SFG 2024 - LEVEL 1 - Test 42

SFG 2024 | LEVEL 1 |Test 42 |
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Serial No.
A
TEST BOOKLET
GENERAL STUDIES
Time Allowed: ONE HOUR Maximum Marks: 100

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Q.1) Consider the following statements d) to reduce the ecological, human health, and
regarding mercury pollution: economic impacts of marine debris.
1. Gold mining activity is a source of mercury

pollution in the world. Q.4) With reference to the effects of Acid rain,
2. Coal-based thermal power plants cause consider the following statements:
mercury pollution. 1. It can alter the composition of soil.
3. There is no known safe level of exposure to 2. It damages architectural structures by
mercury. corroding metal and hastening the
How many of the above statements are degradation of paint and stone.
correct? 3. It can cause respiratory issues in humans
a) Only one and animals.
b) Only two 4. It enhances the ability of trees at higher

latitudes to endure freezing temperatures
c) All three
by improving their energy absorption
d) None
capacity.
How many of the statements given above are
Q.2) With reference to Indian Geography, correct?
consider the following statements:
a) Only one
Statement-I: Kutch district in the state of
b) Only two
Gujarat is highly vulnerable to earthquakes.
c) Only three
Statement-II: Kutch district lies in the zone
d) All four
where the Indo-Australian and Eurasian
tectonic plates slide past each other
horizontally. Q.5) With reference to the agents of indoor air
Which one of the following is correct in pollution and their sources, consider the
respect of the above statements? following pairs:
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are

Indoor air Pollutants Major source
correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I.
1. Formaldehyde Soil and rocks beneath
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are buildings
correct and Statement-II is not the correct
2. Radon Furnitures
c) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
correct.
3. Volatile organic Paints
d) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is compounds
incorrect.
4. Carbon Monoxide Burning of Charcoal
Q.3) The term „Honolulu Strategy‟ is sometimes
How many of the pairs given above are
seen in the news. It is related:
correctly matched?
a) to promote commercial farming in arid and
a) Only one
semi-arid areas.
b) Only two
b) to harvest wind energy on coastal areas and
on sea surfaces. c) Only three
c) to develop gardens on the terrace of d) All four
households to combat urban heating.
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Q.6) Consider the following statements

zone to stimulate the
regarding the Solid Waste Management Rules,
biological activity of
2016:
microorganisms.
1. The responsibility of segregating waste at
the source lies with Municipal authorities. 2. Bioaugmentation Stimulates native
2. It emphasizes on on-site processing of microbes by introducing
biodegradable waste through composting nutrients and oxygen to
or bio-methanation. contaminated zones.
3. Landfilling is prohibited for all types of
waste. 3. Bioventing Introduces specialized
4. Companies/developers of the Special microbes to degrade
Economic Zones are exempt from the specific pollutants in
application of these rules. contaminated
How many of the statements given above are environments.
correct?
4. Biopiles Treats contaminated soil
a) Only one
by combining it with
b) Only two
soils enriched with
c) Only three
enhanced
d) All four
microorganism activity.
Q.7) Consider the following statements with How many of the pairs given above are
reference to National Disaster Management correctly matched?
Act, 2005: a) Only one
1. The act defines the term „disaster‟. b) Only two
2. It designates the Prime Minister‟s Office c) Only three
(PMO) as the nodal agency for steering the d) All four
overall national disaster management.
3. For any violation of the provisions of the Q.9) A landslide is a geological phenomenon
act, it provides for civil and criminal involving the downward movement of rock,
penalties. soil, and debris. In this context, consider the
4. National Executive Committee established following factors:
under the act is chaired by the Prime 1. The presence of a significant number of
Minister of India. glaciers.
How many of the statements given above are 2. The event of sporadic rainfall.
correct? 3. Steep slopes of the mountains.
a) Only one How many of the above factors are exclusive
b) Only two to the Himalayas, distinguishing it from the
c) Only three Western Ghats, as the primary driving force
d) All four behind the landslide hazard?
a) Only one
Q.8) Bioremediation is a process that uses b) Only two
living organisms to remove pollutants from a c) All three
contaminated environment. In this context, d) None
consider the following bioremediation
techniques and their nature:
Process Description
1. Biosparging Injects pressurized air

into a contaminated
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Q.10) Consider the following pollutants: How many of the above effects are seen in
1. Sulphur Dioxide marine organisms due to micro plastic
2. Carbon Dioxide pollution?
3. Ammonia a) Only one
4. Ozone b) Only two
5. Nickel c) All three
6. Arsenic d) None
How many of the pollutants mentioned above

are considered in calculating the National Air Q.14) With reference to Tsunami, consider the
Quality Index (NAQI)? following statements:
a) Only three Statement I: Arrival of successive crests is a
b) Only four feature of Tsunami that wreak destruction
near the coast.
c) Only five
Statement II: The energy associated with the
d) All six
tsunami is spread out over a large area in the
open ocean.
Q.11) Among the following crops, which one is
Which one of the following is correct in
the most important anthropogenic source of
respect of the above statements?
both methane and nitrous oxide?
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
a) Cotton
correct, and Statement-II is the correct
b) Rice explanation for Statement-I.
c) Sugarcane b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
d) Wheat correct, and Statement-II is not the correct
Q.12) With reference to Blue Flag Beach c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is
Certification, consider the following incorrect.
statements: d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II
1. It was initiated by the Copenhagen-based is correct.
Foundation for Environmental Education in
1985 in France. Q.15) Which of the following are the
2. Under the programme, the certification is reasons/factors for exposure to benzene
awarded only to the beaches. pollution?
3. In India, the state of Goa and Kerala has the 1. Automobile exhaust
maximum number of beaches certified as 2. Tobacco smoke
Blue Flag Beach.
3. Wood burning
How many of the above statements are
4. Using varnished wooden furniture
correct?
5. Using products made of polyurethane
a) Only one
Select the correct answer using the code given
b) Only two
below:
c) All three
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
d) None
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1, 3 and 4 only
Q.13) Consider the following effects:
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
1. Inhibit growth and development
2. Reduced ability to swim
3. Increased rate of reproductive cycle
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Q.16) Consider the following statements: d) All four

Statement 1: Ionizing radiation is more
harmful to humans than non-ionizing Q.19) Consider the following degradations of
radiation. environment:
Statement 2: Most of the ionizing radiation 1. Contamination of groundwater
comes from radioactive materials. 2. Soil erosion and sinking of land
Which one of the following is correct in 3. Release of air pollutants
respect of the above statements? How many of the above can be considered as
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are consequences of Lithium mining?
correct and Statement-II is the correct a) Only one
explanation for Statement-I b) Only two
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are c) All three
correct and Statement-II is not the correct d) None
explanation for Statement-I
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is Q.20) With reference to Central Pollution
incorrect Control Board (CPCB), consider the following
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is statements:
correct 1. It is a statutory organization established
under the Water (Prevention and Control of
Q.17) With reference to the categorization of Pollution) Act, 1974.
industrial sectors in India on the basis of the 2. One of the primary mandates of CPCB
Pollution Index by the MoEFCC, consider the includes promoting cleanliness of streams
following pairs: and wells in different areas of the country
Categories Associated sector to prevent water pollution.
1. White Category Sugar and Dairy 3. It is mandated to act as the investigative
industries wing of the National Green Tribunal (NGT).
2. Green Category Ayurvedic and How many of the statements given above are
homeopathic correct?
medicines a) Only one
3. Orange Category Cotton spinning and b) Only two
weaving c) All three
4. Red Category Fertilizers d) None
How many of the above pairs are correctly
matched? Q.21) Why is there a concern about copper
a) Only one smelting plants?
b) Only two 1. They may release lethal quantities of
c) Only three carbon monoxide into environment.
d) All four 2. The copper slag can cause the leaching of
some heavy metals into environment.
Q.18) Consider the following: 3. They may release sulphur dioxide as a
1. In-situ Burning pollutant.
2. Hot Water and High-Pressure Washing Select the correct answer using the code given
3. Using Bregoli as a sorbent below:
4. Spraying Dispersal Chemicals a) 1 and 2 only
How many of the above methods can be used b) 2 and 3 only
for oil spill cleanup at sea? c) 1 and 3 only
a) Only one d) 1, 2 and 3
b) Only two
c) Only three
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Q.22) Consider the following statements: 4. It can be used as a photocatalyst to remove

“This is one of the phytoremediation dyes from wastewater.
techniques that use metal-tolerant plant How many of the above statements are
species to prevent the leaching of heavy correct?
metals into the groundwater. This helps in a) Only one
reducing the bioavailability of heavy metals in
b) Only two
the soil. One of the key advantages of this
c) Only three
method is that disposal of hazardous biomass
is not needed when compared with other d) All four
techniques of phytoremediation.”
Which of the following methods of Q.25) With reference to Central Ground Water
phytoremediation has been discussed in the Board (CGWB), consider the following
above statements? statements:
a) Phytoextraction 1. It was established under the Environmental
b) Phytotransformation Protection Act, 1986.
c) Phytostabilization 2. It develops policies for the effective use of
India‟s groundwater resources in a
d) Phytodegradation
sustainable manner.
2. It is the nodal agency for overall
Q.23) Consider the following statements
implementation of Atal Bhujal Yojana.
regarding the torrefaction technology of waste
treatment:
correct?
1. It removes volatile organic compounds
a) Only one
from waste by heating them in the absence
of oxygen. b) Only two
2. This process enhances the energy density c) All three
of the biomass and turns them into „bio- d) None
coal‟.
Which of the statements given above is/ are Q.26) Consider the following statements
correct? regarding the Sendai Framework:
a) 1 only 1. It has been adopted at the Rio+20 summit
b) 2 only held in 2012.
c) Both 1 and 2 2. India is one of the signatories to this
d) Neither 1 nor 2 framework.
3. The United Nations Office for Disaster Risk
Reduction supports the implementation of
Q.24) Fly-ash is primarily composed of
this framework.
Aluminum silicate, Silicon dioxide and Calcium
oxide. In this context, consider the following How many of the above statements are
options regarding the applications of „fly-ash‟: correct?
1. It can be used as an insecticide to protect a) Only one
the crops. b) Only two
2. It can be used to manufacture light-weight c) All three
bricks. d) None
3. It can be used as a geopolymer which acts
as a cement-like product.
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Q.27) Consider the following statements Q.30) Consider the following:

regarding the uranium pollution of water: 1. Nylon fabrics
1. Over-extraction of groundwater may 2. Asbestos
intensify the uranium pollution in the 3. Glass
groundwater. 4. Tannin
2. Reverse Osmosis can help in removing 5. Sewage
uranium from contaminated water. 6. Radioactive wastes
3. Among the Indian states, Punjab is the most How many of the above are considered as non-
adversely affected state by the uranium biodegradable pollutant?
contamination of groundwater. a) Only three
How many of the above statements are b) Only four
correct? c) Only five
a) Only one d) All six
b) Only two
c) All three Q.31) There is some concern regarding the
d) None nanoparticles of some chemical elements that
are used by the industry in the manufacture of
Q.28) Consider the following statements various products. Why?
regarding the „System of Air Quality and 1. They can accumulate in the environment
Weather Forecasting and Research (SAFAR): and contaminate water and soil.
1. It provides location-specific air quality 2. They can enter the food chains.
details of major Indian cities. 3. They can trigger the production of free
2. Apart from pollutants, it also measures the radicals.
levels of UV radiation. Select the correct answer using the code given
3. It is an initiative of the Ministry of Earth below:
Sciences (MoES). a) 1 and 2 only
How many of the above statements are b) 3 only
correct? c) 1 and 3 only
a) Only one d) 1, 2 and 3
b) Only two
c) All three Q.32) Recently, the Landslide Atlas of India was
d) None released. In this context, consider the
following statements:
Q.29) Consider the following statements: 1. It was released by the Ministry of Home
1. Water with high levels of nitrate raises the Affairs.
risk of developing blue baby syndrome in 2. India is among the top five landslide-prone
children. countries globally.
2. The presence of high levels of nitrogen in a 3. As per the atlas, Rudraprayag district of
water body can lead to the formation of Uttarakhand state has been ranked first
dead zones in that water body. amongst the districts in terms of exposure
3. Nitrous oxide is a greenhouse gas that has to landslides.
more global warming potential than Carbon How many of the statements given above are
dioxide. correct?
How many of the above statements are a) Only one
correct? b) Only two
a) Only one c) All three
b) Only two d) None
c) All three
d) None
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Q.33) Consider the following Pollutants: Q.36) Consider the following environmental
1. Peroxyacetyl nitrate (PAN). degradations:
2. Secondary Organic Aerosols 1. Depletion of groundwater table
3. Tropospheric Ozone 2. Intrusion of saline water into freshwater
4. Dichloro-Diphenyl-Trichloroethane (DDT) resources
5. Formaldehyde 3. Increase turbidity in rivers and coastal
How many among the above can be considered waters.
as a Secondary Pollutant? How many of the impacts given above can be
a) Only two caused by sand mining?
b) Only three a) Only one
c) Only four b) Only two
d) All five c) All three
d) None
Q.34) With respect to various oxygen demands
to decompose matter in aquatic systems, Q.37) Consider the following statements:
consider the following statements: 1. Noise pollution can adversely affect
1. Chemical Oxygen Demand measures the communication and navigation among
total amount of oxygen required to oxidize marine organisms.
all organic matter (biodegradable and non- 2. Noise pollution can affect dissemination
biodegradable). and germination of seedlings.
2. Biological Oxygen Demand is an indicator 3. Animals exposed to chronic noise
of the amount of biodegradable organic experience heightened stress levels.
matter present in aquatic systems. 4. In human beings, noise pollution will lead
3. In an aquatic ecosystem, Chemical Oxygen to the development of a disorder known as
Demand is generally greater than the Albinism.
Biological Oxygen Demand. How many of the above statements regarding
How many of the statements given above are the effects of noise pollution are correct?
correct? a) Only one
a) Only one b) Only two
b) Only two c) Only three
c) All three d) All four
d) None
Q.38) Consider the following pairs with
Q.35) Consider the following statements: reference to pollutants and the diseases that
Assertion (A): Coal-based thermal power they cause:
stations contribute to acid rain. Pollutant Disease
Reason (R): Oxides of carbon are emitted when 1. Cadmium Itai-Itai
coal burns. 2. Arsenic Black foot
Select the correct answer using the code given 3. Mercury Minamata
below: 4. Fluoride Fluorosis
a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the How many of the pairs given above are
correct explanation of (A). matched correctly?
b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the a) Only one
correct explanation of (A). b) Only two
c) (A) is false, but (R) is true. c) Only three
d) (A) is true, but (R) is false. d) All four
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Q.39) Which one of the following statements Q.42) Consider the following pollutants:
provides the best description of „Ecological 1. Mercury
Drought‟? 2. Nitrogen Oxide
a) It is a situation when there is a prolonged 3. Polychlorinated Biphenyls
lack of rainfall, unevenly distributed over 4. Beryllium
time and space. 5. Arsenic
b) It is a situation characterized by lack of soil 6. Polyvinyl Chloride
moisture that is necessary to support the 7. Brominated Flame Retardants
crops. How many of the above pollutants are released
c) It is a situation when water in various into the environment as e-waste?
storage systems is insufficient and falls a) Only four
below what precipitation can replenish. b) Only five
d) It is a situation when the productivity of a c) Only six
natural ecosystem fails due to shortage of d) All seven
water.
Q.43) Which one of the following best
Q.40) Consider the following: describes the meaning of the term „Qualitative
1. It is environmentally friendly. Pollutants‟?
2. It can be applied to both biodegradable and a) Pollutants that hold considerable economic
non-biodegradable compounds. value when subjected to recycling
3. It takes less time than remediation by processes.
excavation. b) Naturally existing elements transform into
4. It significantly reduces the risk of future pollutants due to their elevated
environmental impact. concentrations in the environment.
How many of the above are advantages of c) Pollutants primarily resulting from
bioremediation technique? interactions among pollutants and their
a) Only one reactions with the environment.
b) Only two d) Pollutants that are not present in the
c) Only three environment naturally but are created by
d) All four humans.
Q.41) In the context of WHO Air Quality Q.44) With reference to Jal Jeevan mission,
Guidelines, consider the following statements: consider the following statements:
1. The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not 1. It aims at providing Functional Household
exceed 15 ug/m³ and annual mean of PM2.5 Tap Connection to every rural household
should not exceed 5 µg/m³. by 2024.
2. In a year, the highest levels of ozone 2. The mission ensures voluntary ownership
pollution occur during the periods of of water resources among the local
inclement weather. community by way of contribution in cash,
3. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and kind, or labour towards accessibility of
enter the bloodstream. drinking water supply.
4. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger 3. The mission provides for mandatory
asthma. elements of recharge and reuse of water
Which of the statements given above are resources through grey water management.
correct? How many of the above statements are
a) 1, 3 and 4 correct?
b) 1 and 4 only a) Only one
c) 2, 3 and 4 b) Only two
d) 1 and 2 only c) All three
d) None
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Q.45) Magnetite particles, suspected to cause pollutants from various sources in the
neurodegenerative problems, are generated as National Capital region.
environmental pollutants from which of the How many of the statements given above are
following? correct?
1. Brakes of motor vehicles a) Only one
2. Engines of motor vehicles b) Only two
3. Microwave stoves within homes c) All three
4. Power plants d) None
5. Telephone lines
Select the correct answer using the code given Q.48) In context of Lichens, consider the
below: following statements:
a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only Statement I: Lichens serve as a good indicator
b) 1, 2 and 4 only of air pollution.
c) 3, 4 and 5 only Statement II: Lichens receive their nutrients
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 from the atmosphere.
Which one of the following is correct in
Q.46) With reference to „Dioxins‟, consider the respect of the above statements?
following statements: a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
1. They are a group of Volatile organic correct and Statement-II is the correct
compounds (VOCs) that are mainly emitted explanation for Statement-I
from human-made sources. b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
2. Human exposure to dioxins mainly occurs correct and Statement-II is not the correct
through the consumption of animal origin explanation for Statement-I
products derived from animals impacted by c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
biomagnification. incorrect
3. They are known to cause developmental d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
problems in children. correct
How many of the above statements are
correct? Q.49) “Colony Collapse Disorder (CCD) is a
a) Only one phenomenon that has raised concerns about
b) Only two the health and sustainability of honeybee
populations.” In this context, consider the
c) All three
following
d) None
1. Overpopulation of beehives.
2. Varroa mite infestation in honeybees.
Q.47) Consider the following statements with
3. Escape of the „queen bee‟ from the beehive.
reference to the Commission for Air Quality
Management in National Capital Region and 4. Changes in the habitat where bees forage.
Adjoining Areas: 5. Bees exposure to pesticides.
1. It is constituted under the Environment How many of the above factors can intensify
protection Act, 1986. or lead to Colony Collapse Disorder (CCD)?
2. It covers the areas in the States of Haryana, a) Only two
Punjab, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh, b) Only three
adjoining the National Capital Region. c) Only four
3. It is responsible for deciding parameters for d) All five
emission or discharge of environmental
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Q.50) With reference to the Persistent Organic

Pollutants (POPs), consider the following
statements:
1. These pollutants can be transported from
one place to another by wind and water.
2. They are used as flame retardants in
electronic products.
3. They can alter the hormonal system of
humans.
correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
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SFG 2024 | LEVEL 1 | Test #42 – Solutions |
Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding mercury pollution:

1. Gold mining activity is a source of mercury pollution in the world.
2. Coal-based thermal power plants cause mercury pollution.
3. There is no known safe level of exposure to mercury.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: Gold mining is poisoning Amazon forests with mercury. To separate the
gold, miners mix liquid mercury into the sediment, which forms a coating around the gold.
Statement 2 is correct: Fly ash generated by Thermal Power Plants (TPPs) is one of the ways
mercury is released into the environment. Fly ash is usually disposed in ash ponds in the form of ash
slurry, forming an aquatic ecosystem of its own. Coal-based TPPs are the major source of mercury.
TPPs contribute about 80 percent of mercury emissions in India, according to 2016 estimates by
Delhi-based think-tank Centre for Science and Environment.
Statement 3 is correct: Acute or chronic mercury exposure can cause adverse effects during any
period of development. Mercury is a highly toxic element; there is no known safe level of exposure.
To date, there are no universal diagnostic criteria for mercury overload.
Source: UPSC CSE Pre 2023
Subject:) Environment
Subtopic:) Pollution and associated Issues
Q.2) With reference to Indian Geography, consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Kutch district in the state of Gujarat is highly vulnerable to earthquakes.
Statement-II: Kutch district lies in the zone where the Indo-Australian and Eurasian tectonic plates
slide past each other horizontally.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I.
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for
Statement-I.
c) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
d) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
An earthquake is a natural phenomenon characterized by the shaking of the Earth's surface due to the
sudden release of energy in the Earth's crust. This release of energy is typically caused by the
movement of tectonic plates beneath the Earth's surface.
Statement-I is correct: Kutch district in the State of Gujarat is highly vulnerable to earthquakes.
Kutch is known for its seismic activity, and it experienced a major earthquake in 2001 with a
magnitude of 7.7 on the Richter scale, which caused major life and livelihood losses to the people of
Gujarat. Recently, Kutch experienced a 3.3 magnitude earthquake, and fortunately no loss of lives or
property was reported.
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Statement - II is incorrect: A transform boundary is a type of plate boundary characterized by the

horizontal movement of tectonic plates in relation to each other. On the other hand, a convergent
boundary is a zone where two tectonic plates move toward each other. The Kutch district in Gujarat
is highly prone to earthquakes because it is located on the convergent plate boundary, where Indo-
Australian and Eurasian tectonic plates move toward each other.
The collision and compression of these plates lead to the buildup of stress along faults in the
Earth's crust. Eventually, this stress is released in the form of seismic activity, resulting in
earthquakes. The energy released during these earthquakes can have significant consequences,
causing ground shaking and potentially leading to damage of structures and loss of life.
Source: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/calamities/earthquake-in-
kutch/articleshow/99267715.cms?from=mdr
Subtopic:) Disaster Management
Q.3) The term „Honolulu Strategy‟ is sometimes seen in the news. It is related:
a) to promote commercial farming in arid and semi-arid areas.
b) to harvest wind energy on coastal areas and on sea surfaces.
c) to develop gardens on the terrace of households to combat urban heating.
d) to reduce the ecological, human health, and economic impacts of marine debris.
Ans) d
The Honolulu Strategy is a framework document to address marine debris issues globally. In 2011, the
Fifth International Marine Debris Conference was co-organized by the US National Oceanic and
Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) and the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), which
catalyzed the development of the Honolulu Strategy.
The Honolulu Strategy aims to address the issue of marine debris. It provides a comprehensive
approach to reduce the ecological, human health, and economic impacts of marine debris
worldwide.
The strategy serves as a framework document that does not replace or override the efforts of
national authorities, municipalities, industry, international organizations, or other stakeholders.
Instead, it acts as a central reference for enhancing collaboration and coordination among the diverse
global stakeholders dedicated to addressing marine debris.
The strategy aims to:
1) Minimize land-based litter and solid waste entering the marine environment.
2) Minimize sea-based sources of marine debris, including solid waste, lost cargo, Abandoned, lost,
or otherwise discarded fishing gear (ALDFG) and abandoned vessels.
3) Minimize the accumulation of marine debris on shorelines, in benthic habitats, and in pelagic
waters.
Source: https://marinedebris.noaa.gov/sites/default/files/publications-
files/Honolulu_Strategy.pdf
Subtopic:) Legislative and Institutional Measures
Q.4) With reference to the effects of Acid rain, consider the following statements:
1. It can alter the composition of soil.
2. It damages architectural structures by corroding metal and hastening the degradation of paint and
stone.
3. It can cause respiratory issues in humans and animals.
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4. It enhances the ability of trees at higher latitudes to endure freezing temperatures by improving
their energy absorption capacity.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Ans) c
When the pH of the rainwater drops below 5.6, it is called Acid Rain. Acid rain occurs when acidic
substances from the atmosphere are deposited onto the Earth's surface. Oxides of nitrogen and
Sulphur which are acidic in nature often transported by the wind along with solid particles in the
atmosphere, eventually settle as either dry deposition on the ground or as wet deposition in water,
fog, and snow.
Statement 1 is correct: The arrival of acidic rainwater on the Earth's surface has the potential to
extract aluminum from soil clay particles. Along with aluminum, many other nutrients can get
leached away. This will have a negative effect on the nutrient level of the soil. Thus, it has an impact of
overall altering the composition of the soil.
Statement 2 is correct: The acidic elements of acid rain corrode metals, weaken stone, and harm
paint, hastening the decay of historical buildings and monuments. For instance, acid rain in the
vicinity of the Taj Mahal exacerbates this issue. The acid rain reacts with the marble of the Taj Mahal,
causing damage to this magnificent monument that has drawn people from across the globe.
Consequently, the monument is gradually losing its original form, with the marble becoming
discolored and losing its luster.
Statement 3 is correct: Acid rain can cause respiratory issues in humans and animals.
Statement 4 is incorrect: The deposition of acidic particles on tree leaves doesn't enhance the tree's
ability to absorb sunlight; instead, it hinders the absorption process and inhibits growth. In the high
latitude regions, acidic fog and clouds may strip nutrients from tree leaves, resulting in brown or dead
leaves. Weakened by this process, the trees become less capable of absorbing sunlight, making them
vulnerable and less able to endure freezing temperatures.
Source: https://www.epa.gov/acidrain/effects-acid-rain
https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/kech207.pdf
Q.5) With reference to the agents of indoor air pollution and their sources, consider the following
pairs:
Indoor air Pollutants Major source
1. Formaldehyde Soil and rocks

beneath buildings
2. Radon Furnitures
3. Volatile organic Paints

compounds
4. Carbon Monoxide Burning of

Charcoal
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How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Indoor air pollution refers to the contamination of indoor air with harmful pollutants that can
adversely affect the health of occupants. This type of pollution is commonly associated with the
presence of various pollutants in enclosed spaces, such as homes, offices, schools, and other indoor
environments.
Pair 1 is incorrect: Formaldehyde can be found in building materials, household products, use of un-
vented, fuel-burning appliances, like gas stoves etc. and it can be released into the air and cause
respiratory issues. Formaldehyde-based resins are used as adhesives and impregnating resins in the
manufacture of particleboard, plywood, furniture and other wood products.
Pair 2 is incorrect: Radon is a natural product of the environment that moves freely through the air,
groundwater, and surface water. Radon gas escapes from rocks and soils into the air and tends to
concentrate in enclosed spaces such as houses and underground mines. The burning of coal and
other fossil fuels also releases radon.
Pair 3 is correct: Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs) are emitted as gases from solids or liquids and
include various chemicals, some with potential short- and long-term health effects. Indoors, VOC
concentrations can be up to ten times higher than outdoors, primarily originating from paints,
solvents, cleaning products, and certain building materials.
Pair 4 is correct: Carbon monoxide (CO) results from incomplete combustion of fossil fuels,
including charcoal. Widely used in restaurant kitchens for cooking, charcoal combustion produces
substantial CO. In Japan, cases of CO poisoning among cooks and waitstaff from burning charcoal
occur annually. Determining the precise ventilation needed to prevent CO buildup is challenging due
to the lack of established CO generation rates from burning charcoal.
Source:
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK493462/#:~:text=particle%2Dboard%2C%20plywood%2C
-,furniture,-and%20other%20wood
https://www.atsdr.cdc.gov/csem/radon/where_found.html
https://www.epa.gov/indoor-air-quality-iaq/volatile-organic-compounds-impact-indoor-air-
quality#:~:text=Volatile%20organic%20compounds%20(VOCs)%20are,ten%20times%20higher)%20th
an%20outdoors.
https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/21372432/#:~:text=at%20some%20restaurants%2C-,generates,-
a%20significant%20amount
Q.6) Consider the following statements regarding the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016:
1. The responsibility of segregating waste at the source lies with Municipal authorities.
2. It emphasizes on on-site processing of biodegradable waste through composting or bio-
methanation.
3. Landfilling is prohibited for all types of waste.
4. Companies/developers of the Special Economic Zones are exempt from the application of these
rules.
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a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Solid waste encompasses everyday items classified into three main categories within municipal solid
waste: garbage, consisting of highly decomposable objects like food; trash, comprising bulky items
such as tree branches or old appliances; and rubbish, including slowly compostable items like paper,
glass, or metal objects.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The rules necessitate waste generators (not Municipal authorities) to
segregate waste into three categories: Wet (Biodegradable), Dry (Plastic, Paper, metal, wood, etc.),
and domestic hazardous wastes (diapers, napkins, empty containers of cleaning agents, mosquito
repellents, etc.). Generators are required to hand over segregated wastes to authorized rag-pickers,
waste collectors, or local bodies, as outlined in the Responsibilities of Generators.
Statement 2 is correct: The Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016, necessitates on-site processing
of biodegradable waste through composting or bio-methanation when possible, to minimize landfill
burden and promote resource recovery. The residual waste shall be given to the waste collectors or
agency as directed by the local authority.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The rules only prohibit the disposal of non-recyclable waste with a
calorific value of 1500 K/cal/kg or more in landfills. Thus, landfilling is prohibited for all types of
waste is incorrect.
Statement 4 is incorrect: The rules mandate that developers of Special Economic Zones allocate at
least 5% of the total area of the plot or minimum 5 plots/ sheds for waste recovery and recycling
facilities.
Source: https://vikaspedia.in/energy/environment/waste-management/solid-waste-management-
rules
https://cpcb.nic.in/uploads/MSW/Salient_features_SWM_Rules.pdf
Q.7) Consider the following statements with reference to National Disaster Management Act, 2005:
1. The act defines the term „disaster‟.
2. It designates the Prime Minister‟s Office (PMO) as the nodal agency for steering the overall
national disaster management.
3. For any violation of the provisions of the act, it provides for civil and criminal penalties.
4. National Executive Committee established under the act is chaired by the Prime Minister of India.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Ans) b
Exp) option b is the correct answer.
The National Disaster Management Act, 2005, is a comprehensive piece of legislation enacted by the
Government of India to establish a system for efficient and effective management of disasters
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throughout the country. It aims to minimize the loss of life and property caused by natural hazards
such as earthquakes, floods, cyclones, droughts, and other calamities.
Statement 1 is correct: Definition of a “disaster” in Section 2 (d) of the National Disaster
Management Act, 2005 states that a disaster means a “catastrophe, mishap, calamity or grave
occurrence in any area, arising from natural or man-made causes.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The National Disaster Management Act, 2005 designates the Ministry of
Home Affairs (MHA) as the nodal ministry for steering the overall national disaster management. This
means that the MHA plays a central role in coordinating and overseeing all aspects of disaster
management in India, from preparedness and prevention to response and recovery.
Statement 3 is correct: The National Disaster Management Act, 2005, does indeed lay down various
civil and criminal liabilities for violating its provisions. This is crucial for ensuring that everyone
involved in disaster management, from individuals to government officials, takes their responsibilities
seriously and adheres to the established guidelines.
Statement 4 is incorrect: The NEC is composed of senior officials from various ministries and
agencies involved in disaster management, including:
1) Home Secretary (Chairperson)
2) Secretaries from key ministries like Defense, Finance, Health, Agriculture, Water Resources, etc.
3) Representatives from relevant agencies like the National Disaster Response Force (NDRF), Indian
Meteorological Department (IMD), Geological Survey of India (GSI), etc.
4) The Chief of Integrated Defense Staff of the Chiefs of Staff Committee, ex-officio, is also a
member.
Source: https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/66470/1/B-2U-5.pdf
https://www.indiacode.nic.in/bitstream/123456789/2045/1/AAA2005___53.pdf
https://ndma.gov.in/sites/default/files/PDF/DM_act2005.pdf
https://ndmindia.mha.gov.in/constitution
Q.8) Bioremediation is a process that uses living organisms to remove pollutants from a contaminated
environment. In this context, consider the following bioremediation techniques and their nature:
Process Description
1. Biosparging Injects pressurized air

into a contaminated
zone to stimulate the
biological activity of
microorganisms.
2. Bioaugmentation Stimulates native

microbes by introducing
nutrients and oxygen to
contaminated zones.
3. Bioventing Introduces specialized

microbes to degrade
specific pollutants in
contaminated
environments.
4. Biopiles Treats contaminated soil

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by combining it with
soils enriched with
enhanced
microorganism activity.
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Ans) b
Bioremediation is a process that uses living organisms, such as bacteria or plants, to remove
pollutants from a contaminated environment, typically soil or water. The organisms involved in
bioremediation can break down or transform pollutants into less harmful substances through natural
metabolic processes.
Pair 1 is correct: Biosparging involves injecting pressurized air into a contaminated zone. The
pressurized air stimulates the biological activity of microorganisms already present in the
environment. This technique is designed to boost the existing microbial community's capability to
degrade pollutants, thereby facilitating the remediation process.
Pair 2 is incorrect: Bioaugmentation is a technique that introduces specialized microbes into
contaminated environments. These microbes are selected for their ability to degrade specific
pollutants. By introducing these tailored microorganisms, the process aims to enhance the natural
degradation of targeted contaminants, especially in groundwater.
Pair 3 is incorrect: Bioventing involves the process of encouraging native microbes by supplying air
or oxygen through low-pressure injection, favoring aerobic degradation of contaminants.
Pair 4 is correct: Biopiles involve combining soils with enhanced microorganism activity with the
contaminated soil for treatment. The enriched soils typically contain beneficial microorganisms that
can accelerate the degradation of pollutants. The contaminated soil is mixed with these biologically
active materials in piles, creating conditions favorable for microbial remediation.
Source: Forum IAS red book Environment - Chapter: ENVIRONMENTAL CHALLENGES
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Q.9) A landslide is a geological phenomenon involving the downward movement of rock, soil, and
debris. In this context, consider the following factors:
1. The presence of a significant number of glaciers.
2. The event of sporadic rainfall.
3. Steep slopes of the mountains.
How many of the above factors are exclusive to the Himalayas, distinguishing it from the Western
Ghats, as the primary driving force behind the landslide hazard?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Ans) a
Option 1 is correct: Presence of a significant number of glaciers is exclusive to the Himalayas, in
comparison to Western Ghats. The Western Ghats lack significant glaciers, while the Himalayas hold
extensive glacial ice, which contributes to landslide risk through melting and glacial lake outbursts.
Option 2 is incorrect: Both the Himalayas and Western Ghats experience the event of sporadic
rainfall and driving landslides in the respective regions. Hence, this is not a factor that differentiates
between the Himalayas and the Western Ghats, in the context of driving force of landslide hazard.
Option 3 is incorrect: Both the Himalayas and the Western Ghats have steep slopes, which
contribute to landslide risk in both regions. This factor, despite being significant, is not exclusive to
the Himalayas.
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/kegy107.pdf
https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/25182/1/Unit-11.pdf
Q.10) Consider the following pollutants:

1. Sulphur Dioxide
2. Carbon Dioxide
3. Ammonia
4. Ozone
5. Nickel
6. Arsenic
How many of the pollutants mentioned above are considered in calculating the National Air Quality
Index (NAQI)?
a) Only three
b) Only four
c) Only five
d) All six
Ans) a
The National Air Quality Index simplifies air quality data into an easily understandable single index
value with color-coded categories (Good, Satisfactory, moderately polluted, Poor, Very Poor, and
Severe) based on pollutant concentrations and associated health impacts. The index is computed by
the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) under power conferred to them by the Air (Prevention
and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.
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Options 1, 3 and 4 are correct: Following are air pollutants are included in the NAQI:
1) Particulate Matter 10 (PM10)
2) Particulate Matter 2.5 (PM2.5)
3) Nitrogen Dioxide (NO2)
4) Sulphur Dioxide (SO2)
5) Carbon Monoxide (CO)
6) Ozone (O3)
7) Ammonia (NH3)
8) Lead (Pb)
Option 2 is incorrect: Carbon dioxide (CO2) is not included in the NAQI. Unlike other pollutants,
CO2 at typical ambient levels is essential for humans and to sustain the biodiversity of earth.
Option 5 and 6 are incorrect: Benzene, Benzopyrene, Arsenic and Nickel are included in the
National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS), but not in the National Air Quality Index (NAQI).
Ambient air quality refers to the condition or quality of air surrounding us outdoors. NAAQS are the
standards for ambient air quality set by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) that are applicable
nationwide.
Source:
https://cpcb.nic.in/displaypdf.php?id=bmF0aW9uYWwtYWlyLXF1YWxpdHktaW5kZXgvQWJvdXRfQ
VFJLnBkZg==
http://www.arthapedia.in/index.php/Ambient_Air_Quality_Standards_in_India
Q.11) Among the following crops, which one is the most important anthropogenic source of both
methane and nitrous oxide?
a) Cotton
b) Rice
c) Sugarcane
d) Wheat
Ans) b
Methane and nitrous oxide are important greenhouse gases. They contribute to global warming.
Important anthropogenic sources of biogenic methane are wet rice fields, cattle, animal waste,
landfills and biomass burning.
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Flooded rice cultivation has been identified as one of the leading global agricultural sources of
anthropogenic methane (CH4) emissions. Furthermore, it has been estimated that global rice
production is responsible for 11% of total anthropogenic CH4 emissions.
Paddies are a potential source of anthropogenic nitrous oxide (N2O) emission as well. In paddies,
both the soil and the rice plants emit N2O into the atmosphere. The rice plant in the paddy is
considered to act as a channel between the soil and the atmosphere for N2O emission.
Q.12) With reference to Blue Flag Beach Certification, consider the following statements:
1. It was initiated by the Copenhagen-based Foundation for Environmental Education in 1985 in
France.
2. Under the programme, the certification is awarded only to the beaches.
3. In India, the state of Goa and Kerala has the maximum number of beaches certified as Blue Flag
Beach.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Ans) a
Blue Flag Beach Certification is an internationally recognised eco-label that is accorded based on 33
criteria. These criteria are divided into 4 major heads namely, Environmental education and
information; Bathing water quality; Environmental management; Conservation and safety services in
the beaches.
Statement 1 is correct: Blue Flag programme was initiated by the Foundation for Environmental
Education (FEE), a non-profit organization that promotes sustainable development and
environmental education. The Foundation for Environmental Education (FEE), based in Copenhagen,
awarded the first Blue Flag to a beach in France in 1985. The programme then expanded to other
European countries and later to other regions of the world.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Blue Flag certification is not only for beaches, but also for marinas and
sustainable boat tourism operators that meet the required standards of environmental, educational,
safety, and accessibility criteria. The certification is awarded by an international jury consisting of
members of the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), United Nations World Tourism
Organisation (UNWTO), Denmark-based NGO Foundation for Environmental Education (FEE), and
International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).
Statement 3 is incorrect: India has 12 Blue Flag beaches. The state of Karnataka and Union Territory
of Lakshadweep has two beaches each recognized as Blue Flag beaches. While Goa does not have a
single beach recognised under the Blue Flag Certification Programme and Kerala has one beach
(Kappad Beach) recognised under the Blue Flag Certification Programme.
Knowledge Base:
India has 12 Blue Flag beaches, an eco-label given to the cleanest beaches in the world. They are:
Golden Beach – Odisha
Padubidri Beach – Karnataka
Shivrajpur Beach – Gujarat
Rushikonda Beach – Andhra Pradesh
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Kappad Beach – Kerala

Kovalam Beach – Tamil Nadu
Ghoghla Beach – Diu
Eden Beach – Puducherry
Radhanagar Beach – Andaman and Nicobar
Minicoy Thundi Beach – Lakshadweep
Kasarkod Beach – Karnataka
Kadmat Beach – Lakshadweep
Source: https://beachawards.ie/blue-flag/sites-2-2/
https://wwfeu.awsassets.panda.org/downloads/blue_flag_criteria___beaches___marinas.pdf
https://pib.gov.in/pressreleaseiframepage.aspx?prid=1756806
Forum IAS, Environment Redbook
Ch-2, Pg-24
Q.13) Consider the following effects:

1. Inhibit growth and development
2. Reduced ability to swim
3. Increased rate of reproductive cycle
How many of the above effects are seen in marine organisms due to micro plastic pollution?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Ans) b
Microplastic pollution is a serious environmental problem that affects both marine and terrestrial
organisms. Microplastics are small plastic particles (< 5 mm) that can originate from various sources,
such as the breakdown of larger plastic debris, the use of personal care products, the wear and tear of
synthetic fabrics, and the improper disposal of plastic waste.
Option 1 is correct: Inhibition in the growth and development is seen in some marine organisms,
such as fish, crustaceans, and mollusks, that ingest microplastics and experience reduced feeding,
energy balance, and metabolism.
Option 2 is correct: Reduction in the ability to swim is seen in some marine organisms, such as fish
and zooplankton, that ingest microplastics and experience reduced mobility, buoyancy, and
performance.
Option 3 is incorrect: Increased rate of reproductive cycle is not seen in marine organisms due to
microplastic pollution. On the contrary, microplastics can impair the reproduction of marine
organisms by affecting their endocrine system, gamete quality, and fertility.
Source: https://iopscience.iop.org/article/10.1088/1755-
1315/631/1/012006/pdf#:~:text=Marine%20microplastics%20will%20affect%20many,oxidative%20d
amage%20and%20abnormal%20behavior.
https://www.iucn.org/resources/issues-brief/marine-plastic-pollution
https://www.intechopen.com/chapters/85511
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Q.14) With reference to Tsunami, consider the following statements:

Statement I: Arrival of successive crests is a feature of Tsunami that wreak destruction near the
coast.
Statement II: The energy associated with the tsunami is spread out over a large area in the open
ocean.
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I.
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for
Statement-I.
c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.
d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.
Ans) b
A tsunami is a series of waves that are generated by an underwater disturbance, such as an
earthquake, volcanic eruption, or landslide
Statement I is correct: Tsunamis can travel thousands of kilometers with speeds up to 800
kilometers per hour. Once they reach the coast, they can have devastating impacts on the community.
Successive crests can arrive at intervals of every 10 to 45 minutes and wreak destruction for several
hours.
Statement II is correct but doesn‟t correctly explain statement II: In the open ocean, the water is
deep, and tsunamis are characterized by long wavelengths and low amplitudes. As a result, the energy
associated with the tsunami is spread out over a large area, causing the wave to go unnoticed by
ships at sea.
However, it is not the correct reason as tsunami with successive crests, often referred to as a "wave
train" or "wave packet," is typically caused by the constructive interference of multiple waves.
Tsunamis are often triggered by underwater earthquakes, volcanic eruptions, or seafloor
displacement. When these events occur, they generate powerful waves that radiate outward from the
source. The initial wave is followed by a series of secondary waves. It is further aided by wave
dispersion, constructive interference of successive waves, bathymetric features etc. Tsunamis slow
down but grow in size as they come ashore.
Source: https://www.nationalgeographic.com/environment/article/tsunamis
https://earthweb.ess.washington.edu/tsunami/general/physics/transform.html
http://itic.ioc-unesco.org/index.php?option=com_content&view=article&id=1164&Itemid=2031
https://www.who.int/health-topics/tsunamis#tab=tab_1
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Q.15) Which of the following are the reasons/factors for exposure to benzene pollution?
1. Automobile exhaust
2. Tobacco smoke
3. Wood burning
4. Using varnished wooden furniture
5. Using products made of polyurethane
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Ans) a
Benzene is a colourless liquid with a sweet Odour. It evaporates into the air very quickly and dissolves
slightly in water. It is highly flammable. Human exposure to benzene has been associated with a range
of acute and long-term adverse health effects and diseases, including cancer and aplastic anaemia.
Option 1 is correct. Automobile exhaust accounts for the largest source of benzene in the general
environment.
Option 2 is correct. Active and passive exposure to tobacco smoke is also a significant source of
exposure. Benzene is highly volatile, and exposure occurs mostly through inhalation.
Option 3 is correct. Benzene is one of the main organic compounds emitted by wood-burning, that
has the potential to cause cancer.
Options 4 and 5 are incorrect. Varnished wooden furniture and products made of polyurethane may
also contain benzene, but they are not a source of exposure of benzene.
Q.16) Consider the following statements:

Statement 1: Ionizing radiation is more harmful to humans than non-ionizing radiation.
Statement 2: Most of the ionizing radiation comes from radioactive materials.
Statement-I
Statement-I
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Ans) b
Ionizing radiation and non-ionizing radiation refer to two broad categories of electromagnetic
radiation based on their energy levels. The key distinction between the two lies in the ability of
ionizing radiation to remove tightly bound electrons from atoms, leading to ionization, while non-
ionizing radiation lacks this ability.
Statement I is correct: Ionizing radiation is more harmful to humans than non-ionizing radiation.
Ionizing radiation, such as X-rays and gamma rays, has higher energy levels and the ability to ionize
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atoms, leading to potential damage to biological tissues, including DNA. This makes ionizing radiation
more hazardous to human health compared to non-ionizing radiation.
Statement II is correct: Most of the ionizing radiation on Earth comes from radioactive materials,
either natural or manmade. Ionizing radiation can be generated by natural sources such as radon
gas, as well as by human-made sources such as nuclear power plants, X-ray machines, and certain
medical procedures. Radioactive materials are a common source of ionizing radiation.
However, Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I. The harmfulness of ionizing
radiation is not dependent on its origin, but on its energy and interaction with the matter.
Source: https://www.epa.gov/radiation/radiation-basics
https://www.arpansa.gov.au/understanding-radiation/what-is-radiation/ionising-
radiation#:~:text=It%20has%20more%20energy%20than,cause%20damage%20to%20living%20tissue
https://www.nature.com/scitable/blog/our-science/be_cautious_about_radiation_not/
Q.17) With reference to the categorization of industrial sectors in India on the basis of the Pollution
Index by the MoEFCC, consider the following pairs:
Categories Associated sector
1. White Category Sugar and Dairy
industries
2. Green Category Ayurvedic and
homeopathic
medicines
3. Orange Category Cotton spinning
and weaving
4. Red Category Fertilizers
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Ans) c
The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) has categorized industrial sectors
into White, Green, Orange and Red industries based on the Pollution Index (PI).
Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: White category includes industrial sectors having PI score of 20 or less.
These industries are practically non-polluting and do not require Environment Clearance (EC) or
Consent from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) or the State Pollution Control Boards
(SPCBs). They also get financial benefits from lending institutions. There are 192 existing industries in
this category, such as solar power, wind power, mini hydel power, etc. The pair of White Category
and Sugar and Dairy industries is incorrect, because these industries have a higher pollution index
score than 60 and belong to the Red Category (Industrial sectors having PI score of 60 and above).
Pair 2 is correctly matched: Green category includes industrial sectors having PI score of 21 to 40.
These industries do not require EC, but only Consent from the CPCB or the SPCBs. There are 91
existing industries in this category, such as food processing, printing, soap, Ayurvedic and
homeopathic medicines etc.
Pair 3 is correctly matched: Orange category includes industrial sectors having PI score of 41 to 59.
These industries require EC and Consent from the CPCB or the SPCBs, but with less stringent
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conditions than the Red category. There are 83 existing industries in this category, such as
automobile, textile, paper, Cotton spinning and weaving etc.
Pair 4 is correctly matched: Red category includes industrial sectors having PI score of 60 and above.
These industries require EC and Consent from the CPCB or the SPCBs, but with more stringent
conditions than the Green category. It includes examples like Cement, thermal power plants,
fertilizers etc.
Knowledge Base:
Category based on the Pollution Index (PI) and the associated criteria:
Red Category Orange Category Green Category White Category

1) PI Score: 60 and 1) PI Score: 41 to 59. 1) PI Score: 21 to 40. 1) PI Score: 20 or less.
above. 2) Requirements: 2) Requirements: 2) Requirements: No
2) Requirements: Environmental Consent from CPCB Environmental
Environmental Clearance (EC) or SPCBs (No Clearance or
Clearance (EC) and Consent from Environmental Consent needed.
and Consent CPCB or SPCBs. Clearance needed). 3) Stringency: Minimal
from CPCB or 3) Stringency: Less 3) Stringency: regulatory
SPCBs. stringent Relatively lower requirements.
3) Stringency: conditions regulatory 4) Examples: Solar
Highest level of compared to the requirements power, wind power,
regulatory Red category. compared to the mini hydel power.
scrutiny. 4) Examples: Red and Orange
4) Examples: Automobile, categories.
Cement, thermal textile, paper. 4) Examples: Food
power plants, processing,
fertilizers. printing, soap.
Source:
https://cpcb.nic.in/openpdffile.php?id=TGF0ZXN0RmlsZS9MYXRlc3RfMTE4X0ZpbmFsX0RpcmVjdGl
vbnMucGRm
https://www.vikaspedia.in/energy/policy-support/environment-1/environment-ministry-
releases-new-categorisation-of-industries
Forum IAS, Environment Redbook
Ch-2, Pg-25
Q.18) Consider the following:

1. In-situ Burning
2. Hot Water and High-Pressure Washing
3. Using Bregoli as a sorbent
4. Spraying Dispersal Chemicals
How many of the above methods can be used for oil spill cleanup at sea?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Ans) d
An oil spill refers to any uncontrolled release of crude oil, gasoline, fuels, or other oil by-
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products into the environment. Oil spills can pollute land, air, or water, though it is mostly used for
oceanic oil spills. Some of the methods to clean up oil spills are:
Option 1 is correct: In the method of Burning In-situ, the oil floating on the surface is ignited to burn
it off. This in-situ burning of oil can effectively remove up to 98% of an oil spill, which is more than
most of the other methods.
Option 2 is correct: Hot water and high-pressure washing is a method of using hot water or high-
pressure jets to remove oil from rocks, beaches, or other surfaces. It can be effective in removing oil,
but it can also damage the environment by eroding the soil, killing plants, or dispersing oil into the
water.
Option 3 is correct: Oil spills can be cleared with the help of „Bregoli‟ (a by-product of paper industry
resembling saw dust). It is capable of absorbing any oil or fluid spilled on hard or water surfaces.
Sorbents are materials that absorb or adsorb oil, such as straw, peat moss, or synthetic fibers. They
can be used as loose particles, mats, or booms.
Option 4 is correct: Dispersants are chemicals that break down the oil into smaller droplets, making
it easier for natural degradation by bacteria and waves. They can be sprayed from planes, boats, or
hoses, but they can also have negative effects on marine life and water quality.
Source: Forum IAS, Environment Redbook
Ch-2, Pg-21
https://www.marineinsight.com/environment/10-methods-for-oil-spill-cleanup-at-
sea/#4_Burning_In-situ
https://www.sciencedaily.com/releases/2013/02/130225112350.htm
Q.19) Consider the following degradations of environment:

1. Contamination of groundwater
2. Soil erosion and sinking of land
3. Release of air pollutants
How many of the above can be considered as consequences of Lithium mining?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Ans) c
Recently, Geological Survey of India (GSI) announced the discovery of 5.9 million tonnes of lithium in
the Salal-Haimana area of Jammu and Kashmir. However, Lithium mining can have negative
environmental impacts, including:
Option 1 is correct: Lithium mining involves the use of toxic chemicals such as sulfuric acid and
sodium hydroxide to extract lithium from brine or ore. These chemicals can leak into the
groundwater and contaminate it, posing a threat to the health and livelihood of the local
communities. Moreover, lithium mining also requires a large amount of water, which can deplete the
groundwater resources and create water scarcity in the arid regions.
Option 2 is correct: Lithium mining involves the removal of topsoil and vegetation to access the
mineral deposits. This can cause soil erosion and loss of biodiversity, as well as increase the risk of
landslides and floods. Additionally, lithium mining can also cause subsidence or sinking of land due to
the extraction of brine or ore from underground. This can damage the infrastructure and property of
the nearby areas.
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Option 3 is correct: Lithium mining involves the mining of lithium-bearing minerals, which can
generate dust, carbon dioxide, and sulfur dioxide as by-products. Industry estimates suggest that this
process consumes 170 cubic meters of water and releases 15 tonnes of CO2 for every tonne of Li
extracted.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/explained-why-indias-lithium-discovery-is-
fraught-with-social-and-environmental-risks/article66507035.ece
https://energy.economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/power/india-faces-uphill-battle-in-lithium-
mining-and-exploration/107003624
Q.20) With reference to Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), consider the following statements:
1. It is a statutory organization established under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution)
Act, 1974.
2. One of the primary mandates of CPCB includes promoting cleanliness of streams and wells in
different areas of the country to prevent water pollution.
3. It is mandated to act as the investigative wing of the National Green Tribunal (NGT).
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Ans) b
The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) is an organization in India that plays a key role in
environmental management and pollution control.
Statement 1 is correct: Central Pollution Control Board is a statutory organization under the
Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (Mo.E.F.C.C.) of India. It was established in 1974
under the Water (Prevention and Control of pollution) Act, 1974. It also has the powers and
functions under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.
Statement 2 is correct: One of the key responsibilities of the CPCB is to promote cleanliness of
streams and wells in different areas of the country, with a focus on preventing water pollution. The
CPCB formulates policies and guidelines for the prevention and control of water pollution.
Statement 3 is incorrect: While the CPCB is involved in various activities related to environmental
protection, including monitoring and assessment, it does not act as the investigative wing of the
National Green Tribunal (NGT). The NGT is a separate statutory body responsible for adjudicating
environmental disputes and enforcing environmental laws.
Source: Forum IAS, Environment Redbook
Ch-2, Pg-21
https://cpcb.nic.in/functions/
Q.21) Why is there a concern about copper smelting plants?

1. They may release lethal quantities of carbon monoxide into environment.
2. The copper slag can cause the leaching of some heavy metals into environment.
3. They may release sulphur dioxide as a pollutant.
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a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans) b
Statement 1 is incorrect. In copper smelting process, first, the carbon (C) combusts with oxygen (O 2)
in the air to produce carbon monoxide (CO). Second, the carbon monoxide reacts with the ore and
removes one of its oxygen atoms, releasing carbon dioxide. Hence, it does not release lethal quantity
of CO in the environment.
Statement 2 is correct. Copper smelters emit staggering amounts of toxic pollution i.e., lead, arsenic
and selenium. These heavy metals and particulate matter from copper smelters contaminate the
environment downwind and downstream.
Statement 3 is correct. Copper smelters are the largest source of sulphur oxides (SOx) and trace
elements. Suspended particles have a pollution scope of 2-3 km, while Sulphur dioxide has a range of
as much as 15 km.

“This is one of the phytoremediation techniques that use metal-tolerant plant species to prevent the
leaching of heavy metals into the groundwater. This helps in reducing the bioavailability of heavy
metals in the soil. One of the key advantages of this method is that disposal of hazardous biomass is
not needed when compared with other techniques of phytoremediation.”
Which of the following methods of phytoremediation has been discussed in the above statements?
a) Phytoextraction
b) Phytotransformation
c) Phytostabilization
d) Phytodegradation
Ans) c
Phytoremediation is an environmentally sustainable technique that employs plants to mitigate and
remediate soil contaminated by pollutants. This approach harnesses the unique ability of certain
plants to absorb, accumulate, or transform contaminants, contributing to the restoration of
ecosystems.
Option a is incorrect: Phytoextraction involves the use of plants to absorb and accumulate
pollutants, particularly metals, from the soil into their tissues. This process is often used for
hyperaccumulating plants that have a high capacity to accumulate specific contaminants.
Phytoextraction focuses on actively extracting metals from the soil, whereas Phyto stabilization
focuses on preventing leaching and dispersion of heavy metals rather than actively extracting them.
Option b is incorrect: Phytotransformation refers to the transformation or breakdown of
contaminants by plants into less toxic forms. This involves uptake of organic contaminants from soil
by plants and their transformation into less toxic forms. This process involves biochemical reactions
within the plant tissues. However, the provided statements do not discuss the transformation of
contaminants by plants; instead, they emphasize immobilization and containment to prevent
environmental dispersion.
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Option c is correct: Phytostabilization involves using metal-tolerant plant species, to immobilize

and contain contaminants, particularly heavy metals, within the soil. The primary goal is to stabilize
pollutants in place, preventing their leaching into groundwater and the dispersion of contaminated
soil. One of the advantages of phytostabilization is that disposal of hazardous biomass is not
required when compared with phytoextraction. Thus, the statements align with the characteristics of
phytostabilization, including the use of metal-tolerant plants and the prevention of leaching and
dispersion.
Statement d is incorrect: Phytodegradation involves the breakdown or degradation of organic
contaminants by plants, often through the action of enzymes produced by plant roots or associated
microorganisms. The description provided does not focus on degradation but rather on the
immobilization and containment of heavy metals. Hence, the given option is incorrect.
Source: Forum IAS, Environment Redbook (Ch-2, Pg-25)
https://www.frontiersin.org/articles/10.3389/fpls.2020.00359/full#:~:text=metal%2Dpolluted%20s
oil.-,Phytostabilization,et%20al.%2C%202009).
Q.23) Consider the following statements regarding the torrefaction technology of waste treatment:
1. It removes volatile organic compounds from waste by heating them in the absence of oxygen.
2. This process enhances the energy density of the biomass and turns them into „bio-coal‟.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans) c
Torrefaction is a newly emerging technique for biochar production. The oxygen, moisture, and
carbon dioxide present in the biomass are removed to produce biochar.
Statement 1 is correct: Torrefaction is a thermal treatment process applied to biomass in the
absence of oxygen. It involves heating the biomass material at a moderate temperature (typically
between 200-300°C) to remove moisture and volatile organic compounds. The goal is to enhance
the physical and energy properties of biomass, making it more suitable for various applications,
including energy production.
Statement 2 is correct: Torrefaction can be used to convert various types of biomasses, including
rice stubble, into a form often referred to as 'bio-coal' or torrefied biomass. The process not only
reduces moisture content but also increases the energy density of the biomass.
https://www.sciencedirect.com/topics/agricultural-and-biological-
sciences/torrefaction#:~:text=Torrefaction%20is%20a%20thermochemical%20process,homogeneou
s%20composition%20and%20so%20forth.
Q.24) Fly-ash is primarily composed of Aluminum silicate, Silicon dioxide and Calcium oxide. In this
context, consider the following options regarding the applications of „fly-ash‟:
1. It can be used as an insecticide to protect the crops.
2. It can be used to manufacture light-weight bricks.
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3. It can be used as a geopolymer which acts as a cement-like product.

4. It can be used as a photocatalyst to remove dyes from wastewater.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Ans) d
Fly ash is primarily composed of fine particles that are carried away in the flue gas during the
combustion of coal. It is generally composed of components like aluminum silicate, silicon dioxide,
calcium oxide, and other trace elements.
Statement 1 is correct: Dusting vegetables and rice with fly ash provides effective protection
against chewing and sucking pests and insects. It is especially useful in managing serious rice pests
such as leaf folder, yellow caterpillar, spiny beetle, ear head bug, brown bug, black bug, and
grasshoppers. Additionally, fly ash helps eliminate sucking pests like brown plant hopper (BPH) and
green leafhopper (GLH) when incorporated into their diet in liquid form.
Statement 2 is correct: Fly ash bricks are desirable because of their lightweight as compared to the
traditionally manufactured bricks. Apart from being lightweight, these bricks possess high strength.
Statement 3 is correct: Fly ash is commonly used as a raw material in the production of geopolymers,
which are cement-like materials. Geopolymers have applications in construction, serving as
alternatives to traditional Portland cement.
Statement 4 is correct: Fly ash can be used as a photocatalyst for the removal of dyes and other
pollutants from wastewater. The porous structure of fly ash can enhance its photocatalytic
properties.
Source:
https://indiaagronet.com/indiaagronet/Technology_Upd/tech_insecticides.htm#:~:text=Fly%20as
h%20when%20dusted%20on,Dr.
Forum IAS, Environment Redbook (Ch-2, Pg-21)
https://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/abs/pii/S0360544220301766
Q.25) With reference to Central Ground Water Board (CGWB), consider the following statements:
1. It was established under the Environmental Protection Act, 1986.
2. It develops policies for the effective use of India‟s groundwater resources in a sustainable manner.
2. It is the nodal agency for overall implementation of Atal Bhujal Yojana.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Ans) a
Statement 1 is incorrect: Central Ground Water Board was established in 1970 by renaming the
Exploratory Tube Wells Organization under the Ministry of Agriculture, Government of India.
Statement 2 is correct: The primary objectives of the CGWB are:
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1) To develop groundwater policies, programmes and practices to monitor and enable effective use
of the country‟s ground water resources in a sustainable manner with active involvement of all
stakeholders.
2) To put into place scientific system and practices, which would result in sustained increase in
ground water use efficiency.
3) To disseminate information, skills and knowledge, which would help in capacity building and mass
awareness in the ground water sector.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The National Program Management Unit (NPMU) established in the
Department of Water Resources, River Development & Ganga Rejuvenation (DoWR, RD&GR),
Ministry of Jal Shakti is responsible for the overall management and implementation of Atal Bhujal
Yojana.
Source: https://www.cgwb.gov.in/faq
Q.26) Consider the following statements regarding the Sendai Framework:

1. It has been adopted at the Rio+20 summit held in 2012.
2. India is one of the signatories to this framework.
3. The United Nations Office for Disaster Risk Reduction supports the implementation of this
framework.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Ans) b
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction 2015-2030, commonly
referred to as the Sendai Framework, is related to disaster management. The Sendai Framework was
adopted in the 2015 UN World Conference on Disaster Risk Reduction (WCDRR).
Statement 2 is correct: India is a signatory to the Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction.
India is committed to achieving the 7 goals set under the framework through systematic and
sustainable efforts.
Statement 3 is correct: The Sendai Framework spans the period 2015-2030, emphasizing a 15-year
commitment to work towards the substantial reduction of disaster risk and losses. UNDRR is tasked
to support the implementation, follow-up and review of the Sendai Framework.
Source: https://www.undrr.org/implementing-sendai-framework/what-sendai-framework
Q.27) Consider the following statements regarding the uranium pollution of water:
1. Over-extraction of groundwater may intensify the uranium pollution in the groundwater.
2. Reverse Osmosis can help in removing uranium from contaminated water.
3. Among the Indian states, Punjab is the most adversely affected state by the uranium contamination
of groundwater.
a) Only one
b) Only two
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c) All three
d) None
Ans) c
Uranium contamination of groundwater occurs when uranium, a naturally occurring heavy metal,
leaches into underground water sources. This contamination poses a serious threat to human health,
as prolonged exposure to elevated levels of uranium may lead to kidney damage and other health
concerns.
Statement 1 is correct: The over-extraction of groundwater from aquifers can intensify uranium
contamination. Over-extraction of groundwater lowers the water levels. This leads to increased
concentrations of dissolved minerals in the groundwater, including uranium.
Statement 2 is correct: Reverse osmosis can remove uranium from water very effectively. Reverse
osmosis works by applying pressure to push water through a semipermeable membrane, which
effectively filters out contaminants including uranium ions, heavy metals, and other impurities. The
membrane's fine pores are small enough to trap uranium particles, preventing them from passing
through with the purified water.
Statement 3 is correct: According to the „Groundwater yearbook 2021-2022‟, Punjab is the worst-
affected state in terms of the percentage of wells found to have uranium concentrations of more
than 30 ppb. Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) and the World Health Organization (WHO) have
prescribed the concentration of uranium more than 30ppb as unsafe. Haryana is the second state in
terms of uranium prevalence in groundwater. Groundwater in Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan and
Delhi was also found to have a toxic concentration of uranium.
Source: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/water/groundwater-in-12-indian-states-found-to-
be-contaminated-with-uranium-87096
Q.28) Consider the following statements regarding the „System of Air Quality and Weather
Forecasting and Research (SAFAR):
1. It provides location-specific air quality details of major Indian cities.
2. Apart from pollutants, it also measures the levels of UV radiation.
3. It is an initiative of the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES).
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Ans) c
Statement 1 is correct: SAFAR, the System of Air Quality and Weather Forecasting and Research
measures the air quality of major cities in India. It provides real-time, location-specific air quality
information, including data on various pollutants.
Statement 2 is correct: The pollutants monitored by SAFAR include PM1, PM2.5, PM10, Ozone, CO,
NOx (NO, NO2), SO2, Methane (CH4), non-methane hydrocarbons (NMHC), Volatile Organic
Compounds (VOCs), Benzene, and Mercury. Additionally, meteorological parameters such as levels of
UV Radiation, Rainfall, Temperature, Humidity, Wind speed, Wind direction, and Solar Radiation are
also tracked.
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Statement 3 is correct: SAFAR is an initiative of the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES), Government
of India. It was launched to provide accurate and timely air quality and weather forecasting
information to the public.
Source: http://safar.tropmet.res.in/MONITORING%20SYSTEM-10-3-Details

1. Water with high levels of nitrate raises the risk of developing blue baby syndrome in children.
2. The presence of high levels of nitrogen in a water body can lead to the formation of dead zones in
that water body.
3. Nitrous oxide is a greenhouse gas that has more global warming potential than Carbon dioxide.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Ans) c
Nitrogen, which is a vital macronutrient for most plants, is the most abundant element in the
atmosphere. A little over 78 per cent of dry air on Earth is nitrogen. Nitrogen becomes a pollutant
when the Nitrogen concentration increases above certain limits.
Statement 1 is correct: Water containing elevated levels of nitrate raises the risk of infants developing
methemoglobinemia, commonly referred to as “blue baby syndrome”, which can be fatal. High levels
of nitrate in drinking water can also increase the risk of cancer in adults.
Statement 2 is correct: When the availability of nitrogen compounds in the soil exceeds, the excess
nitrogen often filters into aquatic ecosystems. Excess nitrogen and phosphorus in water bodies
causes a rapid increase of toxic algae, known as algal blooms, which deplete oxygen in water and can
create coastal dead zones affecting underwater life.
Statement 3 is correct: Nitrous oxide (N2O) is a powerful greenhouse gas produced both naturally
and via human activities. Its concentration in the Earth's atmosphere has risen by around 15% since
the Industrial Revolution. Although its concentration in the atmosphere is much smaller than that of
carbon dioxide, N2O is a much more effective greenhouse gas having a GWP of around 290 over a
100-year time span.
https://loksabhadocs.nic.in/Refinput/New_Reference_Notes/English/15072022_173626_10212046
3.pdf

1. Nylon fabrics
2. Asbestos
3. Glass
4. Tannin
5. Sewage
6. Radioactive wastes
How many of the above are considered as non-biodegradable pollutant?
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a) Only three
b) Only four
c) Only five
d) All six
Ans) b
A pollutant is a substance or energy introduced into the environment that has undesired effects, or
adversely affects the usefulness of a resource. Pollutants are classified into many categories, based on
their defining characteristics. One category is that of degradable and non-biodegradable materials.
A Biodegradable Pollutant is one which can be broken down and decomposed back into the
environment by naturally occurring microorganisms
Whereas on the other hand, non-biodegradable pollutants are those that cannot be degraded or
decomposed by microorganisms. They persist in the environment for long times - some years, or
decades or centuries, all the while releasing toxic waste substances. This is why they are considered
as one of the worst types of pollutants.
Option 1 is correct: Nylon is a synthetic fabric. It is a polyamide polymer. It is made using
petrochemicals. So, it is non-biodegradable. On the other hand, natural fibres like cotton, jute, silk,
etc. are biodegradable.
Option 2 is correct: Asbestos is a mineral fiber that is resistant to heat, fire, and chemicals and does
not biodegrade easily. Hence it is non-biodegradable.
Option 3 is correct: Glass, although made of natural elements like silica, soda ash and limestone, is
not biodegradable in its final state. However it is not as bad as other chemically made non-
biodegradable pollutants. This is because even if it takes decades, glass does degrade (just not by
microorganisms, hence not classified as biodegradable) by the action of temperature, pressure,
wind, water, human activities, etc.
Option 4 is incorrect: Tannins are naturally occurring organic compounds. They are complex
chemical substances derived from phenolic acids (sometimes called tannic acid). They are found in
the wood, bark, leaves and fruit of plants as varied as oak, rhubarb, tea, walnut, cranberry, cacao and
grapes. These resulting substances are insoluble and resistant to decomposition, so they have been
used since ancient times for colouring animal skin to make leather products. They are also used in
photography, as mordants in dyeing, clarifying wine and beer by precipitating proteins out of them,
and as astringents in medicine. Although they release organic wastes into the environment which can
be toxic to human health, they can be degraded by microorganisms, and hence are classified as
biodegradable.
Option 5 is incorrect: Sewage is a biodegradable pollutant, which means it can be decomposed by
bacteria or other natural organisms. Sewage consists of human and animal waste, which are organic
matter that can be broken down into carbon dioxide, water, methane, compost, humus, and simple
organic molecules by micro-organisms and other living things by composting, aerobic digestion,
anaerobic digestion or similar processess. Sewage is a type of biodegradable waste, which is a
category of waste that includes any organic matter in waste.
Option 6 is correct: Although radioactive substances are naturally occurring heavy elements like
Uranium, Thorium, Plutonium, etc, the radioactive waste they generate cannot be decomposed by
naturally occurring microorganisms. So, it persists for a long time in the environment, polluting it
with radioactive emissions. So radioactive waste is categorized as non-biodegradable.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/where-does-india-stand-
on-plastic-waste/article29310525.ece
https://ecofreek.com/biodegradable/is-glass-biodegradable/
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https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/where-does-india-stand-on-
plastic-waste/article29310525.ece
https://www.fs.fed.us/wildflowers/ethnobotany/tannins.shtml
Q.31) There is some concern regarding the nanoparticles of some chemical elements that are used by
the industry in the manufacture of various products. Why?
1. They can accumulate in the environment and contaminate water and soil.
2. They can enter the food chains.
3. They can trigger the production of free radicals.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans) d
Statement 1 is correct: Nanoparticles are very small particles, and because of their size, they can
easily move through the environment and into living organisms. They can also accumulate in the
environment over time.
Statement 2 is correct: Nanoparticles can enter the food chain through plants and animals that ingest
them. They can also be absorbed directly into the bloodstream through the skin or lungs. Once inside
the body, nanoparticles can travel to different organs and tissues, where they can cause damage.
Statement 3 is correct: Nanoparticles can interact with cells and trigger the production of free
radicals. Free radicals are unstable molecules that can damage cells. This damage can lead to a
number of health problems, including cancer, heart disease, and Alzheimer‟s disease.
Q.32) Recently, the Landslide Atlas of India was released. In this context, consider the following
statements:
1. It was released by the Ministry of Home Affairs.
2. India is among the top five landslide-prone countries globally.
3. As per the atlas, Rudraprayag district of Uttarakhand state has been ranked first amongst the
districts in terms of exposure to landslides.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Ans) b
The Landslide Atlas of India is a valuable resource for understanding the distribution, types, and
potential risks associated with landslides across the country.
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Statement 1 is incorrect: The Landslide Atlas of India is compiled by the National Remote Sensing
Centre (NRSC) of the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO). The Atlas covers data from 1998 to
2022. It includes information on over 80,000 landslides across 17 states and 2 Union Territories in the
Himalayas and Western Ghats.
Statement 2 is correct: India is considered among the top five landslide-prone countries globally,
where at least one death per 100 sq km is reported in a year due to a landslide event. Rainfall
variability pattern is the single biggest cause for landslides in the country, with the Himalayas and the
Western Ghats remaining highly vulnerable.
Statement 3 is correct: As per the Landslide Atlas of India Rudraprayag district in Uttarakhand state
ranks first in terms of exposure to landslides. It has the highest landslide density in the country,
along with having the highest exposure to total population and number of houses.
Knowledge Base:
Data of Landslide Atlas of India:
1) Excluding snow covered areas, approximately 12.6 per cent of the country‟s geographical land area
(0.42 million sq km) is prone to landslides.
2) As many as 66.5 per cent of the landslides are reported from the North-western Himalayas, about
18.8 per cent from the North-eastern Himalayas, and about 14.7 per cent from the Western Ghats.
3) Nearly half of the country‟s landslide-prone area (0.18 sq km) is located in the states of Assam,
Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Manipur, Tripura and Nagaland. Uttarakhand,
Himachal Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir cover 0.14 million sq km of the total landslide-prone areas,
whereas Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu account for 0.09 million sq km.
4) The number of districts with the maximum landslide exposure are in Arunachal Pradesh (16),
Kerala (14), Uttarakhand and Jammu and Kashmir (13 each), Himachal Pradesh, Assam and
Maharashtra (11 each), Mizoram (8) and Nagaland (7).
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/landslide-atlas-what-
states-regions-are-most-vulnerable-8489965/
https://www.isro.gov.in/Landslide_Atlas_India.html
Q.33) Consider the following Pollutants:

1. Peroxyacetyl nitrate (PAN).
2. Secondary Organic Aerosols
3. Tropospheric Ozone
4. Dichloro-Diphenyl-Trichloroethane (DDT)
5. Formaldehyde
How many among the above can be considered as a Secondary Pollutant?
a) Only two
b) Only three
c) Only four
d) All five
Ans) c
A primary pollutant is a pollutant emitted directly from a source. A secondary pollutant is not directly
emitted as such, but forms when other pollutants (primary pollutants) react in the atmosphere.
Option 1 is correct: Peroxyacetyl nitrate (PAN) is a secondary pollutant. PANs are also referred to as
Acyl Peroxy Nitrates or APN. They are a component of photochemical smog, produced in the
atmosphere when oxidized volatile organic compounds combine with nitrogen dioxide.
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Option 2 is correct: Secondary Organic Aerosols are formed through the oxidation and subsequent
condensation of volatile organic compounds (VOCs) in the atmosphere. It contributes to the
formation of fine particulate matter.
Option 3 is correct: Tropospheric Ozone is a secondary pollutant. It is formed when hydrocarbons
(HC) and nitrogen oxides (NOx) combine in the presence of sunlight.
Option 4 is incorrect: Dichloro-Diphenyl-Trichloroethane (DDT) is a primary pollutant. DDT is
considered a primary pollutant. It is a persistent organic pollutant that can bioaccumulate in the food
chain and have harmful effects on both wildlife and humans
Option 5 is correct: Formaldehyde is formed through the oxidation of volatile organic compounds
(VOCs) in the atmosphere. Formaldehyde is a known air pollutant and can have adverse health effects.
Source:
Forum IAS, Environment Redbook Ch-2, Pg-19
Q.34) With respect to various oxygen demands to decompose matter in aquatic systems, consider the
following statements:
1. Chemical Oxygen Demand measures the total amount of oxygen required to oxidize all organic
matter (biodegradable and non-biodegradable).
2. Biological Oxygen Demand is an indicator of the amount of biodegradable organic matter present
in aquatic systems.
3. In an aquatic ecosystem, Chemical Oxygen Demand is generally greater than the Biological Oxygen
Demand.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Ans) c
Statement 1 is correct: Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD) measures the total amount of oxygen
required to oxidize all organic matter in water, including both biodegradable and non-biodegradable
components like lignin, humic acids, and certain pesticides. These cannot be broken down by
microbes and hence don't contribute to Biological Oxygen Demand.
Statement 2 is correct: Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) measures the amount of oxygen consumed
by microorganisms like bacteria during the decomposition of organic matter in water over a specific
period, typically five days. This indicates the amount of biodegradable organic matter present.
Statement 3 is correct: Even for biodegradable organic matter, some may not be completely
decomposed within the five-day period used for BOD measurement. This portion will be detected by
COD but not BOD. Therefore, COD provides a more complete picture of the total organic pollution
load in water compared to BOD. Therefore, in an aquatic ecosystem, Chemical Oxygen Demand
(COD) is generally greater than Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD).
Source: Forum IAS, Environment Redbook, Ch-2, Pg-23
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Assertion (A): Coal-based thermal power stations contribute to acid rain.
Reason (R): Oxides of carbon are emitted when coal burns.
a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
c) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
d) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
Ans) b
Assertion (A) is true: Coal-based thermal power stations contribute to acid rain because they emit
oxides of sulfur and nitrogen, which react with water and oxygen in the atmosphere to form sulfuric
acid and nitric acid. These acids then fall to the ground as rain, snow, fog, or dry particles.
Reason (R) is true, but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the assertion (A): Oxides of
carbon are also emitted when coal burns, but they do not cause acid rain. Carbon dioxide (CO2) reacts
with water to form carbonic acid (H2CO3), which is a weak acid and does not lower the pH of
rainwater significantly. Carbon monoxide (CO) does not react with water at all and has no effect on
the acidity of rainwater.
Q.36) Consider the following environmental degradations:

1. Depletion of groundwater table
2. Intrusion of saline water into freshwater resources
3. Increase turbidity in rivers and coastal waters.
How many of the impacts given above can be caused by sand mining?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Ans) c
Sand is a minor mineral under Section 3(e) of the Mines and Minerals (Development & Regulation)
Act, 1957 (MMDR Act). Section 15 of the MMDR Act empowers the State Governments to make rules
for regulating the grant of quarry leases, mining leases or other mineral concessions in respect of
minor minerals and for purposes connected therewith. Hence, the regulation of minor minerals
comes under the legislative and administrative domain of the State Governments.
Statement 1 is correct: Sand mining often happens alongside riverbeds and coastal areas, which are
crucial zones for groundwater recharge. Extracting sand disrupts these areas, hindering their ability
to store and replenish groundwater, leading to depletion over time.
Statement 2 is correct: As freshwater levels decrease due to sand mining; the pressure imbalance can
draw in saltwater from nearby oceans or deeper saline aquifers. This contamination renders
freshwater unsuitable for drinking, irrigation, and industrial purposes.
Statement 3 is correct: The removal of sand disturbs sediments at the bottom of rivers and coastal
areas, causing them to become suspended in the water and increasing turbidity. This reduces light
penetration, harms aquatic life, and negatively impacts water quality for human consumption.
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Source: Forum IAS, Environment Redbook Ch-2, Pg-25

http://ismenvis.nic.in/Database/Impacts-of-Sand-Mining_3466.aspx
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetailm.aspx?PRID=1906449

1. Noise pollution can adversely affect communication and navigation among marine organisms.
2. Noise pollution can affect dissemination and germination of seedlings.
3. Animals exposed to chronic noise experience heightened stress levels.
4. In human beings, noise pollution will lead to the development of a disorder known as Albinism.
How many of the above statements regarding the effects of noise pollution are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Ans) c
Noise pollution, also known as environmental noise or sound pollution, is any unwanted or disturbing
sound that has a harmful impact on the activity of human or animal life.
Statement 1 is correct: Noise can interfere with the ability of animals to produce and perceive
acoustic signals, such as vocalizations, echolocation, or sonar. This can affect their social
interactions, territorial defense, mating, and predator avoidance. For example, Whales and dolphins
are particularly impacted by noise pollution. These marine mammals rely on echolocation to
communicate, navigate, feed, and find mates, and excess noise interferes with their ability to
effectively echolocate.
Statement 2 is correct: Various research have pointed out that noise pollution can affect
dissemination and germination of seedlings eg. Noise pollution from the gas wells disrupted
seedling dissemination and germination of the pinyon pine and the juniper. This was most likely
due to the noise driving away the scrub jay, which disperses the seeds of the former tree species, and
small mammals that disperses the seeds of the latter.
Statement 3 is correct: Noise can induce physiological and behavioral stress responses in animals,
such as increased heart rate, blood pressure, cortisol levels, and flight or avoidance reactions. Chronic
exposure to noise can impair the immune system, reduce growth and reproduction, and increase the
risk of disease and mortality.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Albinism refers to genetic conditions in which the body makes little or no
melanin, a pigment that determines skin, hair, and eye colour. It is an inherited disorder and Noise
pollution does not lead to the development of Albinism.
Rather, Noise pollution generally causes Noise Induced Hearing Loss (NIHL). Exposure to loud noise
can also cause high blood pressure, heart disease, sleep disturbances, and stress.
Source: https://www.morrisanimalfoundation.org/article/effects-of-noise-pollution-on-animals
https://www.cirrusresearch.co.uk/blog/2021/07/noise-pollution-
wildlife/#:~:text=Studies%20have%20shown%20that%20loud,many%20animals'%20ability%20to%20
survive.
https://theconversation.com/how-noise-pollution-is-changing-animal-behaviour-52339
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Q.38) Consider the following pairs with reference to pollutants and the diseases that they cause:
Pollutant Disease
1. Cadmium Itai-Itai
2. Arsenic Black foot
3. Mercury Minamata
4. Fluoride Fluorosis
How many of the pairs given above are matched correctly?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Ans) d
Pair 1 is correct. Cadmium exposure is associated with Itai-Itai disease, a condition characterized
by severe pain in the joints and bones.
Pair 2 is correct. Black foot disease is primarily related to exposure to arsenic-contaminated water.
Pair 3 is correct. Minamata disease is caused by mercury exposure.
Pair 4 is correct. Exposure to high concentrations of fluoride is the reason for a serious disease called
fluorosis. Fluorosis is categorized as Skeletal and Dental fluorosis
Q.39) Which one of the following statements provides the best description of „Ecological Drought‟?
a) It is a situation when there is a prolonged lack of rainfall, unevenly distributed over time and
space.
b) It is a situation characterized by lack of soil moisture that is necessary to support the crops.
c) It is a situation when water in various storage systems is insufficient and falls below what
precipitation can replenish.
d) It is a situation when the productivity of a natural ecosystem fails due to shortage of water.
Ans) d
The term „drought‟ is applied to an extended period when there is a shortage of water availability due
to inadequate precipitation, excessive rate of evaporation and over-utilisation of water from the
reservoirs and other storages, including the ground water.
Ecological Drought occurs when the productivity of a natural ecosystem fails due to shortage of
water and as a consequence of ecological distress, damages are induced in the ecosystem.
This means that ecological drought is not just about the lack of rainfall, but also about how it affects
the health and functioning of natural ecosystems, such as forests, wetlands, grasslands, and rivers.
Ecological drought can have negative consequences for the biodiversity, productivity, and resilience
of these ecosystems, as well as for the human populations that depend on them for food, water,
recreation, and other benefits.
Knowledge Base:
1) Meteorological Drought: It is a situation when there is a prolonged period of inadequate rainfall
marked with mal-distribution of the same over time and space.
2) Agricultural Drought: It is also known as soil moisture drought, characterised by lack of soil
moisture that is necessary to support the crops, thereby resulting in crop failures. Moreover, if an
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area has more than 30 per cent of its gross cropped area under irrigation, the area is excluded
from the drought-prone category.
3) Hydrological Drought: It results when the availability of water in different storages and reservoirs
like aquifers, lakes, reservoirs, etc. falls below what the precipitation can replenish.
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/ncerts/l/kegy107.pdf
https://www.drought.gov/what-is-drought/ecological-
drought#:~:text=Ecological%20drought%20is%20an%20%E2%80%9Cepisodic,2017%20).

1. It is environmentally friendly.
2. It can be applied to both biodegradable and non-biodegradable compounds.
3. It takes less time than remediation by excavation.
4. It significantly reduces the risk of future environmental impact.
How many of the above are advantages of bioremediation technique?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Ans) b
Bioremediation is the process of using biological organisms, such as microorganisms, fungi, or plants,
to degrade or transform harmful substances into less toxic or non-toxic forms.
Some of the advantages of bioremediation are:
Statement 1 is correct: It is a natural and eco-friendly process that does not cause much damage to
the environment or produce harmful residues. It uses natural biological organisms to break down
hazardous substances into less toxic or non-toxic forms, such as carbon dioxide, water, and cell
biomass. This is different from other methods that may transfer contaminants from one
environmental medium to another, such as from land to water or air, or produce toxic by-products
that require further treatment or disposal.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Bioremediation is limited to those compounds that are biodegradable. Not
all compounds are susceptible to rapid and complete degradation by biological organisms. Due to
their nature of being non-biodegradable, some compounds may be too persistent, complex, or toxic
for bioremediation to be effective. Therefore, bioremediation is not a universal solution for all types of
contaminants.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Bioremediation often takes longer than other treatment options, such as
excavation and removal of soil or incineration. Bioremediation depends on the growth and activity of
biological organisms, which are influenced by many factors, such as the concentration and type of
contaminants, the availability of nutrients and oxygen, the temperature and pH of the environment,
and the presence of inhibitory substances.
Statement 4 is correct: Bioremediation can achieve the complete destruction of a wide range of
contaminants. Many compounds that are legally considered to be hazardous can be transformed into
harmless products by biological organisms. This reduces the risk of future liability or environmental
impact associated with the treatment and disposal of contaminated material.
https://microbenotes.com/bioremediation-types-factors/
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Q.41) In the context of WHO Air Quality Guidelines, consider the following statements:
1. The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 ug/m³ and annual mean of PM2.5 should not
exceed 5 µg/m³.
2. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during the periods of inclement weather.
3. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream.
4. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1, 3 and 4
b) 1 and 4 only
c) 2, 3 and 4
d) 1 and 2 only
Ans) b
Statement 1 is correct: The World Health Organization (WHO) has released the Global Air Quality
Guidelines (AQGs). The new guidelines recommend air quality levels for six pollutants particulate
matter (PM) 2.5 and PM 10, ozone (O3), nitrogen dioxide (NO2), sulfur dioxide (SO2) and carbon
monoxide (CO).
Statement 2 is incorrect: Ozone at ground level is formed by the reaction with sunlight
(photochemical reaction) of pollutants such as nitrogen oxides (NOx) from vehicle and industry
emissions and volatile organic compounds (VOCs) emitted by vehicles, solvents and industry. As a
result, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during periods of sunny weather and not during
inclement weather.
Statement 3 is incorrect: PM is a common proxy indicator for air pollution. It affects more people
than any other pollutant. The major components of PM are sulfate, nitrates, ammonia, sodium
chloride, black carbon, mineral dust and water. It consists of a complex mixture of solid and liquid
particles of organic and inorganic substances suspended in the air. While particles with a diameter
of 10 microns or less, (≤ PM10) can penetrate and lodge deep inside the lungs, the even more health-
damaging particles are those with a diameter of 2.5 microns or less, (≤ PM2.5). PM2.5 can penetrate
the lung barrier and enter the blood system. Chronic exposure to particles contributes to the risk of
developing cardiovascular and respiratory diseases, as well as of lung cancer.
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Statement 4 is correct: Excessive ozone in the air can have a marked effect on human health. It
causes breathing problems, trigger asthma, reduce lung function and cause lung diseases. Ozone
triggers asthma because it is very irritating to the lungs and airways.
Q.42) Consider the following pollutants:

1. Mercury
2. Nitrogen Oxide
3. Polychlorinated Biphenyls
4. Beryllium
5. Arsenic
6. Polyvinyl Chloride
7. Brominated Flame Retardants
How many of the above pollutants are released into the environment as e-waste?
a) Only four
b) Only five
c) Only six
d) All seven
Ans) c
E-waste is electronic products that are unwanted, not working, and nearing or at the end of their
“useful life.” Computers, televisions, VCRs, stereos, copiers, and fax machines are everyday electronic
products. Some of the common pollutants found in e-waste are:
Option 1 is correct: Mercury is used in some electronic devices such as switches, relays, and
batteries. It can damage the nervous system, kidneys, and brain if ingested or inhaled.
Option 2 is incorrect: Nitrogen oxides are gases that are formed from the combustion of fossil fuels
and can cause acid rain, smog, and respiratory problems, but they are not a pollutant that is released
from e-waste.
Option 3 is correct: Polychlorinated Biphenyls (PCBs) are used in some capacitors, transformers, and
circuit boards. They can disrupt the hormone system, affect the immune system, and cause cancer if
accumulated in the body.
Option 4 is correct: Beryllium is used in some connectors, springs, and magnets for electronic
devices. It can cause lung inflammation, chronic beryllium disease, and lung cancer if inhaled.
Option 5 is correct: Arsenic is used in some semiconductors, solar cells, and light-emitting diodes for
electronic devices. It can cause skin lesions, cardiovascular disease, diabetes, and cancer if ingested
or inhaled.
Option 6 is correct: Polyvinyl Chloride is used in cable insulation and casings. Polyvinyl Chloride can
release chlorine gas when burned.
Option 7 is correct: Brominated Flame Retardants such as Tetrabromobisphenol(A) is found in plastic
casings, circuit boards, and cables and is mostly used to reduce flammability.
https://www.genevaenvironmentnetwork.org/resources/updates/the-growing-environmental-
risks-of-e-waste/
https://www.eawag.ch/fileadmin/Domain1/Abteilungen/sandec/publikationen/Chemical_Pollutio
n/ChemPoll-LAMICS_Chapter5.pdf
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Q.43) Which one of the following best describes the meaning of the term „Qualitative Pollutants‟?
a) Pollutants that hold considerable economic value when subjected to recycling processes.
b) Naturally existing elements transform into pollutants due to their elevated concentrations in the
environment.
c) Pollutants primarily resulting from interactions among pollutants and their reactions with the
environment.
d) Pollutants that are not present in the environment naturally but are created by humans.
Ans) d
Environmental pollution is defined as the introduction of harmful wastes into the environment,
primarily originating from certain human activities. These pollutants can be classified into
Quantitative and Qualitative categories based on their natural existence.
Option a is incorrect: Qualitative pollutants are not categorized based on their economic value in
recycling.
Option b is incorrect: Quantitative pollutants are both naturally present and introduced by humans.
They become pollutants when their concentrations exceed a defined threshold in the environment,
such as Carbon dioxide (CO2).
Option c is incorrect: Secondary pollutants are pollutants that are not directly emitted into the
atmosphere but form as a result of complex reactions between primary pollutants and their
reaction with the environment. Primary pollutants are substances released directly into the
atmosphere from human activities or natural processes, while secondary pollutants are formed in the
atmosphere through various chemical reactions.
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Option d is correct: Qualitative pollutants are substances created by humans, not naturally present
in the environment, and contribute to environmental pollution. Examples include pesticides,
fungicides, and herbicides.
Source: Forum IAS red book Environment - Chapter: ENVIRONMENTAL CHALLENGES
Q.44) With reference to Jal Jeevan mission, consider the following statements:
1. It aims at providing Functional Household Tap Connection to every rural household by 2024.
2. The mission ensures voluntary ownership of water resources among the local community by way
of contribution in cash, kind, or labour towards accessibility of drinking water supply.
3. The mission provides for mandatory elements of recharge and reuse of water resources through
grey water management.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Ans) c
Statement 1 is correct: Jal Jeevan Mission is a national programme launched by the Government of
India in 2019 to provide safe and adequate drinking water through individual household tap
connections by 2024 to all rural households in India. The mission aims to improve the health and
well-being of rural communities by ensuring water security, source sustainability, and community
participation in water management.
Statement 2 is correct: The mission ensures voluntary ownership among local community by way of
contribution in cash, kind or labour, and empowers them to plan, implement, operate, and maintain
their own water supply systems.
Statement 3 is correct: Jal Jeevan Mission implements source sustainability measures as mandatory
elements, such as recharge and reuse through grey water management, water conservation,
rainwater harvesting.
https://jaljeevanmission.gov.in/about_jjm
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1985133#:~:text=At%20the%20start%20of%2
0Jal,tap%20water%20connections%20under%20JJM.
Q.45) Magnetite particles, suspected to cause neurodegenerative problems, are generated as

environmental pollutants from which of the following?
1. Brakes of motor vehicles
2. Engines of motor vehicles
3. Microwave stoves within homes
4. Power plants
5. Telephone lines
a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
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c) 3, 4 and 5 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Ans) b
Magnetite particles can act as pollutants and led to neurodegenerative problems. Magnetic particles
can penetrate and damage the blood-brain-barrier and led to the early development of Alzheimer‟s
disease. Whenever any magnetic component is used in appliances, they generate magnetic flux which
produces magnetic particles.
Option 1 is correct. The automotive industry uses ceramic or ferrite magnets to make vehicles safer.
One of the most impressive uses is in the Anti-lock Braking System (ABS) of vehicles. These use of
magnets in motor vehicles can generate magnetic particles. Thus, Brakes of motor vehicles are major
source of airborne magnetite.
Option 2 is correct. Engines of motor vehicles can generate magnetic particles as they use high
powered magnets which generate magnetic flux. Thus, petrol and diesel exhaust are source of
airborne magnetite.
Option 3 is incorrect. In Microwave, a magnetic stirrer is used. But they are not potential source of
magnetite particles.
Option 4 is correct. Power Plants releases metal content along with ash. Use of coal in power plants is
a major source of combustion-associated magnetite fine particles.
Option 5 is incorrect. Telephone line produces low frequency, low energy electromagnetic field and
they are not potential source of magnetite particles.
Q.46) With reference to „Dioxins‟, consider the following statements:

1. They are a group of Volatile organic compounds (VOCs) that are mainly emitted from human-made
sources.
2. Human exposure to dioxins mainly occurs through the consumption of animal origin products
derived from animals impacted by biomagnification.
3. They are known to cause developmental problems in children.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Ans) b
Recently, the fire outbreak at the Kochi‟s dumping yard is feared to have exposed people in the city
and suburbs to high levels of toxic dioxins.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Dioxins are not classified as Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs). VOCs
are organic compounds that have a high vapor pressure at room temperature, meaning they easily
evaporate into the air. Dioxins are chemically stable, so they are neither water-soluble nor volatile.
Dioxins are Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs). Persistent organic pollutants (POPs) are chemical
substances sharing the combination of persistence and bioaccumulation. Dioxins are a family of
chemical compounds that share a similar structure and exhibit toxic effects on living organisms.
Dioxins are produced as byproducts of various industrial activities, waste incineration, bleaching etc.
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It is also formed during the production of some chlorinated organic compounds, including a few
herbicides such as Silvex.
Statement 2 is correct: More than 90% of human exposure to dioxins and furans occurs via food
chain especially through animal origin food samples. Human exposure mainly occurs through the
consumption of bio-magnified animal origin products such as eggs, milk, fish, and meat. They tend to
accumulate in the fatty tissue of animals and humans and can stay in the body for 7 to 11 years.
Statement 3 is correct: Dioxins are highly toxic and can cause various health problems, such as
cancer, reproductive and developmental disorders, damage to the immune system, and
interference with hormones. Long-term exposure is linked to impairment of the immune system, the
developing nervous system, the endocrine system and reproductive functions, especially in children.
They can enter the body through food, mainly meat and dairy products, fish and shellfish, as well as
through breathing and skin contact.
Knowledge Base:
1) The Stockholm Convention is a global treaty that aims to protect human health and the
environment from persistent organic pollutants (POPs). The Convention seeks to minimize and
eventually eliminate the release of unintentionally produced POPs, such as dioxins and furans.
Source: https://www.epa.gov/dioxin/learn-about-dioxin
https://www.who.int/news-room/fact-sheets/detail/dioxins-and-their-effects-on-human-health
https://www.niehs.nih.gov/health/topics/agents/dioxins
Q.47) Consider the following statements with reference to the Commission for Air Quality
Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas:
1. It is constituted under the Environment protection Act, 1986.
2. It covers the areas in the States of Haryana, Punjab, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh, adjoining the
National Capital Region.
3. It is responsible for deciding parameters for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants
from various sources in the National Capital region.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Ans) b
Statement 1 is incorrect. Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and
Adjoining Areas is a statutory body formed under the Commission for Air Quality Management in
National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas, Act 2021. The CAQM has replaced the Environment
Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority (EPCA) which was appointed by the SC and had been
active for 22 years. Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and
Adjoining Areas is not constituted under the Environment protection Act, 1986
Statement 2 is correct. Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and
Adjoining Areas, Act 2021 defines “adjoining areas” as the areas in the States of Haryana, Punjab,
Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh, adjoining the National Capital Territory of Delhi and the National Capital
Region, where any source of pollution is located, causing adverse impact on air quality in the National
Capital Region.
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Statement 3 is correct. It is entrusted with the responsibility of laying down parameters for emission
or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources that have implications on air quality in
the National Capital Region.
Knowledge Base: The Commission will consist of:
1) A Chairperson,
2) An officer of the rank of a Joint Secretary as the member-secretary and Chief Coordinating Officer,
3) A currently serving or former Joint Secretary from the central government as a full-time member,
4) Three independent technical members with expertise related to air pollution, and
5) Three members from non-government organizations.
a. The Chairperson and members of the Commission will have a tenure of three years or till the
age of seventy years, whichever is earlier.
b. The Commission will also include ex-officio members: (i) from the central government and
concerned state governments, and (ii) technical members from CPCB, Indian Space Research
Organisation, and NITI Aayog.
c. It may also appoint representatives of certain ministries.
Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1982311
https://caqm.nic.in/WriteReadData/LINKS/The%20Commission%20for%20Air%20Quality%20Man
agement%20in%20NCR%20&%20Adjoining%20Areas%20Act,%20202176b7d650-cba2-4414-b357-
520732cc119f.pdf
Q.48) In context of Lichens, consider the following statements:

Statement I: Lichens serve as a good indicator of air pollution.
Statement II: Lichens receive their nutrients from the atmosphere.
Statement-I
Statement-I
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Ans) a
Lichens are a symbiotic relationship between fungus and algae and/or cyanobacteria. The fungus
provides shelter for the algae and the algae provides food for the fungi. Lichens do not have roots.
Statement I is correct: Lichens are sensitive to air pollution and can indicate the quality of the air by
their presence, diversity, and morphology. For example, Ramalina, Usnea and Lobaria species of
Lichens are often sensitive to air pollution and can thrive only in areas with clean and pure air.
Statement II is correct and correctly explains statement I: Lichens do not have roots; instead, they
receive all their nutrients from the atmosphere. Lichens are sensitive to atmospheric pollution such
as nitrogen compounds like Ammonia and nitrous oxide because they receive all their nutrients and
water from wet and dry atmospheric deposition (fall out). Nitrogen deposition can increase the load
of nutrients. Too much Nitrogen can harm and kill the algae‟s chlorophyll which is used to produce
sugars feeding it and the fungi. Lichens are also sensitive to Sulphur Dioxide. SO 2 destroys the
chlorophyll in the algal partner, which inhibits photosynthesis. This can change the color of the lichen
and affect its growth.
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Statement II is the correct explanation because the presence of a significant and thriving population
of lichens in an area is indicative of an air that is free from pollutants like Ammonia, Sulphur dioxide
etc.
Source: https://www.nps.gov/articles/lichens-as-
bioindicators.htm#:~:text=Lichens%20as%20Bio%2DIndicators,increase%20the%20load%20of%20nu
trients.
https://www.breeze-technologies.de/blog/lichens-as-an-indicator-of-air-quality/
Q.49) “Colony Collapse Disorder (CCD) is a phenomenon that has raised concerns about the health
and sustainability of honeybee populations.” In this context, consider the following
1. Overpopulation of beehives.
2. Varroa mite infestation in honeybees.
3. Escape of the „queen bee‟ from the beehive.
4. Changes in the habitat where bees forage.
5. Bees exposure to pesticides.
How many of the above factors can intensify or lead to Colony Collapse Disorder (CCD)?
a) Only two
b) Only three
c) Only four
d) All five
Ans) b
Colony Collapse Disorder (CCD) is a phenomenon characterized by the sudden disappearance of
worker bees from a beehive. The decline of honeybees due to Colony Collapse Disorder (CCD) is a
significant worry for both the environment and agriculture, as honeybees play a crucial role in
pollinating various crops.
Option 1 is incorrect: Overpopulation of beehives is not linked to CCD. Instead, underpopulation
due to colony collapse is a characteristic of CCD. Honeybee colonies are social structures with a
delicate balance of worker bees, drones, and a single queen. Overpopulation could lead to increased
competition for resources, but it is not a primary factor associated with CCD.
Option 2 is correct: Varroa mite infestation is a major factor linked to CCD. Varroa mites are
external parasites that weaken honeybee colonies by feeding on the bodily fluids of adult bees and
transmitting harmful viruses. The impact of Varroa mites on individual bees and the colony's health
contributes significantly to the phenomenon of CCD.
Option 3 is incorrect: CCD is known for the loss/ escape of worker bees. The worker bees leave the
beehive, leaving behind the queen, plenty of food and a few nurse bees to care for the remaining
immature bees and the queen. So, the escape of the queen bee is not related to the phenomenon of
CCD.
Option 4 is correct: Alterations in the foraging habitat, such as habitat loss or changes in land use,
can impact bee nutrition. Nutritional stress is one of several factors that may affect honeybee health
which may lead to CCD.
Option 5 is correct: Exposure to pesticides is a factor linked to CCD. Pesticides, especially
neonicotinoids, can have harmful effects on honeybee health, affecting their behavior, navigation, and
overall fitness. Pesticide exposure weakens colonies and can contribute to the onset and
intensification of CCD.
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https://www.epa.gov/pollinator-protection/colony-collapse-
disorder#:~:text=There%20have%20been%20many%20theories,and%20the%20gut%20parasite%20N
osema.
Q.50) With reference to the Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs), consider the following statements:
1. These pollutants can be transported from one place to another by wind and water.
2. They are used as flame retardants in electronic products.
3. They can alter the hormonal system of humans.
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Ans) c
Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs) are carbon based organic chemical substances. They possess a
particular combination of physical and chemical properties such that, once released into the
environment they take an exceptionally longer period to degrade. This is why it is called persistent
organic pollutants.
Statement 1 is correct: Persistent organic pollutants (POPs) are toxic chemicals that adversely affect
human health and the environment around the world. Because they can be transported by wind and
water, most POPs generated in one country can and do affect people and wildlife far from where
they are used and released. They persist for long periods of time in the environment and can
accumulate and pass from one species to the next through the food chain.
Statement 2 is correct: POPs are used as flame retardants in electronic products and furniture.
Further POPs are used in manufacturing of detergents, pesticides etc., Flame retardants are
chemicals that are applied to materials to prevent the start or slow the growth of fire.
Statement 3 is correct: Some POPs can alter the hormonal system of humans and affect their
offspring too. Some POPs can disrupt the endocrine system which produces various hormones in
the human body. Thereby POPs can damage the reproductive and immune systems of exposed
individuals as well as their offspring.
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/lifestyle/health/chemical-pollutants-can-trigger-
celiac-disease-in-young-people-study-
6463663/#:~:text=POPs%20are%20chemical%20pollutants%20that%20people%20have%20historical
ly%20used%20as%20flame%20retardants%20in%20furniture%20and%20electronic%20products%2
C%20detergents%2C%20pesticides%2C%20and%20nonstick%20cookware%2C%20said%20a%20rep
ort.%20These%20chemicals%20negatively%20affect%20human%20health.
http://www.pops.int/TheConvention/ThePOPs/tabid/673/Default.aspx
http://www.pic.int/TheConvention/Chemicals/AnnexIIIChemicals/tabid/1132/language/en-
US/Default.aspx
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SFG 2024 - LEVEL 1 - Test 42

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SFG 2024 | LEVEL 1 |Test 42 |

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

Time Allowed: ONE HOUR Maximum Marks: 100

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1. Gold mining activity is a source of mercury

b) Only two 4. It enhances the ability of trees at higher

a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are

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Q.6) Consider the following statements

1. Biosparging Injects pressurized air

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3. Ammonia a) Only one

4. Ozone b) Only two

5. Nickel c) All three

How many of the pollutants mentioned above

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Q.16) Consider the following statements: d) All four

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Q.22) Consider the following statements: 4. It can be used as a photocatalyst to remove

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Q.27) Consider the following statements Q.30) Consider the following:

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Q.50) With reference to the Persistent Organic

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Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding mercury pollution:

Q.2) With reference to Indian Geography, consider the following statements:

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Statement - II is incorrect: A transform boundary is a type of plate boundary characterized by the

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1. Formaldehyde Soil and rocks

3. Volatile organic Paints

4. Carbon Monoxide Burning of

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How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

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1. Biosparging Injects pressurized air

2. Bioaugmentation Stimulates native

3. Bioventing Introduces specialized

4. Biopiles Treats contaminated soil

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How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

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Q.10) Consider the following pollutants:

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Kappad Beach – Kerala

Q.13) Consider the following effects:

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Q.14) With reference to Tsunami, consider the following statements:

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Q.16) Consider the following statements:

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Red Category Orange Category Green Category White Category

Q.18) Consider the following:

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Q.19) Consider the following degradations of environment:

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