Basidiomycetes (2) Stem of sunflower
(2) Slime moulds (3) Roots of monocots
(3) Deuteromycetes (4) Leaves of grasses
(4) Phycomycetes 06. In animal cells lipid-like steroidal
02. Match the column – A with column – B hormones are synthesized in
Column – A Column – B (1) Lomasomes (2) Rough ER
(I) Polysiphonia (A) Angiosperm (3) Ribosomes (4) Smooth ER
(II) Polytrichum (B) Gymnosperm 07. Chromosomes are visible only in
(III) Pinus (C) Pteridophyta (1) Interphase
(IV) Psilotum (D) Broyphyta (2) S – phase
(E) Alga (3) Non – dividing cells
A B C D (4) Dividing cells
(1) E D B C 08. In mitotic cell cycle, the M phase starts
(2) D E B C with
(3) D E A B (1) Cytokinesis
(4) E C B D (2) Interkinesis
03. Identify the monocotyledonous plant with (3) Karyokinesis
endospermic seeds (4) Seperation of organelles
(1) Datura (2) Allium 09. Homologous chromosomes separate and
(3) Pisum (4) Both 1 & 2 move towards opposite poles while sister
04. The presence of xylem vessels is a chromatids remain associated at their
characteristic feature of centromeres in
(1) Pteridophytes (1) Metaphase I (2) Anaphase I
(2) Gymnosperms (3) Anaphase II (4) Metaphase II
(3) Angiosperms
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10. Select the correct statement(s) in relation 15. Which of the following is true wrt
to transport in rooted plants complex IV present in the inner
(1) Xylem transport is unidirectional mitochondrial membrane involved in ETS
(2) Phloem transport is bidirectional (1) It is referred as cytochrome bc1
(3) Organic and mineral nutrients complex
undergo multidirectional transport (2) It is also known as ATP synthase
(4) All of the above complex
11. Pinus seeds cannot germinate and (3) It contain cytochromes a and a3
establish themselves into plants without
(4) It is also known as cytochrome c
the presence of _______ reductase complex
(1) Cyanobacteria (2) Archaebacteria 16. The RQ of tripalmitin is
(3) Mycorrhizae (4) Corallorhizae (1) Unity (2) More than one
12. Deficiency of which micro–nutrient (3) Zero (4) Less than one
causes necrosis in plants 17. Select the incorrect combination
(1) Copper (2) Calcium (1) Gibberellins – Promotes bolting
(3) Potassium (4) All of these (2) Auxins – Helps to overcome the
13. Statement I (SI) : Rhizobium and Frankia apical dominance
can be found as free living prokaryotes (3) Cytokinins – Helps in the delay of
in soil. leaf senescence
Statemen II (SII): Rhizobium and Frankia (4) Ethylene – Promotes root growth
can fix atmospheric nitrogen as and root hair formation
symbionts. 18. Chasmogamous flowers are found in
(1) Both SI and SII are correct
(1) Hibiscus (2) Sunflower
(2) Both SI and SII are wrong (3) Commelina (4) All of these
(3) Only SI is correct 19. Generally the size of spherical shaped
(4) Only SII is correct pollengrain is _____ in diameter
14. The primary CO2 acceptor of calvin cycle (1) 25 – 50 micrometers
is (2) 25 – 50 millimeters
(1) 5 – carbon ketose sugar (3) 55 – 100 micrometers
(2) 5 – carbon aldose sugar (4) 15 – 20 centimeters
(3) 3 – carbon ketose sugar
(4) 3 – carbon aldose sugar

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20. Statement – I : Mendel failed to get Column – A Column – B
linkage phenomenon because genes of (A) Codes for
seven types of characters of garden pea (I) Regulator gene
plants selected by him were located on enzyme proteins
four different chromosomes and behaved (B) Binding site for
independently (II) Promoter gene
repressor protein
Statement – II : “Gametes are never
hybrid”. It is a state of law of purity of (C) Binding site for
(III) Operator gene
gametes RNA polymerase
(1) Both SI and SII are correct (D) Codes for
(2) Both SI and SII are wrong (IV) Structural genes
repressor protein
(3) Only SI is correct I II III IV
(4) Only SII is correct (1) D B C A
21. The literal meaning of chromosomes as (2) B A C D
they were visualised by staining is
(3) D C B A
(1) Irregualar net work of fine threads
(4) A B C D
(2) Hair like bodies
26. Which type of varieties of wheat are high
(3) ‘Beads – on – string’ structures
yielding and disease resistant, were
(4) Coloured bodies introduced all over the wheat growing
22. How many types of genotypes and belt of India in 1963 ?
phenotypes are possible in ABO blood (1) Jaya and Ratna
group systems in human beings (2) IR – 8 and TN - 1
respectively
(3) Sharbati sonara and Atlas 66
(1) Four and Six (2) Nine and Four
(4) Sonalika and Kalyan Sona
(3) Three and Two (4) Six and Four
27. Oxygenic photosynthetic prokaryote used
23. Type of pyrimidine found in both DNA
as single cell protein is
and RNA is (1) Spirulina (2) Methylophilus
(1) Adenine (2) Guanine (3) Chlorella (4) Both 1 and 2
(3) Cytosine (4) All of these 28. Find out the incorrect combination /
24. The first genetic material was statement from the following?
(1) Deoxyribonucleic acid (1) Process of biogas production –
Anaerobic process
(2) Protein
(2) Secondary sewage treatment –
(3) Sugar Biological process
(4) Ribonucleic acid (3) The sediment of secondary settling
tank is called Activated sludge
25. Match the column A with column B wrt
(4) Wine and Beer are mainly produced
to the lacoperon
by distillation of the fermented broth

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29. Which of the following product is not 33. In the acid insoluble fraction, how many
produced by yeast ? types of organic bio–macromolecules are
present that have molecular weights in the
(1) Large holes in Swiss cheese
range of ten thousand daltons or above
(2) Statins (1) Four (2) Three
(3) Dough used for making bread (3) Two (4) One
(4) Ethanol 34. Select the incorrect combination
30. Choose mis – match from the following (1) The name cry IAb refers – A gene that
(1) EcoRI – Source is Ecoli codes toxin and controls corn borer
(2) Taq polymerase –Source is Thermus (2) RNAi – Splicing of DNA in the
aquaticus nucleus
(3) Bt cotton – Widely used as (3) Function of GEAC – To ensure the
biopesticide in agricultural fields safety of introducing GM organisms
(4) DNA ligase – Molecular glue (4) Transposons – Moblie genetic
31. Statement I(SI): Restriction endonuleases elements
are also know as ‘Molecular Scissors’ 35. An example for Indian traditional herbal
Statement II(SII) : Restriction medicine that is obtained from modified
underground stem is
endonucleases play important role in the
(1) Basmati (2) Turmeric
construction of rDNA molecule by the
(3) Neem (4) Both 2 & 3
formation of phosphodiester bonds and
SECTION – B
hydrogen bonds between sticky ends of
36. Choose mis-match from the following
two DNA fragments
(1) Mangifera indica – Order :
(1) Both SI and SII are correct
Sapindales
(2) Both SI and SII are wrong
(2) Triticum aestivum – Division
(3) Only SI is correct
Angiospermae
(4) Only SII is correct
(3) Solanum tuberosum – Order :
32. The downstream processing of a
Polymoniales
biosynthesis product produced in a bio–
(4) Gorilla – Order : Carnivora
reactor includes _____ and _____ steps
37. Which of the following vegetative
(1) Seperation and Elution character is exhibited by guava plants ?
(2) Electrophoresis and Elution (1) Opposite phyllotaxy
(3) Denaturation and Annealing (2) Epigynous flowers
(4) Seperation and Purification (3) Inferior ovary
(4) All of these

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38. Golden rice variety (2) Neelakuranji – Strobilathus kunthiana
(1) Is a non – transgenic Taipei variety (3) Carrot grass – Daucus carota
of rice (4)Water hyacinth – Eichhornia crassipes
(2) Is rich source of vitamin ‘A’ 43. The basic amino acid residues rich in
(3) It is developed by introducing three histone proteins in nucleosomes of
different types of genes of taipei variety eukaryotes are
of rice into the IR – 8 variety of rice (1) Leucines and Alanines
(4) More than one option is correct (2) Lysines and Arginines
39. Ribozymes are (3) Leucines and Tryptophans
(1) Proteins that behave like enzymes (4) Glutamines and Valines
(2) Some types of polysaccharides that 44. Outer cell covering of Euglenoids is:
behave like enzymes (1) Cell wall
(3) Some nucleic acids that behave like (2) Plasma membrane
enzymes (3) Pellicle
(4) Some lipids that behave like enzymes (4) Frustule
40. In the paper chromatography technique 45. How many statements are true wrt
seperated chlorophyll ‘a’ pigment is bacteria?
represented by ____ coloured band A) Very simple in structure
(1) Yellow green B) Very complex in behavior
(2) Blue green C) They show most extensive metabolic
(3) Bright yellow diversity
(4) Yellow orange D) Heterotrophic bacteria are most
41. Which of the following is a abundant in nature.
re-differentiation product of extra-stelar E) They are most abundant micro -
secondary growth in woody stem of organisms
dicotyledonous plants ? (1) Five (2) Four only
(1) Cork cambium (3) Three only (4) Two only
(2) Vascular cambium 46. Identify the incorrect combination
(3) Phelloderm (1) Rhizopus : Mycelium is aseptate and
(4) Both 1 & 2 coenocytic
42. Identify the incorrect match wrt to (2) Agaricus : Sex organs are absent
scientific name (3) Alternaria : Imperfect Fungi
(1) Date palm – Phoenix dactylifera (4) Toadstools : Edible mushrooms
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47. Choose the correct combinations from the (1) A = Pvu II and B= Pvu I
following (2) A = Pvu II and B= Pst I
i) Ectocarpus – Brown alga – Haplo (3) A = BamH I and B= Sal I
diplontic life cycle (4) A = Pvu I and B= Pvu II
ii) Polysiphonia – Moss plant – diplontic 50. Sickle cell anaemia is caused due to
life cycle (1) Failure of Karyokinesis
iii) Fucus – Brown alga – Diplontic life (2) Failure of Karyogamy
cycle (3) Change in chromosome number
iv) Sphagnum – Moss plant – Haplo – (4) Change of single base pair in the gene
diplontic life cycle ZOOLOGY
1) i & ii 2) ii & iii SECTION-A
3) i, ii, iii & iv 4) i, iii & iv 51. Genetic material of SARS-COV-2
48. Match the following (1) One double stranded DNA
Column – A Column – B (2) Two double stranded DNA
A) Thorn i) Fertilized ovule (3) One single stranded RNA
B) Spine ii) Modified stem
(4) Two single stranded RNA
(or) Leaf
C) Tendril iii) Modified leaf 52. Most successful parasites are those which
D) Fruit iv) Modified Stem do not
v) Fertilized ovary
(1) Survive in soil
A B C D
(2) Reproduce sexually
(1) iv iii ii i
(3) Kill their host (4) Grow free
(2) iii iv ii i
53. Which of the following is not an
(3) ii iii iv v
invertebrate?
(4) iv iii ii v
(1) Starfish (2) Cuttlefish
49. Identify the A and B in the given diagram
(3) Jellyfish (4) Hagfish
of E.coli cloning vector pBR322
54. Find out correct statements about
respectively
cockroach
(1) Caudal styles are present in both male
& female
(2) Nocturnal,omnivorous animal
(3) Excretory organs are nephridia
(4) In mosaic vision resolution is more
and sensitivity is less
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55. Limulus,Locusta and Laccifer are (4) Spermatogonia to primary
(1) Gut parasites spermatocyte
(2) Soft bodied animals 61. The kind of coelom represented in the
(3) Acoelomate animals diagram given below is characteristic of
(4) With chitinous exoskeleteon
56. Asympote stage of the population growth
is the stage of population in which
population is
(1) Increasing
(2) Decreasing
(1) Earthworm (2) Round worm
(3) Drastically fluctuating
(3) Ring worm (4) Tape worm
(4) Stabilising
62. Find the wrongly matched pair
57. ‘World Bio diversity Day’ is celebrated
(1) Intercalated disc-Cardiac tissue
annually on
(2) Cartilage – Areolar tissue
(1) 16th September (2) 22ndMay
(3) Fusiform fibres – Smooth muscle
(3) 5thJune (4) 29th December
(4) Unicellular glandular cell – Goblet
58. Fever in malaria is due to
cell
(1) Entry of sporozoites into liver cells
63. Choose the wrong pair
(2) Mixing up of haemozoin with blood
(1) Homologous structures – Vertebrate
(3) Entry of merozoites into RBC
hearts
(4) Bite of Amopheles mosquito
(2) Analogous structures-Tendrilsof
59. Which one of the following pairs is
Bougainvillea and thorns of Cucurbita
mismatched?
(3) Convergent evolution – Flippers of
(1) Bombyx mori-Silk
penguins and dolphins
(2) Apis indica-Honey
(4) Divergent evolution – Fore limbs of
(3) Kerrialacca-Lac
whales, bats, cheetah and Man
(4) Octopus-Pearl
64. A fall in glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
60. In spermatogenesis reduction division of
activates
chromosome occurs during conversionof
(1) Posterior pituitary to release oxytocin
(1) Spermatids to sperms
(2) Adrenal medulla to release adrenaline
(2) Secondary spermatocyte to spermatids
(3) Adrenal cortex to release Aldosterone
(3) Primary spermatocyte to secondary
(4) Juxtaglomerular cells to release Renin
spermatocyte

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65. IUDs which are used by females
(1) Act as spermicidal jellies
(2) Block the entry of sperms into vagina
(3) Release copper ions in the uterus that
inhibit sperm motility
(4) Are implanted under the skin and they
release progestogen and oestrogen
66. Choose the wrong statement
(1) Paneth cells secrete Lysozyme
(2) Brunner’s glands are sub mucosal
glands
(3) Chylomicrons are formed in epithelial
cells of intestine
(4) Lipases and Nucleases are not present
in Pancreatic juice
67. In the following human pedigree, the
filled symbols represent the affected
individuals, identify the type of given
pedigree
(1) X-linked dominant
(2) X-linked recessive
(3) Autosomal dominant
(4) Autosomal recessive
68. Identify correct statement from the
following regarding ear
(1) Scala vestibuli – filled
endolymph that ends at the oval window
(2) Organ of corti is responsible for
maintenance of balance of the body &
posture
(3) Otolith organ is concerned with
hearing
(4) Eustachian tube equalize pressure on
either side of tympanum
69. Cardiac glycosides are produced by
(1) Acasia (2) Utricularia
(3) Nepenthes (4) Calotropis
70. A person having antigen B on the surface
of R.B.C and antibody ‘A’ in Blood
plasma can receive blood of type
(1) B and AB (2) A and O
(3) B and O (4) A and B
71. S1: The exchange of gases between lung
alveoli and pulmonary capillaries is called
internal respiration
S2: Partial pressure of oxygen is lower in
the alveoli than in the oxygenated blood
in the capillaries of pulmonary arteries
(1) Both S1&S2 are true
(2) Both S1&S2 are false
(3) S1 is true S2 is false
(4) S1 is false S2 is true
72. Read the following statements
I. Sympathetic division increases the rate
of heart beat
II. First heart sound is caused by closure
of semilunar valves
III. Most of the ventricular filling occurs
during Atrial systole
IV. Tricuspid valve prevents that
backward flow of deoxygenated blood
Select the correct statements
with (1) I and II (2) II and III
(3) I and IV (4) II and IV
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73. As the ocean became saltier, whales and (1) Down’s syndrome and Edward
fish independently evolved mechanisms syndrome
to maintain the concentration of salt in
(2) Klinefelter’s syndrome and Turner’s
their bodies.This is an example of
(1) Divergent evolution syndrome
(2) Random evolution (3) Down’s syndrome and Turner’s
(3) Convergent evolution syndrome
(4) Retrogressive evolution (4) Klinefelter’s syndrome and Down’s
74. Which biome has permafrost condition? syndrome
(1) Savanna (2) Tundra 79. S1: Grasshopper is an example of XY
(3) Grass land (4) Rain forest type of sex determination similar to
75. A normal visioned man whose father was Drosophila
colour blind, marries a woman whose S2: Males have X and Y
father was also colourblind.They have chromosomes,while females have a pair
their first child asa daughter.What are the of X chromosomes in Grasshopper
chances that this child would be colour (1) S1 and S2 are true
blind?
(2) S1 and S2 are false
(1) 25% (2) 50%
(3) S1 is true S2 is false
(3) 100% (4) Zero percent
(4) S1 is false S2 is true
76. Which of the following is are the means
of maintaining a constant body 80. An isolated population of humans with
temperature of 370C when the ambient approximately equal numbers of blue
temperature is higher? eyed and brown eyed individuals was
(1) Vasodilation and sweating decimated by an earthquake only a few
brown eyed people remained to form the
(2) Vasoconstriction and sweating
next generation.This kind of change in the
(3) Vasodilation and shivering gene pool is called
(4) Vasoconstriction and shivering (1) Gene migration
77. Which among these is not a homeotherm? (2) Bottle neck effect
(1) Struthio (2) Testudo (3) Blocked gene flow
(3) Aptenodytes (4) Delphinus (4) Hard-Weinberg equilibrium
78. Due to non-disjunction of chromosomes 81. Retina is most sensitive at
during spermatogenesis,some sperms (1) Optic disc (2) Macula lutea
carry both sex chromosomes (22A+XY)
(3) Fovea centralis (4) Macula densa
and some sperms do not carry any sex
chromosome (22A+0).If these sperms 82. Rivet popper hypothesis was proposed by
fertilise normal eggs (22A+X) which type (1) Edward Wilson (2) Paul Ehrlich
of genetic disorders appear among off
(3) Robert May (4) Haeckel
springs?
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83. Membrane secreted by secondary oocyte 88. Find the wrongly matched pair
is (1) Alien species to India-Clarias
(1) Corona radiata (2) Zona pellucida gariepinus
(2) Biodiversity Hot spots - Regions with
(3) Zona glomerulosa (4) Zona fasciculata
species richness
84. Sequence of hormones during menstrual (3)In situ conservation - Cryopreservation
cycle (4) Endemism - Species confined to one
(1) FSH, GnRH, Progesterone and region and not found anywhere else
estrogen 89. The number of bones in the appendicular
(2) GnRH, FSH, Oestrogen and skeleton of adult man is
Progesterone (1) 206 (2) 126
(3) Progesterone,estrogen and FSH (3) 80 (4) 296
(4) Estrogen,Progesterone and FSH 90. Ovulation in the human female normally
85. Total lung capacity includes takes place
(1) TV+ERV (2) TV+IRV (1) At the end of proliferative phase
(3) VC+RV (4) RV+ERV (2) At the mid secretory phase
SECTION – B (3) Just before the end of secretory phase
86. The type of blood cell or formed element (4) At the beginning of proliferative
without nucleus is characterized by
phase
(1) Produces histamine
91. Which of the following human parasites
(2) Highly phagocytic
require mosquito to complete their life
(3) Plays an important role in hemostasis cycle?
(4) Transport of gases (1) Microsporum and Leishmania

87. Match the name of the animal (column-I) (2) Ascaris and Wuchereria
with one characteristic (Column-II) and (3) Salmonella and Mycobacterium
the phylum /class (Column-III) to which
(4) Plasmodium and Wuchereria
it belongs
Column-I Column-II Column-II 92. Which of the given organism is

(1) Ichthyophis Terrestrial Reptilia homeothermic among the following?

(1) Turtle (2) Catla
Radially
(2) Adamsia Porifera (3) Haplobatrachus (4) Macaca
symmetrical
93. The type of interaction where none of the
Body
covering of Pisces partner is benefitted is
(3) Blatta
chitinous (1) Commensalism (2) Predation
exoskeleteon
(3) Parasitism (4) Competition
(4)Petromyzon Ectoparasite Cyclostomata

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94. Battle against COVID is still going on. (3) Lymphocytes and erythrocytes
The first vaccine prepared in INDIA with (4) Neutrophils and monocytes
indigenous technology is PHYSICS
(1) Moderna (2) Sputnik – I SECTION - A
(3) Covishield (4) Covaxin 101. From the graph between current (I) and
95. Cuckoo laying eggs in crow’s nest shows voltage (V) shown below. Identify the
(1) Ectoparasitism portion corresponding to negative
(2) Hyperparasitism resistance
(3) Brood parasitism
(4) Holoparasitism
96. Elastic membrane covering sensory hair
cells of the ear is
(1) Basilar membrane
(2) Tectorial membrane
(1) AB (2) BC
(3) Reissner’s membrane
(3) CD (4) DE
(4) Basement membrane
102. A plane electromagnetic wave
97. Succus entericus is the name given to
(1) Intestinal glands ( )
E = 100 cos 6 × 10 8 t + 4x v / m
(2) Endocrinal part of pancreas propagates in a dielectric medium. The
(3) Enlargement in the gut refractive index of medium is
(4) Intestinal juice (1) 1.5 (2) 2.0
98. Chordate animal having flame cells /
(3) 2.4 (4) 4.0
Solenocytes as excretory structures
103. A wave front AB passing through a
(1) Brachiosaurus (2) Branchiostoma
system C emerges as DE. The system C
(3) Brantosaurus (4) Balanoglossus
could be
99. Fatigue in skeletal muscles is due to
(1) Large amount of myoglobin
(2) Large number of mitochondria
(3) Accumulation of lactic acid
(4) Innervation of autonomic fibres
100. Phagocytic cells of Blood (1) a slit (2) a biprism
(1) Acidophils and basophils (3) a prism (4) a glass slab
(2) Erythrocytes and platelets
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104. In absence of dielectric medium, capacity 108. The breakdown in a reverse biased p – n
of a parallel plate capacitor is C 0 . A junction diode is more likely to occur due
sheet of dielectric constant K and to
thickness of one third of the plate (1) large velocity of the minority charge
separation is inserted between the plates. carriers if the doping concentration is
If new capacity is C, then small.
C 3K C 2K
(1) = (2) = (2) large velocity of the minority charge
C 0 2K + 1 C 0 3K + 1
carriers if the doping concentration is
C 3K + 1 C 2K + 1
(3) = (4) = large
C0 2K C0 3K
(3) strong electric field in a depletion
105. In photo picture of light, the intensity of
region if the doping concentration is
light at a frequency is determined by
small
(1) square of amplitude
(4) none of these
(2) Number of photons crossing per unit
109. A wire in the form of semi circle lies on a
area per unit time
friction less table. The ends of semi circle
(3) Both 1 and 2 are attached to springs S1 and S2 whose
(4) Density of medium through which other ends a and b are fixed. If the current
light posses in the wire is I then tension in each spring
is
106. A charge ‘q’ of opposite nature is
revolving round an infinitely long linear
charge of density λ coloumb/m in a
circular orbit of radius ‘r’. The speed of
the revolving charge will be
(1) kqλ / m (2) kq / λ m

(3) λ q / 2πε 0 m (4) kq / λ mr

(1) π RIB (2) 2RIB
107. The time period of vibration of a dip
needle vibrating the vertical plane in (3) IRB (4) Zero
magnetic meirdian is 1 second. When 110. In Bohr model of hydrogen atom, the
same magnetic meedle is made to vibrate
force on the electron depends on the
in the horizontal plane, the time period
principle quantum number as
because 3 1/ 4 second. Then the angle of
dip is (1) F ∝ 1 / n 3
(1) 30 0 (2) 45 0
(2) F ∝ 1 / n 4
(3) 60 0 (4) 90 0
(3) F ∝ 1 / n 5
(4) Does not depend on n

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111. Two vertical poles are at distance of
6.28 m from each other, what should the
maximum distance of an observer from
poles to see them separately
(1) 21.6 km (2) 10.8 km
(3) 15 km (4) 25.2 km
112. An atomic power nuclear reactor can
deliver 300 MW. The energy released due
to fission of each nucleus of uranium
atom U 235 is 170 MeV. The number of
uranium atoms fissioned per hour will be
(1) 4 × 10 22 (2) 30 × 10 22
(3) 10 × 10 20 (4) 5 × 10 15
113. Box may have any series combination of
L, C and R.
(1) A → P; B → R; C → S; D → Q
(2) A → P; B → S; C → R; D → Q
(3) A → P; B → R; C → Q; D → S
(4) A → Q; B → S; C → R; D → P
114. An n – p – n transistor in a common
emitter mode is used as a simple voltage
amplifier with collector connected to load
resistance RL and to the base through a
resistance RB . The collector emitter
voltage VCE = 4V , the base emitter
voltage VBE = 0.6V , current through
collector is 4 mA and the current
amplification factor β = 100 . Calculate
the value of RB

Column – I Column – II
P) Box
contain
LCR at
A) resonance

Q) Box (1) 1k Ω (2) 85 k Ω

contain (3) 185 k Ω (4) 8.5 k Ω
only LR
B) 115. Two coil have a mutual inductance 0.005
H. The current changes in first coil
R) Power according to equation I = I 0 sin ωt , where
factor of
I 0 = 2A and ω = 100 π rad / sec. The
box zero
C) maximum value of induced emf in second
coil is
S) Box (1) 4π V (2) 3π V
contain only
(3) 2π V (4) π V
CR
D)

Page 13
116. The electric field due to a uniformly
charged non-conducting sphere of radius
R as a function of the distance from its
centre is represented graphically by
(1)
119. A ring rotates about z axis as shown in
(2)
118. A ray of light incident on an equilateral
glass prism shows minimum deviation of
30°. Calculate the speed of light through
the prism.
(1) 2.12 × 108 m/sec
(2) 1.5 × 108 m/sec
(3) 3.1 × 108 m/sec
(4) 5 × 108 m/sec
figure. The plane of rotation is xy. At a
certain instant the acceleration of a
particle P (shown in figure) on the ring is
( )
( 6iˆ − 8 ˆj m / s 2 . Find magnitudes of
angular acceleration of the ring and its
angular velocity at that instant. Radius of
the ring is 2m

(3)

(4)
117. An electron is moving through a field. It (1) 4 rad / s 2 , 3 rad / s
is moving
(i) opposite an electric field (2) 2 rad / s 2 , 3 rad / s
(ii) perpendicular to a magnetic field as
(3) 3rad / s 2 , 2 rad / s
shown. For each situation the de-Broglie
wave length of electron (4) 5 rad / s 2 , 5 rad / s
120. The gravitational field due to a mass
K
distribution is E = in the x –direction.
x3
(K is a constant). Taking the gravitational
potential to be zero at infinity, its value at
(1) Increasing, increasing the a distance x is
(2) Increasing, decreasing K K
(1) (2)
x 2x
(3) Decreasing, same
(4) Increasing, Same K K
(3) (4)
x2 2x 2
Page 14
121. It is found that an increase in pressure of
100 kPa causes a certain volume of water
to decrease by 5 × 10 −3 percent of its
original volume. Then the speed of sound
in the water is about (density of water
10 3 kg / m 3 )
(1) 330 m/s (2) 1414 m/s
(3) 1732 m/s (4) 2500 m/s
122. The mobility of free electron is greater
than that of free holes because
(1) The carry negative charge
(2) They are light
(3) They mutually collide less
(4) They require low energy to continue
their motion
123. Two ends of a conducting rod of varying
cross section are maintained at 200 0 C
and 0 0 C respectively. In steady state
(1) temperature differences across AB
and CD are equal
(2) temperature difference across AB is
greater than that across CD
(3) temperature difference across AB is
less than that across CD
(4) temperature difference may be equal
or different depending upon thermal
conductivity of the rod.
124. A tennis ball is thrown to a height h
above the ground. If the coefficient of
restitution is e, what height will the ball
achieve after the third collision?
(1) he6 (2) he2
(3) he3 (4) he9
Page 15
125. A child is standing with folded hands at
the centre of a platform rotating about its
central axis. The kinetic energy of the
system is K. The child now stretches his
arm so that moment of inertia of the
system doubles. The kinetic energy of
the system now is
(1) 2K (2) K
2
K
(3) (4) 4K
4
126. A solid sphere of mass M is rolling with a
speed V on a horizontal surface and
strikes a massless spring of force constant
K. Then the maximum compression of
spring is
5MV 2 7 MV 2
(1) (2)
3K 5K
MV 2 3MV 2
(3) (4)
K 2K
127. (a) Centre of gravity (C.G) of a body is
the point at which the weight of the body
acts.
(b) Centre of mass coincideswith the
centre of gravity if the earth is assumed to
have infinitely large radius.
(c) To evaluate the gravitational field
intensity due to any body at an external
point, the entire mass of the body can be
considered to be concentrated at its C.G.
(d) The radius of gyration of anybody
rotating about an axis is the length of the
perpendicular dropped from the C.G. of
the body to the axis of rotation.
Which one of the following pairs of
statements is correct?
(1)a and b (2) b and c
(3) c and d (4) dand a
128. The difference in the value of 'g'at pole instantaneous speed. The time taken by
and at a lattitude is
3
Rω 2 then latitude
the object, to come to rest, would be
4 (1) 1 s (2) 2 s
angle is
0 0 (3) 4 s (4) 8 s
(1) 60 (2) 30
0 0
133. A block of mass 2kg, kept at origin is
(3) 45 (4) 95 having velocity 4 6 m / s in positive x –
129. A block of mass m is placed on a surface direction. Its potential energy is defined
with a vertical cross section given by
x3
( )
as U = − x 3 + 6 x 2 + 15 J . Its velocity
y= . If the coefficient of friction is when the applied force becomes zero, is
6
(1) 8 m/s (2) 4 m/s
0.5, the maximum height above the
ground at which the block can be placed (3) 10 24 m / s (4) 0 m/s
without slipping is
134. Four solid spheres A, B, C and D are of
1 1
(1) m (2) m same radius but made of different metals.
2 6
Their densities are in ratio 6 : 3 : 4 : 5
2 1
(3) m (4) m and specific heats are in ratio 2 : 5 : 4 : 6.
3 3 These are initially kept at the same
130. Two pendulums of time period 3 s and 7s
temperature and placed in the same
respectively start oscillating
surroundings. The sphere which has the
simultaneously from two opposite
slowest rate of cooling is
extreme positions. After how much least
(1) C (2) B
time they will be in phase
21 21 (3) D (4) A
(1) s (2) s
8 4 135. One centimetre on the main scale of
21 21 vernier calipers is divided into ten equal
(3) s (4) s
2 10 parts. If 10 divisions of vernier scale
131. A person at rest is observing two trains coincide with 8 small divisions of the
one coming towards him and other main scale, the least count of the callipers
leaving with the same speed 4 m/s. If is
their whistling frequencies are 240 Hz (1) 0.01 cm (2) 0.02 cm
each, then the number of beats per second (3) 0.05 cm (4) 0.005 cm
heard by the person will be (if velocity of
SECTION – B
sound is 320 m/s)
(1) 3 (2) 6 136. The equation of a wave on a string of
(3) 9 (4) zero linear mass density 0.04 kg m–1 is given
132. An object moving with a speed of by y = 0.02 sin  2π  t − x   SI units.
 0.04 0.50 
6.25 ms −1 , is decelerated at a rate given  

dv The tension in the string is

by = −2.5 v . Where v is the
dt (1) 6.25 N (2) 4.0 N
(3) 12.5 N (4) 62.5 N
Page 16
137. A piece of ice floats in a vessel with (3) 13
water above which layer of a lighter oil is (4) can't be determined
poured. How will the level of the
141. A thin hollow cylinder is free to rotate
interface change after the whole of ice
about its geometrical axis. It has a mass
melts? What will be the change in the
of 8 kg and a radius of 20 cm. A rope is
total level of liquid in the vessel
wrapped around the cylinder. What force
(1) Interface falls, total level also falls
must be exerted along the rope to produce
(2) Interface rises, total level falls an angular acceleration of 3 rad/sec2?
(3) Interface falls, total level also rises (1) 8.4 N (2) 5.8 N
(4) Interface rises, total level rises (3) 4.8 N (4) None of these
138. One end of a copper rod of length 1.0 m 142. The temperature entropy diagram of a
and area of cross-section 10-3m2 is reversible engine cycle is given in the
immersed in boiling water and the other figure. Its efficiency is
end in ice. If the coefficient of thermal
conductivity of copper is 92 cal / m-s - oC
and the latent heat of ice is 8 × 10 4 cal / kg
, then the amount of ice which will melt
in one minute is
(1) 9.2 × 10 −3 kg (2) 8 × 10 −3 kg

(3) 6.9 × 10 −3 kg (4) 5.4 × 10 −3 kg (1) 1/3 (2) 2/3

139. If the system is released, then the (3) 1/2 (4) 1/4
acceleration of the centre of mass of the 143. Mark the incorrect option
system is
(1) when an uncharged capacitor is
connected across the battery, just after the
connections has been made, it behaves as
short circuit
(2) When capacitor is fully charged it
behave as short circuit
(3) When capacitor is fully charged it
g g
(1) (2) behaving as open circuit
4 2
(3) g (4) 2g (4) 1 and 3 both




140. A , B and C are three orthogonal vectors 144. The colour coded carbon resistance has
three bands. The bands from left are blue,
with magnitudes 3, 4 and 12 respectively.



 yellow and red the resistance is
The value of A − B + C will be (1) 6400 ± 20% (2) 642 ± 20%
(3) 6420 ± 10% (4) 4600 ± 5%
(1) 11 (2) 19
Page 17
145. (A): Due to scattering of light, the clouds 149. The truth table for the following logic
having water droplets are generally white, circuit is
when size of droplets << wave length of
light.
(B): In youngs pin hole experiment, the
fringes are nearly straight lines, when
distance of screen from plane of slits very
large compared to band width.
(1) A is true, B is false A B Y A B Y
(2) A is false, B is true 0 0 0 0 0 0
(3) A and Bare true (1) 0 1 1 (2) 0 1 1
1 0 1 1 0 1
(4) A and B are false
1 1 0 1 1 1
146. According to quarks theory, nucleons are
composed of quarks. A proton is A B Y A B Y
composed of the quarks 0 0 1 0 0 1
(1)d, ,d, u (2) d, u, u (3) 0 1 0 (4) 0 1 1
1 0 1 1 0 0
(3) d, u, d (4) u, u , d
1 1 0 1 1 1
147. When radiation of wavelength λ is
incident on a metallic surface, the 150. A solenoid 60 cm long and of radius 4.0
stopping poterntial is 4.8 volts. If the cm has 3 layers of windings of 300 turns
same surface is illuminated with radiation each. A 2.0 cm long wire of mass 2.5 g
of double the wavelength, then the lies inside the solenoid (Near the centre)
stopping potential becomes 1.6 volts. normal to its axis. Both wire and axis are
Then the threshold wavelength for the in the horizontal plane if wire carring the
surface is current of 6A then and wire is in
equilibrium then current in solenoid will
(1) 2λ (2) 4 λ
be
(3) 6 λ (4) 8 λ (1) 108 A (2) 130 A
148. Full scale deflection current for (3) 164 A (4) 150 A
galvanometer is 1 Amp. What should be CHEMISTRY

the value of shunt resistance so that SECTION-A

galvanometer shows half scale deflection. 151. Which of the following statements is
wrong?
(1)NO2 is paramagnetic in nature
(2) NO is neutral oxide
(3) N2 is more reactive than P4 .
(4) PH3 can acts as a ligand in the
(1) 10 Ω (2) 1Ω
formation of coordination compound with
(3) 12Ω (4) 2Ω
transition elements
Page 18
152. Which among the following reaction does 1
C( s ) + O2( g ) → CO( g ) , ∆H = −110kJ
not takes place? 2
What is the enthalpy change (in kJ) for
(1) Cl2 + 2 Kl 
→ I 2 + 2 KCl
the reaction?
(2) F2 + 2 KCl 
→ Cl2 + 2 KF
3C( s ) + Cr2O3( s ) → 2Cr( s ) + 3CO( g )
(3) Br2 + 2 KCl 
→ Cl2 + 2 KBr
(1) -1460kJ (2) +800Kj
(4) Br2 + 2 Kl 
→ I 2 + 2 KBr
(3) -345kJ (4) -652kJ
153. In the reaction 157. ∆G 0 vs T plot in the Ellingham’s diagram
FeS2 + KMnO4 + H + → Fe3+ + SO2 + Mn2+ + H2O slopes downward for the reaction
The equivalent weight of FeS2 would be
(1) 2Mg ( s ) + O2( g ) → 2MgO( s )
equal to
(1) Molar mass (2)
Molar mass (2) 2 Ag ( s ) + O2( g ) → Ag 2O( s )
10
(3) 2C( s ) + O2( g ) → 2CO( g )
Molar mass Molar mass
(3) (4)
11 13 (4) 2CO( g ) + O2( g ) → 2CO2( g )
154. Extraction of gold and silver involves
–
leaching the metal with CN ion (cyanide
158. The standard electrode potential (E ) o

ion). The metal is recovered by ______

values of ( Al +3
/ Al , Ag + / Ag , K + / K and Cr +3 / Cr )
(1) displacement of metal by some other
are −1.66V ,0.80V , −2.93V and
−0.74V respectively. The correct
metal from the complex ion.
decreasing order of reducing power of the
(2) roasting of metal complex. metal is
(3) calcination followed by roasting. (1) K > Al > Cr > Ag
(4) thermal decomposition of metal (2) Ag > Cr > Al > K
complex (3) K > Al > Ag > Cr
155. The chemical reaction, 2O3( g ) → 3O2( g ) (4) Al > K > Ag > Cr
proceeds as follows
159. For which of the following reactions, the
O3 ⇌ O2 + O − − − − − ( Fast )
O + O3 ⇌ 2O2 − − − − − ( Slow) degree of dissociation α and equilibrium
The rate law expression should be 4α 2 p
constant ( Kp ) are related as Kp =
(1) r = K [O3 ]
2
(2) r = K [O3 ] [O2 ]
2 −1
(1 − α 2 )
(3) r = K [O3 ][O2 ] (4) Unpredictable (1) N 2O4( g ) ⇌ 2 NO2( g )

156. The enthalpy changes for two reactions (2) 2 HI ( g ) ⇌ H 2( g ) + I 2( g )

are given by the equations (3) 2 NH 3( g ) ⇌ N 2( g ) + 3H 2( g )
3
2Cr( s ) + O2( g ) → Cr2O3( s ) , ∆H = −1130kJ (4) PCl5( g ) ⇌ PCl3( g ) + Cl2( g )

Page 19
160. Statement –I: Penta acetate of glucose OH

does not react with hydroxyl amine (3) OH Br Br

Statement –II: Glucose reacts with H 2O
+ 3Br2 + 3HBr
sodium bisulphite to form addition
product
(1)Both Statement –I and II are true Br
(2) Statement –I is true and statement – II (4) H3C − CH = CH2 + HBr → H3C − CHBr − CH3
is false
165. H 2O2 can be prepared by the action of ice
(3) Both Statement –I and II are false
(4) Statement – I is false and statement – cold dil. H 2 SO4 on
II is true (1) MnO2 (2) PbO2
161. EM0 / M has positive value for which of the
+2
(3) Na2O2 (4) OF2
elements of 3d transition series
166. Aq. Solution of which of the following
(1) Zn (2) Cu
has lowest vapour pressure?
(3) Ni (4) Co
(1) 10% (w/v)glucose
162. A metal crystallizes in face centred cubic
lattice with edge length of 450pm. Molar (2) 10% (w/v) sucrose
mass of metal is 50gmol-1. Then the (3) 10% (w/v) urea
density of metal is
(4) 10% (w/v) fructose
(1) 2.64 g/cc (2) 3.64 g/cc
167. Polymer which has amide linkage is
(3) 4.64 g/cc (4) 2.68 g/cc
(1) Nylon – 6,6 (2) Terylene
163. Among the electrolytes
Na2 SO4 , CaCl2 , Al2 ( SO4 )3 and NH 4Cl , the (3) Teflon (4) Bakelite
most effective coagulating agent for 168. Which of the following is an incorrect
Sb2 S3 is statement?
(1) Na2 SO4 (2) CaCl2 (1) Alitame is high potency sweetener
(3) Al2 ( SO4 )3 (4) NH 4Cl (2)BHT and BHA are anti oxidants
164. Which of the following is Free-radical
(3) Aspirin and paracetamol are narcotic
substitution reaction?
(1) analgesics
CH3 CH2Br (4) Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide is
∆
+ Br2  → + HBr a cationic detergent and is used in hair
conditioners
Br 169. Equal volumes of two solutions with pH

Br values 8 and 10 are mixed together. The

(2) pH of resulting solution is approximately
+ Br2  →
CCl 4

(1) 8.7 (2) 10.3

(3) 7.3 (4) 9.7
Page
20
170. All the following are Lewis acids except
(1) BF3 (2) SO3 NH 2
(1)
(3) CO2 (4) PH 3
171. Phenol (mol.wt.94) dimerised to 60% in a SO3 H
solvent, the observed molar mass of (2)
phenol will be
(1) less than 94 (2) 134.2
H2 N CO2 H
(3) 94 (4) 150 (3)

172. Consider the elements Mg, Al, S,P and Si

the correct increasing order of their first
H2N SO3 H
ionization enthalpy is (4)
(1) Al<Mg<Si<S<P (2) Mg<Al<Si<S<P
177. Most reactive towards nucleophilic
(3) Mg<Al<Si<P<S (4) Al<Mg<S<Si<P
additon is
173. When 1 litre of 1M HCl is mixed with 1
litre of 1M NaOH, the rise in temperature (1) HCHO (2) CH 3CHO
was found to be T1. In another experiment
O
2 litre of 1M NaOH is mixed with 2 litre
of 1M HCl. The rise in temperature was (3) H 3C − C − CH 3 (4) C2 H 5CHO
found to be T2. Then 178. The ‘Z’ isomer among the following is
(1) T1 = T2 (2) T1 = 2T2
C6H5 COOH
(3) 2T1 = T2 (4) T1 = 3T2
C =C
174. London smog results from a high (1)
Cl H
concentration of
CH3 CH2OH
(1) CO2( g ) (2) SO2( g ) (2)
C =C
(3) O3( g ) (4) NO2( g )
H CHO
175. If Z is a compressibility factor, van der
CH3 CH2CH3
Waal’s equation at low pressure for 1
(3)
mole of a real gas can be written as C =C
RT a Br
(1) Z = 1 + (2) Z = 1 − Cl
pb VRT
CH 3 CH 3
Rb Pb
(3) Z = 1 − (4) Z = 1 +
PT RT
C
176. In Lassaigne’s test, which of the
following organic compounds would
(4) N
produce a blood red colour when its
sodium extract is treated with FeCl3 OH

solution
Page 21
179. The IUPAC name of N=N
O
(4)

182. Which of the following statements is

OH
incorrect?
(1) pro-2-enoic acid
(1) PbX 2 is more stable than PbX 4
(2) but-1-enoic acid
(3) but-3-enoic acid (2) PbCl4 is less stable than SnCl4 but

(4) pent-4-enoic acid PbCl2 is more stable than SnCl2

180. Which of the following can be used for (3) PbCl4 is less stable than CCl4
the preparation of propane? (4) Pb(II) is good reducing agent while
i) CH 3CH = CH 2 → H 2 / Ni
∆ Sn(II) is not
( i ) Mg / ether
ii) CH 3CH 2CH 2Cl ( ii ) H3O +
→ 183. A + B 
→ Anisole  
Conc . HI
→ P + Q , A, B,
∆

HI + Re d ' P ' P, Q respectively

iii) CH 3CH 2CH 2 I
1500 C
NaOH ( CaO ) (1) C6 H 5 I , CH 3ONa, C6 H 5OH , CH 3 I
iv) CH 3CH 2CH 2COONa 
Heat
→
(1) Only iv (2) iii and iv (2) C6 H 5ONa, CH 3 I , C6 H 5 I , CH 3ONa
(3) ii, iii and iv (4) i,ii,iii and iv (3) C6 H 5ONa, CH 3 I , C6 H 5OH , CH 3 I
NH2
(4) C6 H 5 I , CH 3ONa, C6 H 5 I , CH 3ONa
CHCl3.KOH Na −C2H5OH
 → X  →Y
∆ 184. Borax bead test is not given by
181. . (1) Aluminium salt (2) Cobalt salt
Y is
NH-OH (3) Copper salt (4) Nickel salt
185. On heating a compound with warm dil
(1)
H 2 SO4 , gas’ X’ is evolved which turns

NH2CH2OH K 2Cr2O7 paper acidified with dil H 2 SO4

to a green compound ‘Y’. Then ‘X’ and

(2)
‘Y’ respectively are

NH-CH3 (1) X = SO2 , Y = Cr2O3

(3) (2) X = SO3 , Y = Cr2O3

(3) X = SO2 , Y = Cr2 ( SO4 )3

(4) X = SO3 , Y = Cr2 ( SO4 )3

Page
22
 SECTION – B List-I List II
OH (Electronic config.) (Rules Violated)
I) Hund’s only
(A)
II) Pauli’s and
( i )CHCl / NaOH →
Br2 / CS2
186. B ← 3
( ii ) H O+ 273 K
A (B) Hund’s only
3

III) Auf-bau,
(C) Pauli’s and Hund’s
Identify the major product A and B
IV) Auf-bau only
respectively in the above reactions of (D)
phenol V)Auf-bau and
OH OH Hund’s only
A B C D
Br (1) I II V IV
(2) II I IV III
and (3) II I V III
(1) (4) II I V IV
188. 4.9 gram KClO3 on calcination suffers a
loss in weight of 0.384 grams. The
CHO
percentage of KClO3 that got decomposed
OH OH (Atomic mass of K=39, Cl = 35.5, O=16)
CHO (1) 40 (2) 60
(3) 80 (4) 20
and
189. Which among the following pair of xenon
(2) compounds contain same number of lone
pairs of electrons on central atom?
Br (1) XeF2; XeF4 (2) XeF4; XeF6
OH OH (3) XeO4 ; XeF6 (4) XeO3; XeF6
190. Benzamide can be converted into aniline
Br CHO
by the action of
(3)
and (1) Br2 / KOH (2) Br2 / CCl4
(3) Br2 / water (4) Br2 / Red P
CN
OH OH

DIBAL − H

H O+
→X
and 3

191.
(4)

COOC2H5
Br CHO
Which of the following is X?
187. Match the following
Page
23
 CHO CHO 195. ABx Ly( sp 3d hybridisation of A) has ‘T’
shape geometry. What will be the
geometry of molecule if A forms ABy Lx
type molecule? (B= Bond pair, L=Lone
(1) (2) pair)
(1) Linear
(2) Trigonal bipyramidal
CHO COOH (3) T-shape (4) See-saw
CHO COCH3
196. In the Hall process, aluminium is
produced by the electrolysis of molten
Al2O3 . How many seconds would it take
to produce enough aluminium by the Hall
process to make a case of 24 cans of
(3) (4)
aluminium soft drink, if each can use 5
grams of Al, a current of 9650 amp is
COCH3 COOH employed, and the current efficiency of
192. In the qualitative analysis, which of the the cell is 90%?
following reagent is used in the (1) 203.2 (2) 148.14
confirmation of ammonium ion? (3) 333.5 (4) 6.17
(1) H 2 SO4 (2) Dil. HCl 197. If one mole of AgCl is doped with 10−5
(3) Nessler’s reagent mole of CaCl2, then number of Ag+ ions
(4) Hydrogensulphide Lost from the Lattice is
193. Which of the following compounds is (1) 1.2 × 1019 (2) 10−5
aromatic alcohol? (3) 6 ×1018 (4) 3 × 1018
OH CH2OH
198. The rate of formation of SO3 in the
reaction 2 SO2( g ) + O2( g ) → 2 SO3( g ) is
100 g min −1 . Hence, rate of disappearence
of O2 is
(1) 50g min-1 (2) 100g min-1
(A) (B)
(3)20g min-1 (4) 40g min-1
CH2OH OH
199. The reaction given below is known as
ether
C 6 H 5 − I + 2Na + I − CH 3  → C 6 H 5 − CH 3 + 2NaI
(1) Wurtz reaction
(2) Wurtz – Fittig reaction
CH3 CH3 (3) Fittig reaction (4) Ulmann reaction
(C) (D) 200. Compounds ‘A’ and ‘C’ in the following
(1) A,B,C,D (2) A,D reaction are _______
(3) B,C (4) A (i )CH MgBr
CH3CHO → 3
( A) 
H SO
→( B) 
2 4 Hydroboration oxidation
→( C )
(ii) H O 2 ∆
194. The secondary valency of chromium in
(1) Identical
[Cr(en)3 ] Cl3 is (2) Positional isomers
(1) 6 (2) 3 (3) Functional isomers
(3) 2 (4) 4 (4) Optical isomers
Page
24