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Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. Many personal care products bring to the purchaser feelings of self-enhancement and security in addition to
the essential benefits they offer. This is an illustration of
A. an extended product.
B. a generic product.
C. tangible product.
D. conventional product.
2. The way in which the product variable is defined can have important implications for all of the following
except the
A. survival of a firm.
B. long-run growth of a firm.
C. production capacity of a firm.
D. profitability of a firm.
3. The physical entity that is offered to the buyer is known as a(n)

A. extended product.
B. value product.
D. generic product.
4. The tangible product along with the whole cluster of services that accompany it is called a(n)
B. intangible product.
C. generic product.
5. A product that is viewed in terms of providing essential benefits that the buyer expects to receive from it is
referred to as a
A. tangible product.
B. generic product.
C. intangible product.
D. extended product.
6. Which of the following observations about a product is incorrect?
A. The service warranty is defined as part of the product.
B. The fact that a mattress offers back support is part of its extended product.
C. Generic products are the essential benefits the buyer expects to receive from the product.
D. Products can be solely defined in terms of the tangible product.
7. Which of the following observations is true?

A. Generic products are known as commodities or unbranded goods.
B. A generic product is defined as the tangible product along with the whole cluster of services that accompany
it.
C. A product like a refrigerator does not have an extended product.
D. Products viewed too narrowly could suffer from a ‘marketing myopia' condition.
8. Identify the scenario which best describes marketing myopia.

A. The refrigerator manufacturer who believed his product stored food in a cool environment.
B. The travel agency owner who thought of cruises as differing from boring, standard vacations.
C. The owner of a tutoring service who believed his company not only tutored but also gave confidence and
increased self-esteem.
D. The landscape company owner who believed his company's duty was to enhance the beauty of nature.
9. Goods grown or extracted from the land or sea, such as iron ore, wheat, and sand are better known as
A. agricultural products and raw materials.
B. organizational goods.
C. convenience goods.
D. specialty goods and unsought materials.
10. One of the elements of product strategy is an audit of a firm's actual and potential resources. The audit
examines all of the following, except
A. patents and licenses.
B. engineering and technical skills.
C. plant and equipment.
D. complementary goods.
11. Which of the following is a basic assumption underlying product classification schemes?
A. Each product is unique and should be marketed differently.
B. The same marketing strategy can be used for all product types.
C. Products with common attributes can be marketed in a similar fashion.
D. Products should be differentiated on the basis of profit margins.
12. Cotton, coal, diamonds, and soybeans are examples of
A. organizational goods.
B. convenience goods.
C. raw materials.
D. specialty goods.
13. Products that are purchased by business firms for the purpose of producing other goods or services for
running a business are called
A. convenience goods.
C. specialty goods.
D. shopping goods.
14. Major and minor equipment such as basic machinery, tools, and other processing facilities form a category
under
A. specialty goods.
C. semifinished goods.
D. maintenance goods.
15. Which of the following products would be classified as an organizational good?

A. An electric generator purchased by a home owner to use in the event of a power outage.
B. Curtains purchased by homeowner.
C. A pair of ear plugs brought by a man using his chain saw to remove a tree lying across his driveway.
D. Timber purchased by a furniture store owner to make chairs.
16. Which of the following statements regarding organizational goods is true?

A. Organizational goods are usually purchased as an end in themselves.
B. The channels of distribution for these goods are longer than those for consumer goods.
C. Organizational goods include anything that businesses need for their day-to-day operation.
D. A primary purchasing motive for organizational goods is convenience.
17. All of the following elements relate to agricultural products except that they
A. have low value per unit.
B. are fairly homogeneous.
C. are sold in large volume.
D. include basic machinery.
18. Convenience goods, shopping goods, and specialty goods are the three classes of
A. agricultural goods.
B. raw materials.
C. organizational goods.
D. consumer goods.
19. Products having limited number of buyers are better known as a

A. limited market.
B. vertical market.
C. horizontal market.
D. non-segmented market.
20. Which of the following best describes a horizontal market?

A. These markets offer only specialty goods so that consumers will make a special effort to buy them.
B. These markets offer certain products that have a limited number of buyers.
C. These markets offer goods that are purchased by all types of firms in many different industries.
D. These markets include only those convenience goods that are purchased frequently and with minimum effort.
21. Convenience goods generally require

A. broadcast promotion and long channels of distribution.
B. broadcast promotion and short channels of distribution.
C. targeted promotion and long channels of distribution.
D. targeted promotion and short channels of distribution.
22. Which of the following is the best example of a specialty good?

A. Pair of athletic shoes
B. Fax machine
C. Waterford crystal artifact
D. Package of peanut butter cracker
23. Pritchard's fine rum is the only rum that is actually distilled in the southeastern part of the United States.
Cruzan and Myers, both made in the Caribbean, are its main competitors. Pritchard's fine rum has a more
bourbon-like flavor than other brands of rum, which tend to taste more like cognac. In terms of the classification
of consumer goods, the distiller of Pritchard's fine rum would want its rum to be categorized as a(n)
A. specialty good.
B. organizational good.
C. shopping good.
D. convenience good.
24. Which of the following is the best example of a shopping good?
A. Home security system
B. Bottle of Snapple pink lemonade
C. Pair of fingernail clippers
D. Truckload of bricks
25. Mevelyn is very particular about the kind of blue jeans she wears. Her preference is the Levi 505 and she
claims that anything other than that fit "funny". This scenario is an example of Levi 505 being a(n)
A. convenience good.
B. shopping good.
C. intangible good.
D. specialty good.
26. Drager is a company that manufactures a handheld device for continuous monitoring of the atmosphere in
manufacturing plants where hazardous materials are routinely used as component materials. Since the number
of industries that require such protective devices is limited, and Drager is the leading producer of these types of
measurement devices, it can be said Drager operates in a
A. tailored market.
B. vertical market.
D. custom market.
27. What does it mean when you say the market for desktop computers is horizontal?
A. Market for desktop computers is deep, in that a large percentage of the producers in the market use the
product.
B. Desktop computer market is narrow, because customers are restricted to a few industries.
C. The desktop computers market has numerous middlemen.
D. Desktop computers are purchased by all types of firms in many different industries.
28. Which is defined as the degree of excellence or superiority that an organization's product possesses?
A. Quality
B. Value
C. Product planning
D. Multi-branding
29. In a technical sense, quality can refer to all of the following physical traits except
A. durability.
B. reliability.
C. serviceability.
D. availability.
30. What does TQM stand for?

A. Total Quality Management
B. Total Quantity Measurement
C. Total Quotient Management
D. Total Quality Measurement
31. _____ goods are purchased frequently with minimum effort.

A. Convenience
B. Specialty
C. Shopping
D. Organizational
32. Which of the following best fits the definition of total-quality management?
A. It is a method used to minimize manufacturing costs through large-volume production units and thus lower
distribution costs.
B. It encompasses high quality adherence only for consumer goods that generally require broadcast promotion
and long channels of distribution.
C. It is the degree of excellence or superiority that an organization's product possesses.
D. It is a commitment to satisfy customers by continuously improving every business process involved in
delivering products or services.
33. Firearms Training Systems (FATS) is a leading worldwide producer of interactive simulation systems
designed to provide training in the handling and use of small and supporting arms for law enforcement, military,
and commercial applications. FATS are also ISO 9000-certified. The ISO 9000-certification means FATS
A. has low cost products and a relatively horizontal market.
B. meets standardized levels of product quality.
C. has valuable brand equality.
D. does periodic marketing audits.
34. Value refers to
A. the tangible aspects of a firm's products or services.
B. the physical traits such as serviceability and reliability of a product.
C. the full set of products offered for sale by the organization.
D. what the customer gets in exchange for what the customer gives.
35. The full set of products offered for sale by an organization is defined as a firm's
A. line extension.
B. product mix.
C. sales promotion.
D. product line.
36. A firm's product mix is described by its

A. width and depth.
B. profit and loss.
C. sales and marketing strategies.
D. quality and quantity.
37. The width of a product mix refers to the

A. number of product lines handled by the organization.
B. maximum number of products in each line.
C. total number of products in each line marketed through personal selling.
D. average number of product lines handled by the organization.
38. What does the depth of a product mix refer to?

A. The number of product lines handled by the organization.
B. The length of time a product has been in the market.
C. The average number of products in each product line.
D. The total number of products in each line.
39. An integral component of product line planning revolves around the question of
A. how many product variants should be included in the line.
B. the type of location that the marketers need to target.
C. what the financial status of the target market is.
D. the promotional strategies associated with global brands.
40. As Alan strolled through a shopping center, he tried to apply what he had learnt in a marketing class to what
he saw at the mall. Which of Alan's interpretations do you believe to be most accurate?
A. The Tie Shop, which only sells ties, would have a wide product mix.
B. The Dollar Tree, which sells everything from baby rattles and potting soil to contact lens cleaning solution,
would have a narrow product mix and a deep assortment.
C. The Christian Superstore, which sells hundreds of self-help books, novels, and music with a religious theme,
has a narrow and deep product mix.
D. Louie's Bakery, which sells thirty-six different kinds of muffins, would have a deep product mix.
41. Identify the correct statement from the following.

A. The number of outlets is few for convenience goods.
B. The time spent planning for a shopping good is very little.
C. The price and quality are compared in the case of shopping goods.
D. The stock turnover is reasonably high for specialty goods.
42. Identify the correct statement regarding the classes of consumer goods.
A. Packaging is extremely important for specialty goods.
B. Length of the channel is typically long for specialty goods.
C. Brand name is more important than store name for shopping goods.
D. Convenience goods have a high stock turnover rate.
43. Which of the following observations about the classes of consumer goods is true?
A. Consumers compare both price and quality when buying shopping goods.
B. Time spent planning for the purchase of shopping goods is very little.
C. Importance of point-of-purchase display is very important when buying specialty goods.
D. The producer bears the responsibility for advertising shopping goods.
44. The responsibility for the advertising of convenience goods lies with the
A. producer.
B. distributor.
C. retailer.
D. wholesaler.
45. Which of the following is not a factor influencing the strength of a brand?
A. Distribution intensity
B. High pricing
C. Consistent advertising
D. Brand personality
46. Identify the correct statement about organizational products.
A. No middlemen are involved in the typically short channel for operating supplies.
B. Price competition is important when selling or buying raw material.
C. Brand preference is generally high when purchasing fabricating parts or materials.
D. Advance buying contracts are commonly used when purchasing accessory equipment.
47. What is the legal term for a brand?

A. Symbol
B. Style
C. Trademark
D. Watermark
48. Which of the following observations about branding is true?

A. No matter how hard advertisers try, brands do not develop personalities.
B. Brand image is unaffected by distribution intensity.
C. Brand building activities are limited in nature.
D. The legal name for brand is trademark.
49. What does the line extension approach use?

A. Attaching a corporate name to enter a new market segment.
B. A brand name to facilitate entry into a new market product.
C. An expansion of business links.
D. Attaching the corporate name to a product to enter a different product class.
50. An alternative to line extension is a(n) _____, where a current brand name is used to enter a completely
different product class
A. line extension
B. brand extension
C. dual branding
D. franchise extension
51. General Mills makes four different varieties of Total cereal. They are Total corn flakes, Total raisin bran,
Total Honey Clusters, Total brown sugar, and oats cereal. With its Total cereal brand, General Mills has used
a(n)
A. line extension.
B. product mix addition.
C. brand extension.
D. franchise extension.
52. Land O'Lakes began by manufacturing butter. Today this company also produces Land O'Lakes honey
butter. This scenario is an example of a
A. line extension.
C. brand extension.
53. Arm & Hammer first introduced a line of toothpastes with the Arm & Hammer brand. The introduction of a
mouthwash and a chewing gum using the Arm & Hammer brand name are examples of a(n)
A. line extension.
C. brand extension.
54. Mama Moo's began by manufacturing butter. Today this company also produces Mama Moo's cream
cheese, which is an example of
A. a brand extension.
B. a product mix addition.
C. a franchise extension.
D. dual branding.
55. When a corporate name is attached to a product to enter into an entirely new market segment, for example,
Honda lawnmower and Toyota Lexus, it would be an example of a
A. multibranding strategy.
B. franchise extension.
C. dual branding strategy.
D. line extension.
56. Products ranging from cranberries to grapefruits marketed by Ocean Spray are sold under the Ocean Spray
corporate name. Ocean Spray uses
A. dual branding.
B. singular branding.
C. family branding.
D. associate branding.
57. Chunk's favorite cereal is General Mills Reese's Peanut Butter Puffs. This cereal with a combination of
peanut butter and chocolate taste is an example of
A. a product mix addition.
B. a brand extension.
C. family branding.
D. dual branding.
58. What is multibranding strategy?

A. Companies marketing their brand jointly with that of their competitors.
B. Companies assigning different brand names to each of their products.
C. Companies attaching corporate name to a product to enter a different product class.
D. Companies assigning different brand names to the same products in different outlets.
59. Procter & Gamble makes Camay soap for those concerned about soft skin, and Safeguard soap for those
who want deodorant protection. What is the strategy used by P&G?
A. Multibranding
B. Joint branding
C. Product extension
D. Brand extension
60. Spending significant amounts of money to familiarize customers with new brands is a disadvantage
associated with
A. family branding.
B. multibranding.
C. dual branding.
61. A current brand name is used to enter a completely different product class. This is an example of
A. brand extension.
B. line extension.
C. franchise extension.
D. multibranding.
62. The firm can distance products from other offerings it markets. This is one of the advantages of using
A. dual brands.
B. multiple brands.
C. family branding.
63. Brand equity is
A. the set of assets or liabilities linked to the brand that add or subtract value.
B. not the culmination of the consumer's assessment of the product.
C. the extension of an existing brand that can lead to additional profits.
D. not dependent upon the results of the marketplace's relationship with a brand.
64. Identify the incorrect statement.

A. Organizational products along with consumer products can also possess brand equity.
B. Brand quality is viewed as the set of assets or liabilities linked to the brand that add or subtract value.
C. Successful extensions of an existing brand can lead to additional loyalty and associated profits.
D. Brand equity is determined by the company that manufactures and markets the product along with other
variables.
65. Why does a beer manufacturer like Heileman Distilleries produce Old Style, Colt 45, Lone Star, Rainier and
Samuel Adams brand beers?
A. To minimize the importance of brand equity.
B. To enjoy the benefits associated with franchise extension.
C. To create a competitive advantage that is not easily imitated.
D. To target specific market segments more efficiently.
66. Which of the following statement about brand equity is true?

A. Brand equity is what the customer gets in exchange for what the customer gives.
B. Organizational products cannot have brand equity.
C. Brand equity is not impacted by advertising.
D. Brand equity is determined by the consumer.
67. All of the following are advantages of using multiple brand names except
A. the firm can distance products from other offerings it markets.
B. the image of one product is not associated with other products the company markets.
C. the products can be targeted at a specific market segment.
D. the probability of a product failure impacting on other company products is maximized.
68. Who ultimately determines brand equity?

A. Advertisers
B. Employees
C. Consumers
D. Management
69. This is the culmination of the consumer's assessment of the product, the company that manufactures and
markets the product, and all other variables that impact on the product between manufacture and consumer
consumption.
A. Quality
B. Brand equity
C. Value
D. Cash flow
70. Products that are equivalent to national brands but are priced much lower are called
A. premium brands.
B. value brands.
C. quality brands.
D. deluxe brands.
71. Arizona jeans, which is a store brand of J.C. Penney Company, is an example of a
A. national brand.
B. private label brand.
C. dual quality brand.
D. deluxe brand.
72. Identify a method of differentiating a relatively homogeneous product.

A. Using a corporate identity.
B. Using a line extension strategy.
C. Using a distinctive packaging.
D. Using a private label branding.
73. A standard 12-pack carton of soft drinks cannot fit conveniently on the standard-size refrigerator shelf, nor
can drinks be efficiently dispensed from the carton. In 2002, Coca-Cola introduced a new design it calls the
refrigerator pack. The refrigerator pack is designed to fit easily on a standard refrigerator shelf and dispense one
can at a time. With its new refrigerator pack, Coke is
A. implementing a private branding strategy.
B. using packaging as a part of its product differentiation strategy.
C. using a brand extension strategy for market development.
D. implementing a consolidation strategy.
74. This is true of the different stages in the product life cycle.
A. Sales of a product is highest in the maturation stage.
B. Sales begin to increase in the continued expansion stage.
C. Profits are highest during the growth stage.
D. Profits are nonexistent in the decline stage.
75. Which of the following observations concerning the product life cycle is true?
A. Length of time a product will remain in each stage can be predicted with accuracy.
B. Marketers can forecast when one stage will end and another will begin.
C. Product life cycle should dictate strategy development.
D. Not all products go through the product life cycle in the same way.
76. Which of the following observations about marketing strategies used during various stages of the product
life cycle is true?
A. Sales promotion is not used in the maturity stage.
B. Limited number of channels are used during the growth stage.
C. Communication is always high during the decline stage.
D. A defensive strategy is adopted during the maturity stage.
77. Victor Boudolf has developed a new product called The Insider. It offers fans attending baseball games
instant replays from various camera angles so they can see if their favorite player was really out. Boudolf is
hoping he can sell The Insider to venue owners who can rent them to fans attending a baseball game for $20.
Since this product is in the introductory stage of its product life cycle, Boudolf's primary marketing objective
should be to
A. build sales and market share for the product.
B. limit costs and persuasion strategies to highlight product.
C. establish a market for the product.
D. defend the brand's share of market.
78. All of the following statements relate to the life cycle of fashions except
A. this life cycle resembles the basic product life cycle but in a very compressed form.
B. it involves a distinctiveness stage in which trendsetters adopt a style.
C. the style becomes widely available at mass-market prices in the economic stage.
D. this life cycle is clearly visible in clothing, cosmetics, tattoos, and body piercing.
79. The diffusion of innovation is
A. used to describe an audit task that is carried out at regular intervals.
B. described using five adopter categories.
C. the term used for the introductory stage of the life-cycle.
D. used to emphasize the effect of sales after the product has been introduced.
80. According to the adopter categories, consumers who are first to purchase a product are known as
A. innovators.
B. early adopters.
C. laggards.
D. early majority.
81. According to the adopter categories of diffusion of innovation, the biggest category of buyers is divided into
groups called the
A. innovators and laggards.
B. laggards and late majority.
C. early majority and late majority.
D. early majority and innovators.
82. While contemplating deleting a product after the completion of a product audit, managers must ask
themselves whether, in total, profits associated with their line increase due to favorable switching patterns. The
factor under consideration is
A. sales trends.
B. profit contribution.
C. product life cycle.
D. customer migration patterns.
83. Identify a primary reason for a product audit.

A. To develop a marketing plan for products.
B. To detect sick products and then bury them.
C. To try to make profit wherever possible.
D. To implement cost cutting strategies.
84. According to the adopter categories of diffusion of innovation, laggards

A. are fearful of debt, but may eventually purchase a well-established brand.
B. tend to avoid risk and make purchases carefully.
C. are the first to buy a new product.
D. begin to buy if the experience of innovators is favorable.
85. A marketing management technique whereby the company's current product offerings are reviewed to
ascertain whether each product should be continued as is, improved, modified, or deleted is known as
A. product demand.
B. product audit.
C. product definition.
D. product planning.
86. All of the following are true of product deletions except

A. these decisions are very difficult to make because of their potential impact on customers and the firm.
B. it involves keeping consumers supplied with replacement parts and repair service.
C. the plan should provide for clearing out of stock in question.
D. it involves changing one or more of its attributes or marketing dimensions.
87. All of the following are reasons why the number of new products are growing and competing for limited
shelf space except
A. new knowledge is being applied faster.
B. there is a decrease in time between product introductions.
C. companies are not consistently removing products from the market.
D. the time gap in introducing new products is increasing.
88. Which of the following factors help determine whether customers of a deleted product would switch to other
substitute products marketed by the firm?
A. Profit contribution
B. Product life cycle
C. Migration patterns
D. Sales trends
89. Which of the following shows how a product was improved by modifying a product attribute?
A. The Seven Down soda manufacturer reduced its price per six-pack by fifty cents.
B. The Grand Casino in Gulfport began advertising on the Internet.
C. Kraft developed a picnic basket point-of-purchase display for its Miracle Whip spread.
D. Louis Kemp Seafood Company added a pamphlet of recipes to each package of its seafood.
90. A company changes the packaging of one of its existing products to make it more attractive to consumers.
The company has undertaken product improvement by changing the
A. marketing dimensions.
B. product attributes.
C. channels of distribution.
D. promotional strategy.
91. In improving a product, the term "attributes" mainly refer to
A. product price.
B. product features.
C. promotion strategy.
D. distribution channels.
92. Price, promotion strategy, and channels of distribution are elements of

B. marketing trends.
C. marketing patterns.
D. product attributes.
93. Which of the following shows how a product was improved by modifying the marketing dimension of
"channels of distribution"?
A. The Caribbean cruise was improved by the addition of two more stops in Mexico.
B. The 800-page history of chiropody was improved by the development of an extensive index.
C. Liz Claiborne expanded the number of retail outlets that carries its sportswear.
D. The Dillard House restaurant added three new vegetarian dishes to its menu.
94. Which of the following does not pertain to the marketing dimension of a product?
A. Price
B. Promotion strategy
C. Channels of distribution
D. Packaging
95. The Ritz-Carlton is a hotel industry leader. After Marriott measured its services against the Ritz-Carlton, it
instituted a customer service campaign called "proactive hospitality." Marriott managers examine monthly
reports for problem areas, and the Ritz-Carlton model is used to determine ways to remove the problems. Which
of the following methods is used by Marriott to identify improvement areas?
A. Capacity planning
B. Benchmarking
C. Continuous improvement
D. Performance measurement
96. Clothes Store sent a manager to visit the L.L.Bean warehouse to determine how the warehouse employees
are able to pick and package merchandise three times as fast as Clothes Store's workers. By comparing the work
performed by the warehouses' workers with the retailer's employees, Clothes Store was able to improve its own
operation. Clothes Store engaged in
A. capacity planning.
B. product rejuvenation.
C. benchmarking.
D. product renewal.
97. Which of the following is not true of benchmarking?

A. It helps enhance the product quality.
B. It is used to develop more user-friendly products.
C. It increases delivery lead times.
D. It improves customer order-processing activities.
98. Identify the incorrect statement concerning the marketing-manager system.

A. It is popular in organizations with one dominant product line.
B. One manager is responsible for overseeing an entire product line with all of the functional areas of
marketing.
C. Organizations such as PepsiCo, Purex, Eastman Kodak, and Levi Strauss use this system.
D. A manager focuses on a single product or a very small group of new and existing products.
99. General Foods has managers who are solely responsible for each of its brands of coffee - Brim, Maxwell
Houses, International Coffee, Sanka, and Yuban. These brand managers are
A. responsible for everything from research to advertising for their products.
B. often considered to be superior to the marketing managers.
C. a part of the system that is also known as category management.
D. only concerned with the product's sales, and product planning.
100. Which of the following observations is true of the brand-manager system?

A. Brand managers have difficulties in their line of work because they do not have authority commensurate with
their responsibilities.
B. Also known as the category-management system, the brand-manager system has been criticized on several
dimensions.
C. Under a brand-manager system, a manager focuses on all the functional areas of marketing such as research,
advertising, sales promotion, sales, and product planning.
D. Organizations such as PepsiCo, Purex, Eastman Kodak, and Levi Strauss use some form of brand-manager
system.
c6 Key
1. (p. 78) Many personal care products bring to the purchaser feelings of self-enhancement and security in addition
to the essential benefits they offer. This is an illustration of
A. an extended product.
B. a generic product.
Generic product—the essential benefits the buyer expects to receive from the product. For example, many
personal care products bring to the purchaser feelings of self-enhancement and security in addition to the
tangible benefits they offer.
Peter - Chapter 06 #1
2. (p. 78) The way in which the product variable is defined can have important implications for all of the
following except the
A. survival of a firm.
B. long-run growth of a firm.
C. production capacity of a firm.
D. profitability of a firm.
The way in which the product variable is defined can have important implications for the survival, profitability,
and long-run growth of the firm.
3. (p. 78) The physical entity that is offered to the buyer is known as a(n)
B. value product.
D. generic product.
The physical entity or service that is offered to the buyer is known as a tangible product.
4. (p. 78) The tangible product along with the whole cluster of services that accompany it is called a(n)
B. intangible product.
C. generic product.
The tangible product along with the whole cluster of services that accompany it is called an extended product.
5. (p. 78) A product that is viewed in terms of providing essential benefits that the buyer expects to receive from it
is referred to as a
A. tangible product.
B. generic product.
C. intangible product.
D. extended product.
The essential benefit the buyer expects to receive from the product is called a generic product.
6. (p. 78) Which of the following observations about a product is incorrect?

A. The service warranty is defined as part of the product.
B. The fact that a mattress offers back support is part of its extended product.
C. Generic products are the essential benefits the buyer expects to receive from the product.
D. Products can be solely defined in terms of the tangible product.
The same product can be viewed at least three different ways. The physical entity or service that is offered to
the buyer (tangible product), the tangible product along with the whole cluster of services that accompany it
(extended product), and the essential benefits the buyer expects to receive from the product (generic product)
are the ways in which the product variable is defined.
7. (p. 78) Which of the following observations is true?
A. Generic products are known as commodities or unbranded goods.
B. A generic product is defined as the tangible product along with the whole cluster of services that accompany
it.
C. A product like a refrigerator does not have an extended product.
D. Products viewed too narrowly could suffer from a ‘marketing myopia' condition.
From the standpoint of the marketing manager, to define the product solely in terms of the tangible product is to
fall into the error of "marketing myopia."
8. (p. 78) Identify the scenario which best describes marketing myopia.
A. The refrigerator manufacturer who believed his product stored food in a cool environment.
B. The travel agency owner who thought of cruises as differing from boring, standard vacations.
C. The owner of a tutoring service who believed his company not only tutored but also gave confidence and
increased self-esteem.
D. The landscape company owner who believed his company's duty was to enhance the beauty of nature.
From the standpoint of the marketing manager, to define the product solely in terms of the tangible product is to
fall into the error of "marketing myopia."
9. (p. 79) Goods grown or extracted from the land or sea, such as iron ore, wheat, and sand are better known as
A. agricultural products and raw materials.
C. convenience goods.
D. specialty goods and unsought materials.
Agricultural products and raw materials: These are goods grown or extracted from the land or sea, such as iron
ore, wheat, and sand.
10. (p. 79) One of the elements of product strategy is an audit of a firm's actual and potential resources. The audit
examines all of the following, except
A. patents and licenses.
B. engineering and technical skills.
C. plant and equipment.
D. complementary goods.
One of the elements of product strategy is an audit of a firm's actual and potential resources. Complementary
products are examined under the ‘approaches to new or potential markets' section.
11. (p. 79) Which of the following is a basic assumption underlying product classification schemes?
A. Each product is unique and should be marketed differently.
B. The same marketing strategy can be used for all product types.
C. Products with common attributes can be marketed in a similar fashion.
D. Products should be differentiated on the basis of profit margins.
A basic assumption underlying product classification schemes is that products with common attributes can be
marketed in a similar fashion.
12. (p. 79) Cotton, coal, diamonds, and soybeans are examples of
A. organizational goods.
B. convenience goods.
C. raw materials.
D. specialty goods.
Agricultural products and raw materials are goods grown or extracted from the land or sea, such as iron ore,
wheat, and sand.

13. (p. 79) Products that are purchased by business firms for the purpose of producing other goods or services for
running a business are called
A. convenience goods.
C. specialty goods.
D. shopping goods.
Organizational goods are products that are purchased by business firms for the purpose of producing other
goods or for running the business.
14. (p. 79) Major and minor equipment such as basic machinery, tools, and other processing facilities form a
category under
A. specialty goods.
C. semifinished goods.
D. maintenance goods.
Major and minor equipment, such as basic machinery, tools, and other processing facilities comes under the
organizational goods category.
15. (p. 79) Which of the following products would be classified as an organizational good?
A. An electric generator purchased by a home owner to use in the event of a power outage.
B. Curtains purchased by homeowner.
C. A pair of ear plugs brought by a man using his chain saw to remove a tree lying across his driveway.
D. Timber purchased by a furniture store owner to make chairs.
Organizational goods. Such products are purchased by business firms for the purpose of producing other goods
or for running the business.

16. (p. 79) Which of the following statements regarding organizational goods is true?
A. Organizational goods are usually purchased as an end in themselves.
B. The channels of distribution for these goods are longer than those for consumer goods.
C. Organizational goods include anything that businesses need for their day-to-day operation.
D. A primary purchasing motive for organizational goods is convenience.
Organizational goods are products purchased by business firms for the purpose of producing other goods or for
running the business.
17. (p. 79) All of the following elements relate to agricultural products except that they
A. have low value per unit.
B. are fairly homogeneous.
C. are sold in large volume.
D. include basic machinery.
Agricultural products are fairly homogeneous, sold in large volume, and have low value per unit or in bulk
weight. Organizational goods include basic machinery, tools, etc.
18. (p. 80) Convenience goods, shopping goods, and specialty goods are the three classes of
A. agricultural goods.
B. raw materials.
C. organizational goods.
D. consumer goods.
Conventional goods, shopping goods, and specialty goods are the three classes of consumer goods.
19. (p. 80) Products having limited number of buyers are better known as a
A. limited market.
B. vertical market.
D. non-segmented market.
For certain products there are a limited number of buyers; this is known as a vertical market.

20. (p. 80) Which of the following best describes a horizontal market?
A. These markets offer only specialty goods so that consumers will make a special effort to buy them.
B. These markets offer certain products that have a limited number of buyers.
C. These markets offer goods that are purchased by all types of firms in many different industries.
D. These markets include only those convenience goods that are purchased frequently and with minimum effort.
Some products, such as desktop computers, have a horizontal market, which means that the goods are purchased
by all types of firms in many different industries.
21. (p. 80) Convenience goods generally require

A. broadcast promotion and long channels of distribution.
B. broadcast promotion and short channels of distribution.
C. targeted promotion and long channels of distribution.
D. targeted promotion and short channels of distribution.
Convenience goods generally require broadcast promotion and long channels of distribution.
22. (p. 80) Which of the following is the best example of a specialty good?
A. Pair of athletic shoes
B. Fax machine
C. Waterford crystal artifact
D. Package of peanut butter cracker
Specialty goods are goods which are unique in some way so the consumer will make a special purchase effort to
obtain them.

23. (p. 80) Pritchard's fine rum is the only rum that is actually distilled in the southeastern part of the United
States. Cruzan and Myers, both made in the Caribbean, are its main competitors. Pritchard's fine rum has a more
bourbon-like flavor than other brands of rum, which tend to taste more like cognac. In terms of the classification
of consumer goods, the distiller of Pritchard's fine rum would want its rum to be categorized as a(n)
A. specialty good.
B. organizational good.
C. shopping good.
D. convenience good.
obtain them.
24. (p. 80) Which of the following is the best example of a shopping good?
A. Home security system
B. Bottle of Snapple pink lemonade
C. Pair of fingernail clippers
D. Truckload of bricks
Shopping goods, such as appliances, are products that are purchased after some time and energy are spent
comparing the various offerings.
25. (p. 80) Mevelyn is very particular about the kind of blue jeans she wears. Her preference is the Levi 505 and
she claims that anything other than that fit "funny". This scenario is an example of Levi 505 being a(n)
A. convenience good.
B. shopping good.
C. intangible good.
D. specialty good.
obtain them.

26. (p. 80) Drager is a company that manufactures a handheld device for continuous monitoring of the atmosphere
in manufacturing plants where hazardous materials are routinely used as component materials. Since the
number of industries that require such protective devices is limited, and Drager is the leading producer of these
types of measurement devices, it can be said Drager operates in a
A. tailored market.
B. vertical market.
D. custom market.
For certain products there are a limited number of buyers; this is known as a vertical market, which means that
(1) it is narrow, because customers are restricted to a few industries; and (2) it is deep, in that a large percentage
of the producers in the market use the product.
27. (p. 80) What does it mean when you say the market for desktop computers is horizontal?
A. Market for desktop computers is deep, in that a large percentage of the producers in the market use the
product.
B. Desktop computer market is narrow, because customers are restricted to a few industries.
C. The desktop computers market has numerous middlemen.
D. Desktop computers are purchased by all types of firms in many different industries.
A horizontal market means that the goods are purchased by all types of firms in many different industries.
28. (p. 80) Which is defined as the degree of excellence or superiority that an organization's product possesses?
A. Quality
B. Value
C. Product planning
D. Multi-branding
Quality can be defined as the degree of excellence or superiority that an organization's product possesses.

29. (p. 80) In a technical sense, quality can refer to all of the following physical traits except
A. durability.
B. reliability.
C. serviceability.
D. availability.
In a technical sense, quality can refer to physical traits such as features, performance, reliability, durability,
aesthetics, serviceability, and conformance to specifications.
30. (p. 80) What does TQM stand for?

A. Total Quality Management
B. Total Quantity Measurement
C. Total Quotient Management
D. Total Quality Measurement
TQM stands for total-quality management.
31. (p. 80) _____ goods are purchased frequently with minimum effort.
A. Convenience
B. Specialty
C. Shopping
D. Organizational
Convenience goods are purchased frequently with minimum effort.

32. (p. 80) Which of the following best fits the definition of total-quality management?
A. It is a method used to minimize manufacturing costs through large-volume production units and thus lower
distribution costs.
B. It encompasses high quality adherence only for consumer goods that generally require broadcast promotion
and long channels of distribution.
C. It is the degree of excellence or superiority that an organization's product possesses.
D. It is a commitment to satisfy customers by continuously improving every business process involved in
delivering products or services.
TQM is an organization wide commitment to satisfying customers by continuously improving every business
process involved in delivering products or services.
33. (p. 81) Firearms Training Systems (FATS) is a leading worldwide producer of interactive simulation systems
designed to provide training in the handling and use of small and supporting arms for law enforcement, military,
and commercial applications. FATS are also ISO 9000-certified. The ISO 9000-certification means FATS
A. has low cost products and a relatively horizontal market.
B. meets standardized levels of product quality.
C. has valuable brand equality.
D. does periodic marketing audits.
The ISO 9000 quality system of standards is a standardized approach for evaluating a supplier's quality system,
which can be applied to virtually any business.
34. (p. 81) Value refers to

A. the tangible aspects of a firm's products or services.
B. the physical traits such as serviceability and reliability of a product.
C. the full set of products offered for sale by the organization.
D. what the customer gets in exchange for what the customer gives.
Value can be defined as what the customer gets in exchange for what the customer gives.

35. (p. 81) The full set of products offered for sale by an organization is defined as a firm's
A. line extension.
B. product mix.
C. sales promotion.
D. product line.
A firm's product mix is the full set of products offered for sale by the organization.
36. (p. 81) A firm's product mix is described by its

A. width and depth.
B. profit and loss.
C. sales and marketing strategies.
D. quality and quantity.
A firm's product mix is described by its width and depth.
37. (p. 81) The width of a product mix refers to the

A. number of product lines handled by the organization.
B. maximum number of products in each line.
C. total number of products in each line marketed through personal selling.
D. average number of product lines handled by the organization.
Width of the product mix refers to the number of product lines handled by the organization.
38. (p. 81) What does the depth of a product mix refer to?
A. The number of product lines handled by the organization.
B. The length of time a product has been in the market.
C. The average number of products in each product line.
D. The total number of products in each line.
Depth refers to the average number of products in each line.

39. (p. 81) An integral component of product line planning revolves around the question of
A. how many product variants should be included in the line.
B. the type of location that the marketers need to target.
C. what the financial status of the target market is.
D. the promotional strategies associated with global brands.
An integral component of product line planning revolves around the question of how many product variants
should be included in the line.
40. (p. 81) As Alan strolled through a shopping center, he tried to apply what he had learnt in a marketing class to
what he saw at the mall. Which of Alan's interpretations do you believe to be most accurate?
A. The Tie Shop, which only sells ties, would have a wide product mix.
B. The Dollar Tree, which sells everything from baby rattles and potting soil to contact lens cleaning solution,
would have a narrow product mix and a deep assortment.
C. The Christian Superstore, which sells hundreds of self-help books, novels, and music with a religious theme,
has a narrow and deep product mix.
D. Louie's Bakery, which sells thirty-six different kinds of muffins, would have a deep product mix.
A product mix may consist of several product lines, or groups of products that share common characteristics,
distribution channels, customers, or uses. Width of the product mix refers to the number of product lines
handled by the organization. Depth refers to the average number of products in each line.
41. (p. 82) Identify the correct statement from the following.
A. The number of outlets is few for convenience goods.
B. The time spent planning for a shopping good is very little.
C. The price and quality are compared in the case of shopping goods.
D. The stock turnover is reasonably high for specialty goods.
Refer Marketing highlight 6-2.

42. (p. 82) Identify the correct statement regarding the classes of consumer goods.
A. Packaging is extremely important for specialty goods.
B. Length of the channel is typically long for specialty goods.
C. Brand name is more important than store name for shopping goods.
D. Convenience goods have a high stock turnover rate.
Refer Marketing Highlight 6-2.
43. (p. 82) Which of the following observations about the classes of consumer goods is true?
A. Consumers compare both price and quality when buying shopping goods.
B. Time spent planning for the purchase of shopping goods is very little.
C. Importance of point-of-purchase display is very important when buying specialty goods.
D. The producer bears the responsibility for advertising shopping goods.
44. (p. 82) The responsibility for the advertising of convenience goods lies with the
A. producer.
B. distributor.
C. retailer.
D. wholesaler.
45. (p. 82) Which of the following is not a factor influencing the strength of a brand?
A. Distribution intensity
B. High pricing
C. Consistent advertising
D. Brand personality
Factors that serve to increase the strength of a brand include product quality, consistent advertising, distribution
intensity and brand personality.

46. (p. 83) Identify the correct statement about organizational products.
A. No middlemen are involved in the typically short channel for operating supplies.
B. Price competition is important when selling or buying raw material.
C. Brand preference is generally high when purchasing fabricating parts or materials.
D. Advance buying contracts are commonly used when purchasing accessory equipment.
47. (p. 83) What is the legal term for a brand?

A. Symbol
B. Style
C. Trademark
D. Watermark
The legal term for brand is trademark.
48. (p. 83) Which of the following observations about branding is true?
A. No matter how hard advertisers try, brands do not develop personalities.
B. Brand image is unaffected by distribution intensity.
C. Brand building activities are limited in nature.
D. The legal name for brand is trademark.
The legal term for brand is trademark.
49. (p. 84) What does the line extension approach use?
A. Attaching a corporate name to enter a new market segment.
B. A brand name to facilitate entry into a new market product.
C. An expansion of business links.
D. Attaching the corporate name to a product to enter a different product class.
The line extension approach uses a brand name to facilitate entry into a new market segment.

50. (p. 84) An alternative to line extension is a(n) _____, where a current brand name is used to enter a completely
different product class
A. line extension
B. brand extension
C. dual branding
D. franchise extension
In brand extension, a current brand name is used to enter a completely different product class (e.g., Jell-O
pudding pops, Ivory shampoo).
51. (p. 84) General Mills makes four different varieties of Total cereal. They are Total corn flakes, Total raisin
bran, Total Honey Clusters, Total brown sugar, and oats cereal. With its Total cereal brand, General Mills has
used a(n)
A. line extension.
C. brand extension.
52. (p. 84) Land O'Lakes began by manufacturing butter. Today this company also produces Land O'Lakes honey
butter. This scenario is an example of a
A. line extension.
C. brand extension.

53. (p. 84) Arm & Hammer first introduced a line of toothpastes with the Arm & Hammer brand. The introduction
of a mouthwash and a chewing gum using the Arm & Hammer brand name are examples of a(n)
A. line extension.
C. brand extension.
In brand extension, a current brand name is used to enter a completely different product class
54. (p. 84) Mama Moo's began by manufacturing butter. Today this company also produces Mama Moo's cream
cheese, which is an example of
A. a brand extension.
B. a product mix addition.
C. a franchise extension.
D. dual branding.
In brand extension, a current brand name is used to enter a completely different product class.
55. (p. 84) When a corporate name is attached to a product to enter into an entirely new market segment, for
example, Honda lawnmower and Toyota Lexus, it would be an example of a
A. multibranding strategy.
B. franchise extension.
C. dual branding strategy.
D. line extension.
Franchise extension or family branding is a strategy whereby a company attaches the corporate name to a
product to enter either a new market segment or a different product class (e.g., Honda lawnmower, Toyota
Lexus).

56. (p. 84) Products ranging from cranberries to grapefruits marketed by Ocean Spray are sold under the Ocean
Spray corporate name. Ocean Spray uses
A. dual branding.
B. singular branding.
C. family branding.
Franchise extension or family branding is a strategy whereby a company attaches the corporate name to a
product to enter either a new market segment or a different product class.
57. (p. 84) Chunk's favorite cereal is General Mills Reese's Peanut Butter Puffs. This cereal with a combination of
peanut butter and chocolate taste is an example of
A. a product mix addition.
B. a brand extension.
C. family branding.
D. dual branding.
A dual branding strategy is one in which two or more branded products are integrated.
58. (p. 84) What is multibranding strategy?

A. Companies marketing their brand jointly with that of their competitors.
B. Companies assigning different brand names to each of their products.
C. Companies attaching corporate name to a product to enter a different product class.
D. Companies assigning different brand names to the same products in different outlets.
Multibranding strategy is one in which companies assign different brand names to each product.
59. (p. 84) Procter & Gamble makes Camay soap for those concerned about soft skin, and Safeguard soap for
those who want deodorant protection. What is the strategy used by P&G?
A. Multibranding
B. Joint branding
C. Product extension
D. Brand extension
Multibranding strategy is one in which companies assign different brand names to each product.

60. (p. 84) Spending significant amounts of money to familiarize customers with new brands is a disadvantage
associated with
A. family branding.
B. multibranding.
C. dual branding.
The major disadvantage of multibranding is that because new names are assigned, there is no consumer brand
awareness and significant amounts of money must be spent familiarizing customers with new brands.
61. (p. 84) A current brand name is used to enter a completely different product class. This is an example of
A. brand extension.
B. line extension.
C. franchise extension.
D. multibranding.
In brand extension, a current brand name is used to enter a completely different product class.
62. (p. 84) The firm can distance products from other offerings it markets. This is one of the advantages of using
A. dual brands.
B. multiple brands.
C. family branding.
One of the major advantages of using multiple brand names is that the firm can distance products from other
offerings it markets.
63. (p. 84) Brand equity is

A. the set of assets or liabilities linked to the brand that add or subtract value.
B. not the culmination of the consumer's assessment of the product.
C. the extension of an existing brand that can lead to additional profits.
D. not dependent upon the results of the marketplace's relationship with a brand.
Brand equity can be viewed as the set of assets (or liabilities) linked to the brand that add (or subtract) value.

64. (p. 84) Identify the incorrect statement.
A. Organizational products along with consumer products can also possess brand equity.
B. Brand quality is viewed as the set of assets or liabilities linked to the brand that add or subtract value.
C. Successful extensions of an existing brand can lead to additional loyalty and associated profits.
D. Brand equity is determined by the company that manufactures and markets the product along with other
variables.
Brand equity can be viewed as the set of assets (or liabilities) linked to the brand that add (or subtract) value.
65. (p. 84) Why does a beer manufacturer like Heileman Distilleries produce Old Style, Colt 45, Lone Star,
Rainier and Samuel Adams brand beers?
A. To minimize the importance of brand equity.
B. To enjoy the benefits associated with franchise extension.
C. To create a competitive advantage that is not easily imitated.
D. To target specific market segments more efficiently.
One of the major advantages of using multiple brand names is that the product(s) can be targeted at a specific
market segment.
66. (p. 84) Which of the following statement about brand equity is true?
A. Brand equity is what the customer gets in exchange for what the customer gives.
B. Organizational products cannot have brand equity.
C. Brand equity is not impacted by advertising.
D. Brand equity is determined by the consumer.
Brand equity is determined by the consumer.

67. (p. 84) All of the following are advantages of using multiple brand names except
A. the firm can distance products from other offerings it markets.
B. the image of one product is not associated with other products the company markets.
C. the products can be targeted at a specific market segment.
D. the probability of a product failure impacting on other company products is maximized.
Advantages of using multiple brand names are that (1) the firm can distance products from other offerings it
markets; (2) the image of one product is not associated with other products the company markets; (3) the
product(s) can be targeted at a specific market segment; and (4) should the product(s) fail, the probability of
failure impacting on other company products is minimized.
68. (p. 84) Who ultimately determines brand equity?

A. Advertisers
B. Employees
C. Consumers
D. Management
Brand equity is determined by the consumer and is the culmination of the consumer's assessment of the product,
the company that manufactures and markets the product, and all other variables that impact on the product
between manufacture and consumer consumption.
69. (p. 84) This is the culmination of the consumer's assessment of the product, the company that manufactures
and markets the product, and all other variables that impact on the product between manufacture and consumer
consumption.
A. Quality
B. Brand equity
C. Value
D. Cash flow
Brand equity is the culmination of the consumer's assessment of the product, the company that manufactures
and markets the product, and all other variables that impact on the product between manufacture and consumer
consumption.

70. (p. 85-86) Products that are equivalent to national brands but are priced much lower are called
A. premium brands.
B. value brands.
C. quality brands.
D. deluxe brands.
Private label brands are being marketed as value brands, products that are equivalent to national brands but are
priced much lower.
71. (p. 86) Arizona jeans, which is a store brand of J.C. Penney Company, is an example of a
A. national brand.
B. private label brand.
C. dual quality brand.
D. deluxe brand.
As a related branding strategy, many retail firms produce or market their products under a so-called private
label.
72. (p. 86) Identify a method of differentiating a relatively homogeneous product.

A. Using a corporate identity.
B. Using a line extension strategy.
C. Using a distinctive packaging.
D. Using a private label branding.
Distinctive or unique packaging is one method of differentiating a relatively homogeneous product.

73. (p. 86) A standard 12-pack carton of soft drinks cannot fit conveniently on the standard-size refrigerator shelf,
nor can drinks be efficiently dispensed from the carton. In 2002, Coca-Cola introduced a new design it calls the
refrigerator pack. The refrigerator pack is designed to fit easily on a standard refrigerator shelf and dispense one
can at a time. With its new refrigerator pack, Coke is
A. implementing a private branding strategy.
B. using packaging as a part of its product differentiation strategy.
C. using a brand extension strategy for market development.
D. implementing a consolidation strategy.
Distinctive or unique packaging is one method of differentiating a relatively homogeneous product.

Consumer-friendly products are attempts to differentiate a product through packaging changes and to satisfy
consumer needs at the same time.
74. (p. 87) This is true of the different stages in the product life cycle.
A. Sales of a product is highest in the maturation stage.
B. Sales begin to increase in the continued expansion stage.
C. Profits are highest during the growth stage.
D. Profits are nonexistent in the decline stage.
Refer Figure 6.2.
75. (p. 88) Which of the following observations concerning the product life cycle is true?
A. Length of time a product will remain in each stage can be predicted with accuracy.
B. Marketers can forecast when one stage will end and another will begin.
C. Product life cycle should dictate strategy development.
D. Not all products go through the product life cycle in the same way.
A limitation of the product life cycle is that not all products go through the product life cycle in the same way.

76. (p. 88) Which of the following observations about marketing strategies used during various stages of the
product life cycle is true?
A. Sales promotion is not used in the maturity stage.
B. Limited number of channels are used during the growth stage.
C. Communication is always high during the decline stage.
D. A defensive strategy is adopted during the maturity stage.
77. (p. 88) Victor Boudolf has developed a new product called The Insider. It offers fans attending baseball games
instant replays from various camera angles so they can see if their favorite player was really out. Boudolf is
hoping he can sell The Insider to venue owners who can rent them to fans attending a baseball game for $20.
Since this product is in the introductory stage of its product life cycle, Boudolf's primary marketing objective
should be to
A. build sales and market share for the product.
B. limit costs and persuasion strategies to highlight product.
C. establish a market for the product.
D. defend the brand's share of market.
Refer to Marketing Highlight 6-5.
78. (p. 89) All of the following statements relate to the life cycle of fashions except
A. this life cycle resembles the basic product life cycle but in a very compressed form.
B. it involves a distinctiveness stage in which trendsetters adopt a style.
C. the style becomes widely available at mass-market prices in the economic stage.
D. this life cycle is clearly visible in clothing, cosmetics, tattoos, and body piercing.
Fads are products that experience an intense but brief period of popularity. Their life cycle resembles the basic
product life cycle but in a very compressed form.

79. (p. 89) The diffusion of innovation is
A. used to describe an audit task that is carried out at regular intervals.
B. described using five adopter categories.
C. the term used for the introductory stage of the life-cycle.
D. used to emphasize the effect of sales after the product has been introduced.
The spread of a product through the population is known as the diffusion of innovation. Five adopter categories
including innovators, early adopters, early majority, late majority and laggards describe the spread of the
product through its life cycle.
80. (p. 89) According to the adopter categories, consumers who are first to purchase a product are known as
A. innovators.
B. early adopters.
C. laggards.
D. early majority.
Innovators are those who are the first to buy a new product.
81. (p. 89) According to the adopter categories of diffusion of innovation, the biggest category of buyers is divided
into groups called the
A. innovators and laggards.
B. laggards and late majority.
C. early majority and late majority.
D. early majority and innovators.
The biggest category of buyers is divided into groups called the early majority and late majority.

82. (p. 90) While contemplating deleting a product after the completion of a product audit, managers must ask
themselves whether, in total, profits associated with their line increase due to favorable switching patterns. The
factor under consideration is
A. sales trends.
B. profit contribution.
C. product life cycle.
D. customer migration patterns.
Customer migration patterns: If the product is deleted, will customers of this product switch to other substitute
products marketed by our firm? In total, will profits associated with our line increase due to favorable switching
patterns?
83. (p. 90) Identify a primary reason for a product audit.

A. To develop a marketing plan for products.
B. To detect sick products and then bury them.
C. To try to make profit wherever possible.
D. To implement cost cutting strategies.
One of the main purposes of the product audit is to detect sick products and then bury them.
84. (p. 90) According to the adopter categories of diffusion of innovation, laggards
A. are fearful of debt, but may eventually purchase a well-established brand.
B. tend to avoid risk and make purchases carefully.
C. are the first to buy a new product.
D. begin to buy if the experience of innovators is favorable.
Laggards are reluctant to make changes and are comfortable with traditional products. They also have a fear of
debt, but may eventually purchase a well-established brand.

85. (p. 90) A marketing management technique whereby the company's current product offerings are reviewed to
ascertain whether each product should be continued as is, improved, modified, or deleted is known as
A. product demand.
B. product audit.
C. product definition.
D. product planning.
The product audit is a marketing management technique whereby the company's current product offerings are
reviewed to ascertain whether each product should be continued as is, improved, modified, or deleted.
86. (p. 90) All of the following are true of product deletions except
A. these decisions are very difficult to make because of their potential impact on customers and the firm.
B. it involves keeping consumers supplied with replacement parts and repair service.
C. the plan should provide for clearing out of stock in question.
D. it involves changing one or more of its attributes or marketing dimensions.
One of the other important objectives of the audit is to ascertain whether to alter the product in some way or to
leave things as they are. Altering the product means changing one or more of its attributes or marketing
dimensions.
87. (p. 90) All of the following are reasons why the number of new products are growing and competing for
limited shelf space except
A. new knowledge is being applied faster.
B. there is a decrease in time between product introductions.
C. companies are not consistently removing products from the market.
D. the time gap in introducing new products is increasing.
This growth of new products is primarily due to the decrease in time between product introductions

88. (p. 90) Which of the following factors help determine whether customers of a deleted product would switch to
other substitute products marketed by the firm?
A. Profit contribution
B. Product life cycle
C. Migration patterns
D. Sales trends
Customer migration patterns: If the product is deleted, will customers of this product switch to other substitute
products marketed by our firm?
89. (p. 90-91) Which of the following shows how a product was improved by modifying a product attribute?
A. The Seven Down soda manufacturer reduced its price per six-pack by fifty cents.
B. The Grand Casino in Gulfport began advertising on the Internet.
C. Kraft developed a picnic basket point-of-purchase display for its Miracle Whip spread.
D. Louis Kemp Seafood Company added a pamphlet of recipes to each package of its seafood.
Attributes refer mainly to product features, design, package, and so forth.
90. (p. 90-91) A company changes the packaging of one of its existing products to make it more attractive to
consumers. The company has undertaken product improvement by changing the
B. product attributes.
C. channels of distribution.
D. promotional strategy.
91. (p. 90-91) In improving a product, the term "attributes" mainly refer to
A. product price.
B. product features.
C. promotion strategy.
D. distribution channels.

92. (p. 91) Price, promotion strategy, and channels of distribution are elements of
B. marketing trends.
C. marketing patterns.
D. product attributes.
Marketing dimensions refer to such things as price, promotion strategy, and channels of distribution.
93. (p. 91) Which of the following shows how a product was improved by modifying the marketing dimension of
"channels of distribution"?
A. The Caribbean cruise was improved by the addition of two more stops in Mexico.
B. The 800-page history of chiropody was improved by the development of an extensive index.
C. Liz Claiborne expanded the number of retail outlets that carries its sportswear.
D. The Dillard House restaurant added three new vegetarian dishes to its menu.
Marketing dimensions refer to such things as price, promotion strategy, and channels of distribution.
94. (p. 91) Which of the following does not pertain to the marketing dimension of a product?
A. Price
B. Promotion strategy
C. Channels of distribution
D. Packaging
Marketing dimensions refer to such things as price, promotion strategy, and channels of distribution. Attributes
refer mainly to product features, design, package, and so forth.

95. (p. 91) The Ritz-Carlton is a hotel industry leader. After Marriott measured its services against the
Ritz-Carlton, it instituted a customer service campaign called "proactive hospitality." Marriott managers
examine monthly reports for problem areas, and the Ritz-Carlton model is used to determine ways to remove
the problems. Which of the following methods is used by Marriott to identify improvement areas?
A. Capacity planning
B. Benchmarking
C. Continuous improvement
D. Performance measurement
Benchmarking is the continuous process of measuring products, services, and practices against those of the
toughest competitors or companies renowned as leaders.
96. (p. 91) Clothes Store sent a manager to visit the L.L.Bean warehouse to determine how the warehouse
employees are able to pick and package merchandise three times as fast as Clothes Store's workers. By
comparing the work performed by the warehouses' workers with the retailer's employees, Clothes Store was
able to improve its own operation. Clothes Store engaged in
A. capacity planning.
B. product rejuvenation.
C. benchmarking.
D. product renewal.
Benchmarking is the continuous process of measuring products, services, and practices against those of the
toughest competitors or companies renowned as leaders.
97. (p. 92) Which of the following is not true of benchmarking?

A. It helps enhance the product quality.
B. It is used to develop more user-friendly products.
C. It increases delivery lead times.
D. It improves customer order-processing activities.
Benchmarking can assist companies in many product improvement efforts, including (1) boosting product
quality, (2) developing more user-friendly products, (3) improving customer order-processing activities, and (4)
shortening delivery lead times.

98. (p. 92) Identify the incorrect statement concerning the marketing-manager system.
A. It is popular in organizations with one dominant product line.
B. One manager is responsible for overseeing an entire product line with all of the functional areas of
marketing.
C. Organizations such as PepsiCo, Purex, Eastman Kodak, and Levi Strauss use this system.
D. A manager focuses on a single product or a very small group of new and existing products.
Under a marketing-manager system, one person is responsible for overseeing an entire product line.
99. (p. 92) General Foods has managers who are solely responsible for each of its brands of coffee - Brim,
Maxwell Houses, International Coffee, Sanka, and Yuban. These brand managers are
A. responsible for everything from research to advertising for their products.
B. often considered to be superior to the marketing managers.
C. a part of the system that is also known as category management.
D. only concerned with the product's sales, and product planning.
Under a brand-manager system, a manager focuses on a single product or a very small group of new and
existing products. Typically, this person is responsible for everything from marketing research and package
design to advertising.
100. (p. 92) Which of the following observations is true of the brand-manager system?
A. Brand managers have difficulties in their line of work because they do not have authority commensurate with
their responsibilities.
B. Also known as the category-management system, the brand-manager system has been criticized on several
dimensions.
C. Under a brand-manager system, a manager focuses on all the functional areas of marketing such as research,
advertising, sales promotion, sales, and product planning.
D. Organizations such as PepsiCo, Purex, Eastman Kodak, and Levi Strauss use some form of brand-manager
system.
Brand managers often have difficulty because they do not have authority commensurate with their
responsibilities.

c6 Summary
Category # of Questions
Peter - Chapter 06 100
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781
Veratrum, use, in tumors of spinal sclerosis,
905
Verbigeration, in katatonia,
166
ERTIGO
416
Definition,
416
Diagnosis,
417
Etiology,
418
Blood-poisoning, influence of,
419
Excessive venery, influence of,
420
Mechanical causes,
426
of aural form,
421
of essential form,
426
of gastric and senile form,
420
of laryngeal form,
425
of neurasthenic, hysteric, and anæmic forms,
425
of ocular form,
424
Prognosis and duration,
418
Symptoms,
416
420-426
of aural form,
421
of essential form,
426
420
of laryngeal form,
425
of neurasthenic, hysteric, and anæmic forms,
425
of ocular form,
424
of status vertiginosus,
421
Treatment,
426
Bromides and hydrobromic acid,
426-428
Cauterization, use of,
427
Diet,
427
428
Morphia, use,
426
427
Nitrite of amyl and nitro-glycerin, use,
426
of aural form,
427
426
of optic form,
427
of status vertiginosus,
428
Quinia, use,
427
Vertigo, in abscess of the brain,

796
in cerebral anæmia,
777
783
in tumors of the brain,
1035
Vessels of cerebrum, changes in, in chronic alcoholism,
617
state of, in cerebral abscess,
793
Violence, significance of, in nervous diseases,
24
Violin-playing as a cause of copodyscinesia,
511
Virchow on origin of progressive unilateral facial atrophy,
700
Visceral derangements of chronic alcoholism,
599
disturbances in diffuse sclerosis,
889
neuralgias,
1215
1237
Vision, disorders of, in cerebral anæmia,
783
786
in diseases of the cervical sympathetic,
1264
in disseminated spinal sclerosis,
878
in epilepsy,
476
in neuralgias,
1214
in tabes dorsalis,
830-833
hallucinations of, in migraine,
1231
Vitreous degeneration of cerebral cortex in disseminated sclerosis,
882
Vomiting, hysterical,
254
in acute simple meningitis,
718
in anæmia of the brain,
777
783
in apoplexy and cerebral hemorrhage,
935
in cerebral meningeal hemorrhage,
713
in chronic hydrocephalus,
743
in chronic lead-poisoning,
684
in concussion of the brain,
908
in infantile spinal paralysis,
1117
in migraine,
409
in the opium habit,
653
657-659
in tubercular meningitis,
725
729
in tumors of the brain,
1030
1034
W.
Wallerian degeneration,
1266
Washerwomen's anæsthesia,
1199
1201
Wasting diseases, influence on causation of copodyscinesia,
514
Water, hypodermically, in neuralgia,
1229
influence on causation of chronic lead-poisoning,

680
Wax-like flexibility in catalepsy,
321
337
Welsh fasting girl,
352
Westphal-Erb symptom of tabes dorsalis,
830
Wet pack, use, in neuralgia,
1223
Will, impairment of, in tumors of the brain,
1038
and intellect, state of, in alcoholism,
625
Wines, character of intoxication from,
591
Wire brush, faradic, in spinal sclerosis,
904
Witchcraft, hysterical nature of,
226
“Woods,” the, use of, in cerebral syphilis,
1016
Word-blindness, in hemiplegia,
959
in nervous diseases,
31
Word-deafness, in nervous diseases,
31
Worms, influence on causation of epilepsy,
471
Wrist-drop,
686
RITERS AND
RTISANS
,N
EURAL
ISORDERS OF
504
Definition, history, and synonyms,
504
Differential diagnosis,
521
from palsy from pressure,
526
from paralysis agitans and multiple sclerosis,
524
from paresis from slight lesions,
522
523
from progressive muscular atrophy,
523
from teno-synovitis,
526
Duration and course,
521
Etiology,
505
Action of muscles used in telegraphy,
508
Action of muscles used in writing,
505
Age and sex, influence of,
512
513
Cigarette-smoking as a cause of,
512
Hereditary influence and nervous temperament,
513
Manner of writing and holding the pen,
506
Musical-instrument playing,
511
Telegraphy,
507-511
Wasting diseases and traumatism,
514
Pathology and morbid anatomy,
526-530
Prognosis,
530
531

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MARKETING MANAGEMENT 9th

Edition Peter Test Bank

Marketing Management 11th Edition Peter Test Bank

Marketing Management 11th Edition Peter Solutions

Preface To Marketing Management 15Th Edition Peter Test

Preface to Marketing Management 14th Edition Peter Test

Preface to Marketing Management 13th Edition Peter

Preface to Marketing Management 14th Edition Peter

Consumer Behavior 9th Edition Peter Test Bank

Marketing 9th Edition Kotler Test Bank

3. The physical entity that is offered to the buyer is known as a(n)

7. Which of the following observations is true?

8. Identify the scenario which best describes marketing myopia.

15. Which of the following products would be classified as an organizational good?

16. Which of the following statements regarding organizational goods is true?

19. Products having limited number of buyers are better known as a

20. Which of the following best describes a horizontal market?

21. Convenience goods generally require

22. Which of the following is the best example of a specialty good?

30. What does TQM stand for?

31. _____ goods are purchased frequently with minimum effort.

36. A firm's product mix is described by its

37. The width of a product mix refers to the

38. What does the depth of a product mix refer to?

41. Identify the correct statement from the following.

47. What is the legal term for a brand?

48. Which of the following observations about branding is true?

49. What does the line extension approach use?

58. What is multibranding strategy?

64. Identify the incorrect statement.

66. Which of the following statement about brand equity is true?

68. Who ultimately determines brand equity?

72. Identify a method of differentiating a relatively homogeneous product.

83. Identify a primary reason for a product audit.

84. According to the adopter categories of diffusion of innovation, laggards

86. All of the following are true of product deletions except

92. Price, promotion strategy, and channels of distribution are elements of

97. Which of the following is not true of benchmarking?

98. Identify the incorrect statement concerning the marketing-manager system.

100. Which of the following observations is true of the brand-manager system?

6. (p. 78) Which of the following observations about a product is incorrect?

Peter - Chapter 06 #10

Peter - Chapter 06 #11

Peter - Chapter 06 #12

Peter - Chapter 06 #13

Peter - Chapter 06 #14

Peter - Chapter 06 #15

Peter - Chapter 06 #16

Peter - Chapter 06 #17

Peter - Chapter 06 #18

Peter - Chapter 06 #19

Peter - Chapter 06 #20

21. (p. 80) Convenience goods generally require

Peter - Chapter 06 #21

Peter - Chapter 06 #22

Peter - Chapter 06 #23

Peter - Chapter 06 #24

Peter - Chapter 06 #25

Peter - Chapter 06 #26

Peter - Chapter 06 #27

Peter - Chapter 06 #28

Peter - Chapter 06 #29

30. (p. 80) What does TQM stand for?