15-06-2022 OYMR

CODE-B
Phase-1

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456

MM : 720 Term Exam for NEET – 2023 Time 3 Hrs. 20 Min.

Test - 1

Answer Key

1. (1) 41. (2) 81. (2) 121. (2) 161. (4)

2. (4) 42. (3) 82. (3) 122. (1) 162. (2)
3. (1) 43. (4) 83. (4) 123. (1) 163. (2)
4. (2) 44. (4) 84. (2) 124. (3) 164. (2)
5. (3) 45. (4) 85. (1) 125. (3) 165. (1)
6. (4) 46. (2) 86. (4) 126. (3) 166. (3)
7. (1) 47. (1) 87. (2) 127. (3) 167. (4)
8. (3) 48. (4) 88. (1) 128. (3) 168. (1)
9. (2) 49. (2) 89. (1) 129. (3) 169. (1)
10. (4) 50. (3) 90. (2) 130. (4) 170. (2)
11. (3) 51. (3) 91. (4) 131. (3) 171. (2)
12. (3) 52. (4) 92. (1) 132. (1) 172. (3)
13. (4) 53. (4) 93. (3) 133. (2) 173. (4)
14. (1) 54. (3) 94. (2) 134. (3) 174. (3)
15. (4) 55. (2) 95. (3) 135. (1) 175 (3)
16. (4) 56. (3) 96. (3) 136. (3) 176. (1)
17. (2) 57. (3) 97. (2) 137. (2) 177. (3)
18. (1) 58. (3) 98. (3) 138. (1) 178. (2)
19. (3) 59. (2) 99. (4) 139. (1) 179. (1)
20. (2) 60. (4) 100. (1) 140. (1) 180. (4)
21. (2) 61. (2) 101. (3) 141. (2) 181. (2)
22. (1) 62. (2) 102. (3) 142. (4) 182. (3)
23. (4) 63. (4) 103. (3) 143. (2) 183. (4)
24. (3) 64. (2) 104. (3) 144. (1) 184. (2)
25. (3) 65. (4) 105. (3) 145. (4) 185. (1)
26. (3) 66. (2) 106. (3) 146. (4) 186. (4)
27. (1) 67. (4) 107. (1) 147. (4) 187. (2)
28. (2) 68. (4) 108. (2) 148. (4) 188. (1)
29. (4) 69. (4) 109. (4) 149. (4) 189. (2)
30. (1) 70. (3) 110. (2) 150. (3) 190. (2)
31. (1) 71. (2) 111. (3) 151. (4) 191. (3)
32. (2) 72. (4) 112. (3) 152. (2) 192. (3)
33. (2) 73. (4) 113. (2) 153. (3) 193. (3)
34. (4) 74. (2) 114. (4) 154. (1) 194. (4)
35. (3) 75. (3) 115. (3) 155. (3) 195. (4)
36. (3) 76. (2) 116. (2) 156. (2) 196. (4)
37. (1) 77. (3) 117. (1) 157. (4) 197. (4)
38. (2) 78. (1) 118. (1) 158. (3) 198. (2)
39. (3) 79. (4) 119. (1) 159. (2) 199. (2)
40. (1) 80. (1) 120. (4) 160. (1) 200. (4)
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Term Exam Test-1 Code-B (OYMR_Phase-1)_Hints and Solutions One Year Medical - 2023

15-06-2022 OYMR
CODE-B
Phase-1

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456

MM : 720 Term Exam for NEET – 2023 Time 3 Hrs. 20 Min.

Test - 1

Hints and Solutions

PHYSICS
SECTION-A 6. Answer (4)
1. Answer (1)
W = U
= Uf = Ui K ( x )(Q – x )
F=
 1 1 r2
= kq1q2  −  100
 20 40  Let h = (x) (Q – x)
dh
 2 − 1 = Q – 2x = 0
= 9  109  12  4  10−12   100
 40 
dx

= 108 × 10–2 = 1.08 J Q

 x=
2. Answer (4) 2
P Ratio is 1 : 1
E= 3cos2  + 1 7. Answer (1)
40 r 3
Electric field due to electric dipole at axial point is
3. Answer (1) in the same direction as that of dipole moment.
kq1 1 q1 1 8. Answer (3)
E1 = = =
R12 40 R12 0
2
E2 = Above represents uniform electric field
0
9. Answer (2)
As 1 = 2
9.1
n= = 1031
 E1 = E2 9.1 10 −31

4. Answer (2) Q = ne
F = mg = qE = –1.6 × 10–19 × 1031
mg = –1.6 × 1012 C
E=
e 10. Answer (4)
5. Answer (3)
Q = ne
48 × 10–6 = n × 1.6 × 10–19
| F12 | = | F21 |
48  10−6  10
n= 11. Answer (3)
16  10−19
Coulomb’s force forms action-reaction pairs.
= 3 × 1013 × 10 = 3 × 1014

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One Year Medical – 2023 Term Exam Test-1 Code-B (OYMR_Phase-1)_Hints and Solutions

12. Answer (3) 18. Answer (1)

 = E S EA > EB > EC > ED
For point charge electric field decreases with
= (3iˆ + 4 ˆj )  (0.1ˆj )
distance.
= 0.4 N m2/C 19. Answer (3)
13. Answer (4)
kq 1 q
V = =
R 40 R
20. Answer (2)
kQq kQ 2
+ =0 W = –qV
a2 (2a )2
Here V = 0
Q = –4q
 W=0
14. Answer (1)
21. Answer (2)
q
Electric flux passing through 6 faces =
0

q
 Electric flux passing through 1 face =
6 0
22. Answer (1)
q q
VA = – =0 Ex = −
dv
= +10(2x ) = 20
40 r 40 r dx
15. Answer (4) dv
Ey = − = +10(1) = 10
V dy
V0 = 2
3 E = E x iˆ + E y jˆ
n
4 4 1 = 20iˆ + 10 jˆ
2
= = = 0.25 V
3 16 4
(4) 3 E = 500 V/m

16. Answer (4) 23. Answer (4)

 = PEsin If rod is placed along body diagonal, then

 = PE q =   3l

= 2 × 10–8 × 2 × 105 q 3l

= =
= 4 × 10–3 N m 0 0
17. Answer (2) 24. Answer (3)
KE = qV
KE = 100 eV
25. Answer (3)
q1 q2
V = +
40a 40 b
26. Answer (3)
Pnet = P + P + 2·P ·P cos 60
2 2
 = PEsin
= 3P =
PE
2
= 2 3qa
F=0

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Term Exam Test-1 Code-B (OYMR_Phase-1)_Hints and Solutions One Year Medical - 2023

27. Answer (1) 33. Answer (2)

kQ   
E= + =
R 2
20 20 0
1 1 1  34. Answer (4)
= kQ  + + .......
1 4 16  When a body is charged, its mass may increase
 1  or decrease.
= 9  109  2  10 −6 
1 35. Answer (3)
1 − 
 4 Charge AT
= =
9  109  2  10−6  4 Volume L3
= = [M0L–3AT]
3
= 24 × 103 SECTION-B
= 2.4 × 104 N/C 36. Answer (3)
qin
28. Answer (2) E =
1 qQ
0
= mR 2
4o R 2 L
 x2 
L

dq = dx   dq =  Kxdx = K  
qQ 0  2 0
= 2f
40 R 3 m KL2
=
2
1 qQ
f = KL2
4R 0 Rm E =
20
29. Answer (4)
37. Answer (1)
By newton’s second law
q2 mv 2
F= =
40 (2R )2 R

q2
 V =
160 Rm
At point 0 38. Answer (2)
Enet = 0
30. Answer (1)
F = qE
5 × 10–3 = 1 × 10–6 × E
E = 5 × 103 N/C
31. Answer (1)
q1q2 9  109  4  10−6  4  10−6
F =k =
r2 9
= 16 × 10–3 N
F 16  10
a= = = 2 m/s2
M 8  10−3
32. Answer (2)
kq
F =k
q1q2 Vin =
R
r2
kq
9  109  6  10−12 Vout =
= r
9 q 2q
VA = +
= 6 × 10–3 N 40a 40 r
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One Year Medical – 2023 Term Exam Test-1 Code-B (OYMR_Phase-1)_Hints and Solutions

39. Answer (3) 44. Answer (4)

V = –  E · dr Both electric flux and electric potential are scalar
Electric potential increases on moving opposite quantities.
to electric field. 45. Answer (4)
 VD > VC = VB > VA
40. Answer (1)
 1  –q 2    1 q2 
EPE = 4   + 2
 
 4  a    4 2 a  Kq –Kq
 0    0  VA = =0
(a / 2) (a / 2)
q2
= (–4 + 2) EA = E1 + E2
40a
Kq Kq 8Kq
41. Answer (2) = 2
+ 2
=
a a a2
Kq 2 2
E=    
d2
46. Answer (2)
Kq
V =
d Force on electric dipole is zero.
V
=
Kq
=d If  = 0° or 180°,  = 0
E d
Kq 47. Answer (1)
d2 SI unit is N m2/C
5000 48. Answer (4)
d= cm = 0.5 m
100
 = P E
42. Answer (3)
kq 2 49. Answer (2)
F=
r2 Earth can be considered as good conductor
4kq  42
50. Answer (3)
F = 2
= 16F
r kq1q2
43. Answer (4) U=
r
G(mP )(me )
FG =
r2 9  109  1.6  10−19  1.6  10−19
=
(e)(e) 2.56  10−10
Fe =
40 r 2 = 9 × 10–19 J = 5.62 eV

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A 54. Answer (3)

51. Answer (3) AlN, KCl, CsCl and MgO are ionic solids
Silicon has four valence electrons while SiC, SiO2 are covalent solids
phosphorous has five valence electrons. 55. Answer (2)
• Number of O2– ions = 4
52. Answer (4)
1
FeO shows metal deficiency defect. • Number of Al3+ ions = 4 = 2
2
53. Answer (4)
1
Moles of vacant site available = moles of SrCl2 • Number of Mg2+ ion = 8 =1
8
doped
So, formula is MgAl2O4
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Term Exam Test-1 Code-B (OYMR_Phase-1)_Hints and Solutions One Year Medical - 2023

56. Answer (3) • Number of unit cells present in 5.2 g of Cr

• Number of T.V. present in ccp structure = 8 0.1 NA
= = 0.05 NA
Number of O.V. present in ccp structure = 4 2
• Number of T.V. and O.V. present (per atom) 63. Answer (4)
is 2 and 1 respectively. For orthorhombic geometry, crystal parameters
are a  b  c and  =  =  = 90°
57. Answer (3)
64. Answer (2)
ZM NaCl : Diamagnetic substance
Density of unit cell, d =
NA  a3 CrO2 : Ferromagnetic substance
ZM  g  Z  50  g  MnO : Antiferromagnetic substance
d=  3.64  3  = −10 3  3 
NA  a3  cm  6.022  10  (450  10 )  cm 
23
Fe3O4 : Ferrimagnetic substance
Z=4 65. Answer (4)
Hence, unit cell will be fcc. I2 is an example of non-polar molecular solids
while rest-all are examples of covalent solids.
58. Answer (3)
66. Answer (2)
1
Corner contribution = 8  = 1 Crystalline solids are anisotropic in nature.
8 67. Answer (4)
1 KH(O2) = 0.35 × 105 atm, PO2 = 0.2 atm
Edge contribution = 12  =3
4
nO2
Total atoms = 4 pO2 = KH × x O2 = KH ×
nO2 + nwater
59. Answer (2)
nO2
a=2 2r p O2  K H 
nwater
a = 2(2r) ( 2r = 360pm)
nO2
0.2 atm = 0.35 × 105 atm ×
a = 360 2 pm 10
60. Answer (4) 2  10−5
nO2 = = 5.7  10−5
ZM 0.35
Density of unit cell (d) = 68. Answer (4)
a3  NA
With increase in temperature solubility of gas
• d1 → density at room temp. decrease because of increase of Kinetic Energies
• d2 → density at high temp. (T) of molecules due to which gas molecules will
3 come out from liquid.
 4r 
4  69. Answer (4)
= 
(d1 )fcc 3 4 2
3
=
(d2 )bcc 2(2 2 r) 3 3
61. Answer (2)
molecules interact together
3
In bcc crystal, r = a
4
by hydrogen bonding and solution will show
3 negative deviation from ideality.
r=  360 = 90 3 pm
4 70. Answer (3)
62. Answer (2) Tb  i × m
• Number of atoms present in 5.2 g of Cr i
5.2 Glucose 1
= NA = 0.1 NA
52 BaCl2 3
( 2 atoms are present in 1 unit cell of bcc) KCl 2

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One Year Medical – 2023 Term Exam Test-1 Code-B (OYMR_Phase-1)_Hints and Solutions

71. Answer (2) 79. Answer (4)

For weak electrolyte which dissociates Tb = Kb × m
AB  A+ + B–  0.6  1000
3.4 = K b  
 < 1 and i > 1  60  2

72. Answer (4) Kb = 3.4 × 2 × 10–1

Depression in freezing point Kb = 0.68 K Kg mol–1
 Tf = (Tf)solvent – (Tf)solution 80. Answer (1)
• Elevation in boiling point of solution Xsolute = 0.2, Xsolvent = 0.8
 Tb = (Tb)solution – (Tb)solvent 0.2  1000
Molality =  13.9
• Relative lowering of vapour pressure 0.8  18
P 81. Answer (2)
= mole fraction of non-volatile
Psolvent Weight of solute
Mass percentage =  100
solute. Weight of solution
•  = CRT 20  100
Mass percentage = = 10%
73. Answer (4) 200
Ebullioscopic constant is the property of solvent 82. Answer (3)
and depends upon nature of solvent.
Xsolute = 1 – 0.6 = 0.4
74. Answer (2)
Relative lowering of vapour pressure,
Azeotropic mixtures are binary mixture having
similar composition in liquid and vapours phase P – PS
= Xsolute
and boils at constant temperature. P
75. Answer (3) 83. Answer (4)
• No. of moles of solute particles in solution Maximum boiling azeotropes are solution formed
(I) = 0.6 by solutions with negative deviation under
• No. of moles of solute particles in solution azeotropic conditions.
(II) = 0.6 84. Answer (2)
So, both will have same value of colligative For solution showing negative deviation from
properties Rault’s Law has
76. Answer (2) • Hmix < 0; Smix > 0; Vmix < 0
2C6H5COOH ⎯→ (C6H5COOH)2 85. Answer (1)
n = 2,  = 0.6 Relation between total vapour pressure and
1   1  composition of A and B in vapour phase is
i = 1 +  − 1  0.6 = 1 +  −  0.6  = 1 − 0.3 = 0.7
2   2  1 y A yB
= +
77. Answer (3) PT PA PB

During osmosis, solvent flows from low SECTION-B

concentration to high concentration.
86. Answer (4)
78. Answer (1)
Crystal Axial angles
P 20
o
= xB = = 0.026 system
PA 760
(a) Cubic (i)  =  =  = 90°
x 1000
Molality = B  (b) Hexagonal (ii)  =  = 90°,  = 120°
x A molar mass(solvent)
(c) Trigonal (iii)  =  =   90°
0.026 1000
Molality =   1.5 m (d) Triclinic (iv)       90°
0.97 18
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Term Exam Test-1 Code-B (OYMR_Phase-1)_Hints and Solutions One Year Medical - 2023

87. Answer (2) 95. Answer (3)

On adding non-volatile solute to a volatile solvent, Range for tetrahedral void is 0.225 to 0.414.
boiling point increases and vapour pressure
decreases. 96. Answer (3)

88. Answer (1) Number of T.V. shared with other unit cells is
• Hypertonic solutions have higher osmotic zero.
pressure than the reference solution. 97. Answer (2)
89. Answer (1)
• Packing efficiency of both CCP and HCP is
• Vapour pressure is function of temperature.
74%
• As temperature increases vapour pressure
• 3D close packing arrangement of CCP is
increases
ABCABC…. While that of HCP is ABAB…
• Vapour pressure is independent of surface
area. 98. Answer (3)
90. Answer (2) NaCl : All T.V. are vacant
The osmotic pressure method has the advantage
ZnS : 50% T.V. are vacant
over other method as pressure measurement is
around the room temperature and the molarity of CaF2 : All T.V. are occupied by F–
the solution is used instead of molality.
99. Answer (4)
91. Answer (4)
Space occupied by atoms in unit cell
Concentration terms which has volume term Packing fraction =
Area of unit cell
depends upon temperature.
92. Answer (1)
Packing efficiency in simple cubic unit cell is
52.4%
Empty space in simple cubic unit cell = 100 –
52.4
= 47.6%
• If radius of atom is r and edge length of unit
93. Answer (3)
cell is a, then
Tl+ lies in cubical void and its coordination
number is 8. 2a = 4r
94. Answer (2)
a = 2 2r

2  r 2 2 r 2
• Packing fraction = 2
=
a (2 2 r)2


= = 0.7854
Here 4

2a = 2(r + + r – ) % Packing fraction = 78.54%

1.414  508 100. Answer (1)

= (110 + r – )
2 For coordination number of 8, radius ratio of
 r– = 249 pm cation to anion has its value greater than 0.732

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One Year Medical – 2023
BOTANY
SECTION-A
101. Answer (3)
Pollen grain shed at two celled stage in 60
percent of the angiosperms.
102. Answer (3)
The largest cell of embryo sac is central cell.
103. Answer (3)
Stigma is the landing platform for the pollen
grains after pollination in angiosperms.
104. Answer (3)
Strobilanthus kunthiana flowers once in 12 years
and last flowered in Sept-Oct (2018).
105. Answer (3)
The ploidy of nucellar embryos is diploid and they
can be called clones.
106. Answer (3)
The microspore develops into mature two celled
male gametophyte in the sequence C → B → D
→ A.
107. Answer (1)
In monocot plant such as grass the cotyledon is
called scutellum that is situated towards one side
of embryonal axis.
108. Answer (2)
Removal of anthers (not stigma) from female
parent flower buds is called emasculation.
109. Answer (4)
Darkness is not required for seed germination.
110. Answer (2)
The oldest viable seed is of a Lupinus arcticus
excavated from Arctic Tundra.
111. Answer (3)
In most of the flowering plants, pollen tube enters
the ovule through micropylar end.
112. Answer (3)
In syngamy, two nuclei are involved and three
nuclei are involved in the triple fusion.
Term Exam Test-1 Code-B (OYMR_Phase-1)_Hints and Solutions
113. Answer (2)
Pollen germination can be studied by dusting
pollen on a glass slide containing a drop of 10%
sugar solution with boric acid.
114. Answer (4)
Water hyacinth is an aquatic plant pollinated by
insects.
115. Answer (3)
Zygote is a diploid structure (2n) = 24
Antipodal cell is haploid (n) = 12
Secondary nucleus is diploid (2n) = 24
Primary endosperm nucleus is triploid (3n) = 36
116. Answer (2)
Geitonogamy is transfer of pollen grains from
anther to stigma of another flower of same plant.
It is functionally cross pollination but genetically
self pollination.
117. Answer (1)
Cleistogamy is a condition in which flower does
not open. It ensures seed formation even in the
absence of any pollinating agent.
118. Answer (1)
Pollen viability is highly variable and depends on
prevailing temperature and humidity.
119. Answer (1)
Pollen viability of rice and wheat is for 30
minutes.
120. Answer (4)
Primary endosperm is triploid, i.e., 3n.
Nucellus, megaspore mother cell and funicle are
diploid, i.e., 2n.
121. Answer (2)
Chasmogamous – open flowers.
Cleistogamous – closed flowers.
Oxalis and Commelina have both types of
flowers.
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Term Exam Test-1 Code-B (OYMR_Phase-1)_Hints and Solutions One Year Medical - 2023

122. Answer (1) • Bulb is an underground unbranched reduced

The typical embryo sac before fertilisation is disc shaped stem in onion.
7-celled and 8-nucleated. • Amoeba reproduces through simple binary
123. Answer (1) fission.

No enzyme has been found so far that can 133. Answer (2)
degrade sporopollenin. In Chlamydomonas, zoospores are pyramid
It is present on the outer layer of cell wall of shaped, anteriorly flagellated, endogenously
pollen grains. produced, biflagellated motile spores.
124. Answer (3) 134. Answer (3)
The vegetative cell of pollen grain is bigger. It has Runner–grasses
abundant food reserve and a large irregularly Rhizome–ginger
shaped nucleus.
Bulb–onion
125. Answer (3)
Aerial shoots–Opuntia
Calyx and corolla is non essential whorls of
flower. Androecium and gynoecium are essential 135. Answer (1)
whorls of flower. Asexual reproduction is common in organism with
126. Answer (3) relatively simple organisation.

Embryogenesis, endosperm formation and seed SECTION-B

formation are post-fertilisation events. 136. Answer (3)
127. Answer (3) Life span are not necessarily correlated with size
Heterogametic plant produces morphologically or complexity of organism.
distinct type of gametes, for example Chara and 137. Answer (2)
Fucus.
Cells of endothecium layer have -cellulosic
128. Answer (3) fibrous bands arising from inner tangential wall
Internal fertilization occurs in majority of plants helps in dehiscence of anther due to their
and large number of male gametes are produced hygroscopic nature.
by such plants. 138. Answer (1)
129. Answer (3) In many algae and fungi, the zygote secretes
In Agave vegetative reproduction occurs by thick wall that is resistant to desiccation and
damage which help organism to tide over
bulbils.
unfavourable condition.
130. Answer (4)
139. Answer (1)
Juvenile phase is pre-reproductive phase.
Pea and groundnut produce non-albuminous
131. Answer (3) seeds.
Annual and biennial plants show clear cut 140. Answer (1)
vegetative, reproductive and senescent phase,
The ovary develop into the fruit which develops a
but in the perennial species, it is very difficult to
thick-wall called pericarp.
clearly define these phases.
141. Answer (2)
132. Answer (1)
Water hyacinth is most invasive weed found
• Penicillium reproduce by non-motile spores
growing there in standing water .
called conidia.
It was introduced in India for its beautiful flower
• Budding occurs in organisms like yeast.
and shape of leaves.

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One Year Medical – 2023 Term Exam Test-1 Code-B (OYMR_Phase-1)_Hints and Solutions

142. Answer (4) 147. Answer (4)

Pollens are haploid as they form male Marchantia is a dioecious plant.
gametophyte.
143. Answer (2) 148. Answer (4)
The progenitor of next generation inside the Syngamy forms zygote.
mature seed is embryo.
Gametogenesis involves formation of gametes.
144. Answer (1)
Apomixis is a special mechanism to produce 149. Answer (4)
seed without fertilisation. Chrysanthemum and Pineapple can be
145. Answer (4) propagated through subaerial stem called as
Plants pollinated by water have long sticky sucker.
unwettable stigma.
150. Answer (3)
146. Answer (4)
Epidermis is outermost and single celled layer New individuals produced by sexual reproduction
and is protective in function. are genetically different from their parents.

ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A
151. Answer (4)
When male and female reproductive organs are
present in different individual this condition is
known as dioecious and organism is considered
as unisexual.
Earthworm, sponges, tapeworm, Fasciola and
leeches are bisexual organisms.
152. Answer (2)
Estrous cycle occurs in non- primate mammals.
In oestrous cycle, endometrium is formed during
breeding season and endometrium is not shed
but is completely reabsorbed.
153. Answer (3)
Zygote is the first cell which leads to the
formation of complete organism
embryogenesis refers to process of development
of embryo from zygote.
154. Answer (1)
Fusion of male and female gamete is called
syngamy. Syngamy occurs both inside of the
body and outside the body. Mammals, birds and
reptiles exhibit internal fertilisation i.e, inside the
body.
155. Answer (3)
Process in which female gamete leads to
complete organism without being fertilized is
known as parthenogenesis.
156. Answer (2)
Human embryonic development starts with
cleavage of zygote. After third cleavage, it
becomes
8-celled structure and fourth cleavage leads to
the 16-celled stage. 8 to 16 cells stages of
developing embryo looks like mulberry and is
known as morula.
157. Answer (4)
During embryonic development the heart starts to
and
beat at the end of fourth week of pregnancy.
First movement of foetus starts at the 5 th month
of pregnancy and also the head of foetus is
covered by hair at this time.
158. Answer (3)
Placenta formed during pregnancy secretes
many hormones to retain pregnancy.

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Term Exam Test-1 Code-B (OYMR_Phase-1)_Hints and Solutions One Year Medical - 2023

159. Answer (2) 168. Answer (1)

Maturation of sperms in Sertoli cells and their After ovulation, Graafian follicle changes into
release into the lumen of seminiferous tubule is corpus luteum under the influence of LH
called spermiation. hormone. Now corpus luteum starts the
production of estrogen and progesterone.
160. Answer (1)

Ovary is covered by a single layered epithelium. 169. Answer (1)

Ovary has stroma region which is further divided Proliferative phase is related to follicular growth
into outer cortex and inner medulla. but not menstrual flow. Secretory phase is related

161. Answer (4) with corpus luteum formation whereas ovulatory

phase includes ovulation.
Enlarged end of human penis is glans penis
which is an enlargement of corpora spongiosum. 170. Answer (2)

Spermatogonia in seminiferous tubules undergo

162. Answer (2)
meiosis to produce sperm. Spermatogonia are
Labelled structure is yolk sac.
diploid structures which grow into primary
163. Answer (2) spermatocyte (2n) and complete its first meiosis

Epididymis is situated on posterior border of resulting into secondary spermatocyte (n) and

testis. first polar body and after meiosis-II, secondary

spermatocyte changes into spermatids (n).
164. Answer (2)
171. Answer (2)
60% of 200 million sperms i.e, 120 million should
have normal shape and size and 40% of 120 During coitus, ejaculation of semen occurs, which

million sperms i.e, 48 million should have has 200-300 million sperms.

vigorous motility. That means, at least 48 million 172. Answer (3)

sperms must have normal shape, size and
Mitochondria are present around axial filament in
vigorous motility.
middle piece of sperm. Sperm structure is divided
165. Answer (1) into head, neck, middle piece and tail. Acrosome

Mammary glands after birth produce milk known and nucleus are present in head of sperm.

as colostrum containing antibodies (IgA). This 173. Answer (4)

antibody provides passive immunity to the child.
Meiosis-I is completed in tertiary follicle and
166. Answer (3) results into two cells, one is large cell i.e,

During embryogenesis, cells of embryonic mass secondary oocyte and another is smaller cell, first

differentiates into ectoderm, mesoderm and polar body.

endoderm. 174. Answer (3)

167. Answer (4) Primary oocyte forms secondary oocyte which is

In both males and females gametogenesis occur released from Graafian follicle under the

in primary sex organ. influence of LH.

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One Year Medical – 2023 Term Exam Test-1 Code-B (OYMR_Phase-1)_Hints and Solutions

175 Answer (3) 181. Answer (2)

The process of formation of mature female Hymen covers the vaginal orifice. It is the
gamete is called oogenesis. Oogenesis is membrane which can break during sports activity,
initiated during embryonic development stage cycling etc.
when millions of gamete mother cells are formed 182. Answer (3)
within each fetal ovary.
Uterus has three layers; Perimetrium,
176. Answer (1) Myometrium and Endometrium. Endometrium
Middle piece of sperm has numerous forms inner lining of uterus. Myometrium is
mitochondria which provide energy during the middle muscular layer and outermost layer of
movement of sperm in female reproductive tract. uterus is perimetrium.

177. Answer (3) 183. Answer (4)

FSH is secreted by anterior pituitary gland. FSH
acts on Sertoli cells and stimulates the secretion
of some factors which help in the process of
spermatogenesis.
178. Answer (2)
Oviduct, uterus and vagina constitute the female
accessory ducts. In females, ovary is primary sex
organ and in males, testis is primary sex organ.
184. Answer (2)
Male germ cells (Spermatogonia) and Sertoli

LH is produced by anterior pituitary gland under cells line the seminiferous tubules. Leydig cells

the influence of GnRH hormone of hypothalamus. are present between seminiferous tubules, that is

Leydig cells are present between seminiferous why they are also known as interstitial cells.

tubules and LH acts on them to stimulate and 185. Answer (1)

produce testosterone. Testosterone also helps in
In adult humans, each testis is divided into 200-
spermatogenesis.
300 testicular tobules.
179. Answer (1)
SECTION-B
Spermatogonia and Sertoli cells line the 186. Answer (4)
seminiferous tubules. Spermatogonia undergo
Each primary spermatocyte completes meiosis-I
mitosis to increase their number and some of and produces 2 secondary spermatocytes. Each
them undergo changes to form primary secondary spermatocyte on completion of
spermatocytes. meiosis-II produces 2 spermatids which are
converted into spermatozoa by the process of
180. Answer (4) spermiogenesis.

Mammary gland is divided into 15-20 lobes. Each 187. Answer (2)
lobe is made up of grape like clusters of milk The average duration of human pregnancy is
secreting structures termed as alveoli. Alveoli about 9 months.

open into mammary tubule and mammary tubule 188. Answer (1)
opens into mammary duct, mammary duct Mammary glands develop in females to from
expands to form mammary ampulla where the breasts which are one of the female secondary
sexual characteristics.
milk is collected.

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Term Exam Test-1 Code-B (OYMR_Phase-1)_Hints and Solutions
189. Answer (2)
Colostrum contains several antibodies absolutely
essential to develop resistance in the new born
against pathogens.
190. Answer (2)
Placenta secretes hCG, hPL oestrogen and
progesterone.
191. Answer (3)
Milk production is stimulated by prolactin. Milk
ejection is stimulated by oxytocin.
192. Answer (3)
Umbilical cord connects embryo with placenta. It
has two arteries which carry blood to placenta
and continue in one vein which carries
oxygenated blood to the embryo.
193. Answer (3)
Oogenesis starts during embryonic development.
Primary oocytes are arrested in diplotene stage
of prophase-I of meiosis-I.
194. Answer (4)
External genitalia of human female include mons
pubis, labia majora, labia minora and clitoris.
❑ ❑ ❑
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One Year Medical - 2023
195. Answer (4)
Epididymis continues to vas deferens which
relatively is less coiled structure and then it
passes into abdominal cavity through inguinal
canal and in abdominal cavity.
196. Answer (4)
Sertoli cells provide nutrition to developing
sperms and it also secretes androgen binding
protein which helps in concentration of
testosterone inside testis.
197. Answer (4)
FSH and LH decrease during pregnancy.
198. Answer (2)
During ovulation, estrogens give positive
feedback to hypothalamus and anterior pituitary
thereby increasing GnRH and LH. At the time of
ovulation, there is a high level of estrogen.
199. Answer (2)
There are several features in reptiles that give
advantage to these animals to survive in
terrestrial conditions.
200. Answer (4)
Meiocyte of butterfly has 380 chromosomes.