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Exam
Name___________________________________
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) Which of the following factors should be taken into account when evaluating the acceptability of a 1)
strategy?
A) The attractiveness of the strategy to the organisation's stakeholders
B) The degree of fit with the organisation's culture, structure and systems
C) The impact on strategic capability development
D) The match between the aims of the strategy and external trading conditions
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
2) Which of the following criteria is likely to be a key determinant in your university's decision to 2)
launch a degree in E-business?
A) The risk associated with the proposal
B) Number of competitors offering similar programmes
C) Prevailing market conditions
D) Acceptability of the proposal to the department for education
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
4) Which of the evaluation criteria listed below do you believe will have greatest importance for a 4)
medium sized firm seeking to grow in a dynamic industry?
A) Feasibility in terms of available resources and competencies
B) Suitability of the strategy for the situation facing the firm
C) Consistency with the organisation's mission and objectives
D) Acceptability to shareholders
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
1
5) Which of the following is considered to be a major disadvantage of internal development? 5)
A) The firm can get exactly the result it wants without compromise.
B) The organisation shares all costs and risks.
C) In a rapidly changing environment it takes too much time to achieve.
D) It is difficult to achieve dramatic change from within.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
7) When evaluating strategic options which of the following criteria would you not normally use? 7)
A) Acceptability of the strategy B) Feasibility of the strategy
C) Suitability of the strategy D) Imitability of the strategy
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
8) Which of the following issues would not be considered when evaluating the 'acceptability' of a 8)
strategic option?
A) Values and ethics B) Competitor opinions
C) Risk D) Financial returns
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
9) Which of the following stakeholders would you not expect to be involved in determining strategy 9)
for an NHS Trust?
A) Shareholders B) Employees C) Government D) Customers
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
2
10) Which of the following explains why related diversification is considered to involve a lower level 10)
of risk the unrelated diversification?
A) It achieves a more balanced portfolio.
B) It focuses on existing products and markets.
C) It utilises the skills of alliance partners.
D) It leverages existing strategic capability.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
11) When screening strategic options what does 'feasibility' relate to? 11)
A) The likelihood of being able to 'sell' the strategy to shareholders
B) Whether the strategy is likely to achieve organisational objectives
C) The number of competitors serving the market already
D) Available resources and competencies
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
13) Using the real-options approach what action would you recommend in relation to a project of low 13)
volatility where the value-to-cost was 0.5.
A) Never invest B) Invest now
C) Probably never invest D) Probably invest later
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
3
14) Which of the following criteria do you think will be critical in determining whether a proposed 14)
merger goes ahead?
A) Suitability for prevailing environmental conditions
B) Acceptability of the deal to shareholders of the two companies
C) Feasibility in terms of available competencies
D) Acceptability of the deal to rivals of the two firms
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
15) Why is market penetration considered the least risky of the strategic directions? 15)
A) The competition is known to the firm.
B) The business has knowledge of its existing markets and is selling a proven product.
C) The business has existing skills in developing new products for the market.
D) Mature markets exhibit little dynamic change.
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
16) Which of the following are good reasons why an organisation may focus on organic development? 16)
Choose all that apply.
A) It maximises the need for short-term investment.
B) The organisation produces highly technical products.
C) It minimises disruption to existing activities.
D) It increases internal knowledge and capability development.
Answer: B, C, D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
17) Which of the following is not involved when evaluating the acceptability of a strategic option? 17)
A) The competitive advantage likely to be achieved by the strategy in terms of profitability, costs
and benefits and impact on shareholder value
B) The ability of the organisation to secure the resources required to implement the strategy
C) The attractiveness of the strategy to the organisation's stakeholders
D) The degree of risk that the strategy involves in terms of the risk and the ability of the business
to stand that risk
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
4
18) Which of the following is not a technique for evaluating the risk associated with a strategy? 18)
A) Simulation modelling B) Scenario analysis
C) Profitability analysis D) Sensitivity analysis
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
19) Which of the following does not determine the feasibility of a strategy? 19)
A) The competences and core competences required
B) The resource requirements of the strategy
C) The willingness of key shareholders to support the strategy
D) The organisational system requirements of the strategy
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
20) If an organisation's objective is to spread market portfolio by gaining a presence in foreign markets, 20)
which would be the most suitable of the following alternatives?
A) Forming a strategic alliance with a supplier abroad
B) Investing heavily in the development of a new product
C) Investing heavily in an advertising campaign on national television
D) Forming a strategic alliance with a distributor abroad
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
21) Which of the following evaluation tools is most suited to assessing strategic options against a list of 21)
key factors, eliminating certain options until a preferred option emerges?
A) TOWS B) Decision tree
C) Scenarios D) Ranking strategic options
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
5
22) Which of the following does not help explain how Amazon.com was able to maintain its growth 22)
strategy, even though it took a long time before it made a profit?
A) The company was able to build its technical competencies and brand effectively.
B) The strategy proved suitable given growth of the Internet.
C) Amazon.com was able to raise large amounts of money from share issues to finance its
growth.
D) The macroenvironment was very turbulent.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
24) In developing new directions for strategy development why may it be necessary to develop new 24)
capabilities?
A) New capabilities may be needed to operate in new markets or to develop new products.
B) The HR manager introduces a new training programme.
C) Existing capabilities are already best practice in the industry.
D) The organisation has achieved 'lock-in'.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
25) Which of the following is not a disadvantage of external methods of development? 25)
A) New skills and competencies can be obtained quickly.
B) Cultural differences leading to conflict over methods of working
C) Potential conflict of objectives between partner organisations
D) The high cost of mergers and acquisitions
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
6
26) On what grounds might the Competition Commission block a merger or acquisition? 26)
A) It will result in job losses. B) It creates very high fees for advisors.
C) It is damaging to consumer interests. D) Unacceptably high pay-offs to managers
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
27) Which of the following statements best defines product development? 27)
A) The evolution of products supplied by an industry over time
B) The development of the underlying technologies used in the products the firm sells
C) R&D activity to generate possible new products for launch if sales of existing ones decline
D) The development of new products to sell in existing markets
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
28) Which of the following would a market penetration strategy not involve? 28)
A) Efficiency gains and cost reductions
B) Improved service or quality to improve the reputation of the organisation and differentiate it
C) Improving existing core competencies or building new ones.
D) Existing core competencies
E) Exporting to increase sales
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
7
30) Which of the following financial methods most easily shows whether a company's cumulative cash 30)
flow over a given period is likely to exceed the funds invested?
A) Payback period B) Discounted cash flow
C) Non-discounted cash flow D) Return on capital employed
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
31) Which of the following factors might explain why an industry experiences a rash of mergers and 31)
acquisitions?
A) High profitability B) High growth
C) Falling profitability D) Innovation
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
32) In evaluating strategic options, what is the purpose of the 'suitability' test? 32)
A) To determine if the strategic option is appropriate for the circumstances facing the
organisation.
B) To determine if the organisation has the resources needed to implement the strategy.
C) To determine if the riskiness of the strategy matches what is acceptable to the organisation.
D) To determine if the strategic option suits the management style of the organisation.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
34) The UK Competition Commission blocking a proposed merger between two mobile telephone 34)
companies would be an example of which evaluation criteria determining strategic choice?
A) Feasibility B) Acceptability C) Suitability
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
8
35) Which of the following is a method of strategy development? 35)
A) Diversification B) Market penetration
C) Product development D) Internal development
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
36) Which of the following factors does not explain why some organisations may be more willing to 36)
take risks than others?
A) The organisational culture B) Competitive position
C) The leader of the organisation D) The nature of the industries they are in
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
37) How does a joint venture differ from a strategic alliance? 37)
A) A joint venture is where two organisations act as venture capitalists to fund the development
of a third organisation, whereas an alliance involves contributing expertise rather than
money.
B) The two terms are interchangeable and both describe collaboration between two or more
organisations.
C) A joint venture is when two or more organisations set up a new enterprise, whereas a
strategic alliance is a temporary collaboration to achieve a shared goal.
D) A joint venture is where two companies own equal shares in a third, whereas a strategic
alliance is where one of them is a junior partner, owning less than an equal share.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
38) Which technique assesses the extent to which the success of a preferred strategy depends on key 38)
assumptions which underlie the strategy?
A) How-much analysis B) Liquidity testing
C) Cash-flow analysis D) Sensitivity analysis
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
9
39) In which of the following situations might diversification prove an appropriate strategy? 39)
A) When the market is mature or existing products are at the end of their lifecycles.
B) When the product development of rivals is better than your own.
C) When market share is being lost to other firms in the sector.
D) When the market is experiencing high growth and an influx of new entrants.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
40) Which of the statements below relates to the suitability criterion for evaluating strategic option 40)
evaluation?
A) Entering into a price war with a cash rich rival will be very expensive.
B) Embarking on a strategy that will depress profits for the next three years may provoke
shareholders criticism.
C) Investing in an expensive new design system requiring risky sources of funding
D) Investing in new production capacity is not a good idea with a recession forecast.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
41) Which of the following characteristics do you not associate with product development strategy? 41)
A) It aims to attract new customers and to increase market share.
B) It is based upon knowledge of existing markets and customer needs.
C) It is based on some existing strategies and competencies.
D) It is the most risky of the strategic directions.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
42) Which criteria do you think take precedence in strategy selection by political parties? 42)
A) Costs to the taxpayer
B) Acceptability of the strategy to stakeholders
C) Feasibility of the strategy in terms of resources and competencies
D) Financial returns to the party
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
10
43) In a situation where a market is declining, consolidation may involve which of the following? 43)
A) Entry into new markets B) Withdrawal
C) Related diversification D) Building capacity
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.
45) In dynamic high technology industries, such as electronics and computing, suitability criteria are 45)
likely to assume greater importance as choosing the right strategy for the changing environment
becomes more critical.
Answer: True False
Explanation:
46) A strategic alliance is where two or more organisations share resources and activities to pursue a 46)
strategy.
Answer: True False
Explanation:
47) Strategic choices involve decisions about corporate strategy, business strategy and the efficient 47)
management of ongoing operations.
Answer: True False
Explanation:
49) Risk concerns the probability and consequences of the the failure of a strategy. 49)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
50) Assessing feasibility will employ techniques that allow comparison of the requirements of the 50)
strategy in terms of resources, competencies and systems and the extent to which the organisation
already meets the requirements and the ease with which it can meet them in the future.
Answer: True False
Explanation:
11
Answer Key
Testname: C10
1) A
2) C
3) B
4) A
5) C
6) A
7) D
8) B
9) A
10) D
11) D
12) A
13) A
14) B
15) B
16) B, C, D
17) B
18) C
19) C
20) D
21) B
22) D
23) D
24) A
25) A
26) C
27) D
28) E
29) D
30) A
31) C
32) A
33) A
34) B
35) D
36) B
37) C
38) D
39) A
40) D
41) D
42) B
43) B
44) C
45) TRUE
46) TRUE
47) FALSE
48) FALSE
49) TRUE
50) TRUE
12
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