RADIATION PHYSICS POST TEST | Cluster 1 A.

Watt
1. Compton effect involves the emission of: B. Ampere
1. Scattered radiation C. Ohm
2. Compton electron D. Volt
3. Recoil
A. 1 and 2 only 12. How much Tc-99m will remain after 4 physical half-
B. 2 and 3 only life if the initial activity was 50 mCi?
C. 1 and 3 only A. 0.25 mCi
D. 1,2,3 B. 125 µCi
C. 2.125 mCi
2. The farther an electron to the nucleus D. 250 µCi
A. The higher binding energy
B. The lower the binding energy 13. One disintegration per second of activity is equal to
C. The higher the energy level A. 1 curie
D. Both B and C B. 3.7 x 1010 Bq
C. 10 Bq
3. Electron binding will increase in any given shall if D. 2.7 x 10-11 Ci
one of the following increases
A. Atomic mass 14. The number of half-lives required to reduce the
B. Valence activity to 1/8 of the original amount is
C. Atomic number A. 5
D. Energy level B. 4
C. 3
4-5. Four resistors of 5 ohms, 10 ohms, 15 ohms, and 20 D. 2
ohms are connected in a series. Determine the unknown
values described in numbers, if the circuit draws 110 15. Which among the following interactions where
volts from an AC source. excitation only is not possible?
A. Classical scattering
4. The total current in the circuit is _______.
B. Rayleigh scattering
A. 0.5 A
C. Compton scattering
B. 2.2 A
D. Coherent scattering
C. 0.22 A
D. 5 A
16. Among the following interactions, which of these
produce/s a scattered x-ray?
5. The voltage across R3 is ______.
1. Classical scattering
A. 11.0
2. Compton effect
B. 22.0
3. Photoelectric effect
C. 33.0
4. Photodisintegration
D. 44.0
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
6. It is the most common cause of x-ray tube failure
C. 1 and 2
A. Single excessive exposure
D. 1,2 and 4
B. Long exposure times
E. All are correct
C. Filament vaporization
D. Damaged to bearings
17. Missing
18. Pair production produces which of the following
7. High frequency generator is recommended rather
1. Ion pairs
than high voltage generator because of the following
2. Positron
reasons
3. Electron
1. Constant voltage supplied to the
4. Proton
tube
A. 2 and 3
2. High voltage ripple
B. 3 and 4
3. Low cost
C. 2,3,4
4. Small area required
D. 1,2,3
A. 1 and 2 C. 1 and 4
E. AOTA
B. 2 and 3 d. 3 and 4
19. At 100 kVp, approximately how many % of
8. For what purpose is there a negative electrical
characteristic x-ray is produced?
charge on focusing cup?
A. 15%
A. To attract the electrons to the filament
B. 85%
B. To repel the electrons from the target
C. 1%
C. To attract the electrons to the focusing cup
D. 99%
D. To draw the electron together in a stream
20. A property of RAM to spontaneously emit radiation to
9. Which of the following components would not
reach a stable state
considered part of cathode assembly?
A. Radioactivity
1. Filament
B. Half-life
2. Target
C. RA transformation
3. Focusing cup
D. Radioactive decay
A. 1 and 2
21. Tc-99m has an initial activity of 100 mCi, after ______
B. 2 and 3
its activity will be 12.5 mCi
C. 2 only
A. 3 hrs
D. 3 only
B. 6 hrs
C. 18 hrs
10. Material added to tungsten - Rhenium
D. 18 days
11. The flow of one coulomb per second in a conductor is
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 22. The maximum number of electrons in the N-shell of A. Thermionic emission
the Lead element is _____ B. Space charge effect
A. 18 C. Space charge
B. 32 D. Focused electrons
C. 60
D. 22 32. Described as the removal of an electron within an
atom by a characteristic x-ray
23. The maximum number of electrons in the outermost A. K-capture
shell of the Lead element is ____ B. Auger process
A. 18 C. Isomeric transition
B. 32 D. Internal conversion
C. 60
D. 22 33. What is the mass of the beta particle?
A. -1
24. Refers to the particles that have the highest LET B. 0
a. Alpha C. 2
b. Beta D. 4
c. Gamma
d. X-ray 34. What is the relationship between frequency and
wavelength?
25. During ionization of the inner shell electron, which of A. Inversely
the following is/are produced? B. Directly
1. Heat C. Varies
2. Characteristic x-ray D. Not related
3. Ion pairs
A. 1 and 2 35. Decreases the possibility of photoelectric absorption
B. 2 only by increasing the:
C. 2 and 3 A. Photon wavelength
D. AOTA B. Imaging system speed
C. kVp
26. When a fast-moving electron interacts with the D. FFD
nuclear space of a target material, its kinetic energy
is converted into ______ 36. What is the charge of a nucleon?
A. Bremsstrahlung A. Positive
B. Annihilation radiation B. Neutral
C. Characteristic x-ray C. Negative
D. Gamma radiation D. Unknown

27. Which of the following device is/are considered as 37. The measured kVp should be within ____% of the
energy converter/s indicated kVp
1. Electric motors A. 5
2. Electric generators B. 10
3. Transformers C. 15
A. 1 only D. 30
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 2 only 38. What is the standard for measurement of effective
D. 1,2,3 focal spot size?
A. Pinhole
28. Which of the following is/are step transformer/s? B. Star test pattern
1. 10,000 turns in primary coil, 2,000 C. Slit camera
turns in secondary coil D. Line-pair test
2. 2,000 turns in primary, 10,000 turns
in secondary coil 39. If the identified safelight handling time is considered
3. 1,000 turns in primary coil, 4000 too short, the following are recommended EXCEPT:
turns in secondary coil 1. Increase safelight height
A. 1 and 2 2. Reduce bulb wattage
B. 1 and 3 3. Increase bulb wattage
C. 2 and 3 4. Replace filter
D. 1,2,3 A. 1 only
B. 2 only
29. The primary purpose of the target disk in the x-ray C. 3 only
tube is to D. 1, 2 and 4
A. Provide a source of electron
B. Provide the site of energy conversion 40. For darkroom ventilation, the extractor fan should
C. Increase the heat loading capability of the have an air exchange rate of ___ changes per hour
tube A. 5
D. Maintain a finely focused stream of electrons B. 10
C. 15
30. The standard speed of rotating target is D. 20
approximately 41. If you accidentally left a film hopper open or the lid
A. 1500 rpm off a film box when a white light is switched on, what
B. 3400 rpm is the correct thing to do?
C. 5000 rpm A. Discard the exposed films immediately
D. 10,000 rpm B. Get 3 fresh films from the bin or box
randomly and process to check if it has been
31. It is also referred to as the electron cloud
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 C. You don’t have to take any action as the 52. For radiation protection purposes, which dose
films are closely packed and light may not response relationship is observed?
penetrate much below the top edge A. Linear threshold
D. Take 3 fresh films from front, middle and B. Nonlinear, threshold
back, process to check if it has been really C. Linear, nonthreshold
exposed. D. Nonlinear, nonthreshold

42. What is the recommended replenishment rate for 53. Radiation-induced skin erythema follows a _____
developer? dose-response relationship
A. 60-70 ml for every 14” thickness of film A. Linear threshold
developed B. Nonlinear, threshold
B. 100 to 110 ml for every 14” thickness of film C. Linear, nonthreshold
developed D. Nonlinear, nonthreshold
C. 12l/min
D. 3gal/min 54. Which of the following are highly radioresistant?
1. Spermatogonia
43. In developer activity test, what is unacceptable? 2. Bone marrow
A. 3 steps difference in strips 3. Chondrocytes
B. 2 steps difference in strips 4. Brain
C. 1 step difference in strips A. 1 and 2
D. Any step increments B. 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4
44. This measures the specific gravity of the developer D. 2 and 4
A. Hydrometer
B. Litmus paper 55. Which of the following serves to fuel the body for
C. Only A is correct long term energy storage?
D. A and B are both correct A. Lipid
B. Carbohydrate
45. Specific gravity specifically measures the ____ of the C. Protein
developer D. Water
A. Activity
B. Age 56. Which stage of radiolysis of water where free
C. Amount radicals are formed/produced?
D. Oxidation rate A. Physical stage
B. Physico-chemical stage
46. Centering indicators must be accurate to within ___ C. Chemical stage
% of the SID D. Biological state
A. 2 57. Missing
B. 5 58. Long term low level of exposure will result to ____
C. 10 1. Stochastic effect
D. 15 2. Somatic
3. Late effect
47. Focal spot size tolerance must be ± ___ % A. 1 and 3
A. 15 B. 1 and 2
B. 10 C. 2 and 3
C. 25 D. 1,2,3
D. 50
59. Late effects exhibit which of the following?
48. It is a simple pass/fail test for focal spot condition 1. Non-threshold
A. Pinhole camera 2. Linear
B. Slit camera 3. Safe dose
C. Multiple bar pattern A. 1 and 3
D. Star test pattern B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3
49. It is a simple mechanical device used to check the D. 1,2,3
accuracy of the timer E. Cell death
A. Dosimeter
B. Densitometer 60. In deterministic effect, as the dose of radiation
C. Spinning top exceeds the threshold dose there would be:
D. Sensitometer A. No response
B. A response
50. A two pulsed unit using a 60Hz mains supply at 0.1 C. Increased response
second exposure will produce how many spots? D. Decreased response
A. 5
B. 6 61. In deterministic effect, as long as the dose of
C. 10 radiation does not exceed the threshold dose there
D. 12 would be:
A. No response
51. Which of the following is the purpose of adding B. A response
replenisher to the developer solution? C. Increased response
A. To compensate for oxidation D. Decreased response
B. To reduce volume 62. In stochastic effect as the dose of radiation increase
C. To decrease developer activity the response will:
D. To decrease developer strength A. No response
B. A response
C. Increased
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 D. Is same C. 25 rad
D. 200 rad
63. Defined the cell as the biologic building block
A. Schneider and Schwann 73. The mean survival time (MST) for CNS syndrome is
B. Robert Hooke ____ days
C. Anton Van Leeuwenhoek A. 0-3
D. Watson and Crick B. 4-10
C. 10-60
64. Which of the following are macromolecules? D. Months to years
1. Lipids
2. Protein 74. Being a radiation worker, the expected days of life
3. Carbohydrates lost is ___
A. 1 and 2 A. 1 day
B. 2 and 3 B. 12 days
C. 1 and 3 C. 20 days
D. 1,2,3 D. 74 days

65. Which of the following is most radioresistant? 75. Which among the mitotic phase can be stopped to
A. Mice analyze radiation-induced damage?
B. Cockroach A. Prophase
C. Frog B. Metaphase
D. Rabbit C. Anaphase
D. Telophase
66. Theorized and observed that radiosensitivity was a
function of the metabolic state of the tissue being 76. Weekly MPD for occupational exposed persons
irradiated A. Less than 18mrem
A. Schneider and Schwann B. 35 to 45 mrem
B. Watson and Crick C. 100 mrem
C. Bergonie and Leeuwenhoek D. 350 mrem
D. Bergonie and Tribondeau
77. A film badge monitoring device used for monitoring
67. Physical factors affecting radiosensitivity of personnel can:
1. LET 1. Record the image of the aluminum or
2. Oxygen effect copper filters which are contained in
3. Fractionation the plastic holder
A. 1 and 2 2. Be compare with a control badge by
B. 2 and 3 the monitoring company
C. 1 and 3 3. Unable to record doses below 10
D. 1,2,3 millirem
A. 1 and 2
68. Which of the following has a direct relationship with B. 2 and 3
radiosensitivity of a tissue? C. 1 and 3
1. Age D. 1,2,3
2. Metabolism
3. Oxygen content 78. Application of radiation dose-response relationship
A. 1 and 2 A. Determines the relationship of dose and time
B. 2 and 3 used to design therapeutic treatment
C. 1 and 3 routines for patients suffering from
D. 1,2,3 malignant disease
B. To provide information on the effects of low
69. Which of the following is most radiosensitive? dose irradiation
A. 3-yr old male C. Both
B. 3-yr old female D. None
C. 15-yr old female
D. 15-yr old male 79. The sequence of events following high level radiation
exposure leading to death within days of weeks is
70. Which of the following is least radiosensitive? termed as
A. Hypersthenic female A. Acute radiation syndrome
B. Sthenic female B. Chronic radiation syndrome
C. Hypersthenic male C. Acute chronic radiation syndrome
D. Sthenic male D. Accumulated radiation syndrome

71. Which of the following is/are the established protocol 80. The technologist has considerable control over both
for radiography of the pregnant patient? image quality and patient dose, depending on which
1. Elective booking materials or methods are selected for each
2. Patient consent forms examination. Which of the following technique
3. 10-day rule reduces patient dose and improve image quality at
A. 1 only the same time?
B. 1 and 2 1. The use of an automatic exposure
C. 1 and 3 control
D. 1,2,3 2. Collimating to the area of interest
3. Applying gonad shielding whenever
72. What is the minimum threshold dose for death to possible
occur for a whole-body exposure? A. 1 only
A. 5 rad B. 2 only
B. was
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 D. 1,2,3 C. Cardinal principles of radiation protection is
under the Justification of Practices
81. Basic principles of radiation protection include which D. Maximum Permissible Dose is the old term
of the following? for Dose Limits
1. Time
2. Justification of practices 88. Which of the following statements is true?
3. Optimization of protection A. Radiation can only be damaging if it is of the
A. 1 only ionizing type
B. 2 and 3 B. All radioactive substances emit radiation
C. 1 and 3 C. X-ray machines are radioactive
D. 1,2,3 D. Low atomic number material are good
shielding materials for x-rays
82. Which of the following statements correctly
describes the predicting aspect of the latent period? 89. Type of x-ray interaction wherein an electron is
A. Nausea during the latent period indicated ejected and a photon changes direction
that the gastro intestinal syndrome will A. Photoelectric effect
follow B. Pair production
B. The duration of the latent period is an C. Coherent scattering
indicator of the severity of effects to come D. Compton scattering
C. A very short latent period indicates means
no radiation induced damage has occurred 90. An electromagnetic radiation having a frequency of 3
D. Coma during the latent period indicates that x 10^10 Hz would have a wavelength of
death will follow within 2 weeks A. 1.0 cm
B. 0.1 m
83. Within few months after x-ray was discovered, they C. 1 m
were being used for medical diagnosis and D. 10cm
treatment, resulting in the first visible biologic
effects of radiation on humans. Which of the 91. The intensity of radiation varies inversely as the
following is considered as the first observable effects square of the distance from the source of radiation
of radiation to humans? A. Age formula
A. Genetic mutation B. Dose effect relationship
B. Leukemia C. Linear absorption equation
C. Skin erythema D. Inverse square law
D. Bone cancer
92. The mode of decay involving a nucleus with an
84. Which of the following are sources of unnecessary excess number of neutrons
exposure A. Gamma
1. Annual chest radiograph B. Alpha
2. Routine fluoroscopy in person older C. Beta minus
than 40 years D. Beta plus
3. Routine mammography examination
for female of child-bearing age 93. It is the radiation produced when the speed of light
A. 1,2 of the electron in a certain medium is greater than
B. 2,3 the speed of light in that medium
C. 1,3 A. X-ray
D. 1,2,3 B. Photoelectric effect
C. Ultrasound
85. In the early 90s, Bergonie and Tribondeau formulated D. Cerenkov
some theories about the radiosensitivity of biologic
tissue. The law of Bergonie and Tribondeau 94. Electrons that are in the outermost shell and
formulated in part that: determine to a large extent the chemical properties
A. When metabolic activity is high, of an atom are called
radiosensitivity is low A. Valence electron
B. Undifferentiated cells are radiosensitive B. Beta particles
C. Radiation damage to cells can be completely C. Orbital electrons
repaired the first time it occurs D. Delta rays
D. Radiosensitive cells are highly specialized
cells 95. The activity of Co-60 source would have decayed to
less than 5% of its initial value after how many half-
86. The target theory is a concept for classifying lives?
radiation effects in the cellular level. The basis of A. 2
this theory is that in every cell there is a significant B. 5
target, if rendered nonfunctional will result in death C. 4
of cell. Which of the following is the most important D. 1
molecular target?
A. Water 96. Linear energy transfer (LET) is measured
B. Glycerol A. Rad
C. DNA B. keV/rad
D. Protein C. keV/µm
D. Gray
87. Which of the following statements is false? 97. it is referred to as the number of ion pairs produced
A. Justification of practices emphasized that the per cm of air traversed by any type of radiation
net benefits must always outweigh the risks A. ionization
B. Optimization of practices includes ALARA B. specific ionization
principle C. linear energy transfer
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D. Range

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 98. It is represented by the sum of the number of
protons and the number of neutrons in the nucleus
of an atom
A. Atomic number
B. Neutron number
C. Avogadro’s number
D. Atomic mass number

99. It is an interaction that involves a low energy photon

and electron wherein the incident photon is absorbed
and the electron is ejected
A. Pair production
B. Compton scattering
C. Photoelectric effect
D. Ionizing effect
100. It is referred to as the maximum distance
traversed by any type of radiation in an interacting
medium before losing all its energy
A. Range
B. Linear energy transfer
C. Specific ionization
D. Ionization

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