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1. Normal visual sensation in the absence of complete visual perception is best illustrated
by
A) prosopagnosia.
B) synaesthesia.
C) tinnitus.
D) sensory interaction.
2. The process of receiving and representing stimulus energies by the nervous system is
called
A) priming.
B) synaesthesia.
C) accommodation.
D) sensation.
Page 1
7. Information processing guided by higher-level mental processes is called
A) prosopagnosia.
B) sensory interaction.
C) top-down processing.
D) synaesthesia.
8. Berdine has developed cataracts in both eyes, preventing her from being able to identify
even her mother's face. Berdine most clearly suffers a deficiency in
A) the optic nerve.
B) accommodation.
C) bottom-up processing.
D) kinesthesis.
9. Patients who have negative expectations about the outcome of a surgical procedure may
experience increased postoperative pain. This best illustrates the importance of
A) accommodation.
B) sensory adaptation.
C) difference thresholds.
D) top-down processing.
10. Three steps that are basic to all sensory systems include the ________ of information to
the brain.
A) proximity, closure, and continuity
B) receiving, transforming, and delivering
C) priming, grouping, and parallel processing
D) feature detection, interposition, and sensory adaptation
11. Which of the following represents the very first of three steps basic to all sensory
systems?
A) forming perceptual sets
B) delivering neural information to the brain
C) receiving sensory stimulation
D) transforming stimulus energies into neural impulses
12. The process by which our sensory systems transform stimulus energies into neural
impulses is called
A) priming.
B) sensory adaptation.
C) transduction.
D) accommodation.
Page 2
13. The conversion of a fresh coffee aroma into neural impulses by olfactory receptor cells
best illustrates
A) top-down processing.
B) transduction.
C) sensory interaction.
D) the vestibular sense.
14. Nociceptors trigger neural impulses in response to a sprain or a burn. This illustrates
A) tinnitus.
B) transduction.
C) psychokinesis.
D) perceptual adaptation.
15. The minimum amount of stimulation a person needs to detect a stimulus 50 percent of
the time is called the
A) critical period.
B) just noticeable difference.
C) perceptual set.
D) absolute threshold.
16. During a hearing test, many sounds were presented at such a low level of intensity that
Mr. Antall could not detect them. These sounds were below Mr. Antall's
A) perceptual set.
B) absolute threshold.
C) vestibular sense.
D) difference threshold.
17. If a partially deaf person's hearing ability ________, his or her absolute threshold for
sound ________.
A) improves; remains unchanged
B) worsens; decreases
C) worsens; remains unchanged
D) improves; decreases
Page 3
18. Which theory predicts when we will first notice a faint stimulus presented amid
competing background stimulation?
A) place theory
B) frequency theory
C) signal detection theory
D) Young-Helmholtz theory
19. Which theory emphasizes that personal expectations and motivations influence the level
of absolute thresholds?
A) signal detection theory
B) frequency theory
C) opponent-process theory
D) place theory
20. Which theory would suggest that watching a horror movie late at night could lower your
absolute threshold for sound as you subsequently tried to fall asleep?
A) place theory
B) opponent-process theory
C) frequency theory
D) signal detection theory
21. Lonely, anxious people at speed-dating events respond with a ________ threshold, and
thus tend to be ________ in reaching out to potential dates.
A) low; unselective
B) high; unselective
C) low; overly selective
D) high; overly selective
Page 4
23. In experiments, an image is quickly flashed and then replaced by a masking stimulus
that inhibits conscious perception of the original image. In these experiments, the
researchers are studying the effects of
A) accommodation.
B) tinnitus.
C) priming.
D) blindsight.
24. After a photo of a nude man or woman was flashed and immediately masked before
being perceived, people's attention was unconsciously drawn to images in a way that
reflected their
A) precognition.
B) retinal disparity.
C) sexual orientation.
D) vestibular sense.
Page 5
28. Which of the following strategies best illustrates the use of subliminal stimulation?
A) A store plays a musical soundtrack in which a faint and imperceptible verbal
warning against shoplifting is repeated frequently.
B) The laughter of a studio audience is dubbed into the soundtrack of a televised
situation comedy.
C) A radio advertiser repeatedly smacks her lips before biting into a candy bar.
D) An unseen television narrator repeatedly suggests that you are thirsty while a cold
drink is visually displayed on the screen.
29. Experiments evaluating the impact of subliminal self-help recordings for improving
memory indicated that they
A) interfere with people's capacity for sensory adaptation.
B) did not help more than a placebo.
C) improve people's capacity for parallel processing.
D) have a positive long-lasting impact on people's health.
30. The minimum difference between two stimuli required for detection 50 percent of the
time is called
A) retinal disparity.
B) the absolute threshold.
C) perceptual set.
D) the just noticeable difference.
31. Jennifer can tune her guitar more effectively than Maria because Jennifer is better at
detecting whether specific strings are playing too sharp or too flat. With respect to tone
sensitivity, Maria apparently has a ________ threshold than does Jennifer.
A) lower absolute
B) higher absolute
C) smaller difference
D) larger difference
32. The principle that two stimuli must differ by a constant minimum proportion for their
difference to be perceived is known as
A) the opponent-process theory.
B) Weber's law.
C) feature detection.
D) sensory interaction.
Page 6
33. Giulio's bag of marbles is twice as heavy as Jim's. If it takes 5 extra marbles to make
Jim's bag feel heavier, it will take 10 extra marbles to make Giulio's bag feel heavier.
This best illustrates
A) the opponent-process theory.
B) the McGurk effect.
C) sensory adaptation.
D) Weber's law.
35. After listening to your high-volume car stereo for 15 minutes, you fail to realize how
loudly the music is blasting. This best illustrates
A) Weber's law.
B) accommodation.
C) sensory adaptation.
D) the volley principle.
38. After learning that her new college roommate had experienced several episodes of
depression during her high school years, Erin incorrectly perceived her roommate's
laughter as artificial and phony. This best illustrates the impact of
A) interposition.
B) perceptual set.
C) clairvoyance.
D) blindsight.
Page 7
39. After hearing rumors about the outbreak of an infectious disease, Alyosha began to
perceive his normal aches and pains as disease-related symptoms. His reaction best
illustrates the impact of
A) the McGurk effect.
B) sensory adaptation.
C) psychokinesis.
D) perceptual set.
40. The tendency to perceive a moving light in the night sky as belonging to an airplane
rather than a weather balloon best illustrates the impact of
A) kinesthesis.
B) retinal disparity.
C) perceptual set.
D) synaesthesia.
41. When researchers added a few drops of vinegar to a brand-name beer, the beer tasters
disliked it only if they had been told they were drinking vinegar-laced beer. This best
illustrates the impact of
A) kinesthesis.
B) interposition.
C) perceptual set.
D) the McGurk effect.
43. The influence of schemas on our interpretations of ambiguous sensations best illustrates
A) shape constancy.
B) top-down processing.
C) psychokinesis.
D) the volley principle.
Page 8
44. Stereotypes are mental conceptions that can strongly influence the way we interpret the
behaviors of individuals belonging to specific racial or ethnic groups. A stereotype is
most similar to a
A) feature detector.
B) perceptual adaptation.
C) perceptual set.
D) difference threshold.
45. Visual perceptions of objects often change when the objects are viewed in different
surroundings. This best illustrates
A) blindsight.
B) Weber's law.
C) context effects.
D) retinal disparity.
46. Although Sue Yen sees her chemistry professor several times a week, she didn't
recognize the professor when she saw her in the grocery store. This best illustrates the
importance of
A) relative luminance.
B) context effects.
C) interposition.
D) perceptual adaptation.
47. When Rick learned that many students had received a failing grade on the midterm
exam, he was no longer disappointed by his C grade. His experience best illustrates the
importance of
A) perceptual adaptation.
B) linear perspective.
C) context effects.
D) interposition.
48. The horizon Moon appears to shrink in size if it is viewed through a narrow tube that
eliminates the perception of distance cues. This best illustrates the importance of
A) perceptual adaptation.
B) kinesthesis.
C) context effects.
D) sensory interaction.
Page 9
49. To those throwing a very heavy rather than a light object at a target, the target is likely
to be perceived as
A) softer.
B) slower moving.
C) larger.
D) farther away.
50. If rewards were linked to seeing farm animals rather than sea animals, viewers tended to
perceive a horse after exposure to an ambiguous horse/seal figure. This illustrates the
impact of ________ on perception.
A) subliminal stimulation
B) sensory adaptation
C) critical periods
D) motivation
51. While listening to sad rather than happy music, people are more likely to perceive a
spoken work as mourning rather than morning. This best illustrates that perception is
influenced by
A) synaesthesia.
B) relative luminance.
C) linear perspective.
D) top-down processing.
52. Those who feel loved and appreciated by their spouse perceive less threat in stressful
marital interactions. This best illustrates that perceptions are influenced by
A) emotion.
B) interposition.
C) the volley principle.
D) relative luminance.
Page 10
54. Humans experience the longest visible electromagnetic waves as the color ________
and the shortest visible waves as ________.
A) blue-violet; red
B) red; green
C) red; blue-violet
D) black; white
56. Which process allows more light to reach the periphery of the retina?
A) accommodation of the lens
B) transduction of the blind spot
C) dilation of the pupil
D) sensory adaptation of feature detectors
58. Objects are brought into focus on the retina by changes in the curvature and thickness of
the
A) rods and cones.
B) lens.
C) bipolar cells.
D) optic nerve.
Page 11
60. Which of the following is the correct order in which the retina's neural layers process
visual stimulation?
A) ganglion cells, rods and cones, bipolar cells
B) rods and cones, ganglion cells, bipolar cells
C) bipolar cells, ganglion cells, rods and cones
D) rods and cones, bipolar cells, ganglion cells
61. Which cells for visual processing are located closest to the back of the retina?
A) ganglion cells
B) bipolar cells
C) rods and cones
D) feature detectors
65. Which receptor cells most directly enable us to distinguish different wavelengths of
light?
A) rods
B) cones
C) bipolar cells
D) feature detectors
Page 12
66. Rods are
A) more light-sensitive and more color-sensitive than are cones.
B) less light-sensitive and less color-sensitive than are cones.
C) more light-sensitive and less color-sensitive than are cones.
D) less light-sensitive and more color-sensitive than are cones.
67. Damage to the fovea would probably have the LEAST effect on visual sensitivity to
________ stimuli.
A) brilliantly colored
B) finely detailed
C) dimly illuminated
D) highly familiar
68. On the way to the visual cortex, neural impulses from the retina are first relayed to the
A) olfactory bulb.
B) thalamus.
C) hippocampus.
D) oval window.
71. The feature detectors identified by Hubel and Weisel respond to specific aspects of
________ stimulation.
A) visual
B) auditory
C) olfactory
D) kinesthetic
Page 13
72. When we look at the hands of a clock showing 8 A.M., certain brain cells in our visual
cortex are more responsive than when the hands show 10 A.M. This is most indicative
of
A) sensory interaction.
B) feature detection.
C) perceptual adaptation.
D) accommodation.
73. An area of the brain dedicated to the specialized task of recognizing faces is located in
the right ________ lobe.
A) frontal
B) parietal
C) occipital
D) temporal
75. The ability to simultaneously process the pitch, loudness, melody, and meaning of a
song best illustrates
A) kinesthesis.
B) accommodation.
C) sensory adaptation.
D) parallel processing.
76. The human ability to speedily recognize familiar objects best illustrates the value of
A) kinesthesis.
B) subliminal stimulation.
C) sensory interaction.
D) parallel processing.
Page 14
77. Certain stroke victims report seeing nothing when shown a series of sticks, yet they are
able to correctly report whether the sticks are vertical or horizontal. This best illustrates
A) serial processing.
B) the McGurk effect.
C) sensory interaction.
D) blindsight.
78. People who demonstrate blindsight have most likely suffered damage to their
A) cornea.
B) lens.
C) fovea.
D) visual cortex.
79. When we are exposed to the narrow band of wavelengths visible to the human eye, we
see a red object as red because it rejects waves of
A) blue-violet light.
B) red light.
C) green light.
D) yellow light.
80. Evidence that some cones are especially sensitive to red light, others to green light, and
still others to blue light is most directly supportive of
A) Weber's law.
B) the Young-Helmholtz theory.
C) the gate-control theory.
D) the opponent-process theory.
81. According to the Young-Helmholtz theory, when both red-sensitive and green-sensitive
cones are stimulated simultaneously, a person should see
A) red.
B) yellow.
C) blue.
D) green.
Page 15
83. When most people stare first at a blue circle and then shift their eyes to a white surface,
the afterimage of the circle appears
A) yellow.
B) red.
C) green.
D) blue.
84. People with color-deficient vision for red and green may still see yellow. This is most
easily explained by
A) the Young-Helmholtz theory.
B) the gate-control theory.
C) frequency theory.
D) the opponent-process theory.
86. According to the opponent-process theory, cells that are turned “on” by
A) green light are turned “off” by blue light.
B) yellow light are turned “off” by red light.
C) green light are turned “off” by red light.
D) red light are turned “off” by blue light.
87. Early in the twentieth-century, a group of German psychologists noticed that people
tend to organize a cluster of sensations into a
A) just noticeable difference.
B) masking stimulus.
C) nociceptor.
D) gestalt.
Page 16
89. Our shifting perceptions of a Necker cube best illustrate the importance of
A) blindsight.
B) Weber's law.
C) sensory adaptation.
D) top-down processing.
91. As the airplane descended for a landing, the pilot saw several beautiful islands that
appeared to float in a vast expanse of blue ocean water. In this instance, the ocean is a
A) figure.
B) binocular cue.
C) ground.
D) perceptual set.
94. Carmella, Jorge, and Gail were all sitting behind the same bowling lane, so Ruth
perceived that they were all members of the same bowling team. This best illustrates the
organizational principle of
A) proximity.
B) interposition.
C) closure.
D) continuity.
Page 17
95. The principles of continuity and closure best illustrate that
A) sensations are organized into meaningful patterns.
B) perception is the direct product of sensation.
C) cultural experiences shape perception.
D) visual information is especially likely to capture our attention.
96. The perception of the letter “t” as two intersecting lines rather than as four
nonintersecting lines illustrates the principle of
A) accommodation.
B) proximity.
C) closure.
D) continuity.
97. The perceptual tendency to fill in gaps in order to perceive disconnected parts as a
whole object is called
A) interposition.
B) closure.
C) continuity.
D) proximity.
98. Although a few keys on the piano were broken, Shana mentally filled in the missing
notes of the familiar melodies. This best illustrates the principle of
A) proximity.
B) closure.
C) blindsight.
D) interposition.
99. When hearing the words “eel is on the wagon,” you would likely perceive the first word
as “wheel.” Given “eel is on the orange,” you would likely perceive the first word as
“peel.” This context effect best illustrates the organizational principle of
A) proximity.
B) interposition.
C) closure.
D) accommodation.
100. The ability to see objects in three dimensions is most essential for making judgments of
A) continuity.
B) distance.
C) relative luminance.
D) tinnitus.
Page 18
101. The visual cliff is a laboratory device for testing ________ in infants.
A) size constancy
B) accommodation
C) depth perception
D) perceptual adaptation
105. Holding two index fingers in front of the eyes can create the perception of a floating
finger sausage. This best illustrates the effect of
A) relative height.
B) retinal disparity.
C) interposition.
D) relative luminance.
106. Indicators of distance such as linear perspective which are available to either eye alone
are called
A) masking stimuli.
B) feature detectors.
C) monocular cues.
D) absolute thresholds.
Page 19
107. Relative height is a cue involving our perception of objects higher in our field of vision
as
A) brighter.
B) farther away.
C) hazier.
D) smaller.
108. If you stared at a house as you walked down a street, the trees in front of the house
would appear to be moving
A) in the opposite direction as you, and the trees behind the house would appear to be
moving in the opposite direction as you.
B) in the same direction as you, and the trees behind the house would appear to be
moving in the opposite direction as you.
C) in the same direction as you, and the trees behind the house would appear to be
moving in the same direction as you.
D) in the opposite direction as you, and the trees behind the house would appear to be
moving in the same direction as you.
109. If two objects are assumed to be the same size, the object that casts the smaller retinal
image is perceived to be
A) moving faster.
B) less hazy.
C) more distant.
D) closer.
110. As the farmer looked across her field, the parallel rows of young corn plants appeared to
converge in the distance. This provided her with a distance cue known as
A) proximity.
B) linear perspective.
C) closure.
D) continuity.
111. The monocular depth cue in which an object blocking another object is perceived as
closer is
A) interposition.
B) relative height.
C) continuity.
D) linear perspective.
Page 20
112. Which of the following is a cue used by artists to convey depth on a flat canvas?
A) proximity
B) continuity
C) interposition
D) closure
113. Our assumption that light typically comes from above us contributes most directly to the
importance of ________ as a monocular cue for depth perception.
A) interposition
B) retinal disparity
C) light and shadow
D) linear perspective
114. Perceiving objects as unchanging even as illumination and retinal images change is
known as
A) interposition.
B) prosopagnosia.
C) perceptual constancy.
D) sensory adaptation.
117. Jody's horse looks just as black in the brilliant sunlight as it does in the dim light of the
stable. This illustrates what is known as
A) perceptual set.
B) sensory interaction.
C) brightness constancy.
D) psychokinesis.
Page 21
118. Brightness constancy is most clearly facilitated by
A) proximity.
B) interposition.
C) relative luminance.
D) retinal disparity.
119. The amount of light reflected by an object relative to the amount reflected by
surrounding objects is called
A) continuity.
B) interposition.
C) retinal disparity.
D) relative luminance.
120. Although college textbooks frequently cast a trapezoidal image on the retina, students
typically perceive the books as rectangular objects. This illustrates the importance of
A) size constancy.
B) linear perspective.
C) shape constancy.
D) binocular cues.
121. As the retinal image of a horse galloping toward you becomes larger, it is unlikely that
the horse will appear to grow larger. This best illustrates the importance of
A) relative luminance.
B) size constancy.
C) closure.
D) sensory interaction.
122. The perceived size of an object is most strongly influenced by that object's perceived
A) shape.
B) color.
C) distance.
D) motion.
123. If two objects cast retinal images of the same size, the object that appears to be closer is
perceived as ________ the object that appears to be more distant.
A) overlapping
B) smaller than
C) larger than
D) the same size as
Page 22
124. Because she mistakenly thought she was much closer to the mountain than she actually
was, Fiona perceived the mountain to be ________ than it actually was.
A) higher
B) smaller
C) more richly colorful
D) larger
125. When the Moon is near the horizon, it appears larger than when it is high in the sky.
This effect is primarily a result of
A) the slightly dimmer appearance of the horizon Moon.
B) the scattering of the horizon Moon's light waves, which penetrate the atmosphere at
an angle.
C) distance cues, which make the horizon Moon seem farther away.
D) the brighter appearance of the horizon Moon.
126. Knowing about the effects of the perceived distance of objects on their perceived size
helps us to understand
A) the Moon illusion.
B) the McGurk effect.
C) prosopagnosia.
D) phantom limb sensations.
127. The tendency to hear the steady drip of a leaky sink faucet as if it were a repeating
rhythm of two or more beats best illustrates
A) interposition.
B) perceptual organization.
C) relative luminance.
D) perceptual adaptation.
128. Who emphasized that perceptual understanding comes from inborn ways of organizing
sensory experience?
A) Immanuel Kant
B) Aristotle
C) John Locke
D) Sigmund Freud
Page 23
129. The ability of newly hatched chicks to perceive depth best serves to support the views of
A) John Locke.
B) Immanuel Kant.
C) Sigmund Freud.
D) Aristotle.
132. Lenore had been blind from birth. Immediately after corrective eye surgery, she could
visually perceive figure-ground relationships. This fact would serve to support the
position advanced by
A) Kant.
B) parapsychologists.
C) Aristotle.
D) Locke.
133. If an adult who was blind from birth gains the ability to see, that person would have the
greatest difficulty visually distinguishing
A) circles from squares.
B) the Sun from the Moon.
C) red from green.
D) a white cloud from the blue sky.
Page 24
135. Rebecca was born with cataracts that were not surgically removed until she was 3 years
old. As a result, Rebecca is most likely to
A) have lost visual receptor cells in her eyes.
B) be unable to perceive figure-ground relationships.
C) have inadequate neural connections in her visual cortex.
D) be unable to sense colors.
136. Sensory restriction is much more likely to hinder visual development in early infancy
than during other times of life. This suggests that there is a(n) ________ for normal
visual development.
A) absolute threshold
B) perceptual set
C) critical period
D) blind spot
137. The ability to adjust to an artificially displaced or even inverted visual field is called
A) perceptual set.
B) accommodation.
C) perceptual adaptation.
D) shape constancy.
138. Research with distorting goggles best supports the view of human perception advanced
by
A) John Locke.
B) Herman von Helmholtz.
C) Immanuel Kant.
D) Ewald Hering.
139. Although he was wearing a pair of glasses that shifted the apparent location of objects
20 degrees to his right, Lars was eventually able to play tennis very effectively. This
best illustrates the value of
A) perceptual set.
B) shape constancy.
C) retinal disparity.
D) perceptual adaptation.
Page 25
140. Our sense of hearing is known as
A) the vestibular sense.
B) kinesthesis.
C) audition.
D) tinnitus.
141. The process of transducing air pressure waves into neural messages that the brain
interprets as meaningful sound is known as
A) sensory interaction.
B) the vestibular sense.
C) kinesthesis.
D) audition.
143. The high notes on a piano always produce ________ sound waves than the low notes.
A) higher-amplitude
B) lower-amplitude
C) higher-frequency
D) lower-frequency
145. High-frequency sound waves are to ______ as low-frequency sound waves are to
______.
A) a loud voice; a soft voice
B) a high-pitched voice; a low-pitched voice
C) a soft voice; a loud voice
D) a low-pitched voice; a high-pitched voice
Page 26
146. The absolute threshold for hearing is arbitrarily defined as zero
A) decibels.
B) amps.
C) phonemes.
D) hertz.
147. An 80-decibel sound is ________ times more intense than a 60-decibel sound.
A) 2
B) 10
C) 20
D) 100
148. The bones of the middle ear relay vibrations received from the
A) cochlea.
B) eardrum.
C) vestibular sacs.
D) semicircular canals.
149. Eardrum vibrations are transmitted by three tiny bones located in the
A) vestibular sacs.
B) inner ear.
C) cochlea.
D) middle ear.
Page 27
152. The surface of the basilar membrane is lined with
A) hair cells.
B) olfactory receptors.
C) bipolar cells.
D) feature detectors.
153. On the way to the temporal lobe's auditory cortex, neural impulses from the auditory
nerve are first relayed to the
A) thalamus.
B) amygdala.
C) hippocampus.
D) fovea.
155. Joe Wilson, age 55, has been told by experts that he has conduction hearing loss and that
a hearing aid would restore his lost sense of hearing. It is likely that Joe's hearing loss
involves problems within the
A) inner ear.
B) middle ear.
C) auditory nerve.
D) basilar membrane.
157. Damage to the hammer, anvil, and stirrup is most likely to cause
A) prosopagnosia.
B) sensorineural hearing loss.
C) phantom limb sensations.
D) conduction hearing loss.
Page 28
158. Ringing of the ears after exposure to loud music is most likely to be caused by damage
to
A) nociceptors.
B) hair cells.
C) cochlear implants.
D) bipolar cells.
159. As a rock musician who has experienced prolonged exposure to high-amplitude sounds,
Rodney is beginning to lose his hearing. It is most likely that this hearing loss involves
problems in the
A) auditory canal.
B) eardrum.
C) tiny bones of the middle ear.
D) cochlea.
161. Hard-of-hearing people are especially likely to remain sensitive to ________ sounds.
A) loud
B) high-pitched
C) prolonged
D) unpredictable
Page 29
163. After a small section of his basilar membrane was damaged, Jason experienced a
noticeable loss of hearing for high-pitched sounds only. Jason's hearing loss is best
explained by the ________ theory.
A) gate-control
B) frequency
C) opponent-process
D) place
164. Which of the following best explains how we detect different high-pitched sounds?
A) opponent-process theory
B) Weber's law
C) place theory
D) gate-control theory
167. Individual nerve cells increase the frequency of neural impulses in the auditory nerve by
firing in rapid succession. This is said to illustrate
A) Weber's law.
B) the McGurk effect.
C) the volley principle.
D) top-down processing.
Page 30
168. The volley principle is most directly relevant to our perception of
A) color.
B) brightness.
C) pain.
D) pitch.
169. Some combination of place theory and frequency theory appears to be most necessary in
accounting for how we sense
A) high-frequency sound waves.
B) intermediate-frequency sound waves.
C) low-frequency sound waves.
D) subliminal auditory stimulation.
170. A time lag between left and right auditory stimulation is important for accurately
A) locating sounds.
B) detecting pitch.
C) recognizing rhythms.
D) judging amplitude.
171. Cocking your head would be most useful for detecting the ________ of a sound.
A) pitch
B) loudness
C) location
D) amplitude
172. The barn owl's right ear opens slightly upward while its left ear opens slightly
downward. This difference enables the owl to detect the ________ of a sound.
A) pitch
B) location
C) loudness
D) amplitude
Page 31
174. Premature human babies gain weight faster if they are stimulated by
A) blinking lights.
B) rhythmic sounds.
C) hand massage.
D) phantom limb sensations.
177. Men's hearing tends to be ________ acute than women's, and women are ________ pain
sensitive than men.
A) more; more
B) less; less
C) more; less
D) less; more
178. Sensory receptors that detect hurtful temperatures, pressure, or chemicals are called
A) vestibular sacs.
B) hair cells.
C) nociceptors.
D) fovea.
179. In response to a harmful stimulus, ________ initiate neural impulses leading to the
sensation of pain.
A) bipolar cells
B) nociceptors
C) feature detectors
D) ganglion fibers
Page 32
180. Which theory suggests that large-fiber activity in the spinal cord can prevent pain
signals from reaching the brain?
A) signal detection theory
B) opponent-process theory
C) gate-control theory
D) frequency theory
181. The classic gate-control theory suggests that pain is experienced when small nerve
fibers activate and open a neural gate in the
A) basilar membrane.
B) semicircular canals.
C) olfactory bulb.
D) spinal cord.
182. According to the gate-control theory, a back massage would most likely reduce your
physical aches and pains by causing the
A) release of pain-killing endorphins in your muscles.
B) activation of large nerve fibers in your spinal cord.
C) the release of adrenaline into your bloodstream.
D) deactivation of the pain receptors on the surface of your skin.
184. After losing his left hand in an accident, Jack continued to experience pain in his
nonexistent hand. His experience illustrates
A) tinnitus.
B) sensory adaptation.
C) phantom limb sensations.
D) the McGurk effect.
185. Which of the following best illustrates the impact of central nervous system activity in
the absence of normal sensory input?
A) tinnitus
B) kinesthesis
C) transduction
D) accommodation
Page 33
186. After painful medical procedures, people's memory snapshots tend to overlook
A) the final moments of pain associated with the procedure.
B) the peak moments of pain associated with the procedure.
C) the total duration of the pain associated with the procedure.
D) all of these periods of pain.
187. During the mid-1980s, pockets of Australian keyboard operators suffered outbreaks of
severe pain while typing. Their pain could not be attributed to any discernable physical
abnormalities. This best illustrates the role of ______ in the perception of pain.
A) phantom limb sensations
B) psychokinesis
C) social-cultural influences
D) the Ame's room illusion
188. An integrated understanding of pain control in terms of mental distraction, the release of
endorphins, and the presence of empathic caregivers is most clearly provided by
A) parapsychology.
B) opponent-process theory.
C) a biopsychosocial approach.
D) the volley principle.
189. The biopsychosocial approach to pain is likely to emphasize the importance of both
A) top-down and bottom-up processing.
B) frequency and place theories.
C) kinesthesis and psychokinesis.
D) telepathy and clairvoyance.
190. When given a placebo that is said to relieve pain, we are likely to be soothed by the
brain's release of
A) umami.
B) nociceptors.
C) endorphins.
D) feature detectors.
Page 34
191. For burn victims, a computer-generated virtual reality can help to control pain by means
of
A) subliminal stimulation.
B) thought distraction.
C) phantom limb sensations.
D) blindsight.
192. Our sense of taste was once thought to involve only the following four sensations of
A) sweet, salty, starch, and bitter.
B) salty, fatty, bitter, and sweet.
C) sour, bitter, sweet, and starchy.
D) bitter, sweet, sour, and salty.
194. The taste sensation umami is most likely to attract us to foods that are
A) sweet.
B) bitter.
C) starchy.
D) rich in protein.
196. Sense receptor cells that project antenna-like hairs are located within
A) feature detectors.
B) phantom limbs.
C) taste buds.
D) rods and cones.
Page 35
197. Receptor cells for our sense of ________ reproduce themselves every week or two.
A) vision
B) hearing
C) taste
D) equilibrium
200. Which of the following would play a role in quickly alerting you to a gas leak in your
home?
A) bipolar cells
B) olfactory receptors
C) feature detectors
D) basilar membrane
Page 36
203. Information from the taste buds travels to an area between the
A) frontal and parietal lobes.
B) parietal and occipital lobes.
C) occipital and temporal lobes.
D) frontal and temporal lobes.
204. Our sense of the position and movement of individual body parts is called
A) feature detection.
B) accommodation.
C) kinesthesis.
D) sensory interaction.
205. Sensing the position and movement of your pitching arm while throwing a fastball best
illustrates
A) synaesthesia.
B) kinesthesis.
C) the volley principle.
D) sensory adaptation.
208. Tiny hairlike receptors that monitor the tilting of your head are located in the
A) ganglion fibers.
B) fovea.
C) olfactory bulb.
D) vestibular sacs.
Page 37
209. Which of the following play the biggest role in our feeling dizzy and unbalanced after a
thrilling roller coaster ride?
A) olfactory receptors
B) feature detectors
C) basilar membranes
D) semicircular canals
210. Sensory receptors in your vestibular sacs enable you to maintain your sense of
A) smell.
B) taste.
C) touch.
D) balance.
211. During the months when there is a large amount of pollen in the air, your hay fever
severely affects your sense of smell. At the same time your food all seems to taste the
same. This illustrates that your normal ability to savor tastes depends on
A) sensory interaction.
B) accommodation.
C) serial processing.
D) sensory adaptation.
213. When sounds were accompanied by a puff of air on people's neck or hands, they more
often misheard the sound ba as the more airless sound pa. This best illustrates
A) synaesthesia.
B) prosopagnosia.
C) sensory interaction.
D) retinal disparity.
214. The influence of our physical gestures on our psychological preferences is said to be an
indication of
A) embodied cognition.
B) relative luminance.
C) psychokinesis.
D) phantom limb sensations.
Page 38
215. The interconnection of brain circuits that process sensory experiences with brain circuits
responsible for abstract thinking contributes to what psychologists call
A) parapsychology.
B) embodied cognition.
C) sensory adaptation.
D) kinesthesis.
216. After holding a warm drink rather than a cold one, people are more likely to rate others
more warmly. This best illustrates
A) the McGurk effect.
B) relative luminance.
C) synaesthesia.
D) embodied cognition.
217. If hikers perceive a hill as steeper when carrying heavy backpacks rather than light
backpacks, this would best illustrate
A) embodied cognition.
B) synaesthesia.
C) Weber's law.
D) psychokinesis.
218. When put in a foul-smelling rather than a pleasant-smelling room, people expressed
harsher judgments of immoral acts such as lying. This best illustrates the importance of
A) Weber's law.
B) the McGurk effect.
C) embodied cognition.
D) sensory adaptation.
219. For some people, hearing certain sounds may activate color-sensitive regions of the
cortex so as to trigger a sensation of color. This phenomenon is called
A) tinnitus.
B) blindsight.
C) synaesthesia.
D) kinesthesis.
Page 39
220. Telepathy refers to the
A) extrasensory transmission of thoughts from one mind to another.
B) extrasensory perception of events that occur at places remote to the perceiver.
C) perception of future events, such as a person's fate.
D) ability to understand and share the emotions of another person.
221. Jamal claims that his special psychic powers enable him to perceive exactly where the
body of a recent murder victim is secretly buried. Jamal is claiming to possess the power
of
A) psychokinesis.
B) precognition.
C) telepathy.
D) clairvoyance.
222. The extrasensory ability to perceive an automobile accident taking place in a distant
location is to ________ as the extrasensory ability to know at any moment exactly what
your best friend is thinking is to ________.
A) telepathy; precognition
B) precognition; psychokinesis
C) psychokinesis; clairvoyance
D) clairvoyance; telepathy
223. Margo insists that her dreams frequently enable her to perceive and predict future
events. Margo is claiming to possess the power of
A) telepathy.
B) clairvoyance.
C) precognition.
D) psychokinesis.
224. Andre claims that he can make a broken watch begin to run again simply by entering a
state of intense mental concentration. Andre is claiming to possess the power of
A) precognition.
B) telepathy.
C) clairvoyance.
D) psychokinesis.
Page 40
225. Parapsychology refers to the
A) study of phenomena such as ESP and psychokinesis.
B) study of perceptual illusions.
C) study of synaesthesia.
D) direct transmission of thoughts from one mind to another.
226. Psychics who have worked with police departments in an effort to solve difficult crimes
have demonstrated the value of
A) clairvoyance.
B) telepathy.
C) precognition.
D) none of these things.
227. The existence of convincing scientific evidence that ESP is possible would pose the
greatest challenge to the
A) contemporary scientific understanding of human nature.
B) continued existence of parapsychology.
C) continuation of research on the processes that underlie ordinary forms of sensation
and perception.
D) ordinary belief systems of most Americans.
Page 41
Answer Key
1. A
2. D
3. C
4. B
5. D
6. B
7. C
8. C
9. D
10. B
11. C
12. C
13. B
14. B
15. D
16. B
17. D
18. C
19. A
20. D
21. A
22. D
23. C
24. C
25. A
26. D
27. A
28. A
29. B
30. D
31. D
32. B
33. D
34. B
35. C
36. C
37. D
38. B
39. D
40. C
41. C
42. B
43. B
44. C
Page 42
45. C
46. B
47. C
48. C
49. D
50. D
51. D
52. A
53. D
54. C
55. A
56. C
57. A
58. B
59. D
60. D
61. C
62. D
63. C
64. D
65. B
66. C
67. C
68. B
69. B
70. A
71. A
72. B
73. D
74. C
75. D
76. D
77. D
78. D
79. B
80. B
81. B
82. B
83. A
84. D
85. A
86. C
87. D
88. C
89. D
90. C
Page 43
91. C
92. D
93. C
94. A
95. A
96. D
97. B
98. B
99. C
100. B
101. C
102. C
103. C
104. C
105. B
106. C
107. B
108. D
109. C
110. B
111. A
112. C
113. C
114. C
115. B
116. D
117. C
118. C
119. D
120. C
121. B
122. C
123. B
124. B
125. C
126. A
127. B
128. A
129. B
130. A
131. C
132. A
133. A
134. B
135. C
136. C
Page 44
137. C
138. A
139. D
140. C
141. D
142. C
143. C
144. B
145. B
146. A
147. D
148. B
149. D
150. C
151. B
152. A
153. A
154. C
155. B
156. D
157. D
158. B
159. D
160. B
161. A
162. D
163. D
164. C
165. D
166. C
167. C
168. D
169. B
170. A
171. C
172. B
173. C
174. C
175. D
176. C
177. D
178. C
179. B
180. C
181. D
182. B
Page 45
183. A
184. C
185. A
186. C
187. C
188. C
189. A
190. C
191. B
192. D
193. A
194. D
195. A
196. C
197. C
198. D
199. D
200. B
201. C
202. C
203. D
204. C
205. B
206. B
207. C
208. D
209. D
210. D
211. A
212. D
213. C
214. A
215. B
216. D
217. A
218. C
219. C
220. A
221. D
222. D
223. C
224. D
225. A
226. D
227. A
228. B
Page 46
Page 47
Another random document with
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Russia was without a sovereign, and the capital was in the hands of
the Polish marshal. Zolkiewski used his advantages with wise
moderation, and easily prevailed on the weary and afflicted Muscovites
to resign themselves to the foreign yoke, and agree to offer the throne to
Wladislaw, the son of Sigismund. One word from the latter’s lips might
have reversed the subsequent fortunes of Russia and Poland; but in his
selfish vanity he preferred the appearance of power to its reality, and
claimed the crown of the czars, not for his son but for himself. Philaretes,
bishop of Rostov, and other ambassadors, were sent to him at his camp
before Smolensk, to make known the resolution of the Russians in
favour of Wladislaw. Sigismund insisted that they should at once put him
in possession of Smolensk, which he had been besieging for a year;
and, this being refused, he seized the ambassadors, and afterwards
carried them away to Poland, where they remained nine years in
captivity.
Zolkiewski, foreseeing the consequences of his master’s folly, against
which he had remonstrated in vain, retired from the government of
Moscow, leaving Gonsiewski as his successor. The Polish troops seized
the principal towns, proclaimed Sigismund, and observed none of that
discretion by which the great marshal had won the confidence and
esteem of the vanquished. National feeling awoke again among the
Russians; eagerly responding to the call of their revered patriarch,
Hermogenes, they took up arms in all parts of the empire, and war was
renewed with more fury than ever.
Smolensk fell after an obstinate resistance of
[1612-1613 a.d.] eighteen months; but at the moment of the last
assault the explosion of a powder magazine set fire
to the city, and Sigismund found himself master only of a heap of ruins.
The Poles in Moscow, assailed by the Russians, secured themselves in
the Kremlin, after burning down the greater part of the city, and
massacring a hundred thousand of the inhabitants. They were besieged
by an immense levy from the provinces, consisting of three armies; but
these seemed more disposed to fight with each other than to force the
Poles in their intrenchments. One of them consisted chiefly of
vagabonds escaped from the camp at Tushino, and was commanded by
Prince Trubetskoi. Zarucki led another in the name of Marina’s son; the
third army, and the only one, perhaps, whose commander sincerely
desired the independence of his country, was that of Prince Procope
Liapunov; but that brave leader was assassinated, and the besiegers,
disheartened by his death, immediately dispersed. About the same time
the patriarch Hermogenes, the soul of the national insurrection, died in
his prison in the Kremlin, to which he had been consigned by the Poles.
Anarchy was rampant in Russia; every town usurped the right to act in
the name of the whole empire, and set up chiefs whom they deposed a
few days afterwards. Kazan and Viatka proclaimed the son of Marina;
Novgorod, rather than open its gates to the Poles, called in the Swedes,
and tendered the crown to Charles Philip, second son of the reigning
king of Sweden, and brother of Gustavus Adolphus. Another imposter
assumed the name of Dmitri, and kept his state for awhile at Pskov; but
being at last identified as one Isidore, a fugitive monk, he was hanged.
When all seemed lost in irretrievable disorder, the country was saved by
an obscure citizen of Nijni-Novgorod. He was a butcher, named Kozma
Minin, distinguished by nothing but the possession of a sound head and
a brave, honest unselfish heart. Roused by his words and his example,
his fellow-citizens took up arms, and resolved to devote all their wealth
to the last fraction to the maintenance of an army for the deliverance of
their country. From Nijni-Novgorod the same spirit spread to other towns,
and Prince Pojarski who had been lieutenant to the brave Liapunov, was
soon able to take the field at the head of a considerable force, whilst
Minin, whom the popular voice styled the elect of the whole Russian
Empire, ably seconded him in an administrative capacity.
Pojarski drove the Poles before him from town to town; and having at
length arrived under the walls of the Kremlin, in August, 1612, he
sustained for three days a hot contest against Chodkiewicz, the
successor of Gonsiewski, defeated him, and put him to flight. Part of the
Polish troops, under the command of Colonel Nicholas Struss, returned
to the citadel and defended it for some weeks longer. At the end of that
time, being pressed by famine, they capitulated; and on the 22nd of
October, 1612, the princes Pojarski and Dmitri Trubetzkoi entered
together into that inclosure which is the heart of the country, and sacred
in the eyes of all true Russians. The assistance of Sigismund came too
late to arrest the flight of the Poles.
Upon the first successes obtained by Prince Pojarski the phantom of
Dmitri, and all the subaltern pretenders, disappeared as if by magic.
Zarucki, feeling that an irresistible power was about to overwhelm him,
was anxious only to secure himself a refuge. Carrying Marina and her
son with him, he made ineffectual efforts to raise the Don Cossacks.
After suffering a defeat near Voroneje, he reached the Volga, and took
possession of Astrakhan, with the intention of fortifying himself there; but
the generals of Michael Romanov, the newly elected czar, did not allow
him time. Driven from that city, and pursued by superior forces, he was
preparing to reach the eastern shore of the Caspian, when he was
surprised, in the beginning of July, 1614, on the banks of the Iaïk, and
delivered up to the Muscovite generals, along with Marina and the son of
the second Dmitri. They were immediately taken to Moscow, where
Zarucki was impaled; Ivan, who was but three years old, was hanged;
and Marina was shut up in prison, where she ended her days.
The deliverance of Moscow had alone been awaited in order to fill the
vacant throne by a free election. This could not properly take place
except in that revered sanctuary of the imperial power, the Kremlin,
where the sovereigns were crowned at their accession, and where their
ashes reposed after their death. Delivered now from all foreign influence,
the boyars of the council, in November, 1612, despatched letters or
mandates to every town in the empire, commanding the clergy, nobility,
and citizens to send deputies immediately to Moscow, endowed with full
power to meet in the national council (zemskii soveth), and proceed to
the election of a new czar. At the same time, to invoke the blessing of
God upon this important act, a fast of three days was commanded.
These orders were received with great enthusiasm throughout the whole
country: the fast was so rigorously observed, according to contemporary
records, that no person took the least nourishment during that interval,
and mothers even refused the breast to their infants.
The election day came: it was in Lent, in the year 1613. The debates
were long and stormy. The princes Mstislavski and Pojarski, it appears,
refused the crown; the election of Prince Dmitri Trubetskoi failed, and
the other candidates were set aside for various reasons. After much
hesitation the name of Michael Romanov was put forward; a young man
sixteen years of age, personally unknown, but recommended by the
virtues of his father, Philaretes, and in whose behalf the boyars had
been canvassed by the patriarch Hermogenes, the holy martyr to the
national cause. The Romanovs were connected through the female
branch with this ancient dynasty. The ancestors of Michael had filled the
highest offices in the state. He fulfilled, moreover, the required
conditions. “There were but three surviving members in his family,” says
Strahlenberg; “he had not been implicated in the preceding troubles; his
father was an ecclesiastic, and in consequence naturally more disposed
to secure peace and union than to mix himself up in turbulent projects.”
The name of the new candidate, supported by the metropolitan of
Moscow,[37] was hailed with acclamation, and after some discussion he
was elected. The unanimous voice of the assembly raised Michael
Feodorovitch to the throne. Before he ascended he was required to
swear to the following conditions: that he would protect religion; that he
would pardon and forget all that had been done to his father; that he
would make no new laws, nor alter the old, unless circumstances
imperatively required it; and that, in important causes, he would decide
nothing by himself, but that the existing laws and the usual forms of trial
should remain in force; that he would not at his own pleasure make
either war or peace with his neighbours; and that, to avoid all suits with
individuals, he would resign his estates to his family, or incorporate them
with the crown domains. Strahlenberg adds that Alexis, on his
accession, swore to observe the same conditions.
These forms, however futile they may have been, are remarkable: not
because they render sacred a right which stands in no need of them, but
because they recall it to mind; and also because they prove that, even
on the soil most favourable to despotism, a charter which should give
absolute power to a monarch would appear such a gross absurdity that
we know not that an instance of the kind ever existed.
Nothing could be more critical than the state of the empire at the
moment when its destinies were confided to a youth of seventeen.
Disorder and anarchy everywhere prevailed. Ustrialov gives us the
following picture: “The strongholds on the frontier which should have
served to defend his dominions were in the hands of external or internal
enemies. The Swedes possessed Kexholm, Oresheck, Koporie, and
even Novgorod. The Poles ruled in Smolensk, Dorogobuje, Putivle, and
Tchernigov; the country around Pskov was in the power of Lisovski;
Raisin, Kashira, and Tula struggled feebly against the Tatars of the
Crimea and the Nogai; Sarutzki (Zarucki) was established in Astrakhan;
Kazan was in revolt. At home bands of Cossacks from the Don, and the
Zaparogians, and whole divisions of Poles and Tatars ravaged the
villages and the convents that were still entire, when there were hopes of
finding booty. The country was wasted, soldiers were dying of hunger,
the land-tax was no longer collected, and not a kopeck was in the
treasury. The state jewels, crowns of great price, sceptres, precious
stones, vases—all had been plundered and carried into Poland.
“The young prince was surrounded by courtiers belonging to twenty
different factions. There were to be found the friends of Godunov, the
defenders of Shuiski, the companions of Wladislaw, and even partisans
of the brigand of Tushino—in a word, men professing the most various
opinions and aims, but all equally ambitious, and incapable of yielding
the smallest point as regarded precedence. The lower class, irritated by
ten years of misery, had become habituated to anarchy, and it was not
without difficulty and resistance on their part that they were reduced to
obedience.” Such, then, was the situation of the country; but Michael
found means to redeem it.
Notwithstanding the desperate state of his
[1617-1627 a.d.] finances, the insubordination of his troops, the ill-will
of the diets, and the confederations continually
springing up against him, Sigismund did not abandon his attempts upon
Russia; but the negotiations which ensued in consequence, upon
various occasions, produced no result. Wladislaw, at the head of an
army, once more crossed the frontiers, and appeared for the second
time, in 1617, under the walls of Moscow, which he assaulted and
whence he was repulsed. Deceived in the expectation which the
intelligence he kept up with various chiefs had induced him to form,
harassed by his troops, who were clamorous for pay, he consented to
renounce the title of czar, which he had up to that period assumed, and
concluded, on the 1st of December, 1618, an armistice for fourteen
years. The Peace of Stolbovna, January 26th, 1617, had terminated the
preceding year the war with Sweden, and was purchased by the
surrender of Ingria, Karelia, and the whole country between Ingria and
Novgorod; besides the formal renunciation of Livonia and Esthonia, and
the payment of a sum of money.
The captivity of Philarete had now lasted nine years; from Warsaw he
had been removed to the castle of Marienburg, and it was from that
place, as it is asserted, that he found means to communicate with the
council of the boyars, and use his influence in the election of the czar,
never dreaming that it would fall upon his son. The cessation of
hostilities restored him to freedom. He returned to Moscow on the 14th
of June, 1619, and was immediately elevated to the patriarchal chair,
which had remained vacant from the death of Hermogenes, in 1613. His
son made him co-regent, and the ukases of that date are all headed
“Michael Feodorovitch, sovereign, czar, and grand prince of all the
Russias, and his father Philarete, mighty lord and most holy patriarch of
all the Russias, order,” etc. There exist, moreover, ukases issued in the
sole name of the patriarch, thus called out of his usual sphere of action,
and placed in one in which absolute power was granted him. He took
part in all political affairs; all foreign ambassadors were presented to
him, as well as to the czar: and at those solemn audiences, as well as at
table, he occupied the right of the sovereign. He held his own court,
composed of stolnicks and other officers; in a word, he shared with his
son all the prerogatives of supreme power. From this period dates the
splendour of the patriarchate, which at a later epoch excited the jealousy
of the czar Peter the Great, who was induced to suppress it in 1721.
Philarete always gave wise advice to his son, and the influence he
exercised over him was always happily directed. A general census, of
which he originated the idea, produced great improvement in the
revenue; but, perhaps without intending it, he contributed by this
measure to give fixity to the system of bondage to the soil. In the
performance of his duty as head pastor, he directed all his efforts to re-
establish a press at Moscow,[38] which had been abandoned during the
troubles of the interregnum; and he had the satisfaction of seeing, after
1624, many copies of the Liturgy issue from it.h
THE COSSACKS
The peace with Poland being only for a stated term of years, Michael
endeavoured, before its expiration, to have his troops placed in such a
condition by foreign officers that he might be able to reconquer the
countries ceded to the Poles. Nay, on the death of Sigismund, ere the
armistice had expired, he began the attempt to recover these territories,
under the idle pretext that he had concluded a peace with Sigismund
and not with his successor. But the Russian commander, Michael
Schein, the very same who had valiantly defended Smolensk with a
small number of troops against the Poles, now lay two whole years
indolently before that town, with an army of fifty thousand men and
provided with good artillery, and at length retreated on capitulation, a
retreat for which he and his friends were brought to answer with their
heads. The Russian nation were so dissatisfied with this campaign, and
the king of Sweden, whom Michael wanted to engage in an alliance with
him against the Poles, showed so little inclination to comply, that the
czar was fain to return to the former amicable relation with Poland.
Peace was therefore again agreed on, and matters remained as they
were before.
During his reign, which continued till 1645, Michael had employment
enough in endeavouring to heal the wounds which the spirit of faction
had inflicted on his country; to compose the disorders that had arisen; to
restore the administration which had been so often disjointed and
relaxed; to give new vigour and activity to the laws, disobeyed and
inefficient during the general confusions; and to communicate fresh life
to expiring commerce. It redounds greatly to his honour that he
proceeded in all these respects with prudence and moderation, and
brought the disorganised machine of government again into play. More
than this, the restoration of the old order of things, was not to be
expected of him. Much that he was unable to effect was accomplished
by his son and successor, Alexis.
FOOTNOTES