Form Number : Paper Code

(1001CMD300118001) *1001CMD300118001*
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME
(Academic Session : 2018 - 2019)

PRE-MEDICAL : NURTURE COURSE

PHASE : MNB, MNC & MND
Test Type : MINOR Test Pattern : NEET(UG)
TEST DATE : 06 - 05 - 2018

Important Instructions
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so

1. A seat marked with Reg. No. will be allotted to each student. The student should ensure that he/she occupies the
correct seat only.
If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the
examination and shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.
2. Duration of Test is 3 Hours and Questions Paper Contains 180 Questions. The Max. Marks are 720.

3. Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.

4. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre incharge.

5. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing.
6. Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. Guessing of answer is
harmful.

7. A candidate has to write his / her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the help of
Blue / Black Ball Point Pen only as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.
8. Use of Pencil is strictly prohibited.

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 Nurture Course/Phase-MNB, MNC & MND/06-05-2018
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TOPIC : Vectors, Trigonometry, Graph, Differentiation, Indefinite Integration.

1. The minimum number of vectors having different 8. Which of the following pairs of forces cannot be
planes which can be added to give zero resultant added to give a resultant force of 4 N ?
is :- (1) 2N and 8N (2) 2N and 2N
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5
(3) 2N and 6N (4) 2N and 4N
2. Out of the following set of forces, the resultant
9. ABCDEF is a regular hexagon with point O as
of which cannot be zero ?     
(1) 10, 10, 10 (2) 10, 10, 20 center. The value of AB  AC  AD  AE  AF
(3) 10, 20, 20 (4) 10, 20, 40 is :-
3. Two forces, each equal to F, act as shown in Fig.   
(1) 2AO (2) 4AO (3) 6AO (4) 0
Their resultant is :-
10. If â and b̂ are non-collinear unit vector and if
â  bˆ  3 , then find value of  2aˆ  5bˆ  .  3aˆ  bˆ  :-

41 11
(1) (2)
2 2
(1) F/2 (2) F (3) 3F (4) 5F
11 41
    (3)  (4) 
4. If A  B  A  B , then the angle between 2 2
  11. The sum of the magnitudes of two forces acting
A and B is :-
(1) 120° (2) 60° (3) 90° (4) 0° at a point is 16 N. The resultant of these forces
  is perpendicular to the smaller force and has a
5. Given A  A cos ˆi +A sin  ĵ . A vector B ,
magnitude of 8N. If the smaller force is of

which is perpendicular to A , is given by :- magnitude x, then the value of x is :-
(1) B cos ˆi  Bsin  ˆj (2) B sin ˆi  Bcos  ˆj (1) 2 N (2) 4 N (3) 6 N
(4) 7 N

(3) B cos ˆi  Bsin  ˆj (4) B sin ˆi  Bcos  ˆj 12. The angle between the two vectors A  5iˆ  5ˆj
  
6. If the angle between the vectors a and b is an and B  5iˆ  5ˆj will be :-
  (1) Zero (2) 45° (3) 90° (4) 180°
acute angle, then the difference a  b is :-
(1) The major diagonal of the parallelogram 
13. In figure, E equals
(2) The minor diagonal of the parallelogram
(3) Any of the above  
C B
(4) None of the above
 
7. If b  3iˆ  4 ˆj and a  ˆi  ˆj , the vector having the 
A
  
 D E
same magnitude as that of b and parallel to a is:

5 ˆ ˆ 5 ˆ ˆ
(1)
2

i j  (2)
2
i j   
(1) A (2) B
 
 
(3) 5 ˆi  ˆj  
(4) 5 ˆi  ˆj  
(3) A  B 
(4)  A  B 
1001CMD300118001 E-1/15
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   
14. Given that A  B  C and that C is 18. The angles which a vector ˆi  ˆj  2kˆ makes
   with X, Y and Z axes respectively are :-
perpendicular to A . Further if A  C , then
  (1) 60°, 60°, 60° (2) 45°, 45°, 45°
what is the angle between A and B ? (3) 60°, 60°, 45° (4) 45°, 45°, 60°
   
(1) radian (2) radian 19. The vector P  aiˆ  ajˆ  3kˆ and Q  aiˆ  2 ˆj  kˆ
4 2
are perpendicular to each other. The positive value
3 of a is :-
(3) radian (4) radian
4 (1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 9 (4) 13
 
15. A particle moves from position 3iˆ  2ˆj  6kˆ to 20. If A  2iˆ  3ˆj  kˆ and B   ˆi  3ˆj  4kˆ then
 
14iˆ  13ˆj  9kˆ due to a uniform force of projection of A on B will be :-

(4iˆ  ˆj  3k)
ˆ N. If the displacement in meters then 3 3 3 3
(1) (2) (3) (4)
work done will be :- 13 26 26 13
(1) 100 J (2) 200 J (3) 300 J (4) 250 J 21. 100 coplanar forces each equal to 10 N act on
a body. Each force makes angle /50 with the
16. Five forces 2N, 3N , 5N, 3 and 2 N respectively
preceding force. What is the resultant of the
at a particle P as shown in the figure. forces ?
–
3 N (1) 1000 N (2) 500 N
5N
2N (3) 250 N (4) Zero
–
3 N 22. The unit vector parallel to the resultant of the
 
30° 30° vectors A  4iˆ  3ˆj  6kˆ and B  ˆi  3jˆ  8kˆ is :-
30°
30° 1 ˆ ˆ 1 ˆ ˆ
P
2N (1)
7

3i  6 j  2kˆ  (2)
7
3i  6 j  2kˆ 
The resultant force on the particle P is :
1 ˆ ˆ 1 ˆ ˆ
(1) 10 N making angle 60° with X-axis (3)
49

3i  6 j  2kˆ  (4)
49

3i  6 j  2kˆ 
(2) 10 N making angle 60° with Y-axis
(3) 20 N along Y-axis 23. If a unit vector is represented by
(4) None of these 0.5iˆ  0.8ˆj  ck,
ˆ then the value of 'c' is :-
17. Three forces are acting on a particle as shown in
the figure. To have the resultant force only along (1) 1 (2) 0.11 (3) 0.01 (4) 0.39
the Y-direction the magnitude of the minimum
additional force needed is :-  2 
24. Value of cos   is :-
 3 

1 3 1  3
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 2 2 2

25. If 3y  3x  6 then angle made by the line with

positive x-axis is :-
(1) 120º (2) 60º
(1) 0.866 N (2) 1.732 N
(3) 30º (4) 150º
(3) 0.5 N (4) 4 N
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26. Equation for the graph may be : dy
y 32. If y = sin2x then is :-
dx
(1) sin 2x (2) –sin 2x
(3) cos 2x (4) –cos 2x
x 2
33. If y = 2x – 8x + 5 then minimum value of y is:-
(1) 3 (2) 5 (3) –3 (4) –5
2
(1) y = 2x + 3 (2) y = 2x – 3 34. If y = 4x + 2x then slope of y – x graph at x = 1
(3) y = –2x – 3 (4) y = –2x + 3 is :-
27. Equation for y-x graph is :- (1) 10 (2) 8 (3) 6 (4) 12
y 2
 1
(0,2) 35. Value of   x   dx is :-
 x
(-3,0) (3,0)
x
x2 x3 1
(0,-2) (1)  log e x  c (2)   2x  c
2 3 x

x3 x 2 x3 1
x 2 y2 x 2 y2 (3)   2x  c (4)   2x  c
(1)  1 (2)  1 3 2 3 x
3 2 4 9
dy
x 2 y2 x 2 y2 36. If y = 4x2 + 2x then graph between and x is :-
(3)  1 (4)  1 dx
9 4 2 3
28. Value of cos222.5º can be written as :- dy/dx

1  cos 45º 1  cos 45º

(1) (2)
2 2
(1) x
1  sin 45º 1  sin 45º
(3) (4)
2 2
dy/dx
dy
29. If y = sin2x + cos2x then is :-
dx (2) x

(1) 4 sin cos x (2) 2 sin x + 2 cos x

(3) zero (4) 1
30. Radius of a metallic plate is given as r = 2t2 then
rate of increase of area of the plate at t = 2 sec is:- dy/dx
(1) 64  (2) 128  (3) 32  (4) 144 

1 (3) x
31. If tan   and  lies in third quadrant then
5
value of sin is :-
1 5 dy/dx
(1) (2)
6 6
1  5 (4) x
(3) (4)
6 6
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42. Draw graph for equation 4y2 + 25x2 = 100.
d2 y
37. If y = 5x3 – 4x2 + 2 then value of 2 at x = 1 is:-
dx (0,5)

(1) 22 (2) 7
(-2,0) (2,0)
(3) 24 (4) 3 (1)
3 2
38. If x = 4t + 2t – 5t + 6 then value of initial
acceleration of the particle is :- (0,-5)
(1) 6 (2) –5 (3) 4 (4) 12
39. For a moving body, if its distance depends on time (0,2)
as S = 5t2 + 4t + 3. where 'S' is distance & 't' as
time. Then find acceleration at t = 2sec. (-5,0) (5,0)
(2)
(1) 24 m/s2 (2) 4 m/s2
(3) 10 m/s2 (4) 31 m/s2 (0,-2)
40. For a moving bus if its distance time relation is
given as S = t3 – 27t + 4. Then find its acceleration
(0,10)
when its velocity is zero.
(1) 15 m/s2 (2) 18 m/s2 (-10,0) (10,0)
(3)
(3) 20 m/s2 (4) 24 m/s2

d2 y (0,-10)
41. If y = e–3x, then draw graph in between vs x.
dx 2
(0,5)
d2y
2
dx
(-5,0) (5,0)
(0,3) (4)

(1) x
(0,-5)

43. Find equation for the given graph :-

d2y
2
dx
y
(0,9)
(2) x
(0,2)
x
d2y
(1) y = 2x2 (2) x = 2y2
dx2
(3) y = e2x (4) y = 2e2x
(3) x
(0,-9) 7
44. If cos = and '' lies in 1st quadrant, then find
25
tan (90 – ):-
d2y
dx2 24 24 7 25
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(4) x 7 25 24 24
(0,-3) 45. Find greatest value of 'y', where y = 3sin– 4cos
(1) 7 (2) 1 (3) 5 (4) 4

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TOPIC : Some Basic Concept of Chemistry, Atomic Structure.

46. Which of the following relation is incorrect 53. Two elements A(at. wt. 75) and B (at. wt. 16)
regarding temperature ? combine to yield a compound. The % by weight
of A in the compound was found to be 75.08.
9
(1) F  (C)  32 (2) K = °C + 273.15 The formula of the compound is :-
5
(1) A2B (2) A2B3
5 (3) AB (4) AB2
(3) °C = K + 273.15 (4) C  (F  32)
9 54. One amu is equal to :-
47. The number of atoms present in one mole of an (1) 1.57 × 10–24 kg (2) 1.66 × 10-24 kg
element is equal to Avogardro's number. Which (3) 1.99 × 10–23 kg (4) 1.66 × 10–27 kg
of the following element contains the greatest 55. The number of oxygen atoms in 4.4 gm of CO2
number of atoms ? is :-
(1) 4g He (2) 46 g Na
(1) 6 × 1022 (2) 12 × 1023
(3) 0.40g Ca (4) 12g He
(3) 1.2 × 1023 (4) 6 × 1023
48. The empirical formula and molecular mass of a
56. An organic compound contains carbon, hydrogen
compound are CH2O and 180 g respectively.
and oxygen. Its elemental analysis gave C, 38.71%
What will be the molecular formula of the
and H, 9.67% and O, 51.62%. The empirical
compound ?
formula of the compound would be ?
(1) C9H18O9 (2) CH2O
(1) CHO (2) CH4O
(3) C6H12O6 (4) C2H4O2
(3) CH3O (4) CH2O
49. The largest no. of molecules are in :-
57. T he p er cent ag e of S e in p er ox id as e
(1) 36g H2O (2) 28g CO
an yh yd ro us enzym e is 0 .5 % by w ei gh t
(3) 46g C2H5OH (4) 54g N2O5
(Atomic weight of Se = 78.4). Then minimum
50. Which option is correct regarding the percentage
molecular weight of peroxidase anhydrous
composition of CaCO3 ?
enzyme is :-
(1) Ca is 40% by mass (2) O is 48% by mass
(1) 1.568 × 104 (2) 1.568 × 103
(3) C is 12% by mass (4) All are correct
(3) 15.68 (4) 3.136 × 104
51. How many atoms are contained in a mole of
58. 1 mole of water contains :-
Ca(OH)2 ?
(1) 30 × 6.02 ×1023 atoms/mol (1) 6.023 × 1023 O atoms

(2) 5 × 6.02 ×1023 atoms/mol (2) 6.023 × 1023 molecules

(3) 6 × 6.02 × 1023 atoms/mol (3) 3 × 6.023 × 1023 atoms

(4) None of the above (4) All of the above
52. At STP 5.6 litre of a gas weigh 60g. The vapour 59. The number of mole atom of oxygen in
density of gas is :- 6.02 × 10 24 CO molecules is :-
(1) 60 (2) 120 (1) 1 (2) 0.5
(3) 30 (4) 240 (3) 5 (4) 10

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60. 500 mL of NH3 contains 6.00 × 1023 molecules 68. Which is heaviest ?
at STP. How many molecules are present in (1) 25g of Hg (2) 3 moles of H2O
100 mL of CO 2 at STP ? (3) 2 moles of H2O (4) 4g-atom of oxygen
23 21
(1) 6 × 10 (2) 1.5 × 10 69. What is the ratio of mass of an electron to the mass
(3) 1.2 × 1023 (4) None of these of a proton :-
61. The number of water molecules present in a drop (1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 1
of water (volume of 0.0018 ml) at room (3) 1 : 1837 (4) 1 : 3
temperature is :- 70. Which one of the following constitutes a group
(1) 6.023 × 1019 (2) 1.084 × 1018 of the isoelectronic species :-
(3) 4.84 × 10 17
(4) 6.023 × 10 23
(1) NO+, C22–, CN–, N2
62. The mass % of an organic compound is (2) CN–, N2, O22–, C22–
C = 57.8%, H = 3.6% and rest is oxygen. (3) N2, O2–, NO+, CO
The VD of the compound is 63. What is its (4) C22–, O2–, CO, NO
molecular formula ? 71. An ion has a charge of –1. It has eighteen electrons
(1) C4H3O2 (2) C8H6O2 and twenty neutrons. Its mass number is :-
(3) C3H4O2 (4) C4H2O3 (1) 17 (2) 37
63. How many molecules are present in N2O(g) which (3) 18 (4) 38
occupies 22.4 mL at STP ? 72. The ratio between the neutrons in C and Si with
respect to atomic masses 12 and 28 is :-
NA
(1) NA (2) (1) 2 : 3 (2) 3 : 2
10
(3) 3 : 7 (4) 7 : 3
2+
NA NA 73. Be is isoelectronic with :-
(3) (4)
100 1000 (1) Mg2+ (2) Na+
64. Determine the mass present in 0.2 g-atom of Na- (3) Li+ (4) H+
(1) 46g (2) 2.3 g 74. An isotone of 76
Ge is :-
32
(3) 4.6 g (4) None of these 77 77
(1) 32 Ge (2) 33 As
65. Determine moles present in 3.9 g Benzene :-
77 78
(1) 0.5 (2) 0.05 (3) 34 Se (4) 36 Sc
(3) 2 (4) 1 75. The radius of hydrogen atom is 0.53Å. The radius
66. If vapour density of CH4 is assumed to be 1 then of 3Li2+ is of :-
what will the molecular weight of the substance (1) 1.27 Å (2) 0.17 Å
whose vapour density is 4 :- (3) 0.57 Å (4) 0.99 Å
(1) 8 (2) 2 76. When an electron drops from a higher energy
(3) 64 (4) 128 level to a low energy level, then :-
67. 16 g of SOx occupies 5.6 litre at STP. Assuming (1) Energy is emitted
ideal gas nature, the value of x is :- (2) Energy is absorbed
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) Atomic number increases
(3) 3 (4) None of these (4) Atomic number decreases

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77. When an electron revolves in a stationary orbit 85. The radius of which of the following orbit is same
then :- as that of the first Bohr's orbit of hydrogen atom :
(1) It absorbs energy (1) He+(n = 2) (2) Li2+ (n = 2)
(2) It gains kinetic energy (3) Li2+ (n = 3) (4) Be3+ (n = 2)
(3) It emits radiation 86. According to Bohr's principle, the relation
(4) Its energy remains constant between principle quantum number (n) and radius
78. The frequency of an electromagnetic radiation is of orbit is :-
2 × 106 Hz. What is its wavelength in metres (1) r  n (2) r  n2
(velocity of light = 3 × 108 ms–1)
1 1
(1) 6.0 × 1014 (2) 1.5 × 104 (3) r  (4) r 
n n2
(3) 1.5 × 102 (4) 0.66 ×10–2
87. The positive charge of an atom is :-
79. According to Bohr's theory, the angular
(1) Spread all over the atom
momentum of an electron in 5th orbit is :-
(2) Distributed around the nucleus
(1) 25 h/ (2) 1.0 h/
(3) Concentrated at the nucleus
(3) 10 h/ (4) 2.5 h/
80. The radius of the nucleus is related to the mass (4) All of these
number A by :- 88. The radius of the first Bohr orbit of the H atom
(1) R = R0A1/2 (2) R = R0A is r. Then the radius of the first orbit of Li2+ will
be :-
(3) R = R0 A2 (4) R = R0A1/3
81. The specific charge of proton is 9.6 × 107 Ckg–1 (1) r/9 (2) r/3

then for an -particle it will be :- (3) 3r (4) 9r

(1) 38.4 × 107 C kg–1 (2) 19.2 × 107 C kg–1 89. The energies E1 and E2 of two radiations are 25eV
(3) 2.4 × 107 C Kg–1 (4) 4.8 × 107 C kg–1 and 50 eV respectively. The relation between their

82. 1 mole of photon, each of frequency 2500s–1, wavelengths i.e., 1 and 2 will be :-
would have approximately a total energy of :-
1
(1) 10 erg (2) 1 Joule (1) 1   2 (2) 1 = 2
2
(3) 1 eV (4) 1 MeV
(3) 1 = 22 (4) 1 = 42
83. The frequency of yellow light having wavelength
90. A 600 W mercury lamp emits monochromatic
600 nm is :-
radiation of wavelength 331.3 nm. How many
(1) 5.0 × 1014 Hz (2) 2.5 × 107 Hz
photons are emitted from the lamp per second
(3) 5.0 × 107 Hz (4) 2.5 × 1014 Hz
(h = 6.6260 × 10–34 Js ;
84. The ratio of area covered by second orbit to the
velocity of light = 3 × 108 ms–1)
first orbit is :-
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 16 (1) 1 × 1019 (2) 1 × 1020

(3) 8 : 1 (4) 16 : 1 (3) 1 × 1021 (4) 1 × 1023

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TOPIC : Introduction of Cell to Plastids, Animal Tissues.

91. Which of the following statement is incorrect ? 97. Select the odd one out w.r.t. endo-membrane
(1) Unicellular organisms are capable of system :-
independent existence (1) Vacuole
(2) Anything less than a complete structure of a (2) Golgi and ER
cell does not ensure independent living (3) Mitochondria and chloroplast
(3) Matthias Schleiden, a German zoologist, (4) Lysosome
proposed that body of animals are composed 98. Read the following statements :
of cells and products of cells (i) ER divides the intracellular space into two
(4) Schleiden and Schwann together formulated distinct compartments, i.e., luminal (inside ER)
the cell theory and extraluminal (cytoplasm) compartments
92. Read the following statements :- (ii) RER is extensive and continuous with the
(i) The shape of cell may vary with the function outer membrane of the nucleus
they perform (iii)Fixed number of cisternae are present in Golgi
(ii) Nerve cells are some of the longest cells complex
(iii)The largest isolated single cell is the egg of (iv) The cis and trans faces of Golgi are entirely
an ostrich different but interconnected.
(iv)Blue-green algae (BGA) is a eukaryote (v) The Golgi complex rarely remains in close
How many of the above statements are incorrect ? association with ER
(1) Two (2) Four How many of the above statements are incorrect ?
(3) Three (4) One (1) Two (2) Three
93. The quasifluid nature of ____ enables ____ (3) Four (4) Five
movement of proteins within the overall bilayer 99. In plant cells, the vacuoles can occupy upto
of a plasma membrane :- _____% of the volume of the cell :-
(1) Protein, lateral (2) Lipid, lateral (1) 30 (2) 20 (3) 10 (4) 90
(3) Lipid, flip-flop (4) Protein, flip-flop 100. The 'Power house' of cell :-
94. The cell to cell recognition is facilitated by (1) Is bound by a single membrane
components of plasma membrane which are :- (2) Posses cristae which are inflodings of its outer
(1) Glycolipids and glycoproteins membrane
(2) Lipid and protein (3) Are sites of formation of 'energy currency'
(3) Steroids [ATP] of the cell
(4) Both (2) and (3) (4) Is found in eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells
95. Cell wall :- 101. Which of the following possess DNA ?
(1) Is a living structure in fungi and plants (1) Mitochondria
(2) Provides a free passage for undesirable (2) Chloroplast
macromolecules (3) Golgi apparatus
(3) Of algal cell is made of cellulose, galactans (4) More than one option is correct
mannans and calcium carbonate 102. Select the wrong match :-
(4) Has middle lamella, mainly made of (1) Aleuroplast – Protein storage
magnesium pectate (2) Elaioplast – Fat/oil storage
96. Which of the following is true for ER ? (3) Amyloplast – Starch storage
(1) It is involved in synthesis of lipid (4) Etioplast – Chlorophyll storage
(2) It is not included in endomembrane system 103. Oxidative phosphorylation occur in :-
(3) It is found in prokaryotes (1) Mitochondria (2) Chloroplast
(4) It is a double membrane bound structure (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Leucoplasts

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104. The photosynthetic pigments are located a 113. When a lysosome fuses with a phagosome/food,
squantasomes in :- it results in the formation of :-
(1) Stroma (2) Outer membrane (1) Secondary lysosome
(3) Thylakoid membrane (4) Inner membrane (2) Primary lysosome
105. The number of chloroplast in Chlamydomonas is
(3) Autophagic vacuole
_____ and in a mesophyll cell ranges between
(4) Residual body
_____.
(1) 1, 2-4 (2) 2, 20-40 114. Centrosome is absent in :-
(3) 20-40, 1 (4) 1, 20-40 (1) Cells of higher plants
106. Which of the following is correct ? (2) Cells of lower plants
(1) The ribosome of chloroplast is larger than the (3) Cells of higher animals
cytoplasmic ribosome (4) Cells of lower animals
(2) The inner membrane of chloroplast is 115. Lysosomes are formed from :-
relatively less permeable in comparison to the (1) ER
outer membrane (2) Golgi bodies
(3) The space limited by the inner membrane of
(3) Mitochondria
chloroplast is called intermembrane space
(4) The lumen of thylakoid contain enzymes (4) Both (1) and (2)
107. Who proposed the fluid mosaic model of plasma 116. Mitochondrial porins are located in :-
membrane ? (1) Outer membrane
(1) Camillo Golgi (2) Inner membrane
(2) Schleiden and Schwann (3) Inter-membrane space
(3) Singer and Nicolson (4) Both outer and inner membranes
(4) Robert Brown 117. Match the columns I II and III, and choose the
108. Which of the following is not true for a eukaryotic correct combination from the options given :-
cell ?
(1) Cell wall is made up of peptidoglycans
(2) It has 80S type of ribosome present in the Column-I Column-II Column-III
cytoplasm a. I. Mesophyll cell K. Elongated
(3) Compartmentalisation are present
(4) Membrane bound organelles are present
109. Chloroplast differ from mitochondria on the basis
of which of the following feature ? b. II. Tracheid L. Round and
(1) Presence of two layers of membrane biconcave
(2) Presence of ribsome
(3) Presence of thylakoids
c. III. Red blood cells M. Amoeboid
(4) Presence of double stranded circular DNA
110. Lysosomes function is :-
(1) Extracellular digestion
(2) Intracellular digestion
(3) Both (1) and (2)
d. IV. White blood N. Round and
(4) Fat breakdown cells oval
111. Lysosome enzymes are active at pH :-
(1) 5 (2) 7
(3) 8 (4) Variable
112. Which is incorrect in relation to lysosome ?
(1) They contain acid hydrolases
(1) a-III-M, b-IV-L, c-I-K, d-II-N
(2) They are autophagic
(3) They can digest proteins, nucleic acids, lipids (2) a-IV-M, b-III-L, c-II-K, d-I-N
and carbohydrates. (3) a-III-L, b-IV-M, c-I-N, d-II-K
(4) They are monomorphic (4) a-IV-L, b-III-M, c-II-N, d-I-K

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118. Recognise the figure and find out the correct 121. The cell wall of a yound plant cell, the primary
statement :- wall is capable of growth, which gradually
diminishes as the cell matures and the secondary
wall is formed on the :-
(1) Inner (towards middle lamella) side of the cell
(2) Outer (towards middle lamella) side of the cell
(3) Inner (towards membrane) side of the cell
(4) Outer (towards membrane) side of the cell
122. Which organelle occurs both in plants and
(1) This figure shows smooth endoplasmic animals ?
reticulum involved in lipid synthesis (1) Cell wall (2) Mitochondria
(2) This figure shows rough endoplasmic reticulum (3) Centriole (4) Chloroplast
involved in protein synthesis 123. Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct
(3) This figure shows golgi apparatus having combination from the options given :-
cisternae
Column-I Column-II
(4) This figure shows chloroplast showing
(Organelle) (Size)
thylakoid.
119. Depending on the ease of extraction, membrane a. Cisternae of GB K. 2-4 µm
proteins can be classified as :-
b. Length of L. 0.2-1.0 µm
(1) Saturated and unsaturated mitochondria
(2) Hydrophilic and hydrophobic c. Diameter of M. 5-10 µm
(3) Integral and peripheral mitochondria
(4) Acidic, basic and neutral d. Length of N. 0.5-1.0 µm
120. Recognise the figure and find out the correct chloroplast
matching :- e. Width of Q. 1.0-4.1 µm
chloroplast
A B (1) a-L, b-M, c-N, d-Q, e-K
(2) a-N, b-Q, c-K, d-M, e-L
(3) a-L, b-Q, c-N, d-M, e-K
(4) a-N, b-Q, c-L, d-M, e-K
D
124. Recognise the figure and find out the correct
matching :-

C A
C
D
(1) A-protein, C-Sugar, D-Cholesterol, B-Integral
protein B
(1) B-Stroma, A-Stroma lamellae, D-Thylakoid,
(2) B-Protein, A-Sugar, C-Cholesterol, D-Integral
C-Granum
protein (2) D-Stroma, B-Stroma lamellae, C-Thylakoid,
(3) C-Protein, D-Sugar, B-Cholesterol, A-Integral A-Granum
protein (3) B-Stroma, D-Stroma lamellae, A-Thylakoid,
C-Granum
(4) D-Protein, B-Sugar, A-Cholesterol, C-Integral
(4) B-Stroma, D-stroma lamellae, C-Thylakoid,
protein A-Granum
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125. Ribosomes take part in protein synthesis in :- 136. Which of the following cell is having nucleus in
(1) Viruses which chromatin is arranged in the form of
(2) Prokaryotes only spokes :-
(3) Both prokaryotes and eukaryotes (1) Mast cell (2) Histiocyte
(4) Eukaryotes only
(3) Plasma cell (4) Lymphocyte
126. In terms of shape and size of mitochondria
considerable degree of variability is observed. 137. Origin of connective tissue is :-
The number of mitochondria per cell is variable (1) Ectodermal (2) Mesodermal
depending on the :-
(3) Endodermal (4) All of the above
(1) Morphology of the cells
(2) Biochemical activity of the cells 138. Which of the following statement is incorrect :-
(3) Physiological activity of the cells (1) Ground substance of connective tissue is
(4) All of the above usually mucopolysaccharide set it
127. Which is not a plastid ? (2) In all connective tissues except blood, the cells
(1) Chloroplast (2) Mitoplast secretes fibres of functional proteins called
(3) Chromoplast (4) Leucoplast collagen or elastin or reticulin set it
128. The membrane of the thylakoids enclose a space
(3) Mesenchymal cells are pleuripotent cells
called a :-
(1) Lumen (2) Stroma (4) 'S' shaped nucleus are found in mast cells
(3) Matrix (4) Grama 139. During inflammation or allergy, mast cells
129. The main arena of various activities of a cell is :- secretes :-
(1) Mitochondrion (2) Cytoplasm
(1) Histamine (2) Serotonin
(3) Nucleus (4) Plasma membrane
130. Prokaryotic flagella is made up of which of the (3) Heparin (4) Hirudin
following protein ? 140. Identify A, B and C in the given figure & choose,
(1) Tubulin (2) Flagellin correct option :-
(3) Pilin (4) Dynein
131. Water soluble pigments found in plant cell
vacuoles are :-
(1) Xanthophylls (2) Chlorophylls
(3) Carotenoids (4) Anthocyanins
132. The term lipochondria was suggested for :-
(1) Mitochondria (2) Golgi complex
(3) ER (4) All the above A B C
133. Detoxification of drugs and steroids in smooth ER (1) Collagen fibres Plasma cell Macrophage
is carried out by cytochrome :-
(1) a1 – a3 (2) c (2) Fibroblast Macrophage Mast cell
(3) b – f (4) P450 (3) Collagen fibres Fibroblast Macrophage
134. Ingestion of solid or liquid substances into cell
(4) Elastin fibres Macrophage Fibroblast
is referred to as :-
(1) Endocytosis (2) Diffusion
(3) Osmosis (4) Exocytosis 141. Which of the following tissue store fat ?
135. According to sandwitch model thickness of (1) Areolar connective tissue
plasmalemma is :- (2) Blood
(1) 2.5 Å (2) 25 Å (3) Adipose
(3) 7.5 Å (4) 75 Å (4) Tendon

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142. Monolocular adipocytes are having :- 151. Epithelial tissue lie on basement membrane it is
(1) A small fat globule made up of :-
(2) Many large fat globules (1) Hyaluronic acid (2) Glycoproteins
(3) Central nucleus (3) Protein fibres (4) All of the above
(4) Peripheral nucleus
152. Simple epithelium has all of the following
143. Fibres in tendons :- functions except :-
(1) Collagen
(1) Diffusion (2) Filtration
(2) Elastin
(3) Protection (4) Secretion
(3) Both collagen & elastin
(4) Reticular 153. Germinal epithelium of gonads is made up of :-
144. Structure which connect bone to bone is :- (1) Ciliated cuboidal (2) Cuboidal epithelium
(1) Cartilage (2) Tendons (3) Ciliated columnar (4) Columnar
(3) Ligaments (4) Epithelium 154. Which epithelium makes innerlining of lung
145. Tissue present in wall of alveoli of lungs is :- alveoli, blood vessels and body cavity is :-
(1) Simple columnar epithelium (1) Simple squamous (2) Simple columnar
(2) White fibrous connective tissue (3) Pseudostratified (4) Stratified squamous
(3) Stratified squamous epithelium 155. Find out the wrongly matched pair :-
(4) Yellow fibrous connective tissue
(1) Squamous epithelium – Urinary bladder
146. The covering of liver lobules is made up of :-
(1) White fibrous connective tissue (2) Columnar epithelium – GIT

(2) Compound epithelium (3) Cuboidal epithelium – Germinal epithelium

(3) Yellow fibrous connective tissue (4) Ciliated epithelium – Fallopian tube
(4) Transitional epithelium 156. Which of the following structure is ectodermal
147. Following features are found in :- in origin :-
(a) Secrete matrix (b) Stain with basic dye (1) Brain (2) Kidneys
(c) secrete histamine (3) Lungs (4) Heart
(1) Macrophage (2) Fibroblast 157. Ciliated epithelial cell in humans known to occur
(3) Mast cell (4) Lymphocyte in :-
148. Ligaments and tendons are example of ;- (a) Neck of nephron
(1) Specialised connective tissue (b) Vagina
(2) Loose connective tissue (c) Female urethra
(3) Dense regular connective tissue (d) PCT
(4) Dense irregular connective tissue (e) Fallopian tube
149. Kidney shaped nucleus is found in :- (1) a,c,e (2) b,c,d
(1) Lymphocyte (2) Plasma cell (3) a,b,e (4) a,e
(3) Macrophage (4) Mesenchymal cell
158. Stratified epithelium is present in :-
150. Tela subcutanea joins :-
(1) Respiratory area of nose
(1) Integument with muscles
(2) Muscles with bone (2) Stomach
(3) Bone with fat (3) Nephron
(4) Fat bodies with muscles (4) Lips
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159. The junction that prevent movement of 163. Fill up the blanks choosing the correct options :-
molecules. I. The _A_ is made up of single layer of flattened
(1) Tight junction (2) Adhering junctions cell.
(3) Desmosome (4) Both (2) & (3) II. _B_ gland secrete hormone
III. _C_ is present in urinary tract
160. Stereocilia, which are non-contractile process
IV. Cell junctions are found in _D_
occur in :-
(1) Pseudostratified epithelium of trachea A B C D
(2) Columnar epithelium of stomach
1 Squamous Endocrine Transitional Epithelium
(3) Columnar epithelium of epididymis
2 Columnar Endocrine Transitional Epithelium
(4) Columnar epithelium of oviduct
3 Cuboidal Endocrine Transitional Epithelium
161. Match the column correctly :-
4 Squamous Exocrine Transitional Epithelium
A Stratified i Skin
epithelium
164. Find out the statements associated with epithelial
B Fluid connective ii Blood tissues :-
tissue A : It originates first
C Areolar iii Ovary B : It is only ectodermal in origin
connective tissue C : It is a loose tissue
D : It is a dense tissue
D Simple cuboidal iv Tela subcutanea E : It has maximum power of regeneration
(1) one (2) two (3) three (4) four
(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv 165. Vagina and oesophagus contains :-
(2) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii (1) Stratified cuboidal
(2) Stratified columnar
(3) A-i, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii
(3) Stratified squamous
(4) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii (4) Transitional epithelium
162. Match the following columns :- 166. Mark the correct statement for above diagram :-

Column-I Column-II

A Squamous epithelium i Fallopian tubes

B Cuboidal epithelium ii Mesothelium

(1) Matrix is solid and non-pliable
(2) Does not resist compression
C Columnar epithelium iii Bileduct
(3) Cells destroying the above structure are called
chondroblasts
D Ciliated epithelium iv Proximal (4) Present at the tip of nose
convulated 167. Which of the following statements are true for
tubule cartilage :-
A B C D (1) Example of skeletal connective tissue
(2) Highly vascular
(1) i ii iii iv
(3) Covered by a covering of yellow fibrous
(2) ii iv iii i connective tissue
(3) ii iii iv i (4) Bones are generally replaced by cartilage in
(4) ii i iii iv adults

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168. Articular cartilage is :- 175. Covering of white fibrous connective tissue
(1) Present between Pubis of 2 sides around bone is called as :-
(2) Present in larynx (1) Perichondrium
(3) An example of elastic cartilage (2) Perimysium
(4) Present at the end of long bones (3) Periosteum
169. Which of the following is not an example of (4) Epimysium
elastic cartilage? 176. Mark the incorrect statemment for diaphysis
(1) Cartilage of Santorini region of long bone :-
(2) Tracheal rings (1) Contains compact bone
(3) Tip of nose (2) Contains red bone marrow
(4) Epiglottis (3) Present in middle part also called shaft
170. (A) Pubic symphysis (4) Matrix represented by Haversian systems
(B) Intervertebral disc 177. Patella is an example of :-
(C) All laryngeal cartilages (1) Replacing bone
(D) Costal cortilage
(2) Membraneous bone
Which of the above are example of white fibrous
(3) Sesamoid bone
cartilage ?
(4) Visceral bone
(1) B & C (2) A, B (3) C & D (4) A, D
178. Which of the following bone is not present in
171. Costal Cartilage is :-
humans :-
(1) Present at vertebral end of rib
(1) Cartilageneous bone
(2) An example of white fibrous cartilage
(2) Dermal bone
(3) Present at end of long bone
(3) Visceral bone
(4) Present at sternal end of rib
(4) Sesamoid bone
172. Epiglottis has :-
179. Mark correct statement for above diagram :-
(1) Stratified coloumnar epethelium & Calcified
cartilage
(2) Stratified coloumnar epethelium & Elastic
cartilage
(3) Simple coloumnar epethelium & Elastic
cartilage
(4) Stratified squamous epethelium & Elastic
cartilage
173. Mark the correct pair for Nasal septum & tip of
(1) Present in metaphyseal region of long bone
nose respectively :-
(1) Hyaline cartilage and calcified cartilage (2) Present in epiphysis of long bone
(2) Hyaline cartilage and elastic cartilage (3) present in shaft region of long bone
(3) Hyaline cartilage and white fibrous cartilage (4) Contains chondrocytes embedded in matrix
(4) Elastic cartilage and Hyaline cartilage
180. Bones of forelimbs & hind limbs are :-
174. Bone which is burnt is :-
(1) Rich in organic matter (1) Cartilageneous bones
(2) A bone treated with KOH solution (2) Viscral bones
(3) A bone treated with HCl solution (3) Dermal bones
(4) A bone having mineral content (4) Both (2) & (3)
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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