Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Amendment Concept Book
Amendment Concept Book
Hematoma auris----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------20
Keloid -----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------23
Otomycosis…………………………………………………………………………………30
Perichondritis of pinna…………………………………………………………………….44
Keratosis obturans……………………………………………………………………………………………...53
Osteoma…………………………………………………………………………………………….55
Exostosis……………………………………………………………………………………56
o Otitis media 70
Acute otitis media/Acute suppurative otitis media………………………70
Definitions of certain otological procedures…………………………………76
Myringotomy…………………………………………………………………………………………………77
Myringoplasty……………………………………………………………………………………78
Cortical mastoidectomy……………………………………………………………………..79
Radical mastoidectomy… … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … . 81
Modified radical mastoidectomy………………………………………………………………81
Meatoplasty………………………………………………………………………….…..81
Chronic suppurative otitis media (CSOM)………………………………………85
Complications of suppurative otitis media……………………………………………90
Tuberculous otitis media………………………………………………………………….108
Otitis media with effusion (OME)……………………………………………………………110
Eustachian tube disorders………………………………………………………………………116
o Facial paralysis……………………………………………119
Bell’s palsy………………………………………………………………………………………122
Neoplasm of middle ear cleft…………………………………………………….127
Glomus tumor……………………………………………………………………………………..127
Squamous cell carcinoma………………………………………………………………………………134
Chapter 5 Diseases of otic capsule……………………………………………..136
Otosclerosis…………………………………………………………………………………………….136
Stapedectomy…………………………………………………………………………………….139
Chapter 6 Diseases of inner ear……………………………………………146
o Inflammatory condition of inner ear……………………...146
Vestibular neuronitis…………………………………………………………………..146
Viral Labyrinthitis………………………………………………………………………148
o Miscellaneous diseases of inner ear……………………...149
Vertigo………………………………………………………………………………………….…………..149
Meniere’s disease………………………………………………………………………………………………..152
Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) ……………………………………………161
Tinnitus ………………………………………………………………………………………………..166
Ototoxicity……………………………………………………………………………………….…………169
Chapter 7 Miscellaneous diseases of ear…………………………………………………….172
Hearing loss……………………………………………………………………………………………….172
Otalgia………………………………………………………………………………………………..177
Vestibular schwannoma…………………………………………………………………179
Chapter 8 Audiology………………………………………………………….186
Audiometric tests………………………………………………………………………………...186
Hearing loss in children……………………………………………………………………..196
Hearing aid…………………………………………………………………………………….…201
Cochlear implant…………………………………………………………………………………204
PART C NOSE AND PARANASAL SINUSES…………………209
Chapter 9 Symptomology and examination of nose……………………………..209
Chapter 10 Diseases of nose and paranasal sinuses……………………………...219
o Congenital anomalies………………………………………………………….219
Meningoencephalocele………………………………………………………………….………….219
Choanal atresia…… …… …… …… ……… …… …… …… ……… …… … …… .…. 222
Trauma of nose and paranasal sinuses…………………………………………226
Fracture of nose…………………………………………………………………………………..226
Deflected nasal septum…………………………………………………………………232
Septoplasty/SMR………………………………………………………………………….234
Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) rhinorrhea……………………………………………….240
o Inflammations of nose and paranasal sinuses……………………...245
Boil (furuncle) of nose…………………………………………………………………………..…...245
Rhinosinusitis……………………………………………………………………….……… ……….. 249
Common cold……………………………………………………………………………………….251
Allergic rhinitis……………………………………………………………………………………………………………255
Vasomotor rhinitis………………………………………………………………………………………261
Atrophic rhinitis…………………………………………………………………………….264
Rhinitis sicca……………………………………………………………………………………………268
Rhinolith……………………………………………………………………………….……….270
o Complications of rhinosinusitis………………………………………………272
Local complications………………………………………………………………………….272
Orbital complications…………………………………………………………………….272
Intracranial complications………………………………………………………………………274
Cavernous sinus thrombosis……………………………………………………….275
Toxic shock syndrome……………………………………………………………………276
Antral lavag……………………………………………………………………………………………281
Inferior meatal antrostomy……………………………………………………………………….282
Caldwell-Luc operation…………………………………………………………………….283
Ehmoidectomies…………………………………………………………………………………….……..287
o Granulomatous diseases of nose and paranasal sinuses……292
Wegener’s granuloma………………………………………………………………………….292
Stewart’s granuloma…………………………………………………………………………….296
Sarcoidosis…………………………………………………………………………………………………299
Tuberculosis……………………………………………………………………………………………….302
Lupus vulgaris…………………………………………………………………………………………………304
Leprosy…………………………………………………………………………………………………..305
Mucormycosis………………………………………………………………………………………….308
Rhinoscleroma………………………………………………………………………………………….311
Rhinosporidiosis……………………………………………………………………………………….313
o Tumors of nose, paranasal sinuses and nasopharynx……………...313
Hemangioma……………………………………………………………………………………………………..314
Transitional cell papilloma……………………………………………………………………316
Malignant tumors of nose and paranasal sinuses…………………………… 319
Nasopharyngeal Angiofibroma…………………………………………………………….322
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma (NPC)………………………………………………………………327
PART E LARYNX…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….487
Chapter 13 Diseases of larynx………………………..………………….487
o Congenital anomalies of larynx 487
Laryngomalacia……………………………………………………………….…………487
Laryngeal web……………………………………………………………………….……491
Inflammations of larynx………………………………………………………………493
Acute
laryngitis………………………………………………………………………………………….493
Acute epiglottitis…………………………………………………………………………..495
Laryngotracheobronchitis (LTB)………………………………………………………………500
o Granulomatous diseases of larynx………………………………………..503
Tuberculosis of larynx………………………………………………………………………………….503
Syphilis of larynx…………………………………………………………………………………505
Tumors of larynx……………………………………………………………………………506
Papilloma of larynx……………………………………………………………………………………506
Carcinoma of larynx……………………………………………………………………………506
Laryngectomy…………………………………………………………………………………….509
PART F ESOPHAGUS… … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … … . . 5 6 7
Chapter 14 Diseases of esophagus………………………………………………….……....567
Plummer-Vinson syndrome…………………………………………………………………,….. 567
Foreign body of pharynx and esophagus……………………………………… …571
Esophagoscopy……………………………………………………………………………………… ….573
Achalasia cardia ……………………………………………………………………………………..576
Hiatus hernia……………………………………………………………………………………………. 579
Corrosive stricture of esophagus………………………………………………,……………………583
Perforation/Rupture of esophagus……………………………………………………585
Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)………………………………………….589
PART G NECK………………………………………………….……………..592
Chapter 15 Classification of neck masses………................592
Thyroid tumors …………………………………………………………………………………………...594
Thyroglossal cyst………………………………………………………………………….598
Branchial cyst……………………………………………………………………………………………….…….602
PART H GENERAL TOPICS…………………………………………………………………….……………………..604
Chapter 16……………………………………………………………………….…………………604
AIDS …………………………………………………………………………………………………………..……. .604
Lymphoma……………………………………………………………………………………………….607
Level/Region of lymph node involvement……………………………………..614
Treatment of neck nodes ……………………………………………………………..616
Neck dissection…………………………….………………………………………………….618
Occult primary…………………………………………………………………………………….……621
Radiotherapy……………………………………………………………………………….….……..622
Chemotherapy …………………………………………………………………………………….…..626
Cryosurgery………………………………………………………………………………..……. 629
Laser…………………………………………………………………………………………….………………630
Functional Endoscopic Sinus Surgery (FESS)………………………………………………………632
Differences between CT and MRI …………………………………………………………………634
Syndromes in ENT……………………………………………………………………………………………634
PART I MISCELLANEOUS MCQS………………………………………………………………639
Ear…………………………………………………………………………….639
o Nose………………………………………………………………………………………642
o Throat……………………………………………………………………………………645
PART J OSPE……………………………………………………...647
o Ear………………………………………………………………………………………...647
o Nose……………………………………………………………………………………….652
o Throat……………………………………………………………………………………657
2. Presenting complaints:
These are mentioned in chronological order, in patient’s language and maximum
informations are given in minimum words.
4. Regional history:
Then the history is taken of the remaining systems/organs which are routinely dealt by that
particular department and are likely to be the cause/effect of the same disease process or may
harbor some other disease. For example, in this particular case the patient presented with
nasal obstruction, after taking history of nasal symptoms (i.e., local history) history of throat
and ear (regional history) is taken.
5. Systemic history:
After local and regional history, detailed history is taken of the rest of the systems (like GIT,
CNS, CVS etc.) of the body. This is known as systemic history.
Past history, family history, social and occupational history is the same as that for other
disciplines of medicine.
PART B
EAR
Chapter 2
SYMPTOMATOLOGY AND EXAMINATION
OF EAR:
SYMPTOMATOLOGY OF EAR
Every system and organ in the body has got its own set of symptoms and signs. More than
90% of patients presenting to ENT department, present with one or more of the following
complaints;
1. Hearing loss
2. Earache
3. Ear discharge
4. Itching
5. Tinnitus
6. Vertigo
PREREQUISITES OF EXAMINATION OF AN
ENT PATIENT
1. Greeting: The clinician must say greeting to the patient with a smiling face.
2. Introduction: The clinician must introduce himself to the patient.
3. Consent: The clinician must inform the patient about details of examination and must
ensure that no harm would be incurred during examination.
4. Exposure: Adequate exposure of the patient is essential for examination, which
includes exposure of at least down up to clavicle anteriorly, acromion laterally, and the
vertebra prominence posteriorly. Rarely, more extensive exposure may be required in
special conditions. Any turban, cap, shawl, muffler, scarf, hearing aid, glasses, contact
lenses, hair clips, should be taken off gently with consent.
5. Positioning: Examination of ear, nose and throat is performed with the clinician sitting
in confrontation with the patient, sitting side to side with no legs crossing. Only for
examination of the right ear, whole of the patient is turned to the left side rather than
simply turning the head. The clinician sits at the same horizontal level as that of the
patient. So, the clinician should be sitting in confrontation with the
patient.
Headlight
Head mirror Bull’s eye lamp
EXAMINATION OF EAR:
It is important to remember that examination starts as the
patient enters the clinic. After completing all the
prerequisites, examination of ear using head light/head
mirror is done as follows:
1. Inspection:
As a general rule. examination is started with inspection.
Inspection is done of the:
a. Preauricular region
b. Pinna
c. Postauricular region
Examiner has to look for:
5
a. Any congenital anomaly like preauricular sinus/pit, anotia (absence of pinna),
microtia (small pinna), macrotia (large pinna), meatal atresia/stenosis.
b. Anatomical landmarks like helix, antihelix, tragus, antitragus, crus of helix, lobule,
triangular fossa, cymba conchae etc.
c. Symmetry in comparison to opposite side. There may be obliteration of retroauricular
groove or protuberance/erection of pinna in cases of mastoiditis or mastoid abscess.
d. Any other positive finding like scar of postaural or endaural incision of previous
surgery, mastoid fistula, ulcer, swelling, hemangioma, lymphangioma etc.
2. Palpation:
On palpation, clinician has to look for;
a. Local temperature
b. Tenderness
Palpation is done of the;
a. Preauricular region; It may be tender in cases of infected preauricular cyst/sinus.
b. Pinna; It may be tender in boil ear or perichondritis of pinna.
c. Postauricular region especially mastoid antrum and mastoid tip. It may be tender in
acute mastoiditis.
d. Temporomandibular joint; It may be tender in temporomandibular arthralgia.
3. Pull the pinna upwards, backwards and laterally
to straighten the external auditory canal. At the same time
retract the tragus anteriorly and perform inspection of the
external auditory canal and tympanic membrane. On
inspection look for;
a. Any congenital anomaly like meatal atresia,
meatal stenosis.
b. Anatomical landmarks of cartilaginous and bony
meatus like roof, floor, anterior and posterior wall.
c. Symmetry in comparison to opposite side.
d. Any other positive findings like wax, boil, foreign body, debris,
fungus, discharge, edema, erythema, granulation tissue, polyp or
swelling etc.
e. Last but not least, assess the size of external auditory canal so that
the clinician must be able insert largest possible aural speculum
without causing discomfort to the patient.
4. Examination with aural speculum/otoscope:
False negative Rinne test: If the patient has profound hearing loss or no hearing in the test
ear, the bone conduction stimulus may be perceived by the contralateral ear (non-test ear).
This mistaken impression of function in a non-functional ear is called as false negative Rinne.
In such cases diagnosis is confirmed by Weber test.
B. Weber test: This is very sensitive test in conductive hearing loss. The vibrating tuning
fork is placed in the midline over the vertex, forehead, dorsum of nose or
upper teeth. Patient is asked for any hearing of the tone in the ear.
In a patient with unilateral conductive hearing loss, Weber is
lateralized towards the affected ear.
In a patient with unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, it is referred to
the good ear.
Checking lateralization
The Weber test is of great value in recognizing the false negative in Weber test
Rinne, as it will be referred to the good ear. A lateralized weber
in a conductive hearing loss may indicate a hearing loss
of only 10-15 dB.
C. Absolute Bone Conduction (ABC)/Modified
Schwabach test: This compares bone conduction of
the patient with the bone conduction of a normal hearing
person (usually the clinician). The vibrating tuning fork
is placed on the patient’s mastoid with the meatus
ABC test
blocked and when the patient no longer hears it, the tuning fork is placed on the normal
hearing person’s mastoid again with the meatus blocked. If the clinician hears the tone, the
patient’s bone conduction is said to be reduced.
Interpreting the results of tuning fork tests
9
Test Normal Conductive hearing loss Sensorineural hearing loss
6. Facial nerve:
It is a nerve of the second arch. It has got all four physiological components i.e., general
motor, general sensory, special sensory, and secretomotor.
a. General motor component: There
are three orifices on the face i.e.,
nose, eyes and mouth. Facial nerve
is dilator and closure of all three
orifices. It is checked by asking the
patient to frown the forehead, close
the eyes forcibly, show the teeth and
blow out the cheeks etc. In upper
motor neuron lesion, upper half of
the face is spared because it has got
bilateral cortical presentation. In
lower motor neuron lesion, both the
upper and lower half of the face are
affected.
b. General sensory component is
checked with a special probe by
touching the posterosuperior part of
the external meatus near tympanic
membrane. Sensations on this part
are absent in vestibular schwannoma
which is known as Hitselberger
sign.
c. Special sensory component is checked by
testing the four basic tastes i.e., sweet, sour, bitter
and salt on ipsilateral 66% of anterior two third Anatomy of facial nerve nuclei
of tongue.
d. Secretomotor component innervate lacrimal glands and glands of floor of mouth.
It is checked by looking for wetting of special strips of papers placed in the lower
fornix of eye (Schirmer’s test). It can also be checked by filling rate of special cups
placed in the ducts of submandibular salivary gland.
In an advancing lesion of facial nerve, it is more important to check the sensory component of
facial nerve but it is more convenient to check the motor component.
7. Nystagmus:
Involuntary conjugate rhythmic movements of the eyeball are known as nystagmus.
Nystagmus is checked by placing a small object in front of the patient at a distance of 45 cm
from the eyes and patient is asked to focus on that particular object. The object is moved 30
degrees on either side. The clinician continuously watches the medial or lateral limbus
(corneoscleral junction) of any eye of the patient. Any rhythmic movement of the eyeballs is
noted. Nystagmus is present in certain diseases like labyrinthitis, vestibular neuronitis etc.
8. Fistula test:
If nystagmus is negative, then fistula test is performed.
Clinician sits in confrontation with the patient. Patient is asked to focus his eyes on the
nasion of the clinician. Suddenly patient’s tragus of ear is pushed medially to raise
10
intratympanic pressure and nystagmus is looked for. At the same time patient is asked about
any vertigo. In cases of chronic suppurative otitis media a positive fistula indicates the
presence of a third window into perilymphatic space usually due to cholesteatoma.
A positive fistula test may also indicate presence of a surgically created window in the
horizontal semicircular canal e.g., fenestration operation or may indicate an abnormal
opening in the oval window e.g., post stapedectomy fistula.
Hennebert’s sign: It is a false positive fistula test. It is seen in congenital syphilis and some
cases of Meniere’s disease with intact tympanic membrane.
9. Cerebellar tests:
These should be performed especially if the patient is having vertigo
or suspected to have cerebellar disease (like cerebellar abscess due to
suppurative otitis media). Rapidly repeated movements and finger
nose test are very important for detecting adiadochokinesia, asthenia,
atonia, asynergia, past pointing and intention tremors.
10. Romberg test:
Patient is asked to stand erect looking forwards with feet together. If
the patient is stable, he/ she is asked to close the eyes. Patient may be
asked to engage fingers of both hands with each other and stretch them
apart. Finger nose test
With labyrinthine lesion, the patient will sway often to the side of
lesion. The swaying is accentuated by closing the eyes.
Whereas in cerebellar lesion there is symmetrical swaying that is less affected by eye
closure.
11. Extended/Tandem Romberg test:
It is a further refinement of Romberg’s test. In this test the patient
is asked to stand erect with heel to toe position.
12. Unterberger test:
Patient is asked to stand with outstretched hands and march (just
like an army person) on the spot with the eyes closed.
The patient will rotate towards the side of the paralytic
labyrinthine lesion. In the presence of irritative lesion, balanced
disturbance is so significant that patient cannot perform the test.
13. Gait:
The patient is asked to walk on the straight line between the two
points and then quickly turn to return on the same line. Patient with
labyrinthine lesions deviates to the side of the lesion, whereas
marked imbalance on turning or drunken gait indicates the
cerebellar lesion. Unterberger test
14. Lymph nodes:
Draining lymph nodes are examined in detail.
15. Redrape the patient and pay thanks.
11
16. Examination Under Microscope (EUM):
It is carried out in doubtful cases or where further detailed
examination of ear is required.
17. Caloric test: Synonym: Vestibular caloric stimulation test
It is a test of vestibulo-ocular reflex that involves irrigating cold or
warm water or air into the external auditory canal turn by turn to
produce conventional currents in the endolymph. It is used for
diagnosis of asymmetric function in the peripheral vestibular
system.
It is only a test of lateral semicircular canals and does not assess
vertical canal function.
The patient is placed supine on a couch with head elevated to an Examination under microscope
angle of 30 degrees to the horizontal. This brings the lateral
semicircular canal into the vertical plane. Both ears are checked for
wax or presence of perforation. In cases of perforation the
test is performed by cold or warm air.
Each ear is irrigated by warm water at 44 degrees
Celsius and cold water at 30 degrees Celsius i.e., 07 degrees
Celsius above and below the normal body temperature
for 40 seconds.
A douche-can is taken to which is attached a rubber tube
at the end of which is applied an ear piece of such a bore
that it delivers 300 ml of fluid in 40 seconds. The tube is
filled with a pinched cork. Warm water is used first and
Caloric test
tympanic membrane is checked for a hyperemic blush which indicates
adequate irrigation. The patient is asked to look at a fixed spot in the ceiling
and light is thrown to his eyes to observe the eye movements and nystagmus.
A normal caloric reaction is seen between 90 and 140 seconds after the onset of
irrigation. The same procedure is then done on opposite side after 05 minutes of rest. Then
this procedure is done with cold water in one ear and time is noted and repeated for the other
ear.
Cold water produces a nystagmus away from the stimulated ear and warm water towards
the stimulated ear.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Which statement is correct about external acoustic meatus?
a. Has sebaceous glands which produce medial 1/3 is bony
cerumen (ear wax) d. It follows a straight course
b. Its lateral 1/3 is cartilaginous and e. Only cartilaginous part is covered
medial 2/3 is bony with skin
c. Its lateral 2/3 is cartilaginous and
Q. 2. Due to bend in external auditory canal, on otoscopy pinna is pulled
a. backward downward laterally d. medially downward posteriorly
c. laterally upward
Q. 3. Focal length of head mirror is usually
12
a. 15 cm d. 60 cm
b. 20 cm e. 90 cm
c. 30 cm
Q. 4. Tuning fork most frequently used for assessment of hearing is
a. 128 Hz d. 1024 Hz
b. 256 Hz e. 2048 Hz
c. 512 Hz
Q. 5. Rinne test is negative in
a. ceruminosis d. presbycusis
b. 10 dB e. 25 dB
c. 15 dB
Q. 8. False negative Rinne test indicates
a. 5-10 dB d. 20-25 dB
b. 10-15 dB e. 25-30 dB
c. 15-20 dB
Q. 12. Absolute bone conduction test is also known as
a. modified Schwabach test d. Stenger test
c. Schwabach test
Q. 13. With tuning fork of 512 Hz, Weber test is lateralized to the right ear. It de-
notes
a. conductive hearing loss in the right but dead right ear
b. 45 cm e. 90 cm
c. 60 cm
Q. 20. To check nystagmus the object is moved
c. dead labyrinth
------------------------------- ANSWERS--------------------------
------------------------- ---------------------------
Q.1. b 2. e 3. c 4. c 5. a 6. d 7. e 8. e 9. e 10. a
11. b 12. a 13. a 14. c 15. c 16. b 17. e 18. d 19. b 20. b
21. d
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-
15
Chapter 3
DISEASES OF EXTERNAL EAR
CONGENITAL ANOMALIES OF EAR
1. Preauricular pit/cyst:
These develop from abnormalities of fusion of hillocks/tubercles during auricular
development. These are usually bilateral. These are usually skin lined depressions
which are found on or just anterior to anterior crus of helix. These
occasionally contain keratin debris. If infected, there may be pain and
swelling (abscess) along with purulent discharge.
If there is no symptom, no treatment is required. If preauricular
pit/cyst is infected, antibiotics are given. In recurrent cases, complete Infected
excision of pit/cyst is required. preauricular cyst
2. Preauricular sinus/fistula:
It is deeper than preauricular pit. It may extend medially to end blindly
when it is known as preauricular sinus. It may open into external
meatus, parotid gland or in the region of neck when it is known as
preauricular fistula. If one opening is present in the neck and other is
present in the external meatus, it is known as collaural fistula.
Clinical features:
1. Recurrent pain and swelling are usual presenting symptoms.
Microtia
16
3. Macrotia: Excessively large pinna is known as macrotia.
4. Melotia: Misplacement of pinna is known as melotia.
5. Cryptotia: Upper 1/3rd of pinna is embedded under the skin of scalp.
6. Accessory auricle (Preauricular tags or appendages): Extra tubercles may be
present in a line drawn from tragus to angle of mouth.
SELF ASSESSMENT Anotia
Q. 1. The most common symptoms of preauricular sinus are
a. hearing loss and earache d. vertigo and tinnitus
Clinical features:
1. Usually there is a history of trauma.
2. There is severe pain.
On examination;
1. The pinna appears swollen and blue.
2. Outline of conchal fold is lost.
3. The pinna is usually tender.
Complications:
If the treatment is not given well in time, there may be;
1. Perichondritis
2. Organization of clot with permanent thickening of the auricle known
as cauliflower ear, wrestler’s ear, turban ear, boxer’s ear or pugilistic
ear. Cauliflower ear
Investigations:
It is diagnosed on clinical grounds.
18
Treatment:
1. Wide bore needle aspiration is usually sufficient when collection is small.
2. Incision and drainage under full aseptic measures is done under local anesthesia when
collection is large. Wound is kept open by placing a drain.
3. Silicone or other moulded splints which conform to the shape of pinna are applied.
4. Compression dressing with head bandage is applied for 48 hours to avoid recollection.
Alternatively, dental rolls or shirt buttons tied with through and through sutures may be
applied.
5. Systemic broad-spectrum antibiotics are given if presentation is delayed or there is risk of
infection.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Hematoma auris is also known as
c. wrestler’s ear
Q. 2. Hematoma auris is also known as
KELOID
A sharply elevated, irregularly shaped, progressively enlarging scar resulting from formation
of excessive amount of collagen in the dermis during connective tissue repair.
Etiopathology:
There is a genetic susceptibility for keloid formation. Black races are more
often affected than the white races. It often follows trauma such as piercing
pinna for ornaments or a surgical incision. It usually presents as a
pedunculated lesion.
Treatment:
Treatment is surgical excision followed by repeated injections of A case of keloid
triamcinolone into the surgical site or immediate postoperative radiotherapy
with 300 rads.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Keloid formation of the auricle has following feature
20
INFLAMMATIONS OF EXTERNAL EAR
OTITIS EXTERNA
Definition:
It is defined as condition of skin of the external meatus that is
characterized by edema, erythema and discomfort/pain.
Etiopathology:
It includes all the inflammatory conditions of the pinna, external
meatus and outer surface of tympanic membrane.
Causes of otitis externa may be divided into; Pathophysiology of otits externa
1. Infective (bacterial, fungal, viral)
2. Reactive (eczema, seborrheic dermatitis, neurodermatitis)
Classification of otitis externa:
Otitis externa is classified into;
1. Localized otitis externa: (boil ear)
2. Diffuse otitis externa: It is further subclassified into;
a. Diffuse infective otitis externa
b. Otomycosis
c. Seborrheic otitis externa
d. Otitis externa hemorrhagica
e. Herpes zoster oticus
f. Malignant otitis externa
g. Perichondritis of pinna
BOIL (FURUNCLE) OF EAR A case of
otitis externa
Synonym: Localized acute otitis externa
Definition:
A boil is defined as Staphylococcus aureus infection of hair follicle
(pilosebaceous gland).
Etiopathology:
As hair follicles are limited only to the cartilaginous portion of external meatus, boil ear
occurs only in this portion. In severe cases, inflammation may spread to postauricular sulcus
causing forward displacement of the pinna. Eventually the furuncle may A case of boil ear
discharge and the condition resolve quickly.
Clinical features:
1. Severe pain in the meatus which is aggravated by chewing movement is the usual
presenting symptom. Boil of external meatus is very painful because skin is tightly
adherent to underlying tissue through rete pegs.
2. Hearing loss may occur if the meatus is completely occluded by swelling.
On examination;
1. Boil is visible in the cartilaginous portion of meatus.
2. Severe tenderness on movement of the pinna. Because of edema of the external
auditory meatus, it may not be possible to pass speculum or otoscope beyond the
swelling. If the canal is completely occluded, tuning fork tests may show mild conductive
hearing loss. Periauricular (anterior, posterior and inferior) lymph nodes may also be
enlarged and tender. Boil of posterior meatal wall may cause edema over the mastoid.
Treatment:
1. Swab for culture and sensitivity is taken.
2. Systemic antibiotics such as penicillin or flucloxacillin are given, especially if there is
marked edema, multiple boils or associated lymphadenopathy.
3. Analgesics are given to relieve severe pain.
4. Local heat is provided with hot water bottle, electric pad or a short-wave diathermy. A
wick soaked in 10% Ichthammol glycerine/magnesium sulphate is placed over the boil in
the external meatus. It has got a hygroscopic action. It reduces edema and pain.
5. In recurrent furunculosis it is very important to exclude diabetes mellitus and other
causes of immunosuppression.
6. Incision should be avoided unless boil is very protuberant and pointing. If incision is to
be done at all, it is done under full aseptic measures.
7. Staphylococci should be eliminated from the external meatus, nasal vestibule and nail
beds by twice daily application of cream containing neomycin or gentamicin.
Differences between boil ear and mastoiditis
Differential diagnosis:
1. Acute mastoiditis
2. Diffuse otitis externa
3. Herpes zoster oticus
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Boil (furuncle) of ear is also called
c. Pseudomonas
Q. 4. Boil ear is infection of
23
c. mucous glands
Q. 5. Differential diagnosis of boil ear is
Clinical features:
1. Pain in and around the ear which is aggravated by chewing movement is the main
symptom in acute stage.
2. Swelling of the surrounding tissues and outward displacement of the pinna may be
present.
On examination;
1. Meatal skin is red, swollen and tender.
2. Tympanic membrane is often dull and congested.
Treatment:
1. Swab is taken for culture and sensitivity.
2. Aural toilet of meatus is done under operating microscope.
3. One cm wide ribbon gauze soaked in antibiotic (neomycin or gentamicin) is placed in
the external meatus and changed daily. The wick is moistened with drops containing
similar antibiotic preparations.
4. Systemic antibiotics are required for complicated diffuse otitis externa.
5. Non steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are used as analgesic.
6. Any rubbing or scratching of ear should be avoided. When any skin disease exists in
external meatus, opinion of dermatologist must be taken.
B. Chronic stage:
Clinical features:
1. Irritation and discharge are main symptoms in chronic stage.
2. Hearing loss may develop as a result of accumulation of debris in the meatus.
3. Thickening of meatal skin. There is no tenderness. There may be small granulations on
the surface of tympanic membrane.
Treatment:
1. Same as that for acute
stage. In addition,
2. One cm wide ribbon gauze soaked with steroid is placed in the external meatus to
reduce the inflammatory swelling and irritation.
3. Underlying condition like chronic suppurative otitis media and fungal infections should
25
be addressed on their own merits.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Diffuse infective otitis externa is also known as
OTOMYCOSIS
Definition:
The term otomycosis is used to describe a superficial, diffuse fungal infection of ear canal.
Etiopathology:
Warm humid environment supports fungal growth and human ear canal is ideal for them. It
is prevalent in tropical and sub-tropical climates. Otomycosis may develop as a primary
infection. It may also develop as a result of prolonged treatment with antibiotics and steroid
preparation.
The fungi commonly found are;
26
1. Candida albicans
2. Aspergillus niger (which produce blackish
colony).
3. Aspergillus flavus (which produce yellowish
colony).
4. Aspergillus albus (which produce whitish
colony).
Clinical features:
1. Severe itching and mild watery discharge
are usual presenting symptoms.
2. Hearing loss and fullness in the ear canal
occur if there is complete blockade of external
meatus. While pain usually indicates bacterial
infection. Otoscopic finding of otomycosis
On examination;
1. Fluffy material which looks like a wet blotting paper or cotton wool is usually visible in
the external meatus. There may be black specks.
2. Mycelia may be seen as a mass of fine filaments. Meatal skin may be red and swollen.
Investigations:
Diagnosis is made on clinical grounds. In doubtful cases material from the ear canal
should be taken for microscopic examination. PAS (Periodic Acid Schiff) stain is used which
reveals branching hyphae, budding cells or both.
Treatment:
1. Removal of debris: All the debris and discharge should be removed from ear canal by
suction or instruments like ring ended probe, blunt hook or aural dressing forceps. The
ear canal is cleaned thoroughly.
2. Topical antifungal agents: Nystatin or imidazole (such as clotrimazole or econazole
nitrate) can be used topically in the form of solution (03 drops 06 hourly) or cream with
the help of a cotton bud 12 hourly.
Another method is to insert a wick soaked in imidazole prepration for a few days and this
should be changed at frequent intervals.
In chronic cases, the fungi may penetrate into deeper layers of skin and may be difficult
to eradicate with above-mentioned treatment. So, in these cases, 02% salicylic acid in
rectified spirit is used 3 drops every 6 hours. Salicylic acid is keratolytic and exposes the
fungi from deeper layers to exterior, whereas rectified spirit is fungicidal. Antifungal
treatment should be continued for 2-3 weeks even after apparent recovery to avoid
recurrence.
3. Avoidance of water: Patient is asked to avoid entry of water into the ear. This may be
achieved by blocking the ears with ear plugs meant for swimming or with cotton ball
soaked in oil, liquid paraffin or petroleum jelly (e.g., vaseline) before taking bath. Patient
is asked to thoroughly mop ears after bath.
4. Avoid poking and scratching of the external meatus: As this may cause abrasion of skin
and penetration of the fungi into the deeper layers from where it is very difficult to
27
eradicate the fungi.
If there is associated otitis externa then the treatment is same as that for diffuse otitis
externa.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Otomycosis is usually caused by
a. actinomycetes d. rhinosporidiosis
b. aspergillus e. sporotrichosis
c. mucormycosis
Q. 3. The most common symptoms of otomycosis are
a. bleeding and earache d. severe itching and ear discharge
Clinical features:
These are same as that for otomycosis.
Treatment:
It is same as that for otomycosis. In addition, the patient is advised to
control the scalp condition by regular shampooing at least twice
weekly with anti-dandruff shampoos or creams containing antifungal
agents like miconazole, ketoconazole or itraconazole.
SELF ASSESSMENT A case of seborrheic
Q. 1. The responsible organism of seborrheic dermatitis is otitis externa
--------------------------------------------------------ANSWERS-----------------------------------------------------
29
Q.1. b
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Clinical features:
1. Very severe pain in the ear is the usual presenting symptom.
A case of otitis
externa
hemorrhagica
SELF ASSESSMENT
30
Q. 1. Otitis externa hemorrhagica is also known as
a. bullous myringitis d. Both a & b
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Herpes zoster oticus is also called
Q.1. e 2. b 3. c 4. b 5. c
Scenario: 1. Herpes zoster oticus 2. Bells palsy, acute otitis media, myringitis bullosa
3.Steroid antibiotic cream, antiviral and analgesics.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
MALIGNANT OTITIS EXTERNA
Synonyms: Granulomatous otitis externa, Invasive
otitis externa, Necrotizing otitis externa, Skull base
cellulitis/osteitis
Etiopathology:
The term malignant is a misnomer.
It is a severe rapidly progressing infection starting
in the external auditory meatus and rapidly involves the
temporal bone and adjacent soft tissue.
It usually occurs after the age of 50 years in diabetics. It may Pathophysiology of malignant
also occur in other patients with immunosuppression like leukemia, otitis externa
lymphoma, uremia, cytotoxic drugs, steroids and malnutrition.
The most common causative organism is Pseudomonas aeruginosa. It
tends to spread along vascular channels. It produces a number of endotoxins
and enzymes like elastase and collagenase which digest vessel wall. The
infection starts as cellulitis of external auditory meatus and rapidly spreads to
adjacent soft tissues either via tympanomastoid sutures or via the clefts of
Santorini.
Facial palsy may occur due to involvement of stylomastoid foramen.
Ninth, tenth and eleventh cranial nerves are paralyzed due to involvement of
jugular foramen. Death may result from spread of infection to sigmoid sinus
and meninges.
Clinical features:
1. Initially there are features of otitis externa. A case of malignant otitis externa
2. Very severe excruciating earache is the most common
symptom.
On examination;
1. Granulations in the deeper meatus especially along the floor at
its junction of bone and cartilage.
2. Cranial nerve palsies. Facial nerve is the most common nerve paralyzed due to
involvement of stylomastoid foramen. Ninth, tenth and eleventh cranial nerves may
also be paralyzed due to involvement of jugular foramen.
Investigations:
1. Ear swab is taken for culture and sensitivity.
2. ESR is significantly raised.
34
3. Fasting blood sugar usually shows diabetes mellitus.
4. Renal and liver function tests must be done as patient are put on antibiotics for long
duration.
5. Biopsy of granulation tissue must be taken to rule out malignancy.
6. High-definition CT/MRI of temporal bones is useful to find out extent of disease.
7. Isotope bone scan; Gallium-67 scan is useful for diagnosis and follow up of the patients.
Treatment:
1. Control diabetes or other cause of immunosuppression.
2. Antibiotics to cover Psuedomonas aeruginosa such as aminoglycosides (e.g., gentamycin
40-80 mg 8 hourly), third generation cephalosporins (e.g., ceftriaxone 1-2 g 24 hourly) or
quinolones (e.g., ciprofloxacin 750 mg 24 hourly). There is rapid relief of pain following
commencement of intravenous antibiotic therapy.
3. Strong analgesics are given to relieve pain.
4. Bone sequestrum should be removed. Incision and drainage of subperiosteal abscess
should be carried out.
Recurrence of pain and development of new cranial nerve palsies and elevation of ESR
indicate reactivation of the disease. Long term treatment is usually required.
Differential diagnosis:
1. Diffuse otitis externa
2. Malignancy of ear
3. Herpes zoster oticus
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Malignant otitis externa is also known as
a. granulomatous otitis externa d. skull base osteitis
c. correction of immunosuppression
Q. 5. Antibiotic of choice in malignant otitis externa is
a. aminoglycoside d. penicillin
c. macrolide
Scenario A: A 50 years old male complains of otalgia for the last few days which is
increasing in intensity. There is also complaint of facial asymmetry. Patient is a known
diabetic for last many years. Random blood sugar is 300 mg/dl.
1. What is the most probable clinical diagnosis?
2. What investigations will you advise?
3. How will you treat this case?
4. Name other cranial nerves that may also be involved in this condition?
B: A 55 years old female with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus develops very severe intractable
pain in and around right ear for last two weeks. Otoscopy shows granulations along the floor
in the deep meatus. Her ESR is 60 mm in first hour.
1. What is the most probable clinical diagnosis?
2. What is the differential diagnosis?
3. How will you treat this patient?
--------------------------------------------------------ANSWERS-----------------------------------------------------
Q.1. e 2. a 3. b 4. d 5. a
Scenario A: 1. Malignant otitis externa 2. Swab for culture and sensitivity, ESR, biopsy of
granulation tissue 3. Control of diabetes, antibiotics, strong analgesics, treatment of
complications like facial paralysis 4. 9th, 10th and 11th cranial nerves.
B: 1. Malignant otitis externa 2. Diffuse otitis externa, malignancy of ear,
herpez zoster oticus 3. Control of diabetes, antibiotics, analgesics, bone sequestrum
should be removed, incision and drainage of subperiosteal abscess.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-
PERICHONDRITIS OF PINNA
Definition:
Inflammation of perichondrium of the pinna is known as perichondritis.
36
Etiopathology:
Perichondritis usually occurs as a result of piercing of the pinna
cartilage for ornaments. Other causes of perichondritis are laceration,
prick, surgery or frost bite. It may occur as a result of extension of
infection from boil or diffuse otitis externa. Abscess formation may
occur in later stages. The most common causative organism is
Psuedomonas aeuroginosa.
Clinical features:
1. Severe pain over the pinna is the most common presenting
symptom. A case of perichondritis
2. There may be rise in body temperature.
3. On examination, pinna is red, swollen, tender and markedly deformed.
Investigations:
If there is discharge, it is sent for culture and sensitivity.
Treatment:
1. Antibiotics such as aminoglycosides, third generation cephalosporin or quinolones are
given parenterally.
2. Incision and drainage under full aseptic measures is necessary when abscess has formed
and collection is large.
3. Necrosed part of cartilage is removed. Wound is kept open by placing a drain. Aseptic
dressing is done on daily basis.
c. Staphylococcus aureus
Q. 2. Antibiotic of choice in perichondritis of pinna is
a. aminoglycoside d. quinolones
b. macrolide e. tetracycline
c. penicillin
Scenario: A 15 years old female presents to you with severe pain, redness and swelling of
right pinna 02 days after piercing the ear. On examination pinna is tender and markedly
deformed.
1. What is the most probable clinical diagnosis?
2. What are other possible complications of piercing ear?
37
3. What is the treatment of this patient?
--------------------------------------------------------ANSWERS-----------------------------------------------------
Q.1. b 2. a
Scenario: 1. Perichondritis of pinna 2. Hepatitis B, hepatitis C, keloid formation
3. Antibiotics, incision and drainage, removal of necrosed cartilage, aseptic dressing on daily
basis.
-------------------------------------------------------------------
Inert foreign bodies may be completely asymptomatic. Patient may present with
irritation, hearing loss, earache, ear discharge or tinnitus.
Dry batteries are the most dangerous foreign bodies in the ear, as the alkaline fluid
seeps out of them and produces tissue necrosis and granuloma formation.
Treatment:
Foreign body of ear should only be removed by a skilled doctor. Attempt at removal of
foreign
38
body ear by unskilled individuals may actually push it into deeper meatus or even middle ear
causing severe damage to tympanic membrane and middle ear structures. It is extremely
difficult to retrieve foreign body from these sites.
Living foreign body is initially killed by instilling a
few drops of oil, spirit, chloroform, ethanol, water or
saline. Then its removal is performed unhurriedly.
Techniques for removal of foreign body include;
a. Suction Living foreign body in
b. Instrumentation ear
c. Syringing/irrigation
d. Combination of the above
Whenever possible, try to get a template of the foreign
body. It helps in making the strategy and choosing
proper instruments for safe removal of foreign body. It
also helps in anticipating the possible complications of
the foreign body and its removal.
Use of operating microscope is very important for removal of foreign body ear.
Suction is the best method of removing foreign body ear.
Spherical or oval foreign bodies are removed with a wax hook. Irregular foreign bodies are
removed with forceps.
In cooperative patient, majority of foreign bodies can be easily removed without any
anesthesia.
In children especially when they are uncooperative or in cases where foreign bodies
which are already attempted usually general anesthesia is required for removal of foreign
body.
Foreign bodies which have gone into the middle ear or deeply impacted foreign bodies
are removed by endaural incision.
Irrigation technique is contraindicated for hydrophilic foreign bodies such as pea, bean
and other vegetable matter.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Most dangerous foreign body of ear is
c. plastic piece
Q. 2. Clinical feature of foreign body ear includes
a. earache d. irritation
c. hearing loss
39
b. irrigation e. syringing
Clinical features:
1. Earache is the most common symptom. It occurs as a result of expansion of the impacted
wax especially after swimming or taking bath.
2. Hearing loss is only produced when there is complete occlusion of the external meatus.
3. There may also be occasional complaint of tinnitus and giddiness.
4. Reflex cough may occur because of stimulation of auricular branch of vagus nerve.
5. Examination of ear canal with an aural speculum or an otoscope shows yellowish, dark
brown or blackish wax.
Treatment:
Soft wax is removed by;
1. Suction
2. Instrumentation
3. Syringing
Suction or instrumentation should be done by some
skilled person preferably using operating microscope. All
the wax should be removed from ear canal by suction or
instruments like ring ended probe, blunt hook or aural
dressing forceps.
If wax is hard, dry or impacted, patient is advised to
instill wax softener like 05% sodium bicarbonate in
equal part with glycerine (also known as soda glycerine
drops), olive oil or liquid paraffin. The drops are used 4-
6 times a day for a few days before removal.
Ceruminolytic agent like 02% paradichlorobenzine
may also be used. Hydrogen peroxide should not be used Instrumental removal of ear wax
to soften the wax as it can induce severe otitis externa.
Syringing:
Procedure: Syringing should only be done by
experienced staff members. The saline should be at about
body temperature otherwise it may stimulate semicircular
canals leading to vertigo and nystagmus which is known as
caloric effect. The patient sits before the operator with the
ear to be syringed facing him. The nozzle of the syringe is
detached and the syringe is filled with saline. The nozzle is
then tightly reapplied and air pushed out of syringe in
vertical position. Light is thrown on the patient`s ear by
means of head light. The kidney tray is held below the ear. The
Syringing of ears
pinna of the patient is pulled upwards, backwards and outwards with one hand of the operator
to straighten out the meatus. By means of the syringe, the jet of the fluid is directed towards
the posterosuperior wall of the meatus. The force used should be moderate and if the wax or
any other thing in the meatus does not come out with two or three syringefuls, the clinician
should resort to some other means. The meatus should be inspected after each attempt to see
the tympanic membrane and also to make sure that the whole wax has been removed. After
syringing, the meatus should be dried with cotton on carrier.
Indications:
1. Removal of wax
2. Removal of fungus
3. Removal of copious discharge
4. Removal of small foreign body from the external meatus
Contraindications:
1. Severe otitis externa
2. Acute otitis media
3. Fracture of base of skull
4. CSF otorrhoea
Complications of syringing:
1. Tympanic membrane perforation
2. Otitis externa
3. Stimulation of auricular branch of vagus nerve leading to cough reflex/ bradycardia
4. Caloric effect
Differential diagnosis:
1. Otomycosis
2. Diffuse otitis externa
3. Acute otitis media
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. All are true about wax ear except
d. produced by sebaceous glands and
a. acts as a lubricant modified sweat glands
b. acts as a repellant
c. expelled spontaneously e. should be frequently removed
Clinical features:
1. Pain and hearing loss are the most common presenting
symptoms.
2. Ear canal is full of hard pearly white mass present in the
form of layers.
Complications:
1. The KO has got pressure effects and causes erosion of bone.
2. It leads to widening of the meatus.
3. There may be granulations on the exposed cartilaginous
meatus and otitis externa. A case of keratosis obturans
4. Facial paralysis may occur occasionally.
Treatment:
1. Removal of the KO plug is similar to wax with the help of different instruments.
Sometimes general anesthesia is required to remove the plug.
2. Any granulations should be treated appropriately.
3. Regular follow up of the patient is also necessary to prevent recurrence.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. All are true about keratosis obturans except
a. abnormal desquamation of epithelium d. needs regular follow-up
c. causes pain
Q. 2. All are true about keratosis obturans except
Ysis
d. may be associated with otitis externa
Investigations:
1. Audiometric tests are done to identify whether cochlear and eighth nerve are functional
or not.
2. CT/MRI is done to assess status of middle and inner ear.
Treatment:
45
1. In cases of congenital meatal atresia, treatment consists of functional (hearing)
rehabilitation and cosmesis. Functional (hearing) rehabilitation may be done with bone
anchored hearing aid (BAHA). Cosmesis may be improved with plastic surgery or
prosthesis.
2. In cases of acquired meatal atresia, treatment is carried out only when there is
marked symptom of hearing loss or when toilet and inspection of post mastoidectomy
cavity is impossible. Meatoplasty is performed with postaural incision. Thickened skin
and scar tissue is removed. Bony meatus is enlarged and meatal wound is covered with a
flap or split skin graft.
OSTEOMA
This is a unilateral, solitary, smooth, pedunculated benign tumor in
the outer part of bony meatus. It is composed of cancellous bone.
Exact cause is unknown. It arises from only one wall of external meatus.
Treatment:
A case of osteoma
If there is no symptom, no treatment is required.
If there is symptom of hearing loss, as much of osteoma as possible should be removed by
fracturing the pedicle. It may be done by transcanal or endaural approach.
EXOSTOSIS
These are bilateral, multiple (usually three), smooth, sessile, hemispherical
elevations in the deeper meatus adjacent to tympanic membrane. These are
composed of compact bone.
There is strong association between cold water bathing and formation of meatal
exostosis.
A case of exostosis
When small, these do not cause any symptom. When large, these
completely block the meatus and there is collection of wax and epithelial debris leading to
conductive hearing loss.
Treatment:
When exostosis is small, no treatment is required.
When large enough to cause symptoms, these should be removed with high-speed drill
through a postaural approach. This is known as canal plasty.
Differences between osteoma and exostosis
S.No Features Osteoma Exostosis
1 Laterality Unilateral Bilateral
2. Number Solitary Multiple
3. Shape Pedunculated Sessile
b. multiple e. unilateral
c. pedunculated
Q. 2. What is true about osteoma of external meatus
c. removed by fracturing
Q. 3. All are true of exostosis of external meatus except
b. bilateral e. solitary
c. multiple
Q. 4. What is true about exostosis of external meatus
a. arises from compact bone d. all of the above
Chapter 4
DISEASES OF MIDDLE EAR CLEFT
INJURIES
FRACTURES OF TEMPORAL BONE
Fractures of temporal bone are divided into longitudinal, transverse and mixed fractures
depending on the relationship of fracture line to the long axis of petrous temporal bone.
There may be discoloration of the skin over the mastoid region which is known as Battle
sign.
A. Longitudinal fractures:
These are more common (about 80%). These are relatively less dangerous. Fracture line is
along the long axis of petrous temporal bone. It involves tympanic cavity, tympanic
membrane and bony external meatus.
Later on, cholesteatoma may develop as a result of invasion of middle ear cleft by
squamous epithelium.
Clinical features:
1. Bleeding from ear may occur as a result of laceration of
meatal skin or through a ruptured tympanic membrane. If
fracture does not reach or tear the tympanic membrane, the
blood is retained in the middle ear (hemotympanum) and is
visible as blue or black tympanic membrane.
CT-Longitudinal fracture of
2. Conductive hearing loss usually occurs due to ossicular temporal bone
disruption.
3. CSF otorhinorrhoea is usually common. Facial nerve injury is uncommon and when
occurs, is usually delayed in onset.
B. Transverse fractures:
These are less common (about 20%). These are relatively more dangerous. Fracture line is
at right angle to the long axis of the petrous temporal bone. It involves the labyrinth or
internal auditory meatus.
Clinical features:
48
1. Hemotympanum (blood in the middle ear) is usually present.
2. Sensorineural hearing loss which is usually permanent. It is accompanied by tinnitus.
3. Facial paralysis may occur in about 50% of patients. Onset is usually immediate.
There is complaint of severe rotatory vertigo with nausea and vertigo due to damage to
vestibular apparatus. There is nystagmus with fast component to the opposite side.
Severe general injuries (especially head injury) of the patient may dominate the clinical
picture in cases of transverse fracture of temporal bone.
Investigations:
Bleeding from the ear after head injury indicates the presence
of fracture until proven otherwise. Plain radiographs may not
be sufficient for diagnosis.
1. CT is usually required to diagnose the type and extent of
fracture of temporal bone. CT Scan-Transverse
fracture of temporal bone
2. MRI may be required for confirming the continuity of facial
nerve.
3. In cases of facial paralysis, electrophysiological tests may also be required.
Treatment:
Initial treatment is the same as that for head injury.
1. Multidisciplinary approach is usually required.
2. I.V. antibiotics are given. It is better to leave any blood clot untouched in the external
auditory meatus. The ear should be protected with a sterile dressing.
3. CSF leakage and ruptured tympanic membrane are managed conservatively.
4. Ossicular reconstruction may be required in cases of ossicular dislocation. Fracture of
the bony meatus may need reduction of fracture or excision of the displaced fragments at
a later date.
5. Exploration of the facial nerve is considered in cases of immediate and total facial
paralysis.
6. Vertigo may settle in 2-4 weeks in young patients, whereas older patients may remain
unsteady for a few months. During this period, labyrinthine sedative drugs are given.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. In cases of fracture of temporal bone discoloration of the skin over the mastoid
region is known as
a. Battle sign b. Hennebert sign
49
Investigations:
1. PTA shows conductive hearing loss.
2. Tympanogram shows a negative middle ear pressure (type B or C graph).
Treatment:
1. Avoid travelling in a non-pressurized airplane especially when having an upper
respiratory tract infection.
2. If there is nasal congestion and upper respiratory tract infection, it should be treated with
topical or systemic decongestants, antibiotics and anti-inflammatory drugs.
Decongestants e.g., pseudoephedrine 120 mg should be used before descent.
3. Avoid sleep during descent (as frequency of swallowing movements and hence, opening
of eustachian tube is decreased during sleep).
51
4. Use of sweets and chewing gum is encouraged before descent. Autoinflation of the
eustachian tube is encouraged by Valsalva maneuver. If there is no fluid in the middle
ear, autoinflation is usually sufficient.
5. Middle ear aeration may be restored by catheterization and Politzerization.
6. Myringotomy is sometimes performed if there is fluid in the middle ear.
7. Grommet insertion may be required in resistant cases.
8. If the tubes are “locked”, “unlocking” may be possible only when the flight is taken to
the previous height (i.e., pressure) at which the tubes were locked. This is followed by a
gradual descent to avoid ‘relocking’.
9. When the tympanic membrane is already ruptured, it is treated as a case of traumatic
rupture of tympanic membrane.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Otitic barotrauma is also known as
brane
c. perforated tympanic membrane
Q. 5. For locking of healthy eustachian tube, the critical pressure difference between
middle ear and nasopharynx in barotrauma is
a. 30 mmHg d. 110 mmHg
c. tympanogram may show type A curve e. tympanogram may show type C curve
d. tympanogram may show type B curve
Q. 7. All are true about management of otitic barotrauma except
a. to avoid travelling during upper respira- plane
tory tract infection d. should use sweets and chewing gums
b. to avoid sleep during descent e. should perform Valsalva maneuver
c. should travel in non pressurized air-
Q. 8. All are true about management of otitic barotrauma except
a. catheterization and politzerization. d. nasal decongestants
c. myringotomy
Scenario: A 25 years old lady presents to you with bilateral hearing loss and tinnitus after an
air travel. She had URTI preceding the journey. On examination there is hemotympanum.
1. What is the most probable clinical diagnosis?
2. What is the etiopathology of this entity?
3. How will you treat this patient?
------------------------------------------- ANSWERS--------------------
------------- ---------------------------------
Q.1. d 2. c 3. c 4. d 5. c 6. c 7. c 8. e
Scenario: 1. Otitic barotrauma 2. “Locking” of eustachian tube while flying 3. Avoid travel
in non pressurized airplane, topical or systemic decongestants, avoid sleep during descent,
chewing gums use.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
TRAUMATIC PERFORATION OF TYMPANIC MEMBRANE
Etiopathology:
It may occur by;
1. Air pressure
2. Fluids
3. Solid objects
1. Air pressure:
This usually occurs from a rapid change in air pressure. The most
common cause is a blow on ear usually with a slap. Sometimes, a blow on
the ear from a ball or a fall on water can lead to perforation of the
tympanic membrane.
Valsalva maneuver
Blast injury of ear and the barotrauma may also lead to perforation of
the tympanic membrane. Eustachian tube inflation by Valsalva maneuver or a eustachian
tube catheter may also lead to perforation of the tympanic membrane especially if the
tympanic membrane
53 Part B Ear
Investigations:
Pure tone audiometry is required to find out the degree of hearing loss. Conductive hearing
loss of more than 30 dB usually indicates ossicular damage.
Treatment:
Usually, the prognosis in traumatic perforation is excellent.
1. Passive approach:
The most effective management is to do nothing. The ear should be kept dry. No ear
drops should be prescribed. Ear should not be cleaned out, unless contaminated material
is found in the external meatus. Systemic antibiotic plus systemic analgesic are given.
Traumatic perforation usually heals spontaneously within 10 weeks.
2. Active approach:
1. Eversion of the edges of the perforation may be carried out under operating
microscope as an alternative to passive approach in early stages.
2. Myringoplasty i.e., surgical closure of perforation is carried out if there is no
spontaneous healing in three to six months.
54
3. If there is facial paralysis or subluxation of stapes (as indicated by, vertigo,
nystagmus and sensorineural hearing loss) then urgent surgical exploration is
required.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Traumatic perforation of tympanic membrane may be due to
b. 10 days e. 01 year
c. 10 weeks
Q. 6. Passive treatment of dry traumatic rupture of tympanic membrane of 01 days
duration is
a. antibiotic ear drops d. protection of ear against entry of
b. ear wick soaked with antibiotic water
c. myringoplasty e. regular cleaning of ear
Q. 7. The most suitable active treatment in traumatic perforation of tympanic membrane
of 01-day duration is
a. eversion of edges of tympanic mem- b. systemic antibiotics
brane under operating microscope
c. systemic steroids e. topical steroids
d. topical antibiotics
Q. 8. Treatment of choice for dry traumatic rupture of tympanic membrane of 06 months
duration is
55
There is a short-lived positive pressure phase and then a longer and Traumatic
less marked negative pressure phase. Damage occurs both as a result perforation following
of high intensity of noise and the shock wave. The ear facing the blast injury
bomb tends to be more severely damaged. There may be damage to both middle and
inner ears. In most cases sensorineural hearing loss rapidly resolves but high frequency
losses may persist.
Clinical features:
1. There may be hyperemia and even subepithelial bleeding in the tympanic membrane.
2. There may be conductive as well as sensorineural hearing loss.
3. Perforation of tympanic membrane is usually seen in the pars tensa.
Investigations:
Pure tone audiometry is required to find out the type and degree of hearing loss.
56
Conductive hearing loss of more than 30 dB usually indicates ossicular damage.
Treatment:
Most blast injuries of the tympanic membrane heal spontaneously with conservative
measures. Occasionally, myringoplasty or tympanoplasty may be required to close the
perforation or repair ossicular chain respectively.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. In blast injury, hearing loss occurs as a result of
a. high intensity noise d. Both a & c
c. shock wave
Q.2. All are true about blast injury except
a. conductive hearing loss d. sensorineural hearing loss
b. perforation of pars flaccida e. subepithelial bleeding in tympanic
c. perforation of pars tensa membrane
Q. 3. All are true about blast injury except
a. conductive hearing loss of more than 30 c. myringoplasty is required usually to close
dB usually indicates ossicular damage the tympanic membrane perforation
b. myringoplasty may be required occa- d. pure tone audiometry shows type and
sionally to close the tympanic membrane degree of hearing loss
perforation
e. tympanoplasty may be required to
repair ossicular chain
Scenario: A 15 years old boy presents in ENT emergency 15 minutes after a bomb blast.
There is bilateral severe degree of hearing loss and aural bleeding.
1. What is the most probable clinical diagnosis?
2. How will you investigate this patient?
3. How will you manage this patient?
--------------------------------------------------------ANSWERS-----------------------------------------------------
Q.1. d 2. b 3. c
Scenario: 1. Perforation of tympanic membrane after blast injury 2. Pure tone audiometry
3. Wait for spontaneous healing, myringoplasty may be required to close the tympanic
membrane perforation or tympanoplasty may be required to repair ossicular chain defect.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
OTITIS MEDIA
ACUTE OTITIS MEDIA /ACUTE SUPPURATIVE OTITIS MEDIA
Definition:
57
Acute otitis media is defined as acute
inflammation of the mucous membrane
lining the middle ear cleft i.e., eustachian
tube, tympanic cavity, mastoid antrum and
mastoid air cells.
When there is drainage of mucopus from
the middle ear, it is labelled as acute
suppurative otitis media.
Etiopathology:
The disease is commonly seen in children but
adults may also get affected. The disease
affects young children because of following
anatomical factors;
Eustachian tube is shorter, wider and
more horizontal as compared to adults. Its
nasopharyngeal end is nearer to the floor of the nose; therefore, the
secretions get an easy access to middle ear in young children. Acute otits media
Bottle fed babies especially if they are fed in lying down position, tend to develop the
disease from infection going into the middle ear along with milk.
It usually starts after an upper respiratory tract infection. It is usually followed by
pyogenic organisms. It is common in swimmers and divers. It is also seen in patients with
palatal paralysis.
The most common organisms are Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae
and Moraxella (Branhamella) catarrhalis.
Infection of the middle ear may occur through;
1. Eustachian tube: It is the chief route by which infection reaches the middle ear. The
cause in such cases is rhinitis, sinusitis, pharyngitis or tonsillitis.
2. Perforated tympanic membrane or through a ventilation
tube (grommet).
3. Blood borne rarely
The type of inflammatory reaction and its progress i.e., whether
suppurative or non suppurative depends on;
1. Virulence of the organism
2. Resistance of the patient
3. Treatment particularly with antibiotics.
Clinical features:
There is usually a preceding history of upper respiratory tract
A case of ASOM
infection.
Usual symptoms of acute otitis media in an infant include pulling at ears, excessive crying,
disturbed nights and feeding difficulty.
There are different stages of the disease;
A. In the initial stages:
1. Sensation of fullness in the ear is the most common presentation.
2. There may be complaint of hearing loss.
58
On examination;
1. There is hyperemia of the tympanic membrane.
2. Tuning fork tests show conductive hearing loss.
B. In the late stages:
1. Severe stabbing earache which usually indicates degree of tension of tympanic
membrane. If perforation of tympanic membrane occurs, there is mucopurulent
bloodstained discharge from the ear and earache is relieved due to decrease in
tension of tympanic membrane.
2. There may be constitutional symptoms in the form of rise in body temperature,
pulse rate and malaise.
On examination;
1. Tympanic membrane may be bulging and dull in appearance.
2. There may be central perforation of tympanic membrane in the posterosuperior
quadrant.
3. Tuning fork tests show conductive hearing loss.
Complications:
1. Otitis media with effusion
2. Chronic suppurative otitis media
3. Intracranial complications
4. Extracranial complications
Investigations:
1. Culture and sensitivity of the discharge from the ear.
2. X-ray mastoid lateral oblique view is done to find out haziness of mastoid air cells, bone
erosion, position of the sigmoid sinus/dural plate and sinodural angle.
3. Tympanometry may be done to confirm the presence of fluid in the middle ear.
4. Pure tone audiometry may be performed but should be deferred until acute stage is
over.
5. CT scan of temporal bones including brain must be carried out if complications of acute
otitis media are suspected.
Treatment:
1. Antibiotics like ampicillin or amoxicillin are given for at least 10 days or till tympanic
membrane regains normal appearance and hearing returns to normal.
2. Analgesics are given to relieve pain.
59
3. Topical/systemic decongestants help in reducing congestion around eustachian tube and
promote drainage and aeration of middle ear.
4. Myringotomy is done if tympanic membrane is not yet ruptured and bulging or if there is
persistent effusion beyond 12 weeks. It is done in the posteroinferior quadrant of
tympanic membrane. It may be done under local or general anesthesia.
5. Treatment of underlying cause such as rhinitis, sinusitis and adenoiditis.
Differential diagnosis:
1. Bullous myringitis
2. Boil ear
3. Diffuse otitis externa
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. All are components of middle ear cleft except
c. mastoid antrum
Q. 2. All are usual causative organisms of acute otitis media except
c. Haemophilus influenzae
Q. 3. Infection of the middle ear may occur through
c. regression of adenoids
60
Q. 7. Usual clinical features of acute otitis media in an adult include all except
c. paralysis of trigeminal nerve
a. conductive hearing loss
b. mucopurulent bloodstained ear dis- d. sensation of fullness in the ear
charge e. severe earache
ear fluid
61
MYRINGOPLASTY
Indications and advantages of myringoplasty:
Closure of tympanic membrane perforation;
1. Restores vibratory area of tympanic membrane.
2. Affords round window protection thus, improving hearing and lessening tinnitus.
3. Lessens susceptibility of middle ear mucosa to infections.
4. Provide sound pressure transformation.
Prerequisites of myringoplasty:
1. Eustachian tube should be functional.
2. Contributing factors such as allergic rhinitis, sinusitis and adenoiditis should be treat-
ed.
3. Ear should be dry for at least last 3-6 months.
4. Air bone gap should not be more than 30 dB.
There are different techniques of myringoplasty;
A. Onlay/overlay technique i.e., graft is placed over the perforation.
B. Underlay technique i.e., graft is placed under the perforation.
C. Sandwich technique i.e., perforation is sandwiched between the grafts.
Advantages and disadvantages of different techniques:
A. Onlay technique:
Advantages:
64
1. It can be performed through transcanal approach
2. Avoids external incision
3. Less time consuming
4. Easier preparation of bed
5. Easier application of graft
Disadvantages:
1. Risk of cholesteatoma pearl
formation
Onlay technique Underlay technique
2. Lateralization of graft
3. Anterior blunting
4. Dermoid inclusion
B. Underlay technique:
Advantages:
1. Opportunity to inspect and test the mobility of ossicular chain
2. Squamous epithelium of meatal skin and drum remnant remain lateral to grafts
3. Any intratympanic adhesion can be divided
4. Can be used where previous onlay operation has failed
Disadvantages:
1. Risk of medial prolapse of graft
2. Retraction of anterior edge
Procedure:
It is performed under local or general anesthesia. It may be performed by a
transmeatal/postaural approach. Position of the patient is made and scrubbing is done. Using
a vertical knife, all of the scar tissue is removed from around the whole circumference of the
perforation. A graft of correct size and shape is harvested. Middle ear cavities are packed
with spongostan. The graft is placed over the spongostan bed. The graft may be placed medial
to the perforation (underlay technique) or lateral to the perforation (overlay technique). The
external meatus is packed with spongostan.
If a postaural incision is used, the above-mentioned procedure is carried out using a
tympanomeatal flap.
CORTICAL MASTOIDECTOMY
Synonyms: Simple mastoidectomy, Schwartz operation
Procedure:
After general anesthesia, position is made, scrubbing and draping is done. Incision line is
marked and infiltrated with a solution of xylocaine plus adrenaline in ratio of 1:80,000.
Postaural crescenteric incision is made about 3-5 mm behind the retroauricular groove
starting from the upper end of attachment of pinna, to the side of the skull and ending well
above the tip of the mastoid bone.
In younger patients as mastoid is less developed, the incision is made oblique (rather
than crescenteric) to avoid damage to facial nerve. Incision is made through the skin, fascia
and periosteum. With the periosteum elevated, skin edges and periosteum are retracted
anteriorly and posteriorly. Any bleeding at the time of the incision is stopped with diathermy.
Posterior border of the bony external auditory meatus as well as suprameatal triangle and
spine are identified.
Skin from posterior meatal wall elevated and
anterior surface of posterior meatal wall exposed.
Drilling is started with an electric burr at
MacEwen triangle (also known as suprameatal
triangle). Deep to it lies mastoid antrum lies at a
depth of 1.5 cm in adults. All the diseased cells in
the region of mastoid are thoroughly drilled under
operating microscope. The cavity is saucerized
and the mastoid antrum is entered. Aditus is
enlarged without dislocating the short process of
incus so that the middle ear drains well through
the antrum. During the process of drilling,
continuous irrigation with saline is carried out to avoid any
permanent trauma to the facial nerve and to avoid bone dust MacEwen triangle
and smoke formation. The middle ear is not entered and the
chain of ossicles is not disturbed. In this procedure, the
intention is to drain the antrum and exenterate the infected
cells.
A drain is placed in antrum. The wound is stitched in layers i.e., a layer of periosteum
and deep fascia and a layer of skin and superficial fascia. Crape bandage is applied keeping
the pinna in normal anatomical position. Skin stitches are removed on 7th day. Drain is
removed usually after 48-72 hours. External auditory meatus is inspected and cleaned daily
under the operating microscope. Postoperative period should be covered with appropriate
antibiotics and analgesics.
66
RADICAL MASTOIDECTOMY
Procedure:
Initial procedure is the same as for cortical mastoidectomy.
The bone lining lateral to the aditus i.e., the scutum is drilled away with fine burr.
Posterior bony meatal wall i.e., facial ridge is gradually removed keeping in mind that the
facial nerve lies deep to it. While lowering the facial ridge, a continuous watch is made by an
assistant for any twitching of facial muscles.
The middle ear is widely exposed and the mastoid cavity is directly communicated with
the external auditory meatus at the end of the procedure. Any remains of the tympanic
membrane, the malleus and the incus but not the stapes are removed. Any dead, degenerated
tissue must be removed. If there is any cholesteatoma, it is removed along with its matrix.
Sinus tympani must be cleared of granulations and degenerated mucosa.
The cavity thus, formed is kidney shape and comprises of mastoid antrum, aditus, attic
and middle ear. It is smoothened with a diamond paste burr. All the procedure is done with an
operating microscope and with continuous irrigation with normal saline. Some surgeons
curette the opening of eustachian tube. Meatoplasty is carried out and the mastoid cavity and
external meatus is packed with ribbon gauze soaked in antibiotic. Skin stitching is done in
two layers. Pack is removed after 3-5 days.
MODIFIED RADICAL MASTOIDECTOMY
Procedure:
It is the same as for radical mastoidectomy. Cholesteatoma, diseased tissue and granulations
are removed. Usually, the tympanic membrane remnants and the healthy ossicular chain are
conserved. Meatoplasty is performed and the cavity and external meatus are packed with
ribbon gauze soaked in antibiotics, the pack is removed after 3-5 days.
MEATOPLASTY
It is an operation in which a part of the conchal cartilage is
excised to widen the external auditory meatus. It is usually done
at the end of modified radical or radical mastoidectomies for
periodic inspection and cleansing of mastoid cavity
postoperatively. An operated case of
meatoplasty
Complications of mastoidectomy (cortical, radical
or modified radical mastoidectomy):
There may be damage to;
1. Facial nerve
67
2. Labyrinth leading to sensorineural hearing loss, vertigo and tinnitus
3. Dura and CSF leakage
4. Ossicular chain leading to conductive hearing loss in cortical mastoidectomy
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. All of the following are indications of myringotomy except
a. acute otitis media d. otitis media with effusion
c. lateralizatin of graft
68
Q. 8. Following is advantage of underlay technique of myringoplasty
a. intratympanic adhesion can be divided to graft
d. all of the above
b. opportunity to inspect middle ear e. none of the above
c. squamous epithelium remains lateral
Q. 9. All of the following are disadvantages of underlay technique of myringoplasty
except
a. intratympanic adhesion can be divided
b. retraction of anterior edge d. Both a and b
c. mastoid antrum
Q. 13. In adult the mastoid antrum lies at a depth of
a. 10 mm d. 25 mm
b. 15 mm e. 30 mm
c. 20 mm
Q. 14. Plate of bone separating the middle cranial fossa from middle ear is called
a. epitympanum (attic) d. tegmen tympani
c. sinus plate
Q. 15. All are usual complications of mastoidectomy except
Etiopathology:
The disease is common in poor socioeconomic group. It is also
common in patients with craniofacial anomalies e.g., Down
syndrome, Turner’s syndrome. The most common isolated
organisms are Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Staphylococcus
aureus. Anaerobes have also been isolated from chronic
suppurative otitis media. Chronic suppurative otitis media is
classified into two types;
1. Tubotympanic disease
2. Atticoantral disease
1. Tubotympanic disease
It is relatively a safe variety and is very rarely associated with
complications. It is characterized by central perforation (the perforation in
which all of its margins are formed by tympanic membrane). The disease Central perforation of
usually manifests in childhood. It is a result of acute otitis media tympanic membrane
and there is a central perforation. The perforation persists and permits repeated infection from
the external ear. The disease remains localized to mucosa usually in anteroinferior part of
middle ear cleft. Chronic infection and healing process proceed side by side and either may
dominate the other. Thus, acute exacerbation of the disease is very common.
Investigations:
1. Examination under microscope (EUM) is very important to find out type and extent of
disease.
2. Pure tone audiometry shows degree and type of hearing loss. It is carried out in patients
over the age of 04 years. Tympanic membrane perforation rarely causes more than 20 dB
hearing loss. Greater conductive hearing losses are caused by associated ossicular
necrosis. Significant ipsilateral sensorineural hearing loss may indicate cochlear
involvement.
3. High resolution CT provides;
a. Anatomical details
b. State of mastoid air cells
c. State of ossicular chain
d. Identify a cholesteatoma or any possible complication
e. Extension of disease
4. Culture and sensitivity of ear discharge helps in selecting appropriate antibiotics. Ear
swab is taken for microscopy as well.
5. X-ray paranasal sinuses and nasopharynx is done to find out source of infection
especially in bilateral tubotympanic disease.
Treatment:
1. Eliminate the underlying cause: This may include correction of nasal septal deviation,
removal of tonsils or adenoids.
2. Aural toilet: It consists of suction clearance of ears and/or dry mopping.
3. Topical antibiotics like polymyxin or chlormycetin are instilled regularly into the
infected ear.
4. Systemic antibiotics are given in severe and recurrent cases.
5. Patients are asked to avoid entry of water into the ears.
6. Myringoplasty: If there is recurrent discharge or if hearing loss is sufficient enough to
cause disability, closure of the perforation i.e., myringoplasty is done. The ear should be
completely dry at least for last six months before myringoplasty.
2. Atticoantral disease
It is a relatively unsafe or dangerous variety. There is high risk of complications with this
disease. It is associated with an attic or marginal perforation. It involves posterosuperior
part of middle ear cleft i.e., attic, antrum, posterior tympanum and mastoid. It is usually
associated
with cholesteatoma, granulations or osteitis.
Cholesteatoma is a keratinized squamous epithelial lined pocket containing keratinous,
debris. It may produce different enzymes which have got bone eroding properties and is,
therefore, liable to cause serious complications. If untreated, cholesteatoma, may continue to
expand and destroy the surrounding structures.
Clinical features:
It is characterized by persistent, mucopurulent, foul-
smelling discharge which may or may not be stained with
blood. There is also complaint of hearing loss. The degree of
hearing loss depends on the size of the perforation and state of
ossicular chain.
Attic cholesteatoma
Investigations:
These are same as those for tubotympanic disease.
Treatment:
1. Systemic antibiotics like fluroquinolones are given in almost all the cases.
2. Surgery: If the infection is not controlled by these conservative measures, surgical
treatment is carried out. Cases with granulation tissue or polyp may be managed
conservatively with removal of granulation tissue or polyp under the operating
microscope.
In most cases of cholesteatoma, exploration of the mastoid is carried out in the form of
radical or modified radical mastoidectomy followed by reconstruction of the hearing
mechanism i.e., tympanoplasty.
Difference between tubotympanic disease and atticoantral disease
Features Tubotympanic disease Atticoantral disease
Perforation Central Marginal or attic
Recurrent, profuse, mucoid Persistent, scanty, purulent and foul
Discharge and odorless smelling
Differential diagnosis:
1. Tuberculous otitis media
2. Wegner’s granuloma
3. Eosinophilic granuloma
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. All are usually true regarding tubotympanic disease except
a. central perforation d. profuse ear discharge
b. myringoplasty e. stapedectomy
c. myringotomy
Q. 6. In radical mastoidectomy it is necessary to preserve
a. function of eustachian tube d. stapes
Presentation of mastoiditis
Clinical features:
Clinical features are similar to those of preceding acute/chronic
suppurative otitis media and acute/chronic mastoiditis, which fails to
respond to treatment.
1. There is persistence of earache and temperature.
2. Gradenigo’s syndrome/petrous apex syndrome Triad of Gradenigo’s
syndrome
may be present which means
a. Acute infection of the middle ear cleft
b. Pain in the distribution of fifth cranial nerve
c. Sixth cranial nerve paralysis
Investigations:
Diagnosis depends on clinical picture as described above.
CT/MRI of the temporal bone is required to confirm the diagnosis.
Treatment:
CT showing petrositis
Intensive intravenous antibiotic treatment is given. If the
patient fails to respond to medical treatment in 24 to 48 hours
then;
a. Cortical mastoidectomy is performed in cases of acute otitis media/acute mastoiditis
b. Modified radical/radical mastoidectomy is performed in cases of chronic otitis
media/ chronic mastoiditis.
B. Intracranial complications
These are classified as follows;
1. Extradural abscess
2. Subdural abscess
3. Meningitis
4. Brain abscess
5. Lateral sinus thrombosis
6. Otitic hydrocephalus
79
1. Extradural abscess
It is the most common intracranial complication arising from middle ear infection. But in
most instances, it remains asymptomatic.
Clinical features:
Symptoms are usually vague and non-specific. A few patients may
have headache on the side of affected ear which is relieved by the
onset of ear discharge. There may be complaint of malaise.
Investigations:
Diagrammatic representation
CT/MRI establish the diagnosis and exact site and size of the
of cholesteatoma with
abscess. extradural abscess
2. Subdural abscess (empyema)
There may be complaint of severe headache and drowsiness. There may be focal
neurological symptoms in the form of fits or paralysis. There may be hemianesthesia and/or
paresis/ paralysis of one upper or lower limb.
Investigations:
CT/MRI establish the diagnosis and exact site and size of the abscess.
3. Meningitis (leptomeningitis)
CT showing
Definition: subdural abscess
Pia mater and arachnoid mater are together known as leptomeninges and their
inflammation is known as leptomeningitis.
Clinical features:
Patient presents with rise in body
temperature, chills and rigors. There is
severe headache and neck stiffness. There
is also complaint of vomiting.
On examination patient is anxious and
restless. There may be periods of
drowsiness. Kernig’s sign is positive i.e.,
extension of leg with thigh flexed on
abdomen causes pain. Head retraction is usually present. There
may be opisthotonus in later stages. Kernig’s sign
Brudzinski’s sign
80
a. Increase in CSF pressure, white cell count and protein content.
b. Decrease in glucose concentration.
4. Brain abscesss
Otogenic brain abscess is almost always formed in the temporal lobe or the cerebellum.
Temporal lobe abscesses are twice as common as cerebellar abscesses.
Clinical features:
There are general features of headache, fever, malaise and vomiting followed by drowsiness.
On examination pulse rate is decreased. Focal neurological impairments are seen depending
on the exact site and size of abscess. Pupils may be dilated. There may be papilledema.
Death may occur from the effects of raised intracranial pressure, meningitis or
intraventricular rupture of the abscess.
Investigations:
Contrast CT/MRI is the most important investigation in demonstrating the exact site and size
of the brain abscess.
a. Temporal lobe abscess
Clinical features:
1. Nominal aphasia. If abscess involves dominant hemisphere (usually
left) the patient is unable to tell the name of common object such as
pencil, key etc. but can explain its usage.
2. Homonymous quadrantic hemianopia occurs due to involvement of CT showing left
the optic radiations. There is motor paralysis of the upper and lower temporal lobe
limbs on the opposite side of abscess. abscess
Investigations:
Contrast CT/MRI is the most important investigation in demonstrating the exact site and
size of the temporal lobe abscess.
b. Cerebellar abscess
Clinical features:
Signs of cerebellar disease (mnemonic---6As+DISPRN) such as asthenia,
atonia, ataxia, adiadochokinesia, asynergia, abnormal posture, drunken gait,
intention tremors, scanning speech, past pointing, rebound phenomenon and
nystagmus are present on the side of lesion.
Investigations: CT showing
right cerebellar
Contrast CT/MRI is the most important investigation in demonstrating abscess
the exact site and size of the cerebellar abscess.
81
5. Lateral sinus thrombosis
Sigmoid sinus and transverse sinus collectively are known as lateral sinus.
Clinical features:
1. Picket fence (high and swinging) pattern of fever is
characteristic of lateral sinus thrombosis.
2. Rigors with profuse sweating is very common complaint.
3. There is earache, neck pain, mastoid tenderness and stiffness
around the sternomastoid muscle. Patient is drowsy, lethargic
and may be in coma. There is papilledema.
4. Griesinger’s sign is positive i.e., pitting edema over the Angiogram showing
occipital region (due to clotting within mastoid emissary left lateral sinus thrombosis
veins).
5. Crowe-Beck test. Pressure on healthy internal jugular vein produces engorgement of
retinal and supraorbital veins. Release of pressure relieves the engorgement.
Investigations:
1. Angiography (especially digital subtraction venography) is
the definitive investigation for lateral sinus thrombosis. It will
demonstrate the exact size and extent of the thrombus as well as
the anatomical arrangements of the individual’s venous drainage.
Nowadays MR angiogram is becoming very popular.
2. Contrast CT/MRI may show filling defect within the sinus.
There may be cerebral edema, reduced size of ventricles and
canaliculi.
3. Tobey-Ayer test is diagnostic of Magnetic resonance venography
lateral sinus thrombosis. The test involves measurement of the
CSF pressure and observing its changes on compression of
one or both internal jugular veins by fingers on the
neck.
In normal subjects, compression of each internal
jugular vein in turn is followed by a rapid rise of CSF
pressure of 50-100 mmHg above the normal level.
There is an equally rapid fall on release of pressure. It
is normal for there to be a difference in rise on the two
sides but unusual for it to exceed 50 mmHg.
In a typical case of lateral sinus thrombosis,
pressure over the vein draining the occluded sinus
causes either no rise or a very slow rise by 10-20
mmHg. Compression of the normal internal jugular
vein on the other hand produces a rapid pressure rise of two to
three times the normal level. Tobey-Ayer test
Remember Queckenstedt test is useful only for recognizing
spinal CSF obstruction and not for lateral sinus thrombosis.
4. Radioisotope scanning with gallium can show hot spots of sepsis.
82
6. Otitic hydrocephalous
Synonym: Benign intracranial hypertension
Clinical features:
Patient presents with headache, nausea, vomiting, drowsiness
and blurring of vision. Sometimes diplopia may occur because of
compression or stretching of abducent nerve. Left abducent palsy
Investigations:
1. CT/MRI shows normal ventricular size.
2. Lumbar puncture shows two-to-three-fold increase in CSF pressure. There is normal
CSF cell count, protein and glucose content. CSF is bacteriologically sterile.
Treatment of otogenic intracranial complications:
The following are the principles of treatment:
1. Systemic antibiotics:
When the cause is acute ear infection, Haemophilus influenza is the responsible
organism. So, chloramphenicol 100 mg/kg/day is given, but agranulocytosis and
aplastic anemia are the drastic complications of chloramphenicol. So, methicillin or
flucloxacillin may be given instead.
When the cause is chronic ear infection, Pseudomonas aeruginosa is the responsible
organism and gentamycin is given as dose of 4-5 mg/kg/day (but it is nephrotoxic and
ototoxic). So azlocillin and ticarcillin may be given instead.
If anaerobic infection is present, metronidazole is given in a dose of 400-600 mg 08
hourly.
2. Neurosurgical attention by neurosurgeon is given to the complication identified.
3. Treatment of ear disease after the intracranial infection has been controlled.
In acute suppurative otitis media, myringotomy or cortical mastoidectomy is performed.
In chronic suppurative otitis media, radical or modified radical mastoidectomy is
performed.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. All of the following are extracranial complications of suppurative otitis media
except
a. facial paralysis d. mastoiditis
b. labyrinthitis e. petrositis
c. lateral sinus thrombosis
Q. 2. If earache, hearing loss and ear discharge are predominant features in chronic
suppurative otitis media, look for
a. brain abscess c. mastoiditis
Q. 4. If ear discharge and earache persist in suppurative otitis media even after appropri-
ate antibiotics, one must suspect
a. coalescent mastoiditis d. meningitis
c. otitis interna
Q. 9. A positive fistula test indicates
c. meningitis
Q. 15. In meningitis, all are true except
b. asthenia e. prepointing
c. atonia
Q. 19. Usual clinical features of cerebellar abscess include all except
a. abnormal posture c. ataxia
e. normal speech
G: A 40 years old male has long standing left sided ear discharge. For last 02 days, he
complains of severe headache and vomiting. He cannot bend his neck without pain. White
cell count is 14000 per cubic mm.
1. What is the most likely diagnosis?
2. Which test you will do to confirm diagnosis?
3. How will you treat the patient?
4. Enumerate the possible complications of this primary ear problem?
H: A 32 years old teacher presents in ENT OPD with complaints of inability to close the left
eye and drooling of saliva from left corner of mouth for last 02 days. He also gives history of
pain in the left ear along with fever for last 08 days. On examination, left tympanic
membrane is congested and bulging.
1. What is the most probable clinical diagnosis?
2. Discuss the differential diagnosis?
3. How are you going to manage such a case?
I: A 35 years old man presented in emergency department with the complaints of headache,
nausea, vomiting and high-grade fever for last 01 week. He has history of foul-smelling
scanty discharge from right ear for last 20 years. On examination he has marginal
perforation, nominal aphasia and homonymous quadrantic hemianopa.
1. What is the most probable clinical diagnosis?
2. How will you investigate this patient?
3. How will you manage this patient?
J: A 25 years old male patient with history of chronic suppurative otitis media presents with
headache, drowsiness, blurring of vision, nausea and vomiting for last 02 months. On
examination there is papilledema and lateral rectus palsy. CSF examination is unremarkable
except increased pressure. CT scan is also unremarkable.
1. What is the most probable clinical diagnosis?
2. What are the most major complications of disease apart from death?
3. What are important steps to treat the patient?
------------------------------- ANSWERS--------------------------------
------------------------- ---------------------
Q.1. c 2. c 3. c 4. a 5. a 6. e 7. d 8. c 9. c 10. e
11. e 12. b 13. b 14. b 15. a 16. e 17. a 18. e 19. e 20. c
21. c 22. c 23. c 24. e 25. a 26. a 27. a 28. a
Scenario A: 1. Left chronic suppurative otitis media complicated with meningitis 2. Culture
and sensitivity of discharge, lumber puncture 3. After treatment of meningitis, mastoid
exploration and removal of cholesteatoma.
B: 1. Chronic suppurative otitis media with postauricular abscess 2. Incision and drainage
88
with mastoid exploration after proper workup, culture and sensitivity of pus.
C: Strict diabetic control, culture and sensitivity of discharge, examination under
microscope, PTA, CT scan temporal bones, mastoid exploration, regular follow up
D: 1. Right chronic suppurative otitis media complicated with right Bezold abscess 2.
Parenteral antibiotics, needle aspiration, culture and sensitivity of pus, CT scan neck and
temporal bone, mastoid exploration for cholesteatoma 3. Cholesteatoma is a keratinized
squamous epithelial lined pocket containing keratin debris 4. Subclinical inflammation of
mucosal lining and bony septa of mastoid air cells with intact tympanic membrane.
E: 1. Left petrositis 2. Acute mastoiditis, meningitis, acute otitis media 3. Subtemporal,
presigmoid, retrosigmoid.
F: 1. Chronic suppurative otitis media with extradural abscess 2. CT scan 3. Mastoid
exploration.
G: 1. Chronic suppurative otitis media with meningitis 2. CSF examination 3. Antibiotics,
analgesics, antipyretics 4. Intracranial and intratemporal complications.
H: 1. Acute otitis media with facial palsy 2. Mastoiditis, bell’s palsy, OME 3. Antibiotics,
analgesics, myringotomy, physiotherapy.
I: 1. Temporal lobe abscess 2. CT scan brain 3. Antibiotics, neurosurgical approach for
draining of abscess.
J: 1. Otitic hydrocephalus 2. Blindness 3. Antibiotics, acetazolamide, lumbar drain, mastoid
exploration.
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2. X-ray chest and sputum for AFB may reveal pulmonary tuberculosis.
89
3. PCR for Mycobacterium tuberculosis of ear discharge is conclusive.
Treatment:
It is as follows:
1. Antituberculous chemotherapy.
2. Aural toilet when discharge is present.
3. Mastoidectomy is required when sequestrum or other complications are present.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. All are true about tuberculous otitis media except
a. conductive hearing loss proportionate d. painless hearing loss and ear dis-
with the clinical findings charge
b. exuberant pale granulations e. usually secondary to pulmonary tu-
c. multiple perforations of tympanic berculosis
membrane
Q. 2. All are true about tuberculous otitis media except
a. antibiotics are treatment of choice copy with ZN staining
b. antituberculous drugs are treatment of d. PCR is diagnostic
choice e. X-ray chest must be done to find out
c. ear swab should be sent for micros- primary focus
Scenario: A 46 years old female presents to ENT OPD with the complaint of right sided ear
discharge for last 01 year. On examination there are exuberant pale granulation in the
middle ear. Tuning fork tests show conductive hearing loss disproportionate with the clinical
findings.
1. What is the most probable clinical diagnosis?
2. What investigations will you advise to reach the diagnosis?
3. What is the treatment plan of this patient?
--------------------------------------------------------ANSWERS-----------------------------------------------------
Q.1. a 2. a
Scenario: 1. Tuberculous otitis media 2. Ear swab for Z.N. staining and culture, PCR, X-ray
chest 3. Antituberculous drugs, aural toilet, mastoidectomy.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1. Tympanic membrane may be retracted with leash of blood vessels on it. Handle of
malleus may be horizontal with prominent knuckle. There may be restricted mobility of
tympanic membrane.
2. It may be dull, bulging and opaque with loss of cone of light or may appear blue.
3. There may be fluid level and air bubbles.
4. Tuning fork tests show conductive hearing loss.
Complications:
Complications of otitis media with effusion are tympanosclerosis, chalk patches, thin atrophic
91
tympanic membrane, cholesterol granuloma, cholesteatoma, ossicular necrosis and chronic
suppurative otitis media.
Investigations:
1. Tympanometry usually shows type B tympanogram. It is
diagnostic of otitis media with effusion. But tympanogram
may also show decreased compliance or negative pressure.
2. Pure tone audiometry shows an air-bone gap
indicating conductive hearing loss of 30-50 dB.
3. X-ray mastoid shows clouding of mastoid air cells due to
presence of fluid in the middle ear.
Treatment:
Medical treatment is given in initial stages. This includes
topical/systemic decongestants, antihistamines and antibiotics.
Further management includes;
1. Removal of underlying factors: It is directed towards
removal of etiological and predisposing factors such as
adenoids, rhinosinusitis, allergy etc.
2. Aeration of middle ear may be done with repeated
Valsalva maneuver. Patient may be given chewing gum to
encourage repeated swallowing which opens up
the eustachian tube.
3. Myringotomy: If conservative measures fail, myringotomy
i.e., incision of tympanic membrane in anteroinferior
quadrant and evacuation of fluid from middle ear under local Grommet in place
or general anesthesia is performed.
4. Ventilation tube (grommet) insertion: Insertion of ventilation tube
may be considered if thick
fluid is encountered on
myringotomy.
5. Cortical mastoidectomy:
Rarely cortical
mastoidectomy is
indicated in resistant
cases.
c. purulent e. serosanguineous
d. sanguineous
Q. 4. The most common cause for bilateral conductive hearing loss in a child is
a. acute otitis media d. otitis media with effusion
b. cholesteatoma
c. ossicular necrosis e. tympanosclerosis
Q. 12. All are usual complications of serous otitis media except
c. ossicular necrosis
Q. 13. For diagnosis investigation of choice in otitis media with effusion is
a. CT temporal bones d. X-ray PNS
b. antihistamines d. decongestants
C. Frenzel’s maneuver: the way out of the nasal cavity is blocked, by pinching the
nostrils or by a nose-clip;
3. Swallowing or yawning
4. Tympanometry
5. Politzerization
6. Flexible fiberoptic nasopharyngoscopy
Patulous eustachian tube
It occurs due to sudden loss of weight, pregnancy, contraceptive pills, diuretics and elderly
patients. Patient presents with autophony (hears his own voice during talking, eating and
breathing). There is no hearing loss. On examination tympanic membrane moves
synchronous with respiration.
Treatment options of patulous eustachian tube consist of removal of underlying cause,
reassurance, grommet insertion and injection of teflon paste around eustachian cushion.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Tympanic membrane is normal looking in all except
A. Central paralysis:
This is also known as supranuclear type of paralysis. This type of paralysis is rare.
It is caused by CVA (hemorrhage, thrombosis or embolism), tumor or abscess. This
affects only the lower part of the face, whereas the upper half of the face is spared (because
upper half of the face has a bilateral innervation. It is almost always incomplete. Involuntary
emotional movements and the tone of facial muscles is retained.
B. Peripheral paralysis:
This is also known as infranuclear type of paralysis. This type of paralysis is common. This
affects both the upper and lower parts of the face.
Causes of facial paralysis:
A. Intracranial:
1. Trauma e.g., head injury
2. Inflammations e.g., meningitis
3. Tumors e.g., vestibular schwannoma, meningioma
B. Intratemporal:
1. Trauma (surgical and accidental) of middle ear
97
2. Inflammations (acute and chronic) of middle ear e.g., herpes zoster oticus
3. Tumors of middle ear e.g., glomus tumor, carcinoma of middle ear
C. Infratemporal:
1. Trauma (surgical and accidental) of the face.
2. Tumors of parotid
D. Miscellaneous:
Idiopathic, sarcoidosis, polyneuritis, infectious mononucleosis, leukemia
Causes of recurrent facial paralysis:
1. Bell’s palsy
2. Melkersson-Rosenthal syndrome
3. Infectious mononucleosis
4. Osteopetrosis
5. Viral disorders causing facial paralysis
6. Guillain-Barre syndrome (cytomegalovirus, herpes zoster)
Causes of recurrent alternating facial paralysis:
1. Bell’s palsy
2. Melkersson-Rosenthal syndrome
Investigations:
Investigations of facial paralysis depend highly on clinical findings. Generally, following
investigations are carried out as below:
1. ESR to detect chronic illness.
2. Glucose tolerance test to detect diabetes mellitus.
3. Bone marrow examination to detect leukemia or lymphoma.
4. TPI and FTA test to detect syphilis.
5. High resolution CT/MRI may be done to find out the cause and site of facial paralysis.
6. Electrophysiological tests:
These are used to assess the degree of facial nerve dysfunction. These tests help in
determining the prognosis of facial nerve recovery.
These tests include;
a. Minimal nerve excitability test
b. Maximal stimulation test
c. Electroneurography
d. Electromyography
98
7. Topodiagnostic tests:
These are used to determine site of the lesion. In these tests function of different branches
of facial nerve is assessed e.g., taste, salivary flow rate, Schirmer test, stapedial reflex test
etc. These are of only historical interest.
Complications of facial paralysis:
1. Synkinesis:
This is an abnormal synchronization of movements of facial muscles. The patient is unable
to move each part of the face separately.
2. Crocodile tears:
There is increased unilateral lacrimation of the involved side associated with eating. It is
the result of faulty regeneration of parasympathetic fibers which innervate the lacrimal gland
instead of salivary glands.
3. Stapedius tendon contraction:
It occurs due to faulty regeneration and causes fullness or roaring in the ear.
4. Hemifacial spasm:
It is characterized by mild intermittent spasm in the orbicularis oculi muscle.
5. Facial myokemia:
This is continuous fine fibrillary or undulating movement of facial muscles giving appearance
of “a bag of worms”.
6. Blephrospasm:
Involuntary spasmodic closure of eye may occur due to spasm of orbicularis oculi muscle.
Classically it is a bilateral disorder of facial muscles but may occur on one side only.
7. Psychogenic or habit tic:
The movements of facial muscles are repetitive.
Surgical treatment:
Surgical treatment is only carried if there is BAD syndrome.
B--Absence of Bell’s phenomenon (upwards rolling of eyeball on closure of eye)
A--Anesthesia of cornea
D--Dry eyes
BELL’S PALSY
Synonyms: Idiopathic facial paralysis
Definition:
It is defined as acute onset of peripheral (infranuclear) facial paralysis/paresis
99
of unknown origin. It is named after Sir Charles Bell who
first described the condition.
Etiopathology:
Exact cause of Bell’s palsy is unknown. It is said to be due to
viral infection, vascular ischemia or hereditary factors. Bell’s
palsy constitutes about 80% of peripheral facial paralysis. It
affects both genders equally. It affects all age groups.
Positive family history is present in 10% of patients of Bell’s
palsy. It is recurrent in 5-10% of cases.
Clinical features:
1. Facial asymmetry, drooling of saliva and watering of
eyes (epiphora) are the most common presentations.
2. There may be complaint of loss of taste due to
involvement of chorda tympani nerve.
Bell’s palsy
3. There may be complaint of ipsilateral earache, hyperacusis and
tinnitus due to paralysis of stapedius muscle.
On examination;
1. Patient is unable to frown the forehead, unable to close the eyes forcibly, unable to show
teeth on the affected side.
2. Ear is usually unremarkable.
Investigations:
It is a diagnosis by exclusion. All the known causes of the peripheral facial paralysis must be
excluded by history, examination and relevant investigations like CRP, ESR, blood sugar,
viral markers and CT/MRI.
Topodiagnostic tests help in detecting the site of the lesion.
Nerve excitability tests are performed to determine the prognosis.
Treatment: (Remember 5 Ps)
1. Pharmacological treatment; If patient presents within one week, prednisolone 1 mg/kg/
day is the drug of choice. Then gradually taper the dose over a period of 2-3 weeks.
2. Protection of eyes to avoid exposure keratitis. Artificial tears during day, eye ointment
and padding of eyes at night is regularly carried out.
3. Physiotherapy of the facial muscles to stimulate recovery process.
4. Psychological support to avoid depression and to improve compliance in treatment.
5. Pain (if present) should be relieved by analgesics.
6. Decompression of vertical and tympanic segment of facial nerve by postaural route may
improve the paralysis.
Prognosis:
About 80% of patients, completely recover, whereas 20% of the patients get incomplete
recovery. Prognosis is excellent in cases of incomplete paralysis and in cases where recovery
100
of facial nerve function starts within 03 weeks.
Differential diagnosis:
1. Herpez zoster oticus
2. Acute otitis media
3. Tumors of middle ear
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Bell’s palsy is also known as
c. Melkerson-Rosenthal syndrome
Q. 2. Recurrent alternating facial palsy is most common in
b. physiotherapy e. steroids
c. protection of eyes
Q. 9. Usually, prognosis of complete facial nerve recovery in Bell’s palsy is
a. 20% d. 80%
b. 40% e. 100%
c. 60%
Q. 10. Bell’s phenomenon is
a. corneal ulceration in Bell’s palsy d. uncontrollable contractions of orbicu-
b. downwards rolling of eyeball on clo- laris oculi muscle
sure of eye e. upward rolling of eyeball on closure of
c. epiphora associated with Bell’s palsy eye
Q. 11. The cranial nerve which travels the longest distance in the bony canal is
a. 3rd cranial nerve d. 9th cranial nerve
b. labyrinthine e. tympanic
c. mastoid
Q. 13. Bony facial canal has the narrowest diameter in which of the following segments?
a. Labyrinthine d. Tympanic
c. Meatal
Scenario: A 40 years old male presents 03 days after spontaneous sudden right sided facial
palsy, with no history of previous ear disease. On examination, he is having complete right
infranuclear facial palsy with normal ear examination.
1. What is the most likely diagnosis?
2. What is the differential diagnosis?
3. What is the treatment of this patient?
4. What are the precautionary measures to avoid complications?
------------------------------------------- ANSWERS--------------------
------------- ---------------------------------
Q.1. b 2. a 3. c 4. d 5. b 6. d 7. c 8. a
9. d 10. e 11. c 12. b 13. a
Scenario: 1. Bell’s palsy 2. Herpez zoster oticus, acute otitis media, tumors of middle ear
3. Pharmacological, protection of eyes, physiotherapy, psychological support, decompression
4. Protection of eyes, physiotherapy and psychological support.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Clinical features:
1. Pulsatile tinnitus; The first symptom generally, noted is unilateral tinnitus which
synchronizes with the pulse.
2. Hearing loss and aural bleeding; Some patients may present with hearing loss and aural
bleeding.
3. Occasionally it may present with friable aural polyp prone to bleeding or a mass over
the mastoid.
On examination;
1. Otoscopy shows a red mass (‘rising sun’ sign or also known as
‘setting sun’ sign) behind the tympanic membrane.
2. Pulsation sign (also known as Brown sign) is positive i.e., tumor
pulsates vigorously when pressure in the ear canal is increased
with the help of Siegel’s speculum. Reverse phenomenon happens
on release of pressure.
3. Examination under microscope (EUM) shows pulsation of the Rising sun sign
mass which will be soft and often blanch on palpation.
4. Tuning fork tests show conductive hearing loss.
5. On auscultation there may be bruit over the mastoid.
6. Paralysis of cranial nerves especially 7th, 9th, 10th, 11th and 12th may occur
depending on the site and extent of tumor.
Investigations:
A. Radiology:
1. CT: On CT of skull there is absence of normal crest of bone between the carotid canal
and jugular fossa (Phelps sign). It is virtually diagnostic of glomus jugulare tumor.
2. MRI: It shows exact extent of the tumor.
3. Angiography: It is the best method for preoperative detailed assessment of the extent
of tumor and indication of its arterial blood supply. Angiography shows “tumor blush”.
It is also helpful in identifying other glomus tumors of the body
as these may be multicentric.
It may also help in embolization of the feeding vessels to minimize
the peroperative bleeding. Embolization of the feeding vessels is done
with gel foam or lyophilized dural fragments. It is carried out 24-48
hours before surgery. Tumor blush on
B. Endocrine activity: angiography
104
Prior to any surgery it is very important to exclude any vasoactive hormones produced by the
tumor. It is done by estimation of 24 hours urinary catecholamines and Vanillylmandelic
acid (VMA). Normal level of VMA is upto 7 mg/24 hour.
C. Biopsy:
As it is a vascular tumor, biopsy should be avoided. It is occasionally required to exclude
squamous cell carcinoma.
D. Pure tone audiometry:
Pure tone audiometry is important to assess any conductive hearing loss and to ensure that
normal or better hearing exists in the other ear.
Treatment:
No treatment is given especially when the tumor is extremely slow growing, patient’s
symptoms are minimal or if the patient presents in 6th or 7th decade.
1. Surgery:
The objective of surgery is total resection of the tumor without increasing patient’s
neurological deficit. Exact approach depends on exact extent of the tumor. Often help of a
neurosurgeon is required for its excision. Vascularity of the tumor is reduced by
preoperative irradiation or embolization.
It is important to exclude any production of vasoactive hormones by the tumor. If there is
production of vasoactive hormones, patient may have profound hypertension. This profound
hypertension is controlled by intra-arterial monitoring. Drugs used to lower blood pressure
during surgery are phenolamine or phenoxybenzamine. This may significantly reduce
peroperative bleeding.
Initial hypertension often requires both alpha and beta blockade and following
Embolization and surgical resection, the loss of vasoconstrictor tone results in circulatory
collapse, needing correction with massive intravenous infusions and the use of an anti-
gravity suit to the lower part of body to increase venous return.
2. Radiotherapy:
It often reduces the size of the tumor and bleeding generally, stops after radiotherapy.
Usually, 4000-5000 cGy are delivered over a period of 3-4 weeks.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Glomus tumor is also called
a. adenoma d. papilloma
b. epithelioma e. paraganglioma
c. osteoma
Q. 3. Which disease is predominant in females?
a. Glomus tumor d. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
c. Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma
Q. 4. All are true of glomus tumor of the middle ear except
c. Geniculate ganglion
Q. 6. Glomus tumor may secrete
a. histamine d. prostaglandins
b. leukotrienes e. VMA
c. prostacyclins
Q. 7. Normal level of VMA in 24-hour urine is
a. 3 mg d. 9 mg
b. 5 mg e. 11 mg
c. 7 mg
Q. 8. All of the following are true about glomus tumor except
in urine
b. bruit over the mastoid
b. biopsy e. PTA
c. CT scan
Q. 16. Phleps sign is seen in
Q. 19. Which of the following signs is not associated with glomus tumor?
a. Brown’s sign d. Rising sun sign
c. radiotherapy
Scenario: A 50 years old female presents with right sided pulsatile tinnitus and progressive
hearing loss for last 06 months. On examination, there is a red mass behind the intact
tympanic membrane which blanches on pressure with pneumatic speculum.
1. What is the most likely diagnosis?
2. How will you investigate this patient?
3. What is the treatment of this patient?
--------------------------------- ANSWERS--------------------------------
----------------------- ---------------------
Q.1. d 2. e 3. a 4. c 5. c 6. e 7. c 8. e
9. b 10. e 11. b 12. c 13. d 14. c 15. b 16. a
17. b 18. e 19. b 20. d 21. b 22. d
Scenario: 1. Glomus tumor 2. Contrast MRI of temporal bone, angiography, estimation of
24-hour urinary catecholamines and Vanillylmandelic acid (VMA) 3. Surgery, radiotherapy.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-
2. Malignant tumors
The most common malignant tumor of middle ear is squamous cell carcinoma. The other
malignant tumors of the middle ear are adenocarcinoma and rhabdomyosarcoma.
108
SQUAMOUS CELL CARCINOMA
It is the most common primary malignant tumor of middle ear. It may be confused with
chronic suppurative otitis media and, therefore, may be quite advanced at the time of
diagnosis. It mainly affects elderly patients. It usually invades the surrounding structures like
eustachian tube and mastoid. It causes multiple cranial nerve palsies. Facial nerve is the first
to be affected.
Clinical features:
1. Severe earache is the most common
presenting symptom.
2. Usually there is history of
chronically discharging ear.
On examination;
1. There are hemorrhagic granulations
in the ear canal.
2. There may be facial paralysis along
with paralysis of other cranial
nerves.
Investigations:
1. High resolution CT/MRI are very
important to find out exact extension of disease. Endoscopic view of SCC of middle ear
2. Biopsy is essential to make a tissue diagnosis.
Treatment:
The treatment is primarily surgery with radiotherapy.
Radiotherapy may be given in patients who are medically unfit or refuse surgery.
Five years survival rate in cases of carcinoma of middle ear is very low.
Differential diagnosis:
1. Malignant otitis externa
2. Diffuse otitis externa
3. CSOM with complication
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. The most common primary malignant tumor of middle ear is
Chapter 5
DISEASES OF OTIC CAPSULE
OTOSCLEROSIS
Synonym: Otospongiosis
Definition:
It is a hereditary localized disease of otic capsule. In it, normal lamellar bone is removed by
osteoclasts and is replaced by new spongy cancellous bone of greater thickness, cellularity
and vascularity. This phenomenon causes ankylosis of footplate of stapes.
Etiopathology:
It is a progressive bilateral disease but usually one ear is
affected more than the other. It affects 2% of all white
(Caucasian) population.
It generally, starts in teens. Male are affected more frequently
with a male to female ratio of 2:1. Hormonal influences such as
puberty, pregnancy, menstruation and menopause may cause
the disease to advance more rapidly in females. Hence, females
are three times more likely to present with otosclerosis.
The term otospongiosis is used when there is active vascular
focus. The term otosclerosis is used when the disease finally
becomes inactive. Otosclerosis
Exact cause of otosclerosis is unknown but there are many theories;
1. Hereditary theory; It is an autosomal dominant disease with incomplete penetrance.
There is a positive family history in 50% of the patients.
2. Infective theory; Measles virus has been suggested as a causative factor. Vaccination
against measles has significantly decreased the incidence of otosclerosis.
3. Autoimmune/inflammatory theory;
4. Hormonal theory; Sex hormones especially estrogen is thought to be responsible for
otosclerosis.
Types of otosclerosis;
Depending on the site of involvement, there are following types of otosclerosis;
1. Stapedial otosclerosis: It is the most common type of otosclerosis. It causes fixation of
stapes footplate and hence, causes conductive hearing loss.
111
Cochlear otosclerosis: It involves round window and other areas in otic capsule and hence
causes sensorineural hearing loss.
2. Histological otosclerosis: It remains asymptomatic.
Clinical features:
1. Hearing loss:
There is gradually increasing bilateral hearing loss but initially there may be unilateral
problem. Although disease starts in teens but symptoms become severe enough to present
frequently in the 3rd decade. The patient may remark that the hearing is better in the presence
of background noise which is known as paracusis willisii. Often one ear shows a greater loss
than the other. Patient characteristically speaks in a low tone, whereas patient with
sensorineural hearing loss speaks in a sharp tone.
2. Tinnitus:
There is also complaint of unilateral or bilateral roaring or hissing tinnitus.
Rarely there may be episodes of vertigo which are thought to result from the action of
toxic enzymes released by otosclerotic focus.
On examination;
1. External meatus and tympanic membranes are unremarkable.
2. There may be ‘flamingo flush/blush’ also known as
positive Schwartz sign. It is a red blush of tympanic
membrane over the promontory as a result of vascular
bone on the promontory or prominent blood vessels in the
submucous layer of promontory. This usually indicates
rapid progression of the disease.
3. Tuning fork tests show conductive hearing loss.
Absolute bone Schwartz sign
c. otospongiosis
Q. 2. Otosclerosis is
b. bluish e. yellow
c. normal
Q. 10. Conductive type of hearing loss is seen in all except
a. chronic suppurative otitis media d. secretory otitis media
c. otosclerosis
Q. 12. Positive Schwartz’s sign is
Ings
e. swelling over the mastoid
b. Ad type e. C type
c. As type
Q. 14. In otosclerosis, when stapes footplate is completely fixed, the compliance is
a. -0.25 mm d. 0.75 mm
b. Zero mm e. 01 mm
c. 0.25 mm
Q. 15. Carhart’s notch is found at
Clinical features:
1. Sudden severe episode of vertigo is the most common presentation.
2. There is no hearing loss or tinnitus.
On examination;
1. Tuning fork tests are unremarkable.
2. Nystagmus is positive during the episode with fast component towards the affected side.
There is no sign of neurological involvement.
3. On caloric testing, there is reduced vestibular sensitivity (canal paresis) on the affected
side. Clinical features are those of acute vestibular failure.
Differential diagnosis:
1. Viral labyrinthitis
2. Meniere’s disease
3. Vestibular schwannoma
Treatment:
Treatment is directed towards relief of symptoms. It is the same as that for acute episode of
Meniere’s disease.
120
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. All are true of vestibular neuronitis except
a. affects adults in 30-50 age group d. devoid of cochlear symptoms
sponse
d. sensorineural hearing loss
Scenario: A 50 years old male presents with sudden, severe vertigo 02 days after the upper
respiratory tract infection. There is no tinnitus or hearing loss. On caloric testing there is
reduced vestibular sensitivity on right side.
1. What is the most probable clinical diagnosis?
2. What is the differential diagnosis?
3. What is your treatment plan?
--------------------------------------------------------ANSWERS-----------------------------------------------------
Q.1. c 2. d
Scenario: 1. Right vestibular neuronitis 2. BPPV, Meniere’s disease, labyrinthitis
3. Symptomatic treatment.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
VIRAL LABYRINTHITIS
Etiopathology:
It usually occurs during the course of
herpes, measles, mumps or as a part of
influenza type illness.
Clinical features:
Vertigo, tinnitus and hearing loss are the
most common presentations. It is
differentiated from vestibular neuronitis
where there is absence of tinnitus and
hearing loss.
Differential diagnosis:
1. Vestibular neuronitis
2. Meniere’s disease
3. Vestibular schwannoma
Treatment:
It is same as that for serous labyrinthitis.
SELF ASSESSMENT
121
Q. 1. Vertigo, sensorineural hearing loss and tinnitus are seen in all except
a. hypothyroidism d. syphilitic labyrinthitis
If any component on one side is inhibited or stimulated, the information reaching the cortex is
mismatched, resulting in disorientation and vertigo. The vestibular inhibitio n on one side e.g.,
acute vestibular failure, labyrinthectomy, Meniere’s disease, 8th nerve section causes vertigo.
Similarly, stimulation of labyrinth by thermal or rotational stimulus causes vertigo.
Dizziness can also result from the ocular causes, e.g., high errors of refraction or acute
extraocular muscle paralysis with diplopia.
Types of vertigo:
A. Physiological:
It is the vertigo which is caused by stimulation of normal and intact sensory structures. e.g.,
1. Giddiness of heights from visual stimulation.
2. Giddiness after spinning movements from stimulation of semicircular canals.
3. Giddiness from sudden change of floor texture from stimulation of skin and deeper
tissues of the feet (proprioceptors).
B. Pathological:
122
It is the vertigo resulting from any disease which affects anyone of the many functions used
in balance. It may be;
a. Peripheral i.e., due to diseases of the vestibular end organs or vestibular nerve.
b. Central i.e., due to diseases of central connections. It involves vestibulo-ocular,
vestibulospinal and other central nervous system pathways.
Causes of vertigo:
a. Peripheral
1. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo
2. Labyrinthitis
3. Meniere’s diseases
4. Vestibular neuronitis
5. Vestibulotoxic drugs
6. Vestibular schwannoma
7. Perilymph fistula
8. Syphilitic labyrinthitis
b. Central
1. Cerebellar disease
2. Vertebrobasilar insufficiency
3. Multiple sclerosis
4. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA) syndrome
5. Tumors of brainstem
Clinical features:
Vertigo is a symptom for which underlying cause must always be identified. A detailed
history of patient with vertigo is extremely important. If diagnosis of cause of vertigo is not
made at the end of history it is unlikely to have diagnosis at the end of examination or even
investigations.
History is best taken chronologically. It is very important to get description of the first
episode, duration, frequency and interval between vertigo, initiating/aggravating and
relieving factors, associated symptoms such as aura, hearing loss, tinnitus, nausea, vomiting,
blurring of vision, diplopia or loss of consciousness.
Detailed examination of ears, cranial nerves and cerebellar system is extremely
important.
Clinician must look for nystagmus and its specific characteristics.
Treatment:
Treatment of any patient with vertigo is carried out on following principles;
123
1. Address the underlying cause:
2. Suppress the vestibular system: In vertigo usually, there is disproportion
between the activities in the two sets of vestibular nuclei. So labyrinthine sedative
drugs such as cinnarizine (cerebrin, stugeron), cyclizine (migril), dimenhydrinate
(dramamine) and prochlorprazine (stabil, stemitil) are given to suppress the offending
labyrinth.
3. Suppress the patient’s emotional reaction: Patient needs strong
reassurance both about the nature of dizziness and the problems caused by it.
4. Wait for compensation: In the early stages there is ‘cerebellar clamping’ of
the activity of the vestibular nuclei. In young healthy patient compensation by the
healthy side occurs in about 04 weeks. Compensation may be accelerated by the
performance of Cawthorne-Cooksey exercises.
5. Eliminate the offending labyrinth: Sometimes labyrinthectomy or vestibular
nerve section may be the treatment of choice in any condition where labyrinthine
function is already very low or absent.
6. Acceptance of the problem: Patient may be advised to accept the problem. A
walking stick or walking frame is advised.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Condition in which loud sounds produce giddiness is called
a. bobbing oscillopsia c. paracusis willisi
c. Saccule
Scenario: A 30 years old weight lifter presents to you with complaint of severe vertigo which
started during weight lifting 2 hours before.
1. What is the most probable clinical diagnosis?
2. How would you confirm the diagnosis?
3. How will you manage this case?
--------------------------------------------------------ANSWERS-----------------------------------------------------
Q.1. e 2. d
Scenario: 1. Perilymph fistula 2. MRI 3. A; Conservative; antibiotic prophylaxis, strict bed
124
rest, elevation of head end of bed, spinal drain. B; Surgical; surgical exploration,
tympanotomy and closure of the site of leakage
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-
MENIERE’S DISEASE
Synonym: Endolymphatic hydrops, Aural glaucoma
125
Detailed examination of ear along with
examination of CNS and CVS is carried out.
Tuning fork tests show sensorineural hearing loss.
Nystagmus may be present in acute phase.
Fistula test should always be carried out.
Hennebert sign is positive in 50% of the patients (i.e.,
positive fistula test in the presence of intact tympanic PTA in Meniere’s disease
membrane).
Clinical variant of Meniere’s disease:
Lermoyez syndrome is a rare variant of Meniere’s
disease. In this hearing loss and tinnitus occur over a
period of hours, vertigo then occurs often quite
suddenly and with it hearing and tinnitus improves.
Investigations:
1. Pure tone audiometry shows sensorineural
hearing loss in lower frequencies (rising type
of curve) in early stages of the disease. As
the disease progresses, there is sensorineural
hearing loss in the lower as well as higher
frequencies (flat curve).
As the disease progresses further, there is
sensorineural hearing loss which is more in
the higher frequencies (falling type of curve)
in later stages.
2. Speech audiometry shows speech reception threshold very closely matching the pure tone
threshold. Other audiological tests include tests for loudness recruitment, stapedius reflex
threshold and tone decay test.
3. Electrochochleography is diagnostic of Meniere’s disease.
There is increase in the ratio of summating potential to action
potential. Normally ratio of summating potential to action
potential is 30 %.
4. Dehydration test is based on use of glycerol, urea or
furosemide. This test is not only important for the diagnosis of
Meniere’s disease but also in the assessment for the suitability of Electrochocleography
diuretic treatment and in the selection of patients for operations on the
endolymphatic sac.
5. MRI of the internal auditory meati may be required to exclude vestibular schwannoma.
Treatment:
A. General measures:
1. Reassurance; Patient’s anxiety is
alleviated by reassurance. Patient is
explained about the non fatal nature of the
disease.
2. Cessation of smoking and alcohol.
3. Low salt intake.
126
4. Decrease intake of fluid, tea and coffee.
c. hydrops fetalis
Q. 2. Endolymph is formed in
d. tectorial membrane
e. None of the above
b. Reissner’s membrane
Q. 4. Crista ampularis is situated in
a. cochlea d. utricle
b. saccule e. vestibule
c. semicircular canal
Q. 5. The endolymph is present in the
c. scala vestibuli
Q. 6. In Meniere’s disease, duration of episodic vertigo is
c. mixed
Q. 8. Hearing loss in Meniere’s disease is
c. Meniere’s disease
Q. 16. Audiogram in early Meniere’s disease shows
c. labyrinthectomy
Scenario A: A forty years old female presents with episodic vertigo for last 06 months.
Vertigo is intense associated with nausea and vomiting. Vertigo lasts for few hours and
patient complains of decreased hearing during the episode which improves in between.
Patient also complains of tinnitus and fullness of ears.
1. What is the most probable clinical diagnosis?
2. What is the differential diagnosis?
3. How will you prove your diagnosis?
4. How will you manage this patient?
B: A 35 years old patient is suffering from severe episodic vertigo, fluctuating sensorineural
hearing loss and tinnitus for last 06 months. Her otoscopic examination is unremarkable.
1. What is the most likely diagnosis?
2. How will you investigate this case?
3. Describe the treatment of this patient?
C: A 40 years old female presented with history of severe episodic vertigo, right sided
progressive sensorineural hearing loss and tinnitus for last five years. Frequency of episodes
is increasing with the passage of time.
1. What is the most probable clinical diagnosis?
2. What investigations will you order to confirm your diagnosis?
3. What is the treatment of this patient?
D: A 27 years old lady presented with complain of episodic vertigo, tinnitus and reduced
hearing for last 09 months. Her pure tone audiometry showed bilateral sensorineural hearing
loss while tympanogram was normal. Her ESR is 20 mm in first hour.
1. What is the most likely diagnosis?
2. How will you investigate this case?
3. What are different treatment options?
------------------------------- ANSWERS-----------------------------
------------------------- ------------------------
Q.1. d 2. c 3. d 4. c 5. a 6. c 7. a 8. b 9. d
10. d 11. e 12. a 13. b 14. b 15. d 16. c 17. c 18. a 19. c
Scenario A: 1. Meniere’s disease 2. Labyrinthitis, BPPV, vestibular schawanoma
3. Electrochochleography 4. Reassurance, cessation of smoking, low salt, vestibular sedative.
B: 1. Meniere’s disease 2. Electrocochleography 3. Reassurance, cessation of smoking, low
salt, vestibular sedative.
131
C.1. Meniere’s disease 2. Electrocochleography 3. Reassurance, cessation of smoking, low
salt, vestibular sedative.
D.1. Meniere’s disease 2. Electrocochleography 3. Reassurance, cessation of smoking, low
salt, vestibular sedative.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
BENIGN PAROXYSMAL POSITIONAL VERTIGO (BPPV)
Synonym: Top shelf syndrome:
Etiopathology:
It is the most common cause of peripheral vertigo.
Exact cause of BPPV is unknown. Head trauma or ear
surgery may predispose to BPPV. It may follow an attack
of vestibular neuronitis
It is thought to be due to otoconial debris (calcium Pathogenesis of BPPV
carbonate)
from degenerating utricle. The calcium carbonate crystals settle within the most dependent
part of the inner ear i.e., on the cupula of the posterior semicircular canal. This leads to over
excitation of posterior semicircular canal. Males and female are equally affected. It most
often occurs after 40 years.
Clinical features:
Brief episodic vertigo of sudden onset, initiated by head movement is diagnostic of BPPV.
The vertigo occurs especially when rising or rolling over in bed.
Vertigo may also be experienced when looking down or up suddenly. This is also known
as ‘top shelf syndrome’. Vertigo lasts for only seconds but the patient may remain unsteady
for several hours. There are no other aural symptoms. On examination of ear there is no
positive finding.
Dix Hallpike’s maneuver (also known as positional test) usually demonstrates vertigo
and nystagmus. The maneuver is performed as follows;
Patient is asked to sit on a couch. Clinician holds the head of the patient and then turns it
45 degrees to the right and then places the patient in a supine position so that his head hangs
30 degrees below the horizontal. Patient’s eyes are observed for nystygmus. Nystagmus is
present in case of right BPPV. The test is repeated with the head turned to the left and then
again in straight head hanging position. Nystagmus is present in case of left BPPV.
Investigations:
132
Diagnosis is made on clinical grounds. Certain investigations may be required for differential
diagnosis.
Treatment:
A. Avoidance of provoking position.
B. Epley’s maneuver is the best management of
benign paroxysmal positional vertigo of posterior
semicircular canal origin. It is otolithic repositioning
procedure. It involves moving the otoconial debris
back into the utricle from where it is thought to be
reabsorbed. Bone vibrator may be applied at mastoid
during Epley’s maneuver to dislodge the otoconia
from the posterior semicircular canal.
Epley’s maneuver is performed as follows:
1. The patient sits on the examination table, with eyes
open and head turned 45 degrees to the right.
2. The clinician supports the patient’s head as the
patient lies back quickly from a sitting to supine
position, ending with the head hanging 20 degrees off Epley’s maneuver
the end of the examination table.
3. The clinician turns patient’s head 90 degrees to the left side. The patient remains in this
position for 30 seconds.
4. The clinician turns the patient’s head an additional 90 degrees to the left while the patient
rotates his or her body 90 degrees in the same direction. The patient remains in this
position for 30 seconds.
5. The patient sits up on the left side of the examination table.
6. The procedure may be repeated on either side until the patient experiences relief of
symptoms.
A barbeque roll may be used to treat BPPV of lateral
semicircular canal origin.
In very resistant cases plugging of posterior semicircular canal or
gentamicin ablation may be required.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Barbeque roll
Q. 1. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo is also known as
a. Alport syndrome d. Top shelf syndrome
c. Potter syndrome
133
a. cochlea d. utricle
glia
b. bacterial infection of vestibular nerve
c. calcium oxalate
Q. 5. Normally otoconia are present in
c. a few days
Q. 7. In benign paroxysmal positional vertigo
a. cochlear function is abnormal lar canal
b. giddiness is induced when head is d. there is spasm of internal auditory
turned into a critical position artery
c. there is erosion of lateral semicircu- e. there is third window into labyrinth
Q. 8. Vertigo in BPPV is associated with
a. earache d. tinnitus
b. ear discharge e. none of the above
c. hearing loss
Q. 9. All are true about benign paroxysmal positional vertigo except
a. follows an attack of vestibular neuro-nitis c. males are affected more than females
b. head trauma or ear surgery predis- d. more often occurs after 40 years
poses to BPPV e. vertigo lasts for only seconds
Q. 10. Investigation of choice in BPPV is
134 Part B Ear
c. Electronystagmography
Q. 12. Treatment of BPPV is
c. Epley’s maneuver
Scenario: A 49 years old lady presents with 06 weeks history of multiple episodes of objective
rotatory vertigo with nausea on head movements or rolling over in bed which are of brief
duration, (few seconds). There is no history of tinnitus, hearing loss, otalgia and ear
discharge.
1. What is the most likely diagnosis?
2. How will you investigate this case?
3. What is the treatment option?
----------------------------------------- ANSWERS--------------------------------
--------------- ---------------------
Q.1. d 2. b 3. c 4. b 5. c 6. a 7. b
8. e 9. c 10. a 11. b 12. b 13. a
Scenario: 1. BPPV 2. Clinical diagnosis 3. Epley’s maneuver
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
TINNITUS
It is defined as a sensation of unorganized sounds e.g., whistling, hissing, ringing of bells,
buzzing of insects etc. in the ear or head, whereas sensation of organized sounds (e.g., songs,
music, sermon or verses) is known as hallucination. Tinnitus is a symptom. Always look for
the cause of the symptom. Usually it is subjective (perceived by the patient only) but can be
objective (perceived by the clinician as well).
A. Causes of subjective tinnitus:
1. Otitis media with effusion
2. Acute and chronic otitis media
3. Patulous eustachian tube
4. Meniere’s disease
5. Otosclerosis
6. Senile cochleopathy
7. Noise trauma
8. Ototoxic drugs
9. Vestibular schwannoma
B. Causes of objective tinnitus:
1. Vascular tumors of middle ear such as glomus tumor
2. Aneurysm of carotid artery
3. Palatal myoclonus
C. Causes of nonotologic tinnitus:
1. Anemia
2. Hypertension
3. Arteriosclerosis
4. Hypoglycemia
Investigations:
A detailed history and thorough clinical examination are essential for diagnosis.
Pure tone audiometry will confirm the presence and type of hearing loss.
Anemia, diabetes and hypo/hyperthyroidism must be ruled out. FTA and TPI test to rule out
syphilis.
Tympanometry, speech audiometry, CT, MRI and angiogram may be required for the purpose
of diagnosis.
Treatment:
Tinnitus is a symptom. Its cause should be identified.
Treatment includes removal of the underlying cause. When no cause is detected or if
tinnitus persists even after removal of the underlying cause, the treatment is as below;
1. Reassurance: Patient is informed that this is not a dangerous condition.
2. Sedatives and anxiolytics to allay patient’s anxiety are given for short time.
3. Masking of tinnitus: Tinnitus may be masked with sound of a fan or clock, verses or
music. It may also be masked with a tinnitus masker which is a small electronic device
136
that generates noise. Tinnitus maskers are used when tinnitus is present in sleep hours.
The device may mask the patient’s tinnitus and help the patient to go to sleep. Intensity of
tinnitus masker is kept within 20 dB of hearing threshold.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Tinnitus is a sensation of
a. music in ear d. unorganized sounds in ear
c. songs in ear
Q. 2. All are non otological causes of tinnitus except
a. anemia d. hypoglycemia
c. Meniere’s disease
Q. 4. Patient of tinnitus may be benefited by
a. reassurance
c. 15 dB of hearing threshold
-------------------------------------------------------- ANSWERS-----------------------------------------------------
Q.1. d 2. e 3. c 4. e 5. d
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
OTOTOXICITY
Definition:
Damage to the cochlea and/or vestibular part of the inner ear by different drugs and chemicals
is known as ototoxicity.
Etiopathology:
Common ototoxic drugs are;
137
1. Aminoglycosides e.g., neomycin and tobramycin are mainly cochleotoxic, whereas strep-
tomycin and gentamycin are mainly vestibulotoxic.
2. Diuretics e.g., furosemide, ethacrynic acid.
3. Anti protozoal agents e.g., quinine, chloroquine.
4. Cytotoxic agents e.g., nitrogen mustard, cisplatin and salicylates.
Ototoxic effects are produced by;
1. Parenteral administration usually
2. Oral administration less commonly
3. Topical administration to ear, joint cavities, wounds and burns rarely.
When administered systemically, these reach the labyrinthine fluids via the blood stream.
Topical antibiotic ototoxic drops probably reach the inner ear by permeating the round
window membrane into perilymph and hence, through the regional membrane to the
endolymph.
Clinical features:
Tinnitus is usually the first symptom. It is a warning of possible hearing loss in any patient.
Hearing loss is usually sensorineural in type and affects higher frequencies more than
the lower frequencies. Symptoms are more severe in elderly patients with renal or hepatic
failure.
Vertigo may occur in patients receiving vestibulotoxic drugs. Ototoxic drugs may cross
the placental barrier and affect the fetus in pregnant women.
Treatment:
Treatment in ototoxicity is only preventive.
1. Avoid or discontinue ototoxic drugs whenever indicated.
2. Monitor treatment with regular estimation of serum levels of drugs and/or creatinine.
Monitor hearing regularly with different types of audiometry in patients receiving
ototoxic drugs.
3. Hearing aid may be helpful when there is hearing loss.
4. Tinnitus masker is used when there is disturbing tinnitus.
5. Disequilibrium is treated with reassurance and physiotherapy.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. The following is well known ototoxic drug
b. antiprotozoal d. diuretics
138
e. all of the above
Q. 2. All of the following are well known ototoxic drugs except
a. aspirin d. penicillin
b. erythromycin e. streptomycin
c. gentamicin
Q. 3. Ototoxic drug where sensorineural hearing loss can be reversed by stopping the
drug is
a. amikacin d. neomycin
Chapter 7
MISCELLANEOUS DISEASES OF EAR
HEARING LOSS
Definition:
Any decrease in hearing capability below normal is known as hearing loss. Hearing loss is
wrongly called deafness. The term deafness is used when there is no useful hearing.
Degrees of hearing loss:
Degree of hearing loss is categorized on the basis of pure tone audiogram at speech
frequencies i.e., 500, 1000 and 2000 Hz.
According to WHO hearing loss is categorized as follows;
1. Mild hearing loss 26 - 40 dB
2. Moderate hearing loss 41 - 55 dB
3. Moderately severe hearing loss 56 - 70 dB
4. Severe hearing loss 71 - 90 dB
5. Profound hearing loss More than 90 dB
Classification:
Hearing loss is classified in different ways. Mostly it is classified as follows;
A. Conductive hearing loss
B. Sensorineural hearing loss
A. Conductive hearing loss:
It is that type of hearing loss in which there is some obstruction to the conduction of
sound from the atmosphere to the stapes footplate. So, the causes may lie either in the
external or middle ear.
Conditions of external ear which may cause conductive hearing loss are;
1. Impacted wax
2. Fungus
3. Foreign body
4. Otitis externa
5. Neoplasms
140
Conditions of middle ear which may cause conductive hearing loss are;
1. Tympanic membrane perforation
2. Acute otitis media
3. Chronic otitis media
4. Serous otitis media
5. Eustachian tube dysfunction
6. Otosclerosis
7. Tympanosclerosis
8. Neoplasm
B. Sensorineural hearing loss:
It is that type of hearing loss in which there is problem in the reception of sound.
So, the causes of sensorineural hearing loss may lie anywhere between the membranous
cochlea to the hearing center in the superior temporal gyrus.
The conditions which may cause sensorineural hearing loss are;
1. Presbycusis
2. Meniere’s disease
3. Ototoxic drugs
4. Noise trauma
5. Labyrinthitis
6. Vestibular schwannoma
7. Congenital
Presbycusis manifests usually at 60 years of age. It causes high frequency hearing loss and
tinnitus. There is difficulty to hear in noisy surroundings.
Noise induced hearing loss depends on frequency and intensity of noise. Maximum safe
limit of industrial noise for 08 hours a day for 05 days in a week is 90 dB. It manifests with
tinnitus. Hearing loss usually starts at 4000 Hz.
Sudden sensorineural hearing loss is defined as sensorineural hearing loss of 30 dB or more
over at least 03 consecutive frequencies within a period of 03 days.
b. 20 db e. 50 dB
c. 30 dB
Q. 2. Which of the following is speech
frequency?
b. 50 dB e. 110 dB
c. 70 dB
Q. 4. All are causes of conductive hearing loss except
142
c. otosclerosis
Q. 5. Conductive type of hearing loss is seen in all except
b. otosclerosis e. tympanosclerosis
c. secretory otitis media
b. 80 dB e. 110 dB
c. 90 dB
Q. 9. Noise induced hearing loss begins at which of the following frequencies?
a. 1000 Hz d. 6000 Hz
b. 2000 Hz e. 8000 Hz
c. 4000 Hz
Q. 10. Which of the following is not true about noise induced hearing loss?
c. Reissner’s membrane
Scenario: A 65 years old male presented to ENT OPD with impaired hearing for last 01 year.
There is no abnormality in EAC and middle ear. On pure tone audiometry there is
sensorineural hearing loss more for higher frequencies.
1. What is the most probable clinical diagnosis?
143
2. How will you manage this patient?
ANSWERS-----------
---------------------------- ------------------------------
----------------- --------------------
Q.1. c 2. d 3. d 4. d 5. a 6. d 7. d 8. c 9. c 10. d 11. d
Scenario: 1. Presbycusis 2. Rehabilitation with hearing aid.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-
OTALGIA
Conditions of outer, middle and inner ear may be associated with pain e.g.,
A. Pinna:
1. Trauma (tear, laceration)
2. Hematoma auris
3. Frost bite
4. Sun burn
5. Chondrodermatitis nodularis chronica helices
6. Infected basal or squamous cell carcinoma
B. External meatus:
1. Impacted wax
2. Otitis externa
3. Boil
4. Herpes zoster oticus
5. Keratosis obturans
6. Malignant otitis externa
C. Middle ear:
1. Acute otitis media
2. Otitis media with effusion
3. Otitic barotrauma
4. Traumatic perforation
D. Mastoid:
1. Acute mastoiditis
2. Complications of cholesteatoma
3. Zygomatic mastoiditis
4. Wegener’s granuloma
144
E. Inner ear:
1. Noise (in noise-sensitive people, noise may be perceived as pain).
2. Tinnitus (it may be described as throbbing pain in some patients).
F. Referred pain:
Ear is supplied by 5th, 7th, 9th and 10th cranial nerves. It is also supplied by second and
third branches of the cervical plexus. Earache may develop due to any painful condition
in the region supplied by the above-mentioned nerves. e.g.,
1. Throat (tonsillitis, peritonsillar abscess, parapharyngeal abscess or retropharyngeal
abscess)
2. Parotid (parotitis, sialectasis, mumps)
3. Thyroid (sub-acute thyroiditis, Hashimoto’s thyroiditis)
4. Larynx (granulomatous lesions of larynx e.g., tuberculosis)
5. Teeth (carious teeth, eruption of teeth, periodontal and dental abscess especially of
lower molars)
G. Functional (psychogenic):
It is a very common symptom in children who tend to avoid school. A history of
recurrent episode of earache severe enough to cause several days of absence from school
is usually obtained. Tympanic membrane and hearing are usually normal. Obviously, all
other causes of earache must be excluded before making a diagnosis of psychogenic pain.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Unilateral pain in the ear in the absence of ear disease can be due to all except
a. allergic rhinitis d. temporomandibular joint dysfunction
c. peritonsillar abscess
-------------------------------------------------------- ANSWERS-----------------------------------------------------
Q.1. a
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
VESTIBULAR SCHWANNOMA
Synonym: Acoustic neuroma/Neurinoma/Neurilemmoma
Etiopathology:
The term acoustic neuroma is basically a misnomer.
The tumor most commonly arises from schwan cells of
superior vestibular nerve in the internal auditory
meatus and extends towards cerebellopontine angle.
c. metastasis
Q. 4. Vestibular schwannoma arises from
c. Hitselberger sign
Q. 9. Afferent pathway involved in corneal reflex is
a. cochlear d. vestibular
b. conductive e. vestibulocochlear
c. retrocochlear
Q. 15. The most important audiological investigation in vestibular schwannoma is
a. BERA d. speech audiometry
b. PTA e. tympanometry
c. SISI
Q. 16. For diagnosis of vestibular schwannoma, the most important investigation is
a. caloric test d. recruitment test
b. chemotherapy e. surgery
c. cryotherapy
Q. 18. Which of the following would be the most appropriate treatment for rehabilita-
tion of a patient with bilateral profound sensorineural hearing loss following surgery for
bilateral acoustic schwannoma?
a. BAHA c. Bilateral cochlear implants
Aid
e. Unilateral cochlear implant
Scenario: A 40 years old male presented to ENT department with right sided tinnitus and
sensorineural hearing loss. On examination corneal reflex is absent and Hitselberger’s sign
is positive.
1. What is your clinical diagnosis?
2. How will you investigate?
3. How will you treat?
--------------------------------- ANSWERS-----------------------------
----------------------- ------------------------
Q.1. d 2. e 3. e 4. e 5. d 6. e 7. e 8. c 9. a
10. b 11. b 12. b 13. b 14. c 15. a 16. b 17. e 18. d
Scenario: 1. Vestibular schwannoma 2. MRI with contrast, PTA 3. Surgery, radiotherapy
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
150
Chapter 8
AUDIOLOGY
AUDIOMETRIC TESTS
A. Pure tone audiometry:
This is a subjective test. This is the most commonly used
method of measuring hearing acuity. A pure tone
audiometer is an instrument which delivers tones of
variable frequency and intensity to the ear by earphones.
The frequency usually tested are at octave steps, i.e.,125,
250, 500, 1000, 2000, 4000 and 8000 Hz. Occasionally
half-octave steps e.g., 1500, 3000, 6000 Hz are used. The
intensity can be decreased or increased for each frequency
and can vary from 10 dB to 120 dB.
Most audiometers used today are calibrated to the
international (ISO) standard level. Both the air conduction Pure tone audiometry in progress
and bone conduction can be measured and are best done
in the same manner. The best frequency to start with is 1000 Hz. A series of short signals or
tone pips are put in at an intensity above the patient’s suspected threshold, and the patient is
instructed to signal every time he hears a sound. The intensity is reduced in 10 dB steps until
no sound is heard. The signal is then increased in 5 dB steps until half of the tone of the pips
are consistently heard. This is the patient’s threshold for that frequency. The threshold for the
remaining of frequency is then measured.
The bone conduction is measured in similar fashion by putting a receiver onto mastoid
bone. The sound emitted by this is transmitted by the bones of the skull to the cochlea, thus,
by passing the external and middle ears and giving a measure of inner ear function. The
results are charted as audiogram. In audiometry it is important to eliminate the possibility that
the test sound is being heard in the opposite ear. The audiometer provides a masking noise
which may be played into the opposite ear. Masking must be applied to the better ear when
testing the deafer ear if the difference in threshold is found to be 40 dB or more. When testing
the bone conduction threshold, the other ear should always be masked because of the ease
which bone conduction sound is transmitted through the bones of skull.
OAEs are absent in 50% of normal individuals, lesions of cochlea, middle ear disorders (as
sound travelling in reverse direction cannot be picked up) and when hearing loss exceeds 30
dB.
6. Central auditory tests:
These tests are designed to find defects in the central auditory pathways and the temporal
cortex. Several tests with test signal delivered to one ear (monotic) or both ears (dichotic)
have been used, but currently the “Staggered spondaic words” test is widely used. Central
auditory tests are not used routinely.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Decreased bone conduction in an audiogram indicates
c. ossicular fixation
Q. 2. Positive recruitment is indicative of
c. sacule
Q. 5. Speech frequencies include
b. 50 dB e. 110 dB
c. 70 dB
Q. 11. Tests of hearing, where subjectivity is eliminated, are
a. beksey audiometry d. speech audiometry
1. Parental guidance:
2. Development of speech and
language: a. Receptive skills:
I. Visual e.g.,
• written language
• lip reading
• sign language
II. Auditory e.g.,
• hearing aid
• cochlear implant
III. Tactile
b. Expressive skills:
I. Oral speech
II. Written speech
III. Manual sign language or finger spelling
3. Education of deaf:
4. Vocational guidance:
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Maternal infections which can affect development of cochlea include all except
a. Cytomegalovirus d. Syphilis
b. Herpes e. Toxoplasmosis
c. Malaria
Q. 2. Factor which can identify infant with high risk of hearing loss includes
a. bilirubin more than 20 mg/dl d. malformation of pinna
c. Potter’s syndrome
Scenario A: Mother of a 06 years old child complains that her child has hearing
difficulty in school for last 06 months. He does not cooperate for otoscopic examination
or free field hearing assessment.
1. List four common causes of hearing loss at this age?
2. Name two audiological tests for hearing assessment?
Scenario B: Mother bought her 2 and half years old boy to ENT OPD with complaints of
not responding to sounds and he has not started speaking. On examination both tympanic
membranes, nose and throat is normal.
1. How will you investigate this child?
2. Write down management of this patient?
--------------------------------------------------------ANSWERS----------------------------------------------
-------
Q.1. c 2. e 3. e 4. b 5. d
Scenario A: 1. Otitis media with effusion, eustachian tube dysfunction, wax, acute SOM
2. PTA, tympanometry, BERA.
Scenario B: 1. Conditioning techniques: a.Visual reinforcement audiometry, b. Play
audiometry, c.Speech audiometry. Objective audiometry: a. Impedance audiometry b.
Heart rate audiometry c. Electrocochleography d. Auditory brainstem response
e.Otoacoustic emission 2. If patient has severe sensineural hearing loss then hearing aid
is advised to the patient and if patient suffers from profound sensineural hearing loss
then trial of hearing aid for six months followed by cochlear implant is given.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
HEARING AID
A hearing aid is an electronic device which amplifies sound. Following types of hearing aids
are available.
A. Conventional hearing aids:
It consists of;
a. Microphone which picks up sounds and converts it into
electrical impulses.
b. Amplifier which amplifies electrical impulses.
c. Receiver which converts electrical impulses back to sounds.
BTE hearing aid
Types of conventional hearing aids:
a. Bone conduction hearing aid:
It has a bone vibrator instead of a receiver which fits on the mastoid and directly
163
stimulates the cochlea. It is used in patients with meatal atresia, otitis externa or
discharging ear.
b. Air conduction hearing aid:
In this, the amplified sound is transmitted via the ear canal to the tympanic
membrane. It is the most commonly used hearing aid.
Air conducting hearing aids can be of the following types.
1. Body worn type
2. Behind the Ear (BTE) type
3. Spectacle type
4. In the Ear (ITE) type
5. Canal types;
I. In the Canal (ITC)
II. Completely in the Canal (CIC)
B. Bone Anchored Hearing Aid (BAHA):
In this surgically implanted abutment transmits
sounds by direct conduction through the bone to the
cochlea (by passing the external meatus and middle
ear). BAHA has the following components;
Processor Abutment Fixture
a. Titanium fixture. It is surgically included in
the skull bone. It bonds with the surrounding tissue in a process called osseointegration.
b. Titanium abutment. It is exposed outside the skull.
c. Sound processor. It is attached to the abutment once the osseointegration is
complete (which may take 3 to 6 months).
C. Implantable hearing aid:
This is a new variety of hearing aids. This is implanted into the middle ear and works as a
direct drive system.
It delivers mechanical vibrations directly to the ossicular chain (rather than delivering
acoustic energy into the external meatus as with conventional hearing aids). Implantable
hearing aids are available in the following forms;
a. Piezoelectric devices
b. Electromagnetic devices
D. Contralateral Routing of Signals (CROS):
This type of hearing aid is used when one ear is completely/severely deaf. The microphone is
fitted on the side of the deaf ear and the sound thus, picked up and converged to the receiver
placed in the better ear. It helps in sound localization. This type of hearing aid is obsolete
now.
164
Indications of hearing aid:
Any person whose hearing problem cannot be corrected by medical or surgical means is a
candidate for hearing aid.
1. Sensorineural hearing loss: Hearing aid may not suit all such persons because of
distortion of sound and especially in those with recruitment.
2. Deaf children must be fitted with hearing aid as early as possible for adequate
development of speech.
3. Conductive hearing loss: Majority of such persons may be helped by surgery.
Hearing aid is prescribed when surgery is refused, not feasible or has failed.
In case of bilateral hearing loss, hearing aid is fitted in the better ear.
Fitting a hearing aid:
While fitting a hearing aid consideration is given to;
1. Of hearing loss.
2. Type of hearing loss.
3. Type of frequencies affected.
4. Presence of recruitment.
5. Age of the patient.
6. Condition of outer and middle ear.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Hearing aid consists of following components except
a. amplifier d. all of the above
c. receiver
Q. 2. Following is a type of hearing aid.
c. Canal type
Q. 4. Bone anchored hearing aid (BAHA) consists of
c. titanium fixture
165
Scenario: A one year old baby was brought to ENT OPD with the complaint of hearing loss
and bilateral meatal atresia. On investigation he has normal hearing structures such as
ossicles and cochlea.
1. What kind of hearing aid will be applied to this baby?
2. Name other different types of hearing aids.
----------------------------------------------------
---- ANSWERS-----------------------------------------------------
Q.1. d 2. e 3. e 4. d
Scenario: 1. Bone conduction hearing aid 2. BTE, ITC, CIC, BAHA
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-
COCHLEAR IMPLANT
It is an electronic device capable of producing useful
hearing to persons who have severe to profound
sensorineural hearing loss and cannot benefit from
hearing aid. It works by producing meaningful electrical
stimulation of the auditory nerve where degeneration of
the hair cells in the cochlea has progressed to a point
such that amplification provided by hearing aids is no
longer effective. It has got two parts;
1. External part consisting of;
a. Microphone, which picks up the sound.
Pathophysiology:
Cochlear implant functions best in profoundly deaf ear which has a
large number of surviving peripheral neural elements capable of
receiving and transmitting electrical impulses to central nuclei.
Successful cochlear implants have been reported after all types of
acquired hearing loss affecting the cochlea.
A child with
Otological selection of patients for cochlear implant: cochlear
implant
166
Potential cochlear implant subjects are classified into following groups indicating increasing
difficulty in auditory rehabilitation.
1. Acquired post lingually deaf adults
2. Acquired post lingually deaf children
3. Acquired pre lingually deaf children
4. Congenitally deaf children
5. Acquired pre lingually deaf adults
6. Congenitally deaf adults
Diseases in which there is profound or total loss of hearing are;
A. Congenital:
B. Acquired:
1. Trauma
2. Labyrinthitis
3. Meningitis
4. Otoscelerosis
5. Meniere’s disease
6. Ototoxicity
Evaluation of patient prior to cochlear implant:
1. Otological examination:
Tympanic membrane must be intact and there must be no active infection. Any chronic
infection of nose or throat must be eradicated prior to surgery. Patient must be medically fit
enough to undergo a 4-hour surgical procedure.
2. Audiological investigation:
Pure tone audiometry must show profound hearing loss (greater than 90 dB hearing loss at
any audiometric frequency). Speech score must be zero. A trial with a suitable hearing aid
must be given before cochlear implant. Electrocochleography is done to ensure that no useful
cochlear function exists. All patients who have a promontory stimulation test should hear
using an implant.
3. Radiological investigation:
CT must show patency of cochlear duct on atleast three consecutive films taken at 02 mm
intervals.
4. Preoperative counselling:
Thorough psychological evaluation of patient must be carried out. Patient and clinician must
167
have realistic approach. Patient must accept that he/she may not be able to understand and
speak at all through the device.
c. otosclerosis
b. BAHA e. Stapedectomy
c. Cochlear implant
Q. 5. In cochlear implant the electrode is placed in
c. scala tympani
Scenario: A 03 years old child presented in ENT unit referred from pediatric department
where she was admitted for treatment of bacterial meningitis. On inquiry, it was found that
patient had undergone an ear surgery for profound sensorineural hearing loss one month
ago. Related to this operation answer the following questions:
1. What type of surgery patient has undergone?
2. What are the other complications related to this surgery?
---------------------------------------------------
----- ANSWERS-----------------------------------------------------
Q.1. e 2. a 3. a 4. c 5. b 6. a
Scenario: 1. Cochlear implant surgery 2. Meningitis, CSF leak, persistent perilymph leak,
hematoma, facial palsy, tinnitus.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-
169
PART C
NOSE AND PARANASAL
SINUSES Chapter 9
SYMPTOMATOLOGY AND EXAMINATION
OF NOSE AND PARANASAL SINUSES
3. Sneezing: Excessive sneezing on exposure to certain agents such as dust, paint and
perfume is characteristic of allergic rhinitis. v
4. Epistaxis: Frank blood from nose is a symptom of various diseases which will be
discussed later in topic of epistaxis. In many diseases, the blood is mixed with nasal
discharge.
5. Facial pain and headache: Pain in diseases of nose and paranasal sinuses often
occurs in rhinosinusitis. When the ostium of the sinus gets blocked and it fails to
discharge its contents into the nasal cavity. This leads to pain which may be referred to
the vertex or the occiput. Pain from frontal sinusitis has a very typical periodicity. When
the patient gets up in the morning, he has no pain. On assuming erect posture, pain starts
in the forehead which goes on getting worse and worse till it reaches its height about
midday when it starts diminishing, and disappears by sunset. Deflected nasal septum may
press on the middle turbinate to produce anterior ethmoidal nerve syndrome.
6. Snoring:
7. Change in sensation of smell:
a. Anosmia: It is absent sensation of smell. It may occur in atrophic rhinitis, or
sometimes in diseases which do not allow the odoriferous particles to ascend up into
the olfactory region of the nose, e.g., nasal polypi and hypertrophic rhinitis etc. It
may also occur in fracture of the anterior cranial fossa due to tearing off of the
olfactory nerve fibers.
b. Hyposmia: It is decrease sensation of smell. Causes of hyposmia are usually the
same as those for anosmia.
c. Hyperosmia: It is increased sensation of smell. It may be seen in cases of allergic
rhinitis.
d. Parosmia: It is perverted sensation of smell.
e. Cacosmia: It is bad sensation of smell.
f. Phantosmia: It is smelling of non-existent odor.
8. Change in quality of speech: When a person is speaking, there is a beautiful balance
between the air which passes through the oral cavity and which passes through the nasal
cavity. The balance may be disturbed in certain diseases.
a. Rahinolalia clausa: It means decreased nasal character of voice. It is a symptom of
nasal obstruction. The speech becomes toneless and dull. It is found in diseases like
adenoiditis, nasal polypi, neoplasms of nose and paranasal sinuses etc.
b. Rhinolalia aperta: It means increased nasal character of voice. It is also known as
nasal twang. It occurs when during speech there is excessive passage of expired air
through the nose e.g., in cleft palate, paralysis of the palate, etc.
Pharynx is an important organ for giving resonance to the speech. Thus, in
cases of extreme hypertrophy of the tonsils or a tumor in the pharynx, the speech will
appear to be very full. In normal speech production, the palate shuts off the
nasopharynx
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
172 Part C Nose
from the oropharynx during the pronunciation of all the letters of the alphabet except those
which have got nasal twang, i.e., ‘M’, ‘N’ and ‘NG’. During pronunciation of the letters, the
nasopharynx is not completely shut off from the oropharynx; part of the air escapes through
the nose. In paralysis of the palate or in cases of perforation in the palate, much more air
passes out through the nose than is required for proper speech production. The result is that
the patient’s speech contains an excess of nasal twang. This condition is called rhinolalia
aperta. Conversely, if there is blockage in the throat, the nasopharynx of the nose, too little air
may escape through the nose. In this case the speech will contain an abnormally low amount
of nasal twang and it will appear dull or toneless and uninteresting. This condition is called
rhinolalia clausa.
9. Change in nasal shape: Several diseases of the nose produce changes in the shape
and external appearance of the nose. Congenital defects are generally, very obvious.
Fractures of the nasal bones may produce external swelling and deformity, the degree of
which will be determined by the severity of the force used. Lupus may show apple-jelly
nodules on the skin and in later stages there may be destruction of part of the nose. Nasal
polypi may broaden out the nose and deflected septum also often twists the bridge and
tilts the tip. Malignant tumors often deform the nose. A boil in the vestibule shows by
swelling and redness of the tip. Excessive nasal discharge due to rhinosinusitis or
adenoids in children produces fissuring of the external nares.
10. Miscellaneous: Sometimes nasal diseases may cause bulging of eyeballs (proptosis) or
telecanthus (increased distance between two medial canthi).
Nasal diseases may produce other symptoms for example, general disturbances of
temperature and pulse. These may also produce symptoms due to complications e.g.,
otitis media, laryngitis, bronchitis etc.
EXAMINATION OF NOSE AND PARANASAL SINUSES
After completing all the prerequisites of examination, the nose and paranasal sinuses are
examined as follows;
1. Inspection:
Several diseases of the nose and paranasal sinuses can be diagnosed just by looking at it.
Inspection is done of;
a. External nasal pyramid
b. Ethmoid sinus region
c. Maxillary sinus region
d. Frontal sinus region
Clinician has to look for any congenital anomaly, anatomical landmarks, symmetry and any
other positive finding (scar, swelling, ulceration, deformity, hemangioma, lymphangioma
etc.).
2. Patency test:
Patency of the nasal cavities is checked with a wisp of cotton, cold spatula or indirect
laryngoscopy mirror.
3. Sense of smell:
Sense of smell is tested separately in each nasal cavity using soap, perfume etc. Patient is
asked to close the eyes during testing. Sense of smell is tested separately in both nasal
cavities using soap, perfume etc.
4. Palpation:
Palpation is done of;
a. Frontal sinuses
b. Supraorbital margins
c. Ethmoids
d. Nasal pyramid
e. Maxillary sinuses
5. Tilt up the tip of nose:
To examine the interior of the vestibule in adults and the vestibule and the nasal fossae in
children, tilting the tip of nose upwards is often sufficient to provide an adequate view. This
is done with the thumb of the left hand and by stabilizing the head with the rest of the
fingers. However, in case of adults, anterior rhinoscopy with the help of a speculum to see the
nasal fossae, is essential.
6. Anterior rhinoscopy:
It is carried out with the help of a Thudicum nasal speculum.
Again, inspection is done for;
c. nasal hemorrhage
Q. 2. Rhinolalia clausa is also known as
c. hyponasal voice
Q. 3. Rhinolalia aperta is also known as
c. antrochoanal polyp
Q. 5. Hyperosmia is a feature of
c. rhinitis medicamentosa
Q. 6. Parosmia is
a. diminution in sense of smell d. smell when none is present around
b. distorted sense of smell e. unpleasant smell due to infection of
c. increased sensation of smell nose and paranasal sinuses
Q. 7. Smelling of non-existent is known as
a. cacosmia b. dysosmia
c. hyperosmia e. phantosmia
d. parosmia
Q. 8. The length of nasal cavity in adult is
a. 04 cm d. 13 cm
b. 07 cm e. 16 cm
c. 10 cm
Q. 9. A patient with complete anosmia still responds to inhalation of
a. ammonia d. mint
b. coffee e. vanilla
c. garlic
Q. 10. In a normal person all of the following structures are seen on anterior rhinoscopy
except
a. cartilaginous septum d. middle turbinate
c. inferior turbinate
Q. 11. Patency of nose can be checked with all of the following except
Chapter 10
DISEASES OF NOSE AND
PARANASAL SINUSES
CONGENITAL ANOMALIES
MENINGOENCEPHALOCELE
Definition:
It is herniation of glial tissue and meninges through a bony defect in skull.
Clinical features:
A meningoencephalocele may present as;
1. Basal type: It presents as a pedunculated intranasal swelling.
2. Frontoethmoidal type: It presents as a subcutaneous soft, cystic
pulsatile swelling over the root of nose.
Examination during crying or straining tends to increase the size and
tension of the swelling. The swelling increases in size on coughing.
This is known as Frustenberg test. Frontoethmoidal
meningoencephalocele
Investigations:
CT is done to find out exact site and size of the cranial defect.
Treatment:
It consists of;
Intranasal meningoencephalocele
1. Excision of the stalk from the brain.
2. Repairing the bony defect with bone/cartilage graft through which herniation has taken
place.
3. Seal the defect with temporalis fascia and fat.
All this is carried out endoscopically by rhinologist or neurosurgeon. Sometimes craniotomy
may be required.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Meningoencephalocele
is
c. Queckenstedt test
Q. 4. Investigation of choice in meningoencephalocele is
c. CT scan
Q. 5. Which of the following statement is not correct?
a. A solitary polyp in an infant is best d. Multiple nasal polyps in a middle-aged
removed by avulsion man may hide malignant tumor under-neath
b. A solitary polyp in an infant may suggest
meningocele e. Vasomotor rhinitis can lead to nasal
c. Bilateral nasal polyp in a child may polypi
suggest cystic fibrosis
Q. 6. All are treatments of meningoencephalocele except
a. endoscopy d. repair of defect
c. evulsion of stalk
Scenario: A 01-year-old child presented with glistening mass in right nasal cavity. Its size
increased on coughing and crying (i.e., Frustenberg test wa s positive).
1. What is your clinical diagnosis?
2. What investigations will you carry out?
3. How will you treat this patient?
------------------------------------------------------
-- ANSWERS-----------------------------------------------------
Q.1. b 2. d 3. b 4. c 5. a 6. c
Scenario: 1. Meningoencephalocele 2. CT scan 3. Excision of stalk and repair of bony defect.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
180 Part C Nose
CHOANAL ATRESIA
Definition:
Choana is a Greek word which means a funnel. So, the term choana is used for posterior
aperture of nose.
Etiopathology:
It is due to failure of the buccopharyngeal membrane to undergo involution during
intrauterine life. Choanal atresia may be unilateral or bilateral. It may be
bony in 90% of cases or membranous in 10% of cases.
Clinical features:
Unilateral choanal atresia is more common and may remain
undiagnosed until adult life. There may be complaint of unilateral
mucoid nasal discharge since birth. Sometimes there may be feeding
difficulty especially if healthy side of nose is occluded by contact with the
ipsilateralbreast.
Bilateral choanal atresia presents as a respiratory emergency Left sided choanal atresia
and if diagnosis is not made early, newborn may die. Bilateral choanal
atresia is apparent at birth, as the infants are obligate nasal breathers
(infants cannot breathe through mouth). Nasal
obstruction in older children and adults results in reflex
opening of the mouth. This reflex is somehow absent in
infants. The neonate with bilateral choanal atresia
becomes cyanosed during quiet periods but attains
normal color during crying. It is in contrast to
laryngomalacia.
On patency test, there will be no misting of mirror
or cold spatula placed beneath the nasal cavities. A dye
such as methylene blue instilled into nose will not appear in the oropharynx.
A soft red rubber catheter passed through each side of Diiference between normal and choanal atresia
nose will not come into oropharynx. Flexible
nasopharyngoscopy is very helpful in diagnosis of unilateral or bilateral choanal
atresia.
Choanal atresia is linked with CHARGE association in 60% of cases.
C →Colobomatous blindness
H →Heart disease
A →Atresia of choana
R →Retarded growth
G →Genital abnormality
E →Ear abnormality
Investigations:
1. Choanogram confirms the diagnosis of choanal atresia. Which
CT showing bilateral
means if we take a radiograph after instilling a contrast medium into
choanal atresia
nasal cavities, contrast medium will not pass into oropharynx.
2. Computerized tomography demonstrates whether the atresia is membranous or bony
and it also demonstrates exact thickness of the atresia.
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
181 Part C Nose
Treatment:
In unilateral choanal atresia, there is no emergency and surgery
are performed as an elective procedure.
In bilateral choanal atresia, there is always a respiratory
emergency and management is done in two stages;
1. Primary or emergency treatment
2. Secondary or definitive treatment
c. tracheostomy
Scenario: A newborn baby presents with respiratory emergency apparent at birth. He
becomes cyanosed in quiet periods and attains normal color during crying.
1. What is the most probable clinical diagnosis?
2. What is CHARGE syndrome?
3. What investigations will you carry out?
4. How will you manage this patient?
----------------------------------------- ANSWERS-----------------------------------------
--------------- ------------
Q.1. e 2. a 3. b 4. a 5. a 6. a 7. e 8. d
Scenario: 1. Bilateral choanal atresia 2. Colobomatous blindnesss, Heart disease, Atresia of
choana, Retarded growth, Genital abnormalities, Ear abnormalities 3. Choanogram, CT
4. McGovern’s technique, surgery.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
183 Part C Nose and Paranasal Sinuses
Clinical features:
1. Patient may present with external nasal deformity. There may be pain
Fracture nose
and epistaxis.
with external
nasal deformity
2. There may be nasal obstruction due to blood clot, septal hematoma,
septal abscess, septal fracture or septal dislocation.
3. Rarely there may be complaint of watery nasal discharge (CSF rhinorrhoea).
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
184 Part C Nose and Paranasal Sinuses
On examination;
1. Inspection shows edema, periorbital ecchymosis (black eye, panda facies, raccoon’s
eyes). There may be deformity of nasal shape and/or telecanthus.
2. Palpation shows tenderness, crepitus and step deformity.
3. Anterior rhinoscopy may show blood clot, septal hematoma, septal abscess, septal
fracture or septal dislocation.
Complications:
1. External nasal deformity
2. Septal hematoma/abscess
3. Epistaxis
4. CSF rhinorrhoea
Investigations:
Diagnosis is made on clinical grounds.
No X-ray is required in simple limited fractures of the nasal bones. There may be fracture
and it may not be visible on X-ray or vascular line may be mistakenly interpreted as fracture
line.
X-ray is required only for medicolegal purposes or to rule out more extensive injuries
to the facial skeleton.
Treatment:
After management of A (airway), B (breathing) and C (circulation), attention is given towards
fracture of nasal bones. There is very limited window of opportunity to manipulate the
fracture to improve cosmatic defect. Best time for reduction of fracture of nasal bones is
either before the appearance of edema or after it has subsided. However, it depends on the
stage at which the patient presents after the trauma.
1. Early/pre-edema stage (within 4 to 6 hours):
If the patient presents early before the swelling appears (within 4-6 hours), fracture is reduced
immediately by digital manipulation, with or without local anesthesia. This digital
manipulation is usually effective in achieving disimpaction and realignment.
2. Intermediate/edema stage (6 hours to 6 days):
If the patient presents late after the development of edema, then
anatomical landmarks are lost. The patient is prescribed anti-
inflammatory, analgesics and asked to revisit after 7-10 days.
3. Late stage/post edema (7 to 14 days):
Usually by this time the swelling has subsided and reduction of
fracture
of nasal bones can be done under local or general anesthesia. Walsham’s Forceps for reduc-
tion of fracture nasal
bones
185 Part C Nose and Paranasal Sinuses
c. saddle deformity
Q. 5. Limited fracture of nasal bones may show all except
c. periorbital ecchymosis
Q. 6. In fracture nasal bone, on palpation there may be
deformity
d. often reduced by closed methods
a. 04 to 06 hours d. a & b
c. Joseph’s forceps
Q. 12. Fracture of the nasal septum is corrected by
Classification:
Deformity of nasal septum can be classified into;
1. Deviation: Deviation may be C shape or S shape in the
vertical or horizontal direction.
2. Dislocation: Lower border of septal cartilage may be
dislocated from the maxillary crest into one or the other
nasal cavity. Caudal border of septum may be dislocated
from columella.
3. Spur: This is sharp angulated projection usually at the junction of vomer with the
septal cartilage.
Clinical features:
1. Nasal obstruction: This is usually on the side of deviation but occasionally may be
on the contralateral side because of compensatory hypertrophy of the
inferior turbinate which is known as paradoxical nasal obstruction.
Nasal valve is at narrowest part of nasal cavity and is present at
level of upper/lower border of upper lateral cartilage. Even minimal
septal deviation in the region of nasal valve area causes the greatest
obstruction. Moderate
deviations, anterior or posterior to the region of valve may not be too much Left sided DNS
symptomatic.
2. Anosmia/hyposmia: This usually occurs on the side of obstruction due to lack of
entry of inspired air into the olfactory region (upper one third of nasal cavity).
3. Mucosal changes: Crusting may occur on the side of deviation due to concentration
on small areas of nasal mucosa of inspiratory air currents. Removal of these crusts may
produce ulceration and bleeding.
4. External deformity: Patient may complain of deformity of nasal pyramid in severe
deviation of nasal septum.
5. Sluder’s neuralgia: Also known as anterior ethmoidal nerve syndrome. There is
very severe pain on the external nasal pyramid due to compression of the anterior ethmoidal
nerve.
Other symptoms like nasal discharge or headache are usually due to complications of
DNS.
On examination;
189 Part C Nose and Paranasal Sinuses
Treatment:
For treatment purposes, Cottle has classified septal deviations into three
types:
1. Simple deviation: It is a mild degree of deviation of nasal septum. It does not cause
nasal obstruction.
2. Obstruction: It is a moderate degree of deviation of nasal septum. Patient presents
with nasal obstruction but the obstruction is relieved by topical or systemic
decongestants.
3. Impaction: There is severe degree of deviation of nasal septum which touches the
lateral nasal wall. Even after administration of decongestants, patient’s symptoms are not
relieved which indicates skeletal septal abnormality. These are the patients who are real
candidates for septal surgery.
Treatment is in the form of septal surgery which may be;
1. Septoplasty
2. S.M.R. (Sub Mucoperichondrial Resection)
1. Septoplasty:
It is a conservative approach in which deviated part of the septum is mobilized and
repositioned.
Advantage: There are less chances of complications.
Disadvantage: There are more chances of residual disease.
2. SMR:
It is a radical approach in which deviated part of septum is removed.
Advantage: There are less chances of residual disease.
Disadvantage: There are more chances of complications.
Criteria for septoplasty or S.M.R.:
1. Patients under the age of 18 years are dealt with septoplasty while patients over the
age of 18 years are dealt with SMR.
190
2. A vertical line is drawn between nasal process of frontal bone above and nasal
process of maxillary bone below.
If deviation is anterior to this line then septoplasty is performed. If deviation is posterior to
this line then S.M.R is performed.
SEPTOPLASTY/SMR
Indications of septal surgery:
1. Gross DNS
2. As part of other procedures like rhinoplasty
3. Source of grafting material for rhinoplasty and tympanoplasty
4. Closure of septal perforation
5. To obtain surgical access e.g.,
a. Nasal polyps behind DNS
b. Hypophysectomy
Contraindications:
1. Acute upper or lower respiratory tract infection
2. Systemic diseases like hypertension, diabetes, hemostatic diathesis
3. Pregnancy and menstruation
Procedure: After local or general
anesthesia, reverse Trendelenburg position is
made. Throat (epilaryngeal) pack is placed.
Two percent xylocaine with adrenaline
(1:80,000) is injected in the
submucoperichondrial plane of nasal septum.
Incision is made at the caudal border of
septum which is known as Freer incision.
Incision may be made 4 to 5 mm behind
caudal border of septum which is known as
Killian incision.
Mucoperichondrial flaps on both sides of
septum are elevated. Deviated part of septum
is mobilized, straightened and repositioned in
midline which is known as septoplasty.
Deviated part of septum can also be removed
which is known as S.M.R. Flaps replaced
back to their original position. Incision is closed with Incision of septoplasty
absorbable sutures.
Splints in both nasal cavities are placed and transfixed. Anterior nasal packing is done in
both nasal cavities to obliterate potential space and bolster applied. Any blood or secretions in
the oropharynx sucked out with the help of pharyngeal sucker. Throat pack (also known as
epilaryngeal pack) is removed after securing hemostasis. Nasal packs are removed after 24
hours.
Complications:
1. Nasal hemorrhage
2. Septal hematoma
3. Septal abscess
191 Part C Nose and Paranasal Sinuses
4. Septal perforation
5. Saddle nose
6. Columellar retraction
7. Columellar shortening
8. Synechiae formation
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Nasal septum is formed of the following.
a. perpendicular plate of ethmoid d. all of the above
c. vomer
Q. 2. Septal cartilage is also known as
a. congenital d. trauma
b. developmental e. tumor
c. granulomatous
Q. 4. Following is included in classification of nasal septal deformity
a. deviation d. all of the above
c. spur
Q. 5. Cottle test includes pulling of cheek
c. gross DNS
Q. 7. Contraindications of septal surgery include
a. acute upper & lower respiratory tract and diabetes
infection d. all of the above
b. pregnancy & menstruation e. none of the above
c. systemic diseases like hypertension
192
Q. 8. For treatment purposes nasal septum is divided into anterior and posterior parts by
a vertical line drawn between
a. frontal bone to maxillary bone d. nasal bone to maxillary bone
c. septal hematoma
Q. 13. Complication of septal surgery is
c. saddle nose
Q. 14. Saddle deformity of nose results from damage to
b. lignocaine e. xylocaine
c. prilocaine
Scenario A: A 15 years old boy complains of left sided persistent complete nasal obstruction
for last 02 years and on examination has left sided deflected nasal septum.
1. How will you decide whether boy should have SMR or septoplasty?
2. Enumerate four indications of SMR.
B: A 40 years old man present with nasal obstruction, postnasal drip and occasional frontal
and facial pain for last one year. On examination there is marked deviation of nasal septum
towards right side. The left inferior turbinate is also enlarged.
1. What is your diagnosis?
2. What will be your treatment of choice?
3. Name five main complications of septal surgery?
C: A 13 years old girl complains of persistent nasal obstruction for last one year.
Examination reveals that septum is deviated to right side with some hypertrophy of left
inferior turbinate. Her Hb is 10 gm/dl.
1. What is the best surgical treatment for her?
2. What is the difference between SMR and septoplasty?
3. Enumerate four contraindications of surgery.
----------------------------------------- ANSWERS------------------------------------------
--------------- -----------
Q.1. d 2. d 3. d 4. d 5. e 6. e 7. d 8. a
9. d 10. e 11. d 12. e 13. e 14. b 15. c 16. a
Scenario A: 1. Age, caudal deformity 2. Nasal obstruction, recurrent epistaxis due to spur,
post nasal discharge causing sore throat, approach to pituitary gland.
B: 1. Sinusitis 2. SMR and left inferior turbinectomy 3. Septal hematoma, adhesion, supratip
depression, CSF rhinorrhoea, caudal retraction.
C: 1. Septoplasty 2. In septoplasty minimum cartilage removal, less complications and in
SMR vice versa 3. Acute upper or lower respiratory tract infection, systemic diseases like
hypertension, diabetes, hemostatic diathesis, pregnancy and menstruation
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-
CEREBROSPINAL FLUID (CSF) RHINORRHOEA
Definition:
It is defined as leakage of CSF into the nose.
194
Etiopathology:
Leakage of CSF from the subarachnoid space into the nose is due to defect in the dura, bone
Investigations:
1. Estimation of β2 transferrin: β2 transferrin is a protein which is present Halo sign
in CSF. Its small amounts are also present in perilymph and aqueous humor. Its
estimation in nasal secretions is diagnostic of CSF rhinorrhoea.
195
2. Estimation of β trace protein: It is highly specific for CSF. But facilities for its
estimation are available only in a few countries.
Nasal secretions do not contain glucose, whereas CSF does have glucose. Estimation of
glucose in CSF rhinorrhoea may not be helpful if it is mixed with blood.
3. Radiology:
a. High resolution CT scanning is very useful in traumatic cases to identify the site of
defect.
b. MRI is very useful in non traumatic cases to find the underlying pathology such as
tumor, encephalocele or hydrocephalus.
4. Intrathecal dyes and markers: Examination of nose with flexible nasopharyngo-
scope/30-degree endoscope especially after injection of dyes or markers (indigo, carmine,
methylene blue, 5 % fluorescein or radioactive tracer) into the lumbar theca may help to
localize the exact site of leakage of CSF.
Treatment:
A. Conservative:
1. Antibiotic prophylaxis: Majority of traumatic CSF leaks resolve within 7-14 days
with conservative measures. Until leak closes, the patient is at risk of developing
pneumococcal meningitis. So, all the patients with CSF rhinorrhoea should be given
adequate antibiotic prophylaxis. For adults, oral penicillin 500 mg six hourly and
sulfonamide 500 mg six hourly is given.
2. Strict bed rest and elevation of head end of bed is advised. Any straining such as
coughing, sneezing, nose blowing, bending forward, lifting heavy weight and strain-
ing on stool is avoided. Patient’s bowel is kept soft. Medical means are adopted to
decrease intracranial tension.
3. Spinal drain may be introduced to decrease intracranial pressure which helps
to increase the healing process.
B. Surgical:
Surgical treatment of CSF leakage is considered if after addressing the underlying cause
(tumor or hydrocephalous), the leak is profuse or it does not close spontaneously after 7-
10 days with conservative measures.
Exploration and surgical closure of the site of leakage is carried out. It is done either
endoscopically (FESS), trans-septally or extracranially. Defect is covered with fascia lata
or temporalis fascia.
The exact approach depends on the site of the fistula i.e., whether anterior, middle or
posterior cranial fossa. The surgical intervention is done either by otologist or by
neurosurgeon.
SELF ASSESSMENT
196 Part C Nose and Paranasal Sinuses
Q. 1 The most common cause of CSF rhinorrhoea is
a. congenital d. trauma
b. idiopathic e. tumor
c. inflammatory
Q. 2. The most common site for CSF rhinorrhoea is
a. cribriform plate d. petrous bone
c. occipital bone
Q. 3. CSF rhinorrhoea may be seen after
fossa
e. all of the above
nasal discharge
c. increased by coughing
Q. 5. All are true about CSF rhinorrhoea except
tracranial pressure
d. sweet taste in mouth
c. perilymph
Q. 7. CSF rhinorrhoea is diagnosed by
a. beta-2 microglobulin d. thyroxine
a. β2-transferrin d. Potassium
c. Glucose
Q. 9. To localize CSF leak, an intrathecal injection of fluorescein dye showed staining of
the pledget in the olfactory sulcus, the likely site of CSF leak is:
a. Cribriform plate b. Ethmoid sinus
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
197 Part C Nose and Paranasal Sinuses
d. Maxillary sinus
Q. 10. All are true about treatment of CSF rhinorrhoea except:
c. CSF rhinorrhoea
Scenario: A 30 years old female had road traffic accident 02 hours back and presented with
clear watery nasal discharge, nasal obstruction, salty taste in mouth and headache.
1. What is the most probable diagnosis?
2. What investigation you will advise?
3. What is your treatment plan?
----------------------------------------- ANSWERS--------------------------------
--------------- ---------------------
Q.1. d 2. a 3. e 4. a 5. c 6. d 7. b
8. b 9. a 10. a 11. e 12. c
Scenario: 1. CSF rhinorrhoea 2. β2 transferrin, β trace protein, high resolution CT, MRI,
intrathecal dyes and markers 3. Conservative, antibiotic prophylaxis, strict bed rest and
elevation of head, spinal drain, surgical exploration and surgical closure of the site of
leakage.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-
INFLAMMATIONS OF NOSE AND PARANASAL SINUSES
BOIL (FURUNCLE) OF NOSE
Definition:
Boil is defined as an acute localized Staphylococcus
aureus infection of the hair follicle (pilosebaceous
gland).
Etiopathology:
Trauma by nose picking or plucking the vibrissae is the
usual causative factor. Usually, the infection is self
limiting but occasionally may spread to cause cellulitis of
nasal tip, upper lip or septal abscess. There may be
spontaneous evacuation of pus in 04 or 05 days.
Pathophysiology of boil nose
198 Part C Nose and Paranasal Sinuses
Investigations:
Estimation of fasting blood glucose is required in recurrent cases to rule out diabetes melli-
tus.
Treatment:
1. Systemic antibiotics such as flucloxacillin, erythromycin or cephalosporins are the drugs
of first choice.
2. Analgesics are given to relieve pain.
3. Avoid nose picking and squeezing the boil (‘respect the boil on the nose’) as this may
cause spread of infection to the cavernous sinus.
4. Incision and drainage through nasal cavity under full aseptic measures is carried out if
there is formation of abscess.
5. In recurrent furunculosis, it is very important to exclude diabetes mellitus and other
causes of immunosuppression.
6. Staphylococci should be eliminated from the external auditory canal, nasal vestibule and
nail beds by applying neomycin or gentamicin cream twice daily.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Organism responsible for boil nose is
c. Pseudomonas
Q. 3. Boil nose may be due to
c. plucking vibrissae
Q. 4. Which of the following is complication of boil nose?
c. Septal abscess
Q. 5. Treatment of boil nose includes all except
a. Acute:
• Viral
• Bacterial
b. Chronic:
•
Bacterial
•
Fungal
2. Mechanical: e.g., trauma, tumor, DNS, nasal polyp, adenoids etc.
3. Autonomic imbalance: e.g., honeymoon rhinitis, emotional rhinitis (anxiety, stress,
anger, grief, humiliation).
4. Immune deficiency: e.g., HIV, hypogammaglobulinemia.
5. Mucociliary clearance abnormalities: e.g., Kartagener’s syndrome also known as
primary ciliary dyskinesia (sinusitis, bronchiectasis, obstructive azoospermia,
dextrocardia and situs inversus due to defect in cilia). Young’s syndrome (sinusitis,
bronchitis and bronchiectasis, obstructive azoospermia due to physicochemical
abnormalities of secretions).
6. Granulomatous conditions: e.g., specific and nonspecific granulomas.
7. Hormonal: e.g., puberty, pregnancy, hypothyroidism
8. Iatrogenic: e.g., rhinitis medicamentosa (RM). It is a condition of rebound nasal
congestion brought on by extended use of topical decongestants (e.g., oxymetazoline,
phenylephrine, xylometazoline and nephazoline nasal sprays) and certain oral
medications (e.g., sympathomimetic amines and various 2-imidazolines) that constrict
blood vessels in the mucous membrane of the nose.
The most common cause of rhinosinusitis is common cold. Other causes of
rhinosinusitis include swimming, diving and dental infections.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Prolonged use of vasoconstrictor nasal drops may cause
a. allergic rhinitis d. rhinitis sicca
c. cleft palate
Q. 4. All of the following components are part of Young’s syndrome except
a. bronchiectasis d. primary ciliary dyskinesia
b. bronchitis e. sinusitis
c. obstructive azoospermia
-------------------------------------------------------- ANSWERS-----------------------------------------------------
Q.1. c 2. d 3. c 4. d
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-
COMMON COLD (CORYZA)
Etiopathology:
It is a viral infection, which is conveyed by contact or airborne
droplets. It is usually complicated by a secondary bacterial
infection.
The common cold is caused by rhinovirus and coronavirus.
However, other viruses include adenovirus, influenza virus,
parainfluenza virus and respiratory syncytial virus.
After viral infection there is transient ischemia of the mucosa.
It is followed by swelling, hyperemia and profuse secretion of Presentation of coryza
clear seromucinous fluid. Then there is secondary bacterial
infection due to rapid growth of resident flora of the nose. Then
the rhinorrhoea becomes mucopurulent.
The organisms usually found are:
1. Streptococcus hemolyticus
2. Pneumococcus
3. Staphylococcus aureus
Stages of rhinosinusitis:
There are following stages of rhinosinusitis;
1. Ischemic stage: After an incubation period of 1-3 days, there is burning sensation in the
nasopharynx. It is followed by sneezing and shivering. Sense of smell is altered or lost.
2. Hyperaemic stage: In a few hours there is profuse rhinorrhoea and varying degrees of
nasal obstruction. Fever may also occur.
3. Stage of secondary infection: As secondary infection and leucocytic invasion occurs,
the discharge becomes yellow or green. It also thickens, owing to a high mucin content,
and
Differential diagnosis:
1. Allergic rhinitis: It is characterized by sneezing, nasal discharge and nasal obstruction
on exposure to certain allergens.
2. Vasomotor rhinitis: It is often described by the patient as ‘cold’, but the rhinorrhoea is
characteristically spasmodic and the condition is apyrexial. The discharge remains clear,
does not stiffen a handkerchief, and may contain an excess of eosinophils unless
secondarily infected.
3. Influenzal rhinitis: In it, constitutional symptoms like fever, malaise and anorexia are
much more severe.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. All may cause common cold except
b. Coronavirus e. Rhinovirus
c. E.B. virus
Q. 2. All of the following are characteristics of headache of sinus origin except
a. accompanied by vomiting or flashing c. aggravated by stooping
lights before the eyes d. presents with diurnal variation
b. aggravated by standing e. relieved by nasal decongestion
Q. 3. “Office headache” is typically seen in infection of which of the following sinuses?
a. Cavernous sinus d. Maxillary sinus
c. maxillary sinusitis
Scenario: A lady presented to ENT OPD with excessive sneezing, watery rhinorrhoea, nasal
obstruction, headache and low-grade fever for last 02 days. She also has bodyaches and
pain.
1. What is the most likely diagnosis?
2. What is the management?
204
ANSWERS-----------------------------------------------
-------------------------------------------------------- ------
Q.1. c 2. a 3. c 4. d 5. d
Scenario: 1. Rhinosinusitis 2. Antibiotics, analgesics, decongestants, steam inhalation, antral
wash out if not resolved
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
ALLERGIC RHINITIS
Definition:
Allergic rhinitis is an IgE mediated
hypersensitivity disease of the mucous
membrane of the nasal airway. It is characterized
by sneezing, nasal discharge and nasal
obstruction. Pathogenesis of allergic rhinitis
Etiopathology:
IgE is composed of two heavy chains (epsilon) and two light chains (kappa and lambda). IgE
receptors with a high affinity have been identified on mast cells and basophils. Antigen
molecules are thought to interact with two adjacent cells bound IgE antibody molecules so
forming a bridge composed of IgE-antigen-IgE. This is known as cross linkage. This cross
linkage allows the formation of calcium channel and that calcium influx triggers the events
that lead to release of different chemical mediators. These mediators are histamine, heparin,
leukotriene C4, prostaglandin D2, thromboxane and platelet activating factor (PAF). Most of
the effects are caused mainly by histamine as is indicated by clinical efficacy of
antihistamines in allergic reactions.
Mast cells are abundant in the submucosa. These are also found in the epithelium.
Basophils are often found in blown secretions from patients with rhinitis. Water soluble
allergens which are readily reached from air borne particles are free to interact with IgE
sensitized mast cells (and basophils) which in turn lead to release of pharmacological
mediators of allergy i.e., hypersensitivity.
Rapid release of these mediators leads to increased permeability of the epithelium so
allowing allergens access to deeper mast cells. Local lymph nodes are the main site of
production of serum IgE antibodies to allergens.
Allergen:
Allergen is a substance which elicits an allergic response. Allergens are usually proteins or
glycoproteins. These are freely soluble and so easily absorbed through mucous membranes.
Allergens may be;
1. Inhalants e.g., pollens, house dust mite, moulds and animal dander. Pollens are the most
common cause of allergic rhinitis. These are the male fertilizing part of flowering plants.
That is why allergic manifestations due to pollen are very common in spring season.
Mites are very small arthropods having four pairs of legs. Excreta of mites and
Investigations:
206
Allergic rhinitis is primarily a clinical diagnosis.
1. Eosinophil count is increased on differential leukocyte count (DLC).
2. Serum IgE level is increased.
3. Nasal secretions show basophils.
4. Nasal scrapings show mast cells.
5. Skin tests such as patch test, scratch test, prick test, or intradermal test help to identify
specific allergen.
6. Radioallergosorbent test (R.A.S.T.) is in vitro test. This test is more quantitative and
qualitative but is more expensive. It is performed when the patient is is on anti-allergic
drugs or having skin disease.
Treatment:
1. Avoidance of allergens:
This is the most important step in the management of a patient with allergic rhinitis. Bed
room is the most important source of allergen exposure because of the house dust mite.
Pillow and mattress should be enclosed in air tight plastic or fabric encasing. Feather and
synthetic pillows should be avoided. Dust masks should be used during the period of
exposure to dust.
Pollens are very common source of allergens especially in spring season.
Pets should be removed if these are the source of allergen. Sometimes change of job is
indicated.
2. Drugs:
a. Antihistamines:
These decrease itching, secretions and sneezing. These may be used topically or
systemically. The main side effect of antihistamines is sleep disturbance.
b. Decongestants:
Pseudoephedrine and phenylpropanolamine are usually given orally. Xylometazoline,
oxymetazoline and phenylephrine are given topically. These are given for 7 to 10
days to relieve nasal obstruction. These may be used topically or systemically.
Prolong use of nasal decongestants may cause “rhinitis medicamentosa”.
c. Corticosteroids:
These may be used topically or systemically. Topically used steroids are budesonide,
beclomethasone etc. Systemic steroids are usually prescribed for a short time.
d. Mast cell stabilizers:
These stabilize the mast cells and prevent their degranulation. These are used only
207
prophylactically. Commonly used mast cell stabilizers are sodium cromoglycate and
ketotifen. These may be used topically or systemically.
e. Anticholinergics:
e.g., ipratropium bromide. This atropine like nasal spray is useful against watery
nasal discharge.
Side effects are glaucoma, prostatism, dry mouth and dry eyes.
f. Antileukotrienes:
e.g., montelukast. These are effective against nasal congestion.
3. Immunotherapy:
Immunotherapy involves repeated subcutaneous or sublingual administration of
diluted allergen extracts. These are given once or twice weekly for 6-8 weeks. It is
followed by “maintenance” 4-8 weekly injection for 3-5 years.
4. Psychological issues:
Psychological issues should be addressed appropriately.
5. Vidian neurectomy:
Anastomosis of greater superficial petrosal nerve (carrying parasympathetic fibers)
with deep petrosal nerve (carrying sympathetic fibers) is known as vidian nerve or nerve
of the pterygoid canal. Resection of this nerve i.e., vidian neurectomy is done as a last
resort to relieve symptom of excessive nasal discharge.
Differential diagnosis:
1. Vasomotor rhinitis
2. Infective rhinitis
3. Nasal polypi
4. DNS
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Which of the following statement is true regarding allergic rhinitis?
a. IgA mediated response d. IgG mediated response
e. rhinitis medicamentosa
Q. 5. Samter’s triad consists of
c. corticosteroids
Q. 10. Sodium cromoglycate acts by
a. decreasing the number of eosinophils d. increasing the mast cell permeability
b. decreasing the number of mast cells e. stabilizing the mast cell permeability
c. increasing the number of mast cells
Q. 11. The best drug which provides protection against nasal allergy when used just
before exposure to allergen is
a. corticosteroid nasal spray b. prednisolone orally
209 Part C Nose and Paranasal Sinuses
c. pseudoephedrine e. xylometazoline
d. sodium cromoglycate
Q. 12. Following statement is true about vidian nerve except
a. anastomosis of greater superficial glands
petrosal nerve with deep petrosal nerve d. controls tone of blood vessels in nasal
b. carries secretomotor fibers to nasal mucosa
glands e. section of this nerve is done in atrophic
c. carries secretomotor fibers to lacrimal rhinitis
Scenario: A 17 years old girl complains of sneezing, nasal congestion, watery rhinorrhoea,
and itching throughout the year. On clinical examination she has bluish nasal mucosa and
enlarged inferior turbinate.
1. What is the most probable diagnosis?
2. How can you confirm the diagnosis?
3. What precautions she should take to avoid the house dust mite?
--------------------------------------------------------ANSWERS-----------------------------------------------------
Q.1. c 2. a 3. e 4. a 5. d 6. c 7. c
8. e 9. b 10. e 11. d 12. e
Scenario: 1. Allergic rhinitis 2. Eosinophilic count, serum IgE level, skin tests, RAST
3. Pillow and mattress should be enclosed in air tight plastic or fabric encasing, feather and
synthetic pillows should be avoided, dust masks should be used.
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
VASOMOTOR RHINITIS (VMR)
Synonyms: Intrinsic rhinitis, Nonspecific rhinitis, Nasal hyperreactivity
Definition:
When all other causes of rhinitis are ruled out, then the condition is termed as
vasomotor rhinitis.
Etiopathology:
Autonomic nervous system is under the control of hypothalamus and, therefore,
emotions play a great role in vasomotor rhinitis. It is said to be due to overactivity
of parasympathetic system. Nasal mucosa is hyperactive and responds to several
nonspecific stimuli e.g., changes in temperature, humidity, blasts of air etc.
Clinical features:
It clinically resembles allergic rhinitis. There is complaint of sneezing, nasal discharge and
nasal obstruction throughout the year. Usually, one or the other symptoms may predominate.
On examination nasal mucosa is congested and hypertrophied.
Investigations:
210
VMR is diagnosis by exclusion. All the tests of nasal allergy are negative.
Treatment:
1. Avoidance of factors which provoke symptoms e.g., cold air, change of temperature/
humidity etc.
2. Avoidance of anxiety, fatigue and emotional instability.
3. Antihistamines
4. Nasal decongestants (topical or systemic)
5. Steroids (topical or even systemic) are used for a limited time
6. Vidian neurectomy
Differential diagnosis:
1. Allergic rhinosinusitis
2. Recurrent rhinosinusitis
3. DNS
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Vasomotor rhinitis is also known as
c. sympathetic overactivity
Q. 4. A large number of eosinophils in nasal smear are seen in all of the following
conditions except
a. allergic rhinitis d. Samter’s triad
c. antihistamines
Q. 7. Vidian neurectomy is done in
c. vasomotor rhinitis
Scenario: A young student in most of his class tests suddenly starts having nasal obstruction,
nasal discharge and sneezing for last 01 year. All the tests of nasal allergy are negative.
1. What is the most probable clinical diagnosis?
2. How will you confirm your diagnosis?
3. Describe the treatment plan of this patient?
------------------------------------------------- ANSWERS--------------------------------------
------- ---------------
Q.1. d 2. a 3. a 4. e 5. c 6. b 7. c
Scenario: 1. Vasomotor rhinitis 2. VMR is diagnosis by exclusion. All the tests of nasal
allergy are negative 3. Avoidance of factors which provoke symptoms, avoidance of anxiety,
fatigue and emotional instability, antihistamines, nasal decongestants (topical or systemic),
steroids (topical or even systemic) are used for a limited time, vidian neurectomy.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-
ATROPHIC RHINITIS
Synonym: Ozaena
Definition:
It is defined as chronic nasal disease characterized by progressive atrophy of mucosa and
underlying bone of the turbinates.
Etiopathology:
Exact etiology of atrophic rhinitis is unknown. Any condition that causes prolonged drying of
nasal mucous membrane gives rise to atrophic rhinitis.
Factors which are regarded as possible causes of atrophic rhinitis are chronic
rhinosinusitis, anemia, poor nutrition, excessive surgical resection of the nasal mucous
membrane, syphilis, endocrine imbalance and autoimmune diseases.
There is chronic inflammation of the nasal mucosa and various constituents of nasal
cavities. It leads to endarteritis and periarterial fibrosis of the terminal arterioles. Ciliated
212
columnar epithelium of nasal cavities is replaced by stratified squamous epithelium. There is
degeneration of the nasal epithelium and seromucinous glands with formation of thick
adherent crusts in the nose. There is secondary infection with saprophytic organisms.
Usual causative organisms are Klebsiella ozaenae, Diphtheroid bacillus, Proteus vulgaris
and E. coli. The condition may extend to pharynx (leading to atrophic pharyngitis) and larynx
(atrophic laryngitis).
Clinical features:
1. Patient’s attendants complain that there is foul smell (also called
ozaena) from the patient which is not noticed by the patient
himself.
2. Patient presents with nasal obstruction due to excessive
crusting and destruction of nerve endings.
3. Removal of crusts leads to epistaxis. A case of atrophic rhinitis
4. There may be complaint of anosmia because of nasal obstruction caused by excessive
crusting and destruction of nerve endings.
On examination;
1. Patient is generally, depressed. There is bad smell from the patient.
2. Nasal cavities are abnormally patent and roomy.
3. There are greenish, yellowish and blackish crusts within the nasal cavities. The
turbinates are generally, curled up (shriveled).
4. There may be septal perforation and saddle nose.
Investigations:
Diagnosis is usually on clinical grounds. Source of infection is excluded by X-ray paranasal
sinuses. Serological tests are required to exclude syphilis.
Hemoglobin, serum iron and protein should also be estimated.
Treatment:
A. Conservative:
1. Removal of underlying cause such as sinusitis, anemia and nutritional deficiency.
2. Alkaline nasal douches [prepared by dissolving a teaspoonful of a mixture of sodium
bicarbonate, sodium diborate and sodium chloride (in a proportion of 1:1:2) in half a pint
(280 ml) of warm water] are performed very frequently. It loosens the crusts and removes
thick tenacious discharge. These crusts are removed with forceps or suction.
3. 25% glucose in glycerin is instilled in the nasal cavities to inhibit proteolytic
organisms which are responsible for foul smell. Decongestants nasal drops are avoided.
4. Estradiole spray helps to increase vascularity of nasal mucosa.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Possible cause of atrophic rhinitis is
c. Klebsiella ozaenae
Q. 3. Changes in atrophic rhinitis include
a. ciliated columnar epithelium to stratified c. mucosal atrophy
squamous epithelium d. periarteritis
b. endarteritis e. all of the above
Q. 4. Symptom of atrophic rhinitis is
a. anosmia d. nasal obstruction
b. epistaxis e. all of the above
c. foul smell from patient
214
Q. 5. Usual clinical features of atrophic rhinitis include all except
a. curled up inferior turbinates d. saddle nose
c. placental extracts
Q. 8. All are surgical management of atrophic rhinitis except
a. Lautenslager’s operation d. surgical narrowing of nasal cavities
c. Various implants
Scenario A: A 60 years old lady presented with bilateral nasal obstruction for last two years.
Patient’s relatives complain of foul smell from the patient for last one year. Examination
shows roomy nasal cavities containing blackish crusts.
1. What is the most probable diagnosis?
2. What is the differential diagnosis?
3. How will you manage this case?
B: A villager lady presented with nasal obstruction, nasal bleeding and at times nasal
discharge having black coloration for the last one year. Nose examination showed yellow,
green and black crusts.
1. What is the most probable diagnosis?
2. Name two other diseases which can be included in differential diagnosis in this case?
3. Mention one diagnostic step/test for each of the above three diseases.
4. How will you manage this lady?
-------------------------------------------------------- ANSWERS-----------------------------------------------------
Q.1. e 2. e 3. e 4. e 5. c
215 Part C Nose and Paranasal Sinuses
6. a 7. e 8. b 9. d
Scenario A: 1. Atrophic rhinitis 2. Rhinitis sicca, syphilis, Wegener’s granuloma
3. Conservative; Removal of underlying cause, alkaline nasal douches, 25% glucose in
glycerin, estradiole spray, human placental extract, potassium iodide given orally improves
nasal secretions. Surgical; a. Young’s operation b. Lautenslager’s operation c. Surgical
narrowing of nasal cavities with various materials such as teflon strips, plastipore, bone and
cartilage inserted submucosally.
B: 1. Atrophic rhinitis 2. Syphilis, Wegener’s granuloma 3. Atrophic rhinitis diagnosis is
usually on clinical grounds, source of infection is excluded by X-ray paranasal sinuses,
serological tests are required to exclude syphilis, cANCA for Wegener’s granulomatosis
4. Removal of underlying cause, correction of anemia and nutritional deficiencies, alkaline
nasal douches and removal of crusts by suction is encouraged.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-
RHINITIS SICCA
It is a mild form of atrophic rhinitis which affects only anterior part of nasal cavities.
Etiopathology:
The exact cause of rhinitis sicca is unknown. It is more common in people having dry, hot
and dusty occupations. e.g., iron and gold smiths, bakers, oven workers. There is deficiency
and inactivity of seromucinous glands. Alcoholism, anemia, nutritional deficiencies and
constitutional diseases are found to be contributing factors.
Clinical features:
1. Discomfort and irritation in the nasal cavities.
2. Crusting, removal of which may lead to epistaxis.
Characteristic smell of atrophic rhinitis is absent in rhinitis sicca.
On examination;
1. Dry and whitish mucous membrane of nose.
2. Crusting limited to anterior part of nasal cavities especially septum. A case of rhinitis sicca
There may be ulceration of the anterior part of the nasal septum. Occasionally there
may be septal perforation.
Investigations:
These are the same as those for atrophic rhinitis.
Treatment:
1. Removal of underlying cause.
2. Correction of anemia and nutritional deficiencies.
3. Alkaline nasal douches and removal of crusts by suction is encouraged.
216
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. All are causes of rhinitis sicca except
a. anemia d. hot environment
Etiopathology:
Rhinolith may be;
1. Exogenous (foreign bodies)
2. Endogenous (blood clot or inspissated mucopus)
The concretions are formed of calcium and magnesium phosphate and carbonate. These are
often arranged in concentric layers. With the passage of time, it tends to enlarge, filling the
whole nasal cavity. It may cause pressure necrosis of the nasal septum and lateral nasal wall.
Rhinolith may be friable or hard.
Clinical features:
1. Unilateral foul-smelling bloodstained nasal discharge is
pathognomonic of rhinolith. The discharge may be mucoid or
mucopurulent.
2. Unilateral nasal obstruction is a very common symptom. A case of rhinolith
On examination;
1. Greenish black mass with irregular surface is seen in the nasal cavity.
2. On palpation with a probe there is stony hard gritty sensation.
Investigations:
X-ray paranasal sinuses shows radiopaque shadow in the nasal cavity, whereas ipsilateral
group of paranasal sinuses may be hazy due to associated blockade of the sinus ostia.
Treatment:
Removal of rhinolith is carried out through anterior nares usually under general anesthesia.
Sometimes it may be necessary to break the rhinolith and remove it piecemeal. All the
granulations around must be removed thoroughly.
Occasionally lateral rhinotomy may be required for its removal.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. All of the following salt may be present in rhinolith except
a. calcium carbonate d. magnesium carbonate
Scenario: A 05 years old boy brought by mother with history of right sided foul-smelling
bloodstained nasal discharge and nasal obstruction for last 06 months. On probe test there is
gritty sensation.
1. What is the most likely diagnosis?
2. How will you confirm your diagnosis?
3. How will you manage this case?
-------------------------------------------------------- ANSWERS-----------------------------------------------------
Q.1. b 2. e 3. a
Scenario: 1. Rhinolith 2. X-ray paranasal sinuses shows radiopaque shadow in the nasal
cavity 3. Removal under general anesthesia
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-
COMPLICATIONS OF RHINOSINUSITIS
Definition:
Complication of rhinosinusitis may be defined as spread of infection beyond the bony walls
of paranasal sinuses.
Etiopathology:
Complications may occur as a result of acute or chronic rhinosinusitis. The former is more
common in children and the latter in adults.
Complications may occur as a result of:
1. Closed rhinosinusitis: These occur when ostium of sinus is blocked. The complications
occur on the face, orbit or cranium.
2. Open rhinosinusitis: These occur when ostium of sinus is open. Infection from paranasal
sinuses spreads into nasopharynx, middle ear, larynx, trachea and bronchi.
3. Systemic effects of rhinosinusitis: These occur in the form of bacteremia, septicemia and
abscesses in different parts of the body.
Complications of rhinosinusitis may be divided into;
A. Local complications
B. Orbital complications
C. Intracranial complications
A. Local complications
1. Cellulitis of subcutaneous tissues overlying frontal, ethmoidal and maxillary sinuses may
219
occur.
2. Abscess of soft tissues may also occur rarely.
3. Osteomyelitis of the overlying bones may occur as a
result of sinus infection.
4. Mucocele, pyocele or Pott’s puffy tumor may also
occur very rarely. Pott’s puffy tumor is a rare clinical
entity characterized by subperiosteal abscess associated
with osteomyelitis. It is characterized by an osteomyelitis
of the frontal bone, either direct or through hematogenous
spread.
B. Orbital complications
1. Cellulitis of eyelids: Pott’s puffy tumor
3. Orbital cellulitis/abscess:
It is a very dangerous condition which may prove rapidly fatal
if cavernous sinus thrombosis and meningitis follow.
Initially there is swelling, pain and tenderness in the upper medial part of cheek and upper lip.
Then there is diplopia due to paresis/paralysis of the nerves which pass through the
cavernous sinus (i.e., 6th nerve) and the nerves which pass in the lateral wall of the cavernous
sinus (i.e., 3rd, 4th, 5a and 5b).
There may be mild pain in the eyes along with sharp rise in body temperature, headache,
nausea and vomiting.
There is proptosis of the eyeballs. There is hyperemia and chemosis (swelling) of the
conjunctiva. This is followed by papilledema and visual loss.
Investigations:
1. MRI venogram confirms the diagnosis by showing absent venous flow from the
cavernous sinuses.
2. High resolution contrast CT of the brain shows a filling defect in cavernous sinus.
Treatment:
1. Patient is admitted in intensive care unit. Urgent treatment is started to prevent the
spread of infection and thrombosis.
2. Broad-spectrum antibiotics are started intravenously on urgent basis.
3. Anticoagulant like heparin is given to prevent spread of thrombus. Heparin is given in a
dose of 5000 units in bolus form. Then continuous infusion is given in a dose of 18 units/
223
kg/hour with monitoring of clotting profile.
4. Systemic steroids are given in high doses to reduce edema and to improve symptoms.
Underlying condition such as boil nose, septal abscess or infected sinus should be
addressed simultaneously.
Differential diagnosis:
1. Orbital cellulitis is a unilateral condition. There is no papilledema. The patient is
usually less toxic.
2. Orbital mucormycosis may also give rise to similar picture. The patient is usually
non toxic.
TOXIC SHOCK SYNDROME (TSS)
Occasionally patients with rhinosinusitis may develop systemic septic condition which is
known as toxic shock syndrome. It is a life-threatening complication of certain types of
bacterial infections.
It results from toxins produced by Staphylococcus aureus but the condition may also be
caused by toxins produced by group A Streptococci. It is characterized by nausea, vomiting,
purulent secretions, rash and hypotension. It is treated by removal of underlying cause,
antibiotics, adequate hydration and maintenance of blood pressure.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Acute sinusitis without complication is treated initially with
a. antral lavage (FESS)
b. meningitis e. pyocele
c. meningocele
Q. 3. Acute infection of which of the following sinuses causes swelling of both up-
224 Part C Nose and Paranasal Sinuses
c. broad-spectrum antibiotics
Scenario A: A 20 years old girl came to emergency department with history of nasal
blockage and discharge for last two weeks. She developed pain in right eye with proptosis,
impaired vision and ophthalmoplegia for last 03 days. Temperature is 99 degrees F. X-ray
paranasal sinus show haziness of ipsilateral sinuses.
1. What is the most likely diagnosis?
2. What investigations you will advise?
3. What is the treatment of this patient?
B: A 25 years old lady presented with throbbing pain and swelling on left cheek area for last
one week. Anterior rhinoscopy revealed congestion of nasal mucosa and pus in the middle
meatus. Pain and swelling is not being relieved by ordinary treatment.
1. What is the clinical diagnosis?
2. What are the ways of confirmation of the diagnosis?
3. Which surgical procedure would you like to adopt?
4. Which usual complications can occur from the disease?
--------------------------------------------------------ANSWERS-----------------------------------------------------
Q.1. b 2. c 3. a 4. b
5. a 6. d 7. c 8. c 9. c 10. b
11. d 12. e 13. d 14. a 15. e 16. b
17. d
Scenario A: 1. Orbital abscess 2. HRCT with contrast 3. a. Medical: antibiotics, steroids,
topical decongestants. b. Surgical: surgery for rhinosinusitis i.e., antral washout (AWO),
surgery for orbital abscess.
B: 1. Left acute maxillary sinusitis 2. X-ray PNS, CT scan of nose and PNS
3. Antral wash out 4. Orbital cellulitis/abscess, orbital apex syndrome, cavernous sinus
thrombosis, toxic shock syndrome.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-
ANTRAL LAVAGE
Synonyms: Antral washout, Proof puncture
Indications:
Diagnosis and treatment of acute and subacute sinusitis, where
medical treatment has failed.
Contraindications:
1. Patient less than 03 years of age because yet maxillary sinus is
not fully developed. Antral lavage
2. Thick bony wall
3. Acute maxillary sinusitis untreated by antibiotics
4. Previous trauma which may have disrupted the orbital floor
Procedure:
Reverse Trendelenburg position with 15 degrees head flexion is
made. A pack soaked in 4% xylocaine with adrenaline is placed in the
inferior meatus. After 20 minutes, pack is removed. Tilley Lichtwitz
trocar and cannula is taken and inferior meatus is punctured with the above Tilley Lichtwitz trocar
instrument at a distance of half an inch behind the anterior end of inferior and cannula
turbinate as high as possible.
227
The direction of trocar and cannula is kept outer to the
lateral canthus of the ipsilateral eye. Then the trocar is
removed and aspiration of the sinuses is done with cannula
for any secretions or pus and any aspirate is sent for
microscopy, culture and sensitivity. Sinuses are washed with
normal saline and continuous watch is made for any
proptosis or swelling of cheek. Then the cannula is removed.
Complications:
1. Hemorrhage
2. Air embolism
Antral lavage
3. Penetration of the orbital floor and proptosis
4. Penetration of soft tissues of cheek and cellulitis
INFERIOR MEATAL ANTROSTOMY
Synonyms: Intranasal antrostomy, Antronasal antrostomy, Nasoantral antrostomy
Indications:
1. Acute, recurrent and subacute sinusitis which has failed to respond to conservative
medications and usually one or two antral washouts.
2. Chronic sinusitis
Contraindications:
1. Acute maxillary sinusitis without a cover of antibiotics.
2. Any systemic disease such as diabetes, hypertension etc. in which general
anesthesia or surgery is contraindicated.
Procedure:
It is usually carried out under general anesthesia but may also be performed
under local anesthesia. Reverse Trendelenburg position with 15 degrees head Myle’s
retrograde
flexion is made. Throat (epilaryngeal) pack is placed. Inferior turbinate is elevated antrum
perforator
upwards with a Hills’s elevator then the inferior meatus is punctured with Myle’s
retrograde antrum perforator at the same site which is used for
antral washout. Myle’s perforator is removed and the same hole is
enlarged with different instruments to make a window of at least 2
cm x 1 cm in size. Edges of the antrostomy are made smooth. Any
disease from the maxillary sinus is removed via antrostomy. The
inferior turbinate is repositioned at the end of the procedure.
Throat pack (also known as epilaryngeal pack) is removed.
Complications:
1. Hemorrhage (through inferior meatal branch of lateral
sphenopalatine artery)
2. Damage to anterior superior alveolar nerve leading to
altered dental sensation Inferior meatal antrostomy
228
3. Complete closure of antrostomy hole (if the window is made smaller).
CALDWELL-LUC’S OPERATION
Synonym: Sublabial antrostomy, Radical antrostomy
Indications:
1. Chronic maxillary sinusitis to remove
irreversibly damaged mucosal lining of maxillary
sinus and to facilitate the aeration and gravitational
drainage via an inferior meatal antrostomy.
2. Antrochoanal polyp over the age of 12 years
3. Removal of foreign body from maxillary sinus Caldwell-Luc’s operation
Complications:
1. Hemorrhage
2. Damage to medial palpebral ligament
3. Damage to dura
4. Damage to orbit
5. Visual loss
6. Mucocele formation
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Surgical approach to ethmoid may be
c. intranasal approach
b. 18 mm e. 36 mm
c. 24 mm
Q. 14. Surgically frontal sinus can be approached through any of the following incisions
except
a. coronal d. sublabial
c. medial canthal
-------------------------------------------------------- ANSWERS-----------------------------------------------------
Part C Nose and Paranasal
235 Sinuses
Q.1. e 2. b 3. d 4. b 5. d 6. b 7. e
8. e 9. e 10. e 11. d 12. d 13. c 14. d
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-
GRANULOMATOUS DISEASES OF NOSE AND PARANASAL
SINUSES
Definition:
A granuloma is an organized collection of macrophages (epithelial cells) which tend to fuse
to form multinucleated giant cells.
Etiopathology:
Granulomatous diseases are divided into;
A. Nonspecific granulomas: These are the granulomas in which specific causative organism
is unknown e.g., Wegener’s granuloma, Stewart’s granuloma and sarcoidosis.
B. Specific granulomas: These are the granulomas in which specific causative organism is
known e.g., tuberculosis, lupus, leprosy, syphilis, mucormycosis, rhinoscleroma,
rhinosporidiosis etc.
A. Nonspecific granulomas:
These are the granulomas in which specific causative organism is unknown e.g., Wegener’s
granuloma, Stewart’s granuloma and sarcoidosis.
WEGNER’S GRANULOMA
Synonyms: Granulomatosis with polyangitis (GPA)
Etiopathology:
It is a systemic granulomatous disease of unknown etiology. It is thought to be a
hypersensitivity disorder. There is necrotizing vasculitis of small and medium sized
vessels. There is also focal and proliferative glomerulonephritis.
It primarily affects;
1. Nose and paranasal sinuses
2. Lower respiratory tract
3. Kidneys A case of
Nose and paranasal sinuses are involved in 80% of cases. But it may affect any Wegner’s
organ like palate, orbit and middle ear. In untreated cases, renal failure may occur. granuloma
Death occurs within six months.
Clinical features:
1. Nasal obstruction, bloodstained nasal discharge and crusting.
Investigations:
1. (cytoplasmic-Anti Neutrophil Cytoplasmic Antibodies) test is diagnostic of Wegener’s
granuloma. It is positive in 95% of patients with Wegener’s granuloma.
2. Biopsy is important for tissue diagnosis. On histology there is epithelioid necrotizing
granulomatous inflammation, vasculitis and necrosis.
3. Blood urea and creatinine should also be estimated to detect renal involvement.
4. Urinalysis may show red cells, casts and albumin. There may be decreased creatinine
clearance and serum creatinine level is increased.
5. ESR is markedly increased. Regular estimation of ESR may monitor the success or
otherwise of treatment.
6. Chest X-ray may show localized areas of infarction which may proceed to cavity
formation.
7. CT/MRI is required to find out exact extent of lesion.
Some investigations may be required for the purpose of differential diagnosis.
Treatment:
1. Steroids are given at a dose 60-80 mg/day. It shows rapid improvement in symptoms.
2. Cytotoxic drugs such as cyclophosphamide 2 mg/kg body weight or azathioprine 3 mg/
kg body weight is necessary for long term control.
3. Nasal symptoms are managed by topical preparations including steroids, 25% glucose in
glycerine drops and alkaline/saline nasal douches.
4. Saddle nose and septal perforation are treated by plastic surgery after complete cure.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Wegener’s granuloma is also called
a. granulomatosis with polyangitis b. lethal midline granuloma
(GPA)
c. midfacial lymphoma
237 Part C Nose and Paranasal Sinuses
d. midline destructive granuloma e. Stewart’s granuloma
Q. 2. All are true regarding Wegener’s granuloma except
a. granulomatous disease of nose, lungs c. systemic granulomatous disease
and kidneys d. unknown etiology
b. non-specific granuloma e. viral etiology
a. Azathioprine d. Radiotherapy
b. Cyclophosphamide e. Steroids
c. Nasal douching
Q. 11. Death in Wegener granulomatosis is usually due to
a. cardiac failure d. renal failure
Investigations:
1. Biopsy of the lesion is diagnostic. Histopathology shows polymorphic lymphoid tissue
with angiocentric and angioinvasive features. There is no vasculitis.
239
2. CT/MRI is required to find out exact extent of the disease.
Treatment:
Surgical debridement with full course of local radiotherapy is given in a dose of
5000 to 5500 centigrays.
Chemotherapy is added in cases of recurrent or disseminated disease.
Surgical reconstruction or prosthesis is applied when the disease subsides.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Stewart’s granuloma is also called
a. midfacial lymphoma d. all of the above
b. biopsy e. ultrasound
c. c-ANCA test
Q. 6. Treatment of choice in midline lethal granuloma is
a. azathioprine d. steroids
b. cyclophosphamide e. surgery
c. radiotherapy
Scenario: A 50 years old patient presents with slow progressive destruction of nose and
midfacial region for last 02 years. Biopsy of the lesion shows polymorphic lymphoid tissue
with angiocentric and angioinvasive features.
240
1. What is the most probable clinical diagnosis?
2. What is the differential diagnosis?
3. How will you manage this patient?
------------------------------------------------------
-- ANSWERS-----------------------------------------------------
Q.1. d 2. d 3. c 4. e 5. b 6. c
Scenario: 1. Stewart’s granuloma 2. Wegener’s granuloma, sarcoidosis, leprosy
3. Surgical debridement with full course of local radiotherapy, chemotherapy is added in
cases of recurrent or disseminated disease.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
SARCOIDOSIS
Synonym: Besnier Boeck disease, Boeck sarcoid
Etiopathology
It is a chronic non-caseating systemic granulomatous disease of unknown etiology. On
histology it resembles tuberculosis but there is no caseation. It is a multi system disease
primarily affecting lower respiratory tract but may affect upper respiratory tract as well.
It may affect any organ or system of the body such as lymph nodes, nose, eyes, skin,
lungs, liver, spleen and small bones of feet. It affects young adults between third and fifth
decade with a female dominance of 2:1.
Clinical features:
1. Serosanguinous or mucopurulent nasal discharge are common
complaints.
Strawberry skin
2. There may be nasal obstruction, crusting and epistaxis. in sarcoidosis
On examination;
1. Skin lesions are common with a purple discoloration known as lupus pernio. Skin or
mucosa may show bluish red tiny 01 mm nodules (strawberry appearance). It is seen
on the nose, ears, cheeks, lips, and forehead. It is pathognomonic of sarcoidosis.
2. Nasal mucosa may be dry, ulcerated and covered with crusts.
3. There may be anterior septal perforation.
Salivary gland swelling associated with sarcoidosis and uveitis is known as Heerfordt
syndrome.
Investigations:
No single test is pathognomonic for sarcoidosis. Diagnosis depends on combination of
clinical features, hematology, histology and imaging.
1. Serum angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) is raised. It is secreted by epithelioid
granuloma in active sarcoidosis.
241
2. Biopsy of the lesion shows non-caseating epithelioid granuloma. Giant cells may be
present which contain asteroid intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies (Schaumann bodies).
3. Kveim-Siltzback skin test is positive.
4. ESR and serum immunoglobulin particularly IgG are raised.
5. Serum and urinary calcium is raised.
6. Full blood count may show anemia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia and eosinophilia.
7. X-ray chest shows diffuse infiltrate in lungs with hilar lymphadenopathy.
8. X-rays shows cystic punched out lesions in nasal bones, hands and feet.
9. CT of nose and paranasal sinuses shows exact extent of disease.
10. Gallium-67 scan is very helpful in localizing involved lymph nodes.
Treatment:
There is no specific treatment for sarcoid. Spontaneous remission has been observed in some
patients with limited disease.
1. Systemic steroids are the mainstay of treatment. Steroids may be given intralesionally or
systemically to relieve symptoms
2. 25% glucose in glycerine drops and nasal douches may relieve nasal symptoms.
3. Cosmetic and reconstructive surgery is carried only when the disease has subsided
completely.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Sarcoidosis is also known as
c. Sicca syndrome
Scenario: A 40 years old woman presented with the complaints of mucopurulent nasal
discharge, nasal obstruction and crusting for last two years. Histology of lesion seems like
tuberculosis but there is no caseation.
1. What is the most probable clinical diagnosis?
2. How will you investigate this case?
3. How will you manage this patient?
----------------------------------------- ANSWERS------------------------------------------
--------------- -----------
Q.1. d 2. d 3. e 4. a 5. e 6. e 7. b 8. a
Scenario: 1. Sarcoidosis 2. Serum ACE level, biopsy, Kevium Siltzbech skin test, ESR, urine
calcium 3. Systemic steroids, nasal douches.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-
B. Specific granulomas:
These are the granulomas in which specific causative organism is known e.g., tuberculosis,
lupus, leprosy, mucormycosis, syphilis, etc.
TUBERCULOSIS
243
Etiopathology:
It is a systemic granulomatous disease caused by acid-fast
bacillus Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Tuberculosis in the head
and neck region is often secondary to pulmonary tuberculosis. Scrofula derma
In the neck it affects lymph nodes and patient usually presents with cold abscess or
discharging sinus known as scrofula derma.
In the oral cavity or pharynx, it may present as a stellate shaped ulcer with overhanging
edges. In the larynx it usually affects only the posterior part.
Clinical features:
1. Bloodstained nasal discharge and crusting are common
symptoms. On examination;
2. Granulomatous lesion involving anterior part of nasal cavity.
3. There may ulceration and perforation of cartilaginous portion of nasal septum.
Investigations:
1. ESR is usually elevated.
2. FNAC of neck swelling may suggest tuberculosis.
3. Sputum for AFB for three consecutive days is usually positive.
4. X-ray chest may be done to find out pulmonary focus.
5. Microscopy of discharge after ZN (Ziehl-Neelsen) staining and culture of organism
in LJ (Lowenstein-Jensen) medium may be helpful.
6. Biopsy of the lesion shows caseating epithelioid granuloma with Langhan’s giant cells.
7. P.C.R. (Polymerase Chain Reaction) for Mycobacterium tuberculosis is conclusive.
8. T spot T.B. test is highly specific for tuberculosis. It is in vitro diagnostic test for the
detection of effector T cells that respond to stimulation by Mycobacterium tuberculosis
antigens.
9. MycoDot test is a new simple, rapid (20 minutes) and reliable serodiagnostic technique
that can detect anti-mycobacterial antibodies in the serum or blood. It offers a low cost, single
visit aid in the diagnosis of tuberculosis, with good sensitivity and excellent specificity.
Treatment:
Antituberculous drugs are given as for pulmonary tuberculosis.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Tuberculosis is
a. caused by alkali-fast bacilli d. nonspecific granuloma
c. monospot test
Scenario: A young male complains of nasal discharge and crusting for last 01 year. Anterior
rhinoscopy shows lesion limited to anterior part of nasal cavity with perforation of
cartilaginous part of nasal septum. Patient also gives history of pulmonary tuberculosis.
1. What is your clinical diagnosis?
2. What investigations will you carry out?
3. How will you manage this patient?
-------------------------------------------------------- ANSWERS-----------------------------------------------------
Q.1. e 2. d 3. d 4.c
Scenario: 1. Tuberculosis of nose 2. ESR, biopsy, PCR. 3. Antituberculous drugs.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
LUPUS VULGARIS
It is a chronic indolent form of tuberculosis which affects only skin
and mucous membranes. Mucocutaneous junction of nasal septum is
the most common affected site. There is formation of apple jelly
nodules on the skin.
Investigations and treatment are the same as for pulmonary Apple jelly nodules
tuberculosis.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Which statement is not true about lupus vulgaris?
a. Affects only skin b. Affects mucocutaneous junction
c. An indolent form of tuberculosis d. Apple jelly nodules on the skin
e. Treatment is the same as for pulmo-
nary tuberculosis
--------------------------------------------------------ANSWERS-----------------------------------------------------
Q.1.a
245
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
LEPROSY
Synonym: Hansen’s disease
Etiopathology:
It is a chronic granulomatous disease caused by acid-fast bacillus Mycobacterium leprae.
There are following types of leprosy;
1. Tuberculoid leprosy: It is a localized disease. There are anesthetic cutaneous patches.
There may be isolated cranial nerve paralysis.
2. Lepromatous leprosy: It is a systemic disease. There is diffuse infiltration of skin,
nerves and mucosal surfaces. The parts of the body where temperature is low e.g., edges
of pinna, chin, nose and eyebrows are usually affected.
3. Borderline leprosy: This type presents midway between the above two types. The first
two types are immunologically stable.
Clinical features:
1. Bloodstained nasal discharge
2. Nasal obstruction is a common presenting symptom.
On examination;
1. Skin may show painless ulceration because of nerve involvement
causing analgesia.
A case
of leprosy
b. Lupus e. Tuberculosis
c. Sarcoidosis
Q. 3. Varieties of leprosy are
Treatment:
It consists of;
1. Control of original precipitating factor such as diabetes
2. Debridement and local drainage
3. Amphotericin B: It is given in a dose of 0.25-0.5 mg/kg/day infused over 02-06 hours.
Total adult dose of amphotericin B is one gram. It is extremely nephrotoxic.
Dose of newly introduced liposomal amphotericin B is 3-6 mg/kg/day. It is relatively less
nephrotoxic.
4. Heparinization
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Mucormycosis is
c. MRI
Q. 5. Treatment of mucormycosis is
a. amphotericin B d. debridement
c. control immunosuppresion
Scenario: A 50 years old female known diabetic for past 15 years is admitted in the medical
ward for management of diabetic ketoacidosis. Blackish necrotic turbinate is noted in right
nasal cavity along with right sided proptosis.
1. What is the most probable clinical diagnosis?
2. How will you prove your diagnosis?
3. How will you manage this case?
-------------------------------------------------------- ANSWERS-- ---------------------------------------------------
Q.1. b 2. a 3. a 4. d 5.a
Scenario: 1. Mucormycosis 2. History, examination, tissue biopsy, X-ray, CT, MRI
3. Control of diabetes mellitus and immunosuppresion, debridement, amphotericin B,
heparinization.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
RHINOSCLEROMA
Etiopathology:
It is a progressive granulomatous disease usually commences in the nose. Eventually it may
extend down to involve nasopharynx, oropharynx and even larynx. It is caused by gram
negative frisch bacillus known as Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis.
249
Investigations:
Histologically submucosa is infiltrated with plasma
cells, lymphocytes, eosinophils, Mikulicz cells and
Russell bodies. Mikulicz cells have a central nucleus
and a vacuolated cytoplasm containing frisch bacilli.
Russell bodies are homogenous eosinophilic
inclusion bodies found in plasma cells.
Clinical features:
Histopathology of rhinoscleroma
These may resemble atrophic rhinitis. There may be
bluish red nodules in the nose.
Treatment:
1. Surgical debridement is carried out initially.
2. Ciprofloxacin is given in a dose of 250 to 500 mg 12 hourly for 04 to 06
weeks. Alternatively, trimethoprim-sulphamethoxazole may be given.
b. leprosy e. rhinoscleroma
c. mucormycosis
Q. 4. All are treatments of rhinoscleroma except
a. ciprofloxacin d. surgical debridement
c. cytotoxic drugs
Scenario: A 50 years old patient presents with progressive bilateral nasal obstruction for last
02 years. On examination there are bluish red nodules in both nasal cavities.
Histopathological
250
examination shows Mikulicz cells and Russell bodies.
1. What is the most probable clinical diagnosis?
2. What is the differential diagnosis?
3. What is your treatment plan?
-------------------------------------------------------- ANSWERS-----------------------------------------------------
Q.1. d 2. b 3. e 4.c
Scenario: 1. Rhinoscleroma 2. Stewart’s granuloma, Wegener’s granuloma
3. Surgical debridement, ciprofloxacin, trimethoprim-sulphamethoxazole, steroids.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-
RHINOSPORIDIOSIS
It is a chronic granulomatous disease caused by Rhinosporidium seeberi and affects both
human and animals.
Etiopathology:
It is common in younger age group particularly men. It can also be found
in animals i.e., cows, bulls, horses and dogs, where men and animals share the same infected
ponds. It is considered to be a fungus, but it is that this is an aquatic protozoan parasite
belonging to a normal group of parasites, mesomycetozea.
Clinical features:
1. The disease mostly affects nose and nasopharynx. Other sides
such as skin, lips, palate, conjunctiva, epiglottis, larynx, trachea,
bronchi, vulva and vagina may also be affected.
2. Painless nasal obstruction, secondary to nasal polyp.
3. Polyps are unilateral and pedunculated.
4. Epistaxis
5. Nasal discharge
On examination:
Clinical picture of
1. Friable leafy polypoidal mass, pink to purple in color attached to rhinospordiosis
nasal septum or lateral wall.
2. The mass is very vascular and easily bleed on touch.
Diagnosis:
1. It is made on biopsy showing several sporangia, oval or round
in shape filled with spores.
2. CT scan of nose and paranasal sinuses confirms the extent of
disease.
Treatment:
1. Wide excision of mass with electrocautery to the base of
lesion. Histopathological picture of
rhinospordiosis
2. Dapsone arrests the maturation of sporangia and promotes the stromal fibrosis.
a. glioma d. neurofibroma
b. hemangioma e. schwannoma
c. inverted papilloma
Q. 3. All are usual clinical features of bleeding polyp of septum except
a. recurrent unilateral nasal bleeding d. smooth reddish sessile lesion
c. radiotherapy
Scenario: A 30 years old patient presents with episodes of right sided epistaxis and
progressive ipsilateral nasal obstruction for last 01 year. On examination there is reddish
polypoidal lesion arising from right Little’s area. Nasopharyngeal examination is
unremarkable.
1. What is your provisional diagnosis?
2. How will you confirm your diagnosis?
3. How will you treat this patient?
-------------------------------------------------
------- ANSWERS -----------------------------------------------------
Q.1. b 2. b 3. b 4. b
Treatment:
1. Medial maxillectomy is the treatment of choice. It is done either by lateral rhinotomy
or midfacial degloving approach. Endoscopic removal (FESS) is preferred nowadays.
Histopathological examination of all the material removed surgically is very important to
rule out any malignant change or associated malignancy.
2. Life long follow up is absolutely essential to find out any recurrence or malignant
change.
Radiotherapy is contraindicated as it may induce malignant change.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Transitional cell papilloma is also called
choice
c. may change into malignancy
Q. 3. All are usual clinical features of transitional cell papilloma except
a. bloodstained nasal discharge d. unilateral irregular fleshy mass
c. MRI
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
253 Part C Nose and Paranasal Sinuses
Q. 5. All are management of transitional cell papilloma except
a. FESS d. medial maxillectomy
Clinical features:
Clinical features depend on the exact site of origin and direction of extension of the tumor.
1. Progressive nasal obstruction is a common presenting symptom. There may be
associated bloodstained nasal discharge or epistaxis.
2. If there is orbital extension then epiphora, proptosis, diplopia and visual loss may occur.
3. Inferior extension into upper alveolus and palate may lead to ill fitting dentures or
frank ulceration of oral cavity.
4. Trismus usually indicates involvement of pterygoid muscles.
Neck node metastasis is uncommon.
Investigations:
1. Biopsy from the nasal cavity or the sinus is essential to establish tissue diagnosis.
2. CT/MRI may determine exact extent of the tumor and site, size, number and level of
lymph node involvement.
Treatment:
Combination of chemotherapy, radiotherapy and surgery is used. Full course of
radiotherapy, followed by radical surgery at an interval of 04 to 06 weeks is the usual
approach. Surgery is usually in the form of total maxillectomy through Weber-Ferguson
incision.
Some clinicians prefer primary surgery followed by postoperative radiotherapy.
Faciomaxillary surgeon is important in reconstruction of oral cavity defect.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. The most common malignant tumor of nose and paranasal sinuses is
a. adenocarcinoma d. sarcoma
is
NASOPHARYNGEAL ANGIOFIBROMA
Synonym: Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma
Etiopathology:
It is the most common benign tumor of nasopharynx. It is a benign yet locally aggressive
vascular tumor. It arises from the region of sphenopalatine foramen (nasopharynx). It spreads
along natural foramina and fissures. It may extend into nasal cavity, nasopharynx,
pterygopalatine fossa, infratemporal fossa, orbit and cranium. It may also erode bone.
As the name indicates it is composed of vascular and fibrous tissue. The vessels are
endothelial lined spaces with no muscular or elastic coat.
Exact etiology of its origin is unknown. However, there are different theories for its
pathogenesis:
1. Fibroblastic theory; It suggests abnormal growth or response of connective tissue.
2. Hormonal theory; It suggests estrogen-androgen imbalance as is indicated by its
occurrence in early adolescent males.
3. Hamartomatous theory; It suggests hamartomatous proliferation
of vascular tissue.
Clinical features:
1. Severe recurrent epistaxis and nasal obstruction in an early
teenager boy are the most common presenting symptoms.
Frog face deformity
in angiofibroma
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
257 Part C Nose and Paranasal Sinuses
2. Facial swelling, broadening of nasal bridge (frog face deformity), proptosis and
diplopia are also common presentations.
3. Other symptoms are due to eustachian tube dysfunction e.g., tinnitus, hearing loss and
earache.
4. On examination a characteristic smooth, lobulated, reddish,
polypoidal mass is usually visible in the nasal cavity or
nasopharynx. Flexible nasopharyngoscopy/30-degree
endoscopy may be required occasionally.
Investigations:
1. Contrast CT shows exact extension of the tumor into
surrounding structures. It also shows anterior bowing of
posterior wall of maxilla and posterior bowing of pterygoid
plates i.e., Holman-Miller sign or antral sign.
2. Angiography shows “tumor blush” and determines the
vascularity of the tumor, its feeding vessels and relation of the
tumor to the adjacent vessels.
Major arterial supply is from ipsilateral maxillary artery
and ascending pharyngeal artery. Collateral may develop from
contralateral maxillary artery, contralateral ascending
pharyngeal artery and internal carotid system respectively.
Biopsy is contraindicated in cases of suspected
angiofibroma.
Treatment:
1. Surgery is the treatment of choice. Exact approach depends
on the extent of tumor. Usual approaches are transpalatal
removal.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. The most common benign tumor of nasopharynx is
a. adenoma d. hemangioma
b. angiofibroma e. papilloma
c. chondroma
Q. 2. Juvenile angiofibroma commonly arises from
a. maxillary sinus b. nasal cavity
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
258 Part C Nose and Paranasal Sinuses
b. Equal incidence in male and female e. Recurs even after complete removal
c. Malignant tumor
Q. 7. A 15 years old boy has unilateral nasal obstruction and recurrent severe epi-staxis for
last 06 months There is also swelling of ipsilateral cheek. The diagnosis is
a. angiofibroma d. lymphoma of nasopharynx
c. inverted papilloma
Q. 8. Antral sign is a feature of
c. coalescent mastoiditis
c. 24 hours e. 72 hours
d. 48 hours
Q. 11. Juvenile angiofibroma responds to following modalities of treatment except
a. androgen therapy d. radiotherapy
c. FNAC
Scenario A: A 15 years old boy presents with recurrent massive epistaxis, progressive nasal
obstruction and proptosis for last 01 year. Anterior rhinoscopy reveals clot in left nasal
cavity and posterior rhinoscopy shows reddish mass in the postnasal space.
1. What is the most probable diagnosis?
2. Briefly describe the investigations?
3. What is the treatment plan of this patient?
B: A 15 years old boy presented with progressive nasal obstruction, massive epistaxis
and proptosis for last 18 months. Anterior rhinoscopy revealed mass in left nasal cavity
and posterior rhinoscopy showed reddish lobulated mass in the postnasal space as well.
There is bulging of ipsilateral cheek for last six months.
1. What is the most probable clinical diagnosis?
2. What are different theories of its pathogenesis?
3. What measure can be done to decrease peroperative bleeding?
4. How will you treat this patient?
----------------------------------------------------
---- ANSWERS-----------------------------------------------------
Q.1. b 2. e 3. e 4. e 5. e 6. e
7. a 8. e 9. e 10. c 11. c 12. a
Scenario A: 1. Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma 2. CT scan with contrast, angiography
3. Surgery according to extension.
B: 1. Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma 2. Fibroblastic theory, hormonal theory, hamartomatous
theory 3. Preoperative embolization of the feeding vessel within 24 hours
4. Surgery- approach is according to extension.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Histopathology:
According to WHO nasopharyngeal carcinoma is classified as follows;
Type 1. Keratinizing carcinoma
Type 2. Nonkeratinizing differentiated carcinoma
Type 3. Nonkeratinizing undifferentiated
carcinoma
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma (NPC) may present as ulcerative, infiltrative or exuberant
polypoidal form. It usually arises from fossa of Rosenmuller (also known as pharyngeal
recess). The tumor extends into nasal cavity, nasopharynx, pterygopalatine fossa,
infratemporal fossa and orbit. It extends from foramen lacerum and
foramen ovale to the middle cranial fossa.
Clinical features: NPC with cervical lymph
1. Cervical lymphadenopathy:
node enlargement
Investigations:
1. CT demonstrates the extent of bone destruction.
2. MRI is required to find out three-dimensional extent of the tumor into surrounding
structures like brain, orbit etc. It may also indicate the site, size, number and level of
lymph node involvement.
3. Biopsy after endoscopic evaluation of the tumor is required to find out exact nature of
carcinoma and its degree of differentiation. It is usually done under local anesthesia.
4. Positron Emission Tomography (PET) shows metastasis anywhere in the body.
5. PTA and tympanometry to diagnose otitis media with effusion and to detect the
otological effects of radiotherapy and chemotherapy.
Treatment:
1. Radiotherapy is the mainstay of treatment in nasopharyngeal carcinoma.
2. Chemotherapy is usually used along with radiotherapy.
Neck dissection is carried out for radioresistant neck nodes. Myringotomy and grommet
insertion are required in severe cases of OME.
Differential diagnosis:
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
262 Part C Nose and Paranasal Sinuses
1. Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma
2. Lymphoma
3. Adenocarcinoma
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma is the most common in
a. Europe d. North America
b. EBV e. HPV
c. HBV
Q. 3. All are true about nasopharyngeal carcinoma except
a. always seen above 40 years. d. may be seen by the end of second de-cade
b. cervical lymph node enlargement is the of life
presenting feature e. squamous cell carcinoma is seen more
c. involves multiple cranial nerves often than adenocarcinoma
Q. 4. Which of the following is true about nasopharyngeal carcinoma except?
a. Causes unilateral otitis media with ef- c. Genetic factors play an important role
fusion d. Metastasize to cervical lymph nodes
b. E.B. virus is one of the causative factors e. Treatment of choice is surgery
Q. 5. Velopharyngeal insufficiency is usually seen in all except
a. cleft palate d. post adenoidectomy
b. glottic region
c. hard palate
d. nasopharynx
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
263 Part C Nose and Paranasal Sinuses
Q. 8. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma causes Horner’s syndrome as a result of infiltra-tion of
a. 3rd cranial nerve d. 9th nerve
b. larynx e. vallecula
c. nasopharynx
Q. 12. Treatment of choice in nasopharyngeal carcinoma is
a. chemotherapy d. surgery
c. sclerotherapy
Scenario A: A 40 years old male presents to you with progressively increasing painless
swelling in upper part of right side of neck for last two months. He also complains of right
sided nasal obstruction and bloodstained nasal discharge.
1. What is the most probable clinical diagnosis?
2. What is the differential diagnosis?
3. How will you treat this patient?
B: A 45 years old man presents with huge swelling on right side of neck for last 06 months.
He also complains of sanguineous discharge from nose, ear blockage and decrease hearing
in right ear.
1. What is your provisional diagnosis?
2. What is the differential diagnosis?
3. How will you investigate this patient?
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
264 Part C Nose and Paranasal Sinuses
4. How will you treat this patient?
------------------------------------------------- ANSWERS--------------------------------------------------
------- ---
Q.1. e 2. b 3. a 4. e 5. b 6. d
7. d 8. e 9. d 10. d 11. c 12. b
Scenario A: 1. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma 2. Inverted papilloma, antrochoanal polyp,
adenocarcinoma 3. Radiotherapy, chemotherapy.
B: 1. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma 2. Inverted papilloma, antrochoanal polyp,
adenocarcinoma
3. CT, MRI, biopsy 4. Radiotherapy, chemotherapy.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-
MISCELLANEOUS DISEASES OF NOSE AND PARANASAL
SINUSES
NASAL POLYPS
Synonyms: Ethmoidal polyps/polypi/polyposis, Mucous polyps/polypi/polyposis
Etiopathology:
Nasal polyps result from prolapsed mucosal lining of ethmoidal sinuses. Nasal mucosa in the
region of middle meatus becomes edematous due to collection of extracellular fluid causing
polypoidal change. Polyps present in the nasal cavity as grape like structures having a “body”
and a “stalk”.
Exact etiology of nasal polypi is unknown. These are found in association with certain
conditions like:
1. Inflammatory conditions of nasal mucosa.
2. Aspirin hypersensitivity e.g., aspirin triad or Samter’s triad. It is the association of
nasal polyps, bronchial asthma and aspirin hypersensitivity.
3. Cystic fibrosis
4. Vasomotor rhinitis
5. Allergic rhinitis and allergic fungal sinusitis
6. Kartagener’s syndrome which consists of ciliary dyskinesia, sinusitis, bronchiectasis
and situs inversus.
7. Young’s syndrome which consists of sinusitis, bronchiectasis and obstructive
azoospermia.
Nasal polyp is a disease of adults. There is strong male predominance. Nasal polyps are
multiple and often bilateral. These have smooth surface and are pearly white or yellowish
in color. These tend to recur. These may involve all paranasal sinuses, orbit and brain. The
polyps have poor blood and nerve supply. Any child with nasal polypi should be regarded as
having cystic fibrosis until proved otherwise.
Clinical features:
Patient may present with;
1. Nasal obstruction
2. Nasal discharge
3. Sneezing
4. Decreased or absent sense of smell Anterior rhinoscopy of a
case of nasal polypi
5. Pain over bridge of nose, forehead and cheeks due to attendant
sinusitis.
On examination;
1. Multiple pearly white glistening polyps are usually visible in both
nasal cavities on anterior rhinoscopy. These are insensitive to touch
because of poor nerve supply.
2. Hyponasal voice (rhinolalia clausa).
Endoscopic view of
3. Mouth breathing. nasal polypi
4. Telecanthus i.e., increased distance between two medial canthi. On
patency test there is decreased nasal airway.
5. Broadening of nasal bridge.
Small polyps are usaully diagnosed on nasal endoscopy.
Investigations:
Diagnosis is usually made on clinical grounds.
1. Small polyps are usually diagnosed on nasal endoscopy.
2. X-ray paranasal sinuses may show haziness of sinuses, mucosal thickening or fluid level.
3. CT shows exact anatomy and extension of the disease into different sinuses, orbit or the
cranium.
4. Histological examination of the tissue must be carried out to rule out malignancy.
Treatment:
Nasal polyps tend to recur and may extend to different sites. Treatment options are;
A. Conservative:
Fifty percent of patients do respond to steroids. Trial of topical and systemic corticosteroids
must be given unless there is contraindication to use of steroids e.g., diabetes, hypertension,
tuberculosis, pregnancy, infection, peptic ulceration etc. Adult dose of prednisolone is 40-50
mg/day for up to 03 weeks. Antibiotics are usually given to control superimposed infection.
266
B. Surgical:
Depending on exact extension of the disease following surgical options are possible;
1. Intranasal polypectomy
2. Intranasal ethmoidectomy
3. Transantral ethmoidectomy
4. External ethmoidectomy
5. FESS (Functional Endoscopic Sinus Surgery)
Differential diagnosis:
1. Antrochoanal polyp
2. Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma
3. Inverted papilloma
4. Meningocele
5. Meningoencephalocele
6. Cystic fibrosis
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Nasal polyp is also called
ma
b. Bilateral condition
a. angiofibroma d. meningocele
c. inverted papilloma
Etiopathology:
Exact etiology of its origin is unknown. It arises from maxillary
sinus, comes out of maxillary ostium and hangs either in the nose
or posterior nares. It is a trilobed structure with an antral, nasal
Antrochoanal polyp
and choanal part. It may push soft palate downwards and
hanging in
forwards. It is usually unilateral and solitary. It is more common oropharynx
in children and young adults.
Its incidence is higher in male.
Clinical features:
1. Unilateral nasal obstruction, especially during breathing out due to ball valve effect.
When the polyp is very large, it may cause bilateral nasal obstruction by pushing the
septum towards opposite side. There may be anterior or posterior nasal discharge due to
associated sinusitis.
2. Hearing loss and earache due to obstruction of eustachian tube orifice may occur.
On examination;
1. Rhinolalia clausa may occur in cases of large polyp. The polyp may be visible on
anterior rhinoscopy.
2. On oral cavity examination, there may be limitation or loss of palatal movement due to
mass effect. If the polyp is large enough, it may be visible hanging down into
nasopharynx or even oropharynx.
3. On posterior rhinoscopy polyp may be visible as solitary smooth pedunculated mass in
the nasopharynx.
4. Flexible nasopharyngoscopy or 30-degree endoscopy and CT scan may be required
occasionally for diagnosis.
Investigations:
Diagnosis is usually made on clinical grounds.
1. Small polyps are usually diagnosed on nasal endoscopy.
2. X-ray paranasal sinuses shows soft tissue mass or opacity in nasal cavity and ipsilateral
maxillary sinus.
3. X-ray soft tissue nasopharynx lateral view shows, soft tissue shadow in nasopharynx.
4. CT scan may be required occasionally.
5. Histological examination of the tissue must be carried out to rule out malignancy.
Treatment:
There is no conservative treatment for antrochoanal polyp. Both nasal and antral parts of
the polyp are removed surgically. Surgical options are;
1. Caldwell-Luc operation is the treatment of choice. It is done above the age of 12
years. This operation below the age of 12 years may damage secondary dentition
present in the anterior wall of maxilla.
2. Intranasal polypectomy is done if patient is below the age of 12 years. Although simple
intranasal polypectomy may lead to recurrence.
3. FESS: Recent trend is to perform FESS for all age groups.
Differences between ethmoidal polyps and antrochoanal polyp
Features Ethmoidal polyps Antrochoanal polyp
Origin Ethmoid sinuses Maxillary sinus
Laterality Bilateral Unilateral
Number Multiple Solitary
Age Common in adults Common in children
Growth Grows anteriorly to anterior nares Grows posteriorly to choana
Size, shape Small and grapes like Trilobed with antral, nasal and choanal
parts
Recurrence Common Uncommon
Treatment Initially medical then surgical Surgical
Differential diagnosis:
1. Hypertrophied middle turbinate
2. Ethmoidal polypi
3. Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma
4. Meningocele
5. Meningoencephalocele
SELF ASSESSMENT
c. mucous polyp
Q. 2. Antrochoanal polyp arises from
b. decongestants e. polypectomy
c. ethmoidectomy
Q. 10. The most modern treatment of antrochoanal polyp in any age group is
a. Caldwell-Luc operation d. lateral rhinotomy
c. intranasal polypectomy
Scenario A: A 09 years old boy complains of right sided nasal obstruction for last 01 year.
According to him he finds difficulty in breathing out through nose. The X-ray of paranasal
sinuses shows hazy right maxillary sinus. He is apyrexial and leukocyte count is 6000 per
microliter.
1. What is the most likely diagnosis?
2. What further radiological investigation is required?
3. What are various treatment options?
B: A 20 years old male presents with right sided progressive nasal obstruction for last 02
years. Patient also complains of a mass occasionally coming out of right nasal cavity There
is no complaint of bloodstained nasal discharge. On examination there is greyish mass in
right nasal cavity which is seen hanging in the nasopharynx on posterior rhinoscopy.
1. What is the most probable clinical diagnosis?
2. How will you confirm your diagnosis?
3. How will you manage this patient?
ANSWERS--------------------------------------------
-------------------------------------------------------- ---------
Q.1. b 2. c 3. d 4. e 5. b
6. a 7. c 8. d 9. a 10. b
Scenario A: 1. Antrochoanal polyp 2. X-ray PNS, X-ray soft tissue nasopharynx, CT scan
3. FESS, intranasal polypectomy.
B: 1. Antrochoanal polyp 2. X-ray PNS, X-ray soft tissue nasopharynx, CT scan
3. FESS, Caldwell-Luc operation.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-
EPISTAXIS
Synonyms: Nasal hemorrhage/bleeding
Definition:
Epistaxis is a Greek word which means “bleeding from nose”.
Etiopathology:
In 90% of cases bleeding occurs through James Little’s area. This is situated in the
anteroinferior part of nasal septum just above the nasal vestibule. Anastomosis of following
four arteries occur here to form Kiesselbach plexus:
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
272
a. Anterior ethmoidal artery
b. Septal branch of superior labial artery
c. Septal branch of sphenopalatine artery
d. Greater palatine artery
Another anastomosis of veins is formed inferior to posterior end of inferior turbinate. It
is known as Woodruff’s plexus/naso-nasopharyngeal plexus. Retrocolumellar vein at
the anterior end of Little’s area is a common cause of venous bleeding in young persons.
Causes:
A. Idiopathic (primary)
It constitutes 80% cases of epistaxis.
B. Local causes:
1. Traumatic
a. Non-surgical trauma e.g., road traffic accidents, nose picking.
b. Surgical trauma e.g., septoplasty, SMR, turbinectomy, cautery etc.
2. Infective: Infection of nose, paranasal sinus or nasopharynx such as;
a. Viral: e.g., viral rhinitis
b. Bacterial: e.g., acute and chronic bacterial rhinitis
c. Fungal: e.g., fungal rhinosinusitis
3. Neoplastic:
a. Benign tumors; e.g., hemangioma, nasopharyngeal angiofibroma
b. Malignant tumors; e.g., nasopharyngeal carcinoma
4. Granulomatous:
a. Specific granulomas
b. Nonspecific ganulomas
5. Atmospheric condition:
Hot dry climate, high altitude
6. Long standing foreign body of nose which may be living e.g., maggots, leeches
or non living e.g., rhinolith
7. D.N.S, septal perforation
C. Systemic causes:
273
1. Acute infectious diseases e.g., typhoid, measles and any high-grade fever
2. Hypertension and arteriosclerosis
3. Diseases of liver and kidney e.g., jaundice, renal failure
4. Drugs like anticoagulants e.g., heparin, warfarin and antiplatelets e.g., aspirin
5. Hemostatic diatheses e.g., clotting disorders like hemophilia or bleeding disorder like
thrombocytopenia
6. Raised venous pressure e.g., right sided heart failure, mediastinal syndrome
7. Barometric pressure changes e.g., descent during flight
8. Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia
9. Vicarious menstruation i.e., epistaxis occurs during menstruation due to endometrial
tissue in the nose (endometriosis).
Types of epistaxis:
1. Anterior epistaxis:
In this, bleeding is from anterior nasal cavity. It usually occurs in
children and adults.
Anterior epistaxis
2. Posterior epistaxis:
In this, bleeding is from the choana and throat. This type of epistaxis usually occurs in
older people.
Differences between anterior and posterior epistaxis
Features Anterior epistaxis Posterior epistaxis
Incidence More common Less common
Site Little’s area Posterosuperior part of nasal cavity
Vessel Arterial Venous
Plexus Kiesselbach plexus Woodruff’s plexus
Age Children or young After 40 years of age
Cause Mostly trauma Mostly spontaneous
Intensity Usually mild and recurrent Usually severe and nonrecurrent
Investigations:
These highly depend on findings of history and examination.
Treatment:
In cases of epistaxis, it is very important to know the cause, duration and frequency of bleeding.
General condition of the patient is assessed and nose is examined thoroughly. Such a nasal
274 Part C Nose and Paranasal Sinuses
examination locates the source of bleeding and helps to exclude certain causes such as benign
or malignant tumors, granuloma etc.
Vital signs are recorded. Intravenous line is maintained. Blood grouping, cross matching
and assessment of patient for blood transfusion is made depending on condition of patient.
Underlying cause e.g., clotting disorders like hemophilia or bleeding disorders like
thrombocytopenia must be identified and addressed accordingly.
A. Immediate:
The following sequence of immediate measures are done to stop epistaxis;
1. Pinching of nose:
The patient is asked to sit, bend forwards and pinch the nose. This
simple measure stops bleeding in majority of cases because in 90% of
cases bleeding occurs from Little’s area which is compressed by simple
pinching for at least 10 minutes.
2. Ice or cold packs: Pinching of nose
These are applied over the nose, face and head. This constricts the blood vessels and stops
bleeding.
3. Anterior nasal packing:
Nasal cavities are examined and anesthetized with 4% xylocaine spray or
with packs soaked in 4% xylocaine. Any clot in the nasal cavity is removed
by suction.
Anterior nasal packing with packs (of 2.5 cm width for adults and 1.2
cm in children) soaked in antibiotics and liquid paraffin is done to stop
bleeding. Anterior nasal pack is removed slowly after 24-48 hours.
Alternatively, different catheters with balloon to compress the blood vessels
may be inserted.
It is very important to mention that in hemostatic diatheses any
surgical intervention like anterior or posterior nasal packing should be Anterior nasal packing
avoided. In these cases, nasal packing may do more harm than good to the
patient. However, in severe cases of epistaxis light packing may be done with spongostan.
4. Posterior nasal packing:
Packing of post nasal space is done with
post nasal plug or a Foley’s catheter is
passed through anterior nasal cavity and
the balloon in post nasal space is inflated
with 5-7 ml of saline. Then anterior
nasal packing is done against post nasal
plug/inflated balloon. The post nasal
plug/balloon does not allow the anterior
nasal packs to fall into oropharynx.
The post nasal plug is removed or
balloon is deflated after 48 hours. The Balloon for epistaxis Posterior nasal packing
procedure is very effective in stopping
posterior bleeding.
B. Curative and preventive:
275
These measures are adopted when;
a. Immediate treatment fails.
b. There is recurrent nasal hemorrhage even after removal of
the underlying cause such as infusion of platelets in
thrombocytopenia, factor VIII extracts in hemophilia,
vitamin K injection in vitamin K deficiency.
1. Cauterization of bleeding point:
Under local or general anesthesia, it is done;
a. Chemically with 20% silver nitrate.
b. Electrically with unipolar/bipolar diathermy or galvanic cautery.
2. S.M.R.
If septal spur is the cause of epistaxis, then S.M.R. or even simple
elevation of mucoperichondrial flaps may be required.
3. Embolization:
It is done by interventional radiologist. Gel foam or polyvenyl alcohol is embolized into
maxillary artery through femoral artery catheterization.
4. Arterial ligation:
Following options are available;
a. Ligation of external carotid artery in the neck.
b. Ligation of maxillary artery (in posterior epistaxis) in the pterygopalatine fossa
through Caldwell-Luc approach.
c. Transnasal Endoscopic SphenoPalatine Artery Ligation (TESPAL).
d. Ligation of anterior ethmoidal artery (in anterior epistaxis) through a curvelinear
incision medial to medial canthus of eye (also known as Lynch Howarth incision).
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. The most common cause of epistaxis is
a. granuloma d. neoplasm
b. idiopathic e. trauma
c. inflammation
Q. 2. The most common site of epistaxis in the anterior part of nose is
a. inferior turbinate d. tip of nose
c. middle turbinate
Q. 3. The most common site of epistaxis is
a. anteroinferior part of nasal septum b. inferior turbinate
turbinate
e. posteroinferior part of nasal septum
Q. 4. Little’s area (Kiesselbach’s area) is situated at
a. anterior inferior quadrant of lateral wall tum
of nose d. posterior inferior quadrant of lateral wall
b. anterior inferior quadrant of nasal of nose
septum e. posterior superior quadrant of lateral
c. anterior superior quadrant of nasal sep- wall of nose
Q. 5. Kiesselbach’s plexus is formed by all the following arteries except
a. anterior ethmoidal artery d. sphenopalatine artery
c. nasopalatine artery
Q. 7. Repeated digital trauma to nose causes epistaxis due to bleeding from
a. anterior facial vein d. retrocolumellar vein
3. Record vitals, take detail history especially about amount of blood loss, detail examination
of nose, maintain i.v line, send blood for grouping and cross matching.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-
HEREDITARY HEMORRHAGIC TELANGIECTASIA (HHT)
Synonyms: Osler’s disease, Rando Osler Weber/ROW disease
Etiopathology:
It is an autosomal dominant hereditary disorder. It is
characterized by formation of multiple telangiectasia in the mucous
membrane and skin especially of the head. The telangiectasia
malformations may also occur in the lungs, liver and gut.
Hereditary hemorrhagic
Hemorrhage may occur from any telangiectasia.
telangiectasia
Clinical features:
1. Patient may present with recurrent epistaxis due to lesions in the nose.
2. On examination there are small scattered purplish or reddish lesions on skin as well as on
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
278 Part C Nose and Paranasal Sinuses
nasal mucosa.
Treatment:
A wide variety of options are available for the treatment of epistaxis secondary to hereditary
hemorrhagic telangiectasia.
Remember the mnemonic ‘OSLER’.
Oestrogen therapy, Septodermoplasty/injection of Sclerosing agent, Laser (Argon, KTP or
Nd: YAG), Excision of affected segment, Radiotherapy/Rhinectomy.
More recent options include arterial ligation and arterial embolization.
Repeated blood transfusion may be required to correct anemia and to maintain
hemodynamics. In more severe cases of recurrent epistaxis, Young’s operation may be
considered.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia is also called
a. Osler’s disease d. both a & b
c. immunotherapy
Scenario: A twenty years old patient presented with recurrent nasal bleeding for last ten
years. On examination there are small scattered purplish/reddish lesions on skin as well as
on nasal mucosa.
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
279 Part C Nose and Paranasal Sinuses
1. What is your provisional diagnosis?
2. How will you assess the general condition of the patient?
3. What are various methods to manage nose bleeding?
ANSWERS------------------------------------------------
-------------------------------------------------------- -----
Q.1. d 2. a 3. d 4. a 5. c
Scenario: 1. Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia 2. Detailed history especially about
amount of blood loss, detailed examination of nose, record vitals, maintain i.v line, send
blood for grouping and cross matching 3. Pinching of nose, cold sponging, chemical cautery,
anterior nasal packing, posterior nasal packing, ligation of vessels, embolization.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
SEPTAL HEMATOMA
Definition:
It is a collection of blood beneath the perichondrium/periosteum of the nasal septum.
Etiopathology:
It is nearly always traumatic in origin and may be due to;
1. Direct blow or fall on the nose.
2. Surgery on the nose e.g., septoplasty, SMR.
3. Hemostatic diathesis (rarely). A case of septal hematoma
Clinical features:
1. History of trauma to nose is usually available.
2. Bilateral nasal obstruction is the most common
presenting symptom.
3. There may be sense of pressure over nasal bridge.
On examination there is;
1. Bilateral, smooth, reddish, rounded septal swelling
which may extend to the lateral nasal wall.
2. On palpation with a probe, septal swelling is soft,
fluctuant and compressible.
Diagramatic view of septal hematoma
3. Wide bore needle aspiration also confirms the
presence of blood.
Complications:
1. Septal cartilage has got no blood supply of its own. It gets its nutrients and oxygen from
overlying perichondrium. If untreated septal cartilage may undergo avascular necrosis
within 2-3 days leading to saddle nose or septal perforation.
2. Septal hematoma if infected, may change into septal abscess.
3. There may be permanent thickening of the septum because of fibrous organization.
280 Part C Nose and Paranasal Sinuses
4. If this type of injury occurs during childhood, it may affect development of whole of the
middle-third of the face with resultant maxillary hypoplasia.
Treatment:
1. Aspiration with wide bore needle may be sufficient
in early cases where septal hematoma is small, but it
may have to be repeated.
2. Incision and drainage of the hematoma is done
with excision of small piece of mucoperichondrium
on one side. Incision is made horizontal to avoid
disruption of mucociliary transport. A corrugated
drain is placed between the flaps for drainage.
3. Anterior nasal packing, splints or quilting sutures
are applied to obliterate the potential space.
4. Systemic antibiotics are given to prevent secondary
infection.
5. Revaluation is done after 2-3 days to detect any Drainage steps of septal hematoma
recollection.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. In septal hematoma, blood accumulates mainly in
a. submucous space d. none of the above
c. septal abscess
Q. 7. Treatment of septal hematoma is
chondrium
e. all of the above
Scenario: A 05 years old baby was hit on nose by a fellow child. He developed complete
blockage of nose within one hour when he was brought to the ENT surgeon. There is no
epistaxis. Anterior rhinoscopy showed smooth reddish diffuse swelling in both nasal cavities.
1. What is the most probable clinical diagnosis?
2. What complications can arise from this condition?
3. How will you treat this patient?
ANSWERS------------------------------------------------
-------------------------------------------------------- -----
Q.1. b 2. e 3. b 4. a 5. d
6. d 7. e
Scenario: 1. Septal hematoma 2. Avascular necrosis of septal cartilage, saddle nose
deformity, septal abscess, fibrous thickening of septum, maxillary hypoplasia 3. Wide bore
needle aspiration, incision and drainage, anterior nasal packing, systemic antibiotics.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
SEPTAL ABSCESS
Etiopathology:
It is usually secondary to infection of septal hematoma. Occasionally it may also occur
spontaneously after nasal furunculosis, measles or typhoid.
Clinical features:
1. Bilateral nasal obstruction is usual presenting symptom. A case of septal
abscess
2. Severe throbbing pain over bridge of nose.
3. Rise in the body temperature and pulse rate which distinguish septal abscess from
septal hematoma.
On examination;
1. Skin of nose is red and swollen.
2. Nasal cavities show smooth, dull, purplish or whitish, rounded bilateral septal
swelling.
3. Fluctuation can be elicited with a probe.
282 Part C Nose and Paranasal Sinuses
Treatment:
1. Admission in hospital is carried out and vitals monitored regularly.
2. Urgent incision and drainage as for septal hematoma, is carried out. Necrosed piece of
cartilage is removed. At the same time conchal cartilage graft may be used to avoid
external nasal deformity. Incision may require to be open daily for 2-3 days to drain pus.
3. Parenteral antibiotics are given to prevent spread of infection.
4. Anti-inflammatory, analgesics are given to relieve pain.
5. In future most of the patients may need surgical correction of the nasal deformity caused
by septal abscess.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. All are the usual clinical features of septal abscess except
a. bilateral whitish rounded septal swelling c. nasal obstruction
d. normal body temperature
b. fluctuation is positive e. severe throbbing pain
Q. 2. Regarding septal abscess
a. causes destruction of nasal bones d. leads to infratip depression
c. cytotoxic drugs
Scenario: A 23 years old boy following a fight received blow on nose. After 04 days he
approached ENT consultant with swelling of nose and severe bilateral nasal obstruction.
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
283 Part C Nose and Paranasal Sinuses
b. chemicals d. trauma
b. crusting e. whistling
c. nasal obstruction
Q. 3. Whistling sound in nasal septal perforation is usually caused by
a. large anterior perforation d. small anterior perforation
Scenario: A young patient complains of whistling sounds during respiration through nose for
last 09 months. He has history of septal surgery 01 year before.
1. What is the most probable clinical diagnosis?
2. How will you treat this patient?
-------------------------------------------------------- ANSWERS-----------------------------------------------------
Q.1. d 2. a 3. d 4.e
Scenario: 1. Septal perforation 2. A. Conservative; alkaline nasal douches, silver nitrate
cautery of the bleeding granulation, prefabricated silastic buttons or obturators are simple,
safe and reliable method of closing almost any septal perforation.
B. Surgical treatment; surgical closure of the perforation may be carried out with grafts or
local flaps.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
MAGGOTS
Synonym: Myiasis
Definition:
Larvae of a common house fly (genus Chrysomyia) are known as maggots.
Etiopathology:
It is a disease of temperate climate where flies are abundant.
Houseflies are commonly attracted towards debilitated, neglected,
unconscious, or addicted patients. Flies lay about 500 eggs in her
lifetime, in several batches of about 75-150 at one time. These eggs
hatch into larvae (maggots) within 24 hours. If sufficient food is
available in the form of crusts, dead or decaying matter, larvae do
not undergo further metamorphosis. A case of maggot nose
Maggots are about 1.5 cm in length. These are common in
the nose in patients with atrophic rhinitis and purulent nasal discharge. These eat away the
mucosa, septum, turbinate, palate and cribriform plate. Maggots may spread to paranasal
sinuses and through the nasolacrimal duct to the lacrimal sac. Because of superadded
infection, there is foul-smelling discharge and bleeding from the affected site.
These are also common in patients with aural discharge, infected tracheostomy wound or
chronic malignant ulcer. Maggots may occur at any age and in either gender.
Clinical features:
1. Severe irritation, sneezing and lacrimation are the presenting symptoms in the initial 3-
4 days.
NCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
286 Part C Nose and
On examination;
c. maggot oil
Scenario: A 60 years old, emaciated female was brought to ENT OPD with complaint of
epistaxis, nasal obstruction and severe pain in the nose for last three days. Her examination
revealed multiple whitish moving foreign bodies in the nose with septal and palatal
perforations.
1. What is the most probable clinical diagnosis?
2. What are predisposing factors for the condition?
3. How will you treat this patient?
-------------------------------------------------------- ANSWERS-----------------------------------------------------
Q.1. b 2. b 3. c 4. e 5. d
Scenario: 1. Nasal myiasis 2. Debilitated, neglected, unconscious, or addicted patients are at
more risk 3. Admission in hospital, urgent removal of maggots using maggot oil, saline
douching, analgesics, antibiotics.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
FOREIGN BODY OF NOSE
Etiopathology:
These may enter the nose by different routes:
1. Through the anterior nares
2. Through the posterior nares by vomitus
3. Through penetrating injuries
4. May arise de novo as a result of inflammatory reaction around A case of foreign body nose
dried crust, blood or mucous.
Foreign bodies are mostly seen in children. Anything small enough to pass the anterior nares
may be pushed into the nose by the child himself or the playmates. Pieces of paper, beads,
buttons, eraser, pebbles, sponge, button batteries and cotton wool are common foreign bodies.
Clinical features:
288 Part C Nose and Paranasal Sinuses
Complications:
1. Rhinitis
2. Sinusitis
3. Rhinolith formation
Investigations:
Diagnosis is usually made on history and examination of nose after using nasal decongestant
drops/sprays.
X-ray paranasal sinus shows radiopaque foreign body. In long standing cases there is
haziness of the ipsilateral maxillary and other sinuses secondary to associated sinusitis.
Treatment:
Sometimes there may be spontaneous expulsion of the foreign body. Forceful
nose blowing may expel the foreign body.
1. Whenever possible try to get a template of the foreign body. It helps in
making the strategy and choosing proper instruments for its safe removal. It
also helps in anticipating the possible complications of the foreign body and its
removal.
2. Removal under direct vision through anterior nares with the help of Foreign body hook
foreign body hook/forceps/sucker with or without local anesthesia. If
retrieval of the foreign body fails, it may be pushed into the nasopharynx
under general anesthesia and thus, may be extracted through oral route.
3. Nasoendoscopy is very helpful in locating and removing a small foreign body.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Source of foreign body of nose may be
c. penetrating injuries
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
289 Part C Nose and Paranasal Sinuses
Q. 2. All are usual clinical feature of foreign body nose except
a. bilateral nasal obstruction d. sneezing
c. nasal endoscopy
Scenario: A 04 years old child presents with mucopurulent discharge from right side of nose
for last two days. There is preceding history of playing pebbles with his playmates. On
examination right nasal cavity is severely congested.
1. What is the most probable clinical diagnosis?
2. What are possible complications of this entity?
3. How will you treat this patient?
------------------------------------
-------------------- ANSWERS-----------------------------------------------------
Q.1. e 2. a 3. a
Scenario: 1. Foreign body nose 2. Rhinitis, sinusitis, rhinolith formation 3. Removal under
general anesthesia.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
RHINOPHYMA
Synonym: Potato tumor of nose, Elephantiasis of nose
Definition:
It is a condition associated with benign nodular enlargement of tip of nose due to hypertrophy
of the sebaceous glands of skin.
Etiopathology:
It is usually seen in long standing cases of acne rosacea. It occurs almost exclusively in
middle-aged male.
Clinical features:
Patient presents with nodular swelling of lower half of nose
especially nasal tip. This gives an unsightly appearance of nose. There
may also be nasal obstruction.
Treatment: A case of
rhinophyma
Removal of the lesion is carried out with surgical knife or CO2 laser. Decortication of
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
290 Part C Nose and Paranasal Sinuses
Clinical features:
A. Neonates:
In neonates it may present in different forms such as;
1. Meconium ileus
2. Meconium perforation and peritonitis
3. Obstructive jaundice A diagram of
4. Neonatal screening raised immunoreactive trypsin cystic fibrosis
nasopharynx, middle ear and chest. Meconium ileus, alimentary problem, diabetes mellitus,
infertility and psychological problems should be addressed on their own merits.
Prognosis:
Seventy percent of newborn infants with cystic fibrosis are expected to reach adult life if
managed properly.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Cystic fibrosis is also known as
b. Phosphorus e. Zinc
c. Potassium
Q. 4. Glue like glassy white to yellow secretions obstruct the nasal lumen seen in cystic
fibrosis. This can be diagnosed by sodium and chloride estimation of these substances in
excess of 100 mM in
a. blood d. sweat
c. meconium ileus
Scenario: A 8 years old female child presents with history of chronic sinusitis and multiple
nasal polypi since birth. She has recurrent attacks of chest infection and malabsorption
syndrome. There is no situs inversus or dextrocardia.
1. What is the most probable clinical diagnosis?
2. Name single test for its diagnosis?
3. How will you treat this patient?
MUCOCELE
Definition:
It is a mucous containing cyst completely filling an air sinus and
capable of expansion.
Etiopathology:
It occurs as a result of acute infection, chronic infection, tumor or
trauma. Opening of an air sinus may become permanently stenosed.
Continued secretions in the obstructed sinus lead to increase in
pressure within the sinus cavity with consequent slow expansion.
A number of bone resorbing substances such as
Case of frontal sinus mucocele
prostaglandins (PGE2), leukotrienes and cytokines are produced by
mucocele. This phenomenon most commonly occurs in the frontal
sinus where only 02 mm wide duct passes for a distance of about 05-10 mm.
As the sinus expands, floor of the frontal sinus that is orbital roof gives away and
mucocele expands into the orbit and pushes the eyeball downwards and forwards.
Mucocele of the frontal sinus usually presents in 90% of cases on the superomedial
quadrant of orbit. Anterior wall of the frontal sinus may be pushed forwards and patient
presents with forehead swelling.
In children, a mucocele from the ethmoid sinus is more common and the mucocele
expands into the orbit. The lateral wall of the sinus i.e., lamina papyracea is pushed laterally,
the eyeball is pushed forwards and laterally.
Mucocele of the maxillary sinus and sphenoid sinus is extremely rare.
Clinical features:
These depend highly on the exact sinus and particular wall involved.
1. In cases of frontal sinus mucocele, there is downwards, forwards and lateral
displacement of eyeball. There may be swelling over the forehead.
2. In case of ethmoidal sinus mucocele, there may be forwards and lateral displacement
of the eyeball.
3. On palpation there may be ‘egg-shell crackling sensation’.
4. Diplopia may occur very rarely as there is gradual displacement of eyeball.
Investigations:
1. Digital X-ray of paranasal sinuses shows characteristic
radiological appearances of the
94 Part C Nose and Paranasal Sinuses
affected sinuses.
On radiology there is;
CT scan of mucocele
a. Expansion of affected sinus
b. Loss of translucency
c. Loss of scalloping
d. Marginal sclerosis
2. CT/MRI are required to differentiate mucocele from benign and malignant tumors of the
sinus.
Treatment:
In majority of cases endonasal approach is used. In complicated or extensive mucocele an
external ethmoidectomy (Lynch-Howarth) approach, endonasal approach or FESS is used.
Following steps are carried out in surgery;
1. Mucocele is drained.
2. All the lining of the affected sinus is removed.
3. Permanent wide drainage of the sinus is established.
4. In case of frontal sinus mucocele
a. One cm wide fenestrated tube is placed for 3-5 months.
Intersinus septum is breached to allow drainage into contralateral sinus if the
blockage of the sinus recurs.
Differential diagnosis:
1. Fungal rhinosinusitis
2. Pseudotumor
3. Benign and malignant tumors of orbit, nose, paranasal sinuses and nasopharynx.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. In 90% cases mucocele of frontal sinus usually presents on the
a. inferolateral quadrant of orbit d. superomedial quadrant of orbit
b. leukotrienes e. prostaglandins
c. PGE2
Q. 5. Usual clinical feature of mucocele includes
a. displacement of eyeball sinus
Removed
d. Permanent wide drainage is estab-
b. Mucocele is drained lished
PART D
ORAL CAVITY AND
PHARYNX
Chapter 11
SYMPTOMATOLOGY AND EXAMINATION
OF THROAT
SYMPTOMATOLOGY OF THROAT
Every system and organ in the body has got its own set of symptoms and signs. More than
90% of patients presenting to ENT department, present with one or more of the following
complaints;
1. Sore throat (pain in throat)
2. Odynophagia (painful swallowing)
3. Dysphagia (difficulty on swallowing)
4. Dysphonia (difficulty in phonation)
5. Dyspnea (difficulty in respiration)
6. Stridor (noisy respiration)
7. Bloodstained spitting or frank bleeding from oral cavity
8. Swelling in neck, oral cavity or throat
9. Speech defects
1. Sore throat: (pain in throat)
This is an important symptom in inflammatory conditions of the throat. Whenever a patient
complains of pain in the throat, he should be categorically asked whether he feels pain or is it
just a sense of irritation. The former is typical of inflammation, whereas the latter is met with
in allergy of the throat and should surgeon to avoid surgery on throat unless clearly indicated
by the local condition of the tonsils. The patient should be questioned regarding exact
duration, site, progress, intensity, persistence of pain. Duration of each episode and the length
of the intervals in between the episodes should be asked.
2. Odynophagia: (pain on swallowing)
297 Part D Oral Cavity and Pharynx
In inflammatory conditions of the throat the patient feels pain during swallowing.
3. Dysphagia: (difficulty in swallowing)
In tumors of the pharynx, the food gets obstructed on its way down producing obstructive
dysphagia. Since pharynx is a very wide cavity, dysphagia in tumors of the pharynx is a late
symptom.
In paralysis of the palate and the pharynx, the food cannot be swallowed properly and it
may find its way into the nose from inability of the palate to shut off the nasopharynx from
oropharynx. This condition is called nasal regurgitation.
In paralysis of the larynx, the food may also find its way into the larynx, as larynx
cannot be shut off adequately on attempted swallowing, there is a severe bout of coughing.
This condition is called tracheobronchial aspiration.
In anemias and atrophic conditions of the pharyngeal mucosa, there is dysphagia due to
lack of secretions of mucous glands which normally lubricate food bolus.
4. Dysphonia: (difficulty in phonation)
Congenital, traumatic, inflammatory/granulomatous conditions and tumors of larynx,
hypopharynx and oropharynx may lead to dysphonia. Unilateral or bilateral paralysis of the
recurrent or superior laryngeal nerve may also lead to dysphonia.
5. Dyspnea: (difficulty in respiration)
Congenital, traumatic, inflammatory/granulomatous conditions and tumors of larynx,
hypopharynx and oropharynx may lead to dyspnea. Bilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve
paralysis may also lead to very severe dyspnea.
6. Stridor: (noisy respiration)
It is harsh, high pitch breath sound produced at or below the level of larynx due to narrowed
air passages. Different congenital, traumatic, inflammatory, granulomatous, neurological
conditions and tumors of the larynx, hypopharynx, oropharynx may lead to stridor.
7. Bloodstained spitting or frank bleeding from oral cavity:
Different traumatic, inflammatory, granulomatous conditions and tumors of oral cavity,
oropharynx, hypopharynx and larynx may lead to bloodstained spitting or frank bleeding
from oral cavity.
8. Swelling in neck, oral cavity or throat:
Different congenital, traumatic, inflammatory, granulomatous conditions and tumors of the
larynx, hypopharynx, oropharynx or thyroid may lead to swelling in neck, oral cavity or
throat.
9. Speech defects:
Pharynx is an important organ for giving resonance to the speech. Thus, in cases of extreme
hypertrophy of the tonsils or a tumor in the pharynx, the speech appears to be very dull.
EXAMINATION OF THROAT
After completing all prerequisites of examination, throat is examined as follows;
1. Inspection:
Any artificial denture should be removed. Inspection is done of the oral cavity and
oropharynx i.e., lips, gums, teeth, upper alveolus, lower alveolus, tongue, movements of
tongue, floor of mouth, hard palate, soft palate and movement of soft palate. Clinician has to
look for;
a. Congenital anomalies
b. Anatomical landmarks
c. Symmetry
d. Any other positive finding (enlarged tonsils, ulcer, swelling, white patch etc.)
Depress anterior two third of the tongue and inspect anterior faucial pillar, tonsils, posterior
faucial pillar, posterior pharyngeal wall. Check movements of the soft palate by asking the
patient to phonate Aah. Check gag reflex by touching separately posterior pharyngeal wall on
each side of the midline.
2. Indirect laryngoscopy (IDL):
Indirect laryngoscopic mirror (singly angulated) is warmed
in the same manner as the mirror for posterior rhinoscopy.
The patient is asked to open his mouth and protrude the Indirect laryngoscopy mirror
tongue.
The tongue is held with a gauze between the thumb below
and index finger above of the left hand. Upper lip is retracted
upwards with the middle finger.
Indirect laryngoscopic
Pre-tested warm mirror is introduced into the oral cavity and examination
soft palate/uvula are retracted up with the indirect laryngoscopic
mirror without touching the posterior pharyngeal wall. View is obtained of the following
structures;
Base of the tongue, valleculae, median glossoepiglottic fold, lateral glossoepiglottic fold,
epiglottis, arytenoids, aryepiglottic folds, pyriform sinuses, false cords, true cords and
subglottis. Movements of the vocal cords are noted by
asking the patient to phonate Eee.
Any pooling of saliva in the pyriform sinus is noted.
3. Check for laryngeal crepitus:
Larynx is held between thumb and index finger and moved
side to side. Normally a sensation is felt which is known as
laryngeal crepitus. It is absent in postcricoid tumor and
retropharyngeal abscess.
4. Lymph nodes:
Checking laryngeal crepitus
Draining lymph nodes should be examined in detail.
299 Part D Oral Cavity and Pharynx
5. Palpation of lesion:
If there is any lesion in the oral cavity or oropharynx, it should be palpated bidigitally
(bimanually). A gloved finger palpates from inside and the other hand from outside.
6. Redrape the patient and pay thanks.
7. Flexible nasopharyngoscopy or 70-degree endoscopy:
In doubtful cases or cases where detailed examination is required,
flexible nasopharyngoscopy or 70-degree endoscopy under local
asesthesia is done for examination of oropharynx, hypopharynx and
larynx. Stroboscopy is done to detect detailed fine movements of
vocal cords. 70-degree endoscopic
examination of larynx
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. The length of the rima glottidis in male is
a. 1.5 cm d. 4.5 cm
b. 2.5 cm e. 5.5 cm
c. 3.5 cm
Q. 2. The length of glottis in female is
a. 1.6 cm d. 4.6 cm
b. 2.6 cm e. 5.6 cm
c. 3.6 cm
Q. 3. The vocal cord vibration is best analyzed by
a. direct laryngoscopy d. stroboscopy
Chapter 12
DISEASES OF ORAL CAVITY
AND PHARYNX
CLEFT PALATE
Etiopathology:
It occurs due to failure of fusion of maxillary and medial nasal processes
shelf in the midline during intrauterine life. It occurs alone or in
combination with cleft lip. It is classified into;
1. Complete (hard and soft palate)
2. Incomplete (a hole in the palate)
It is subclassified as primary or secondary and unilateral, bilateral or Cleft palate
midline cleft.
The resulting opening between the mouth and nose leads to
velopharyngeal insufficiency.
Submucosal cleft palate is one in which there is a triad of bifid uvula, a
furrow along the midline of the soft palate and a notch in the back of hard
palate. There is bluish line in the midline of soft palate due to absence of
muscle layer.
Clinical features:
1. Nasal regurgitation of fluids is the most common presentation.
2. There is also complaint of recurrent ear infection.
3. In neonates, infants and children there may be complaint of failure
to thrive.
Treatment:
1. Surgical repair of lip is performed after 03 months of age.
2. Repair of cleft is carried out between 6 and 12 months of age.
Several procedures may be required for complete velopharyngeal Grades of cleft palate
closure. Delayed repair may result in impaired speech, recurrent ear
problems in the form of acute, chronic or serous otitis media. There may be gross cosmetic
facial defects. Recently prosthodontic closure with acrylic obturator has been introduced as
an alternative.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. All are true of submucous cleft palate except
a. absence of muscle layer in the middle b. bifid uvula
of soft palate
c. furrow along the midline of soft palate
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
301 Part D Oral Cavity and Pharynx
palate
d. lack of movements in soft palate.
Q. 2. All are clinical features of cleft palate except
a. aspiration d. nasal regurgitation of fluid
8. Nutritional deficiency e.g., vit B 2 (riboflavin), vit B 12, vit C, nicotinic acid and folic
acid.
9. Miscellaneous conditions e.g., radiotherapy and chemotherapy.
1. Infections:
A. Viral:
a. Herpes labialis: This is common after a cold, local infections,
emotional upset, heat and various unknown factors. Patient presents with
A case of
pricking sensation. On examination there are clusters of vesicles.
herpes labialis
Vesicles may discharge and then there is crust formation. Treatment is
done by topical application of 1% idoxuridine and acyclovir.
a. Acute candidiasis: It appears as white, soft, creamy yellow plaques on the oral
mucous membrane. If the plaques are rubbed off, a red area of mucous remains. It is
treated by topical nystatin or imidazole.
b. Chronic hypertrophic candidiasis: It is also known as
candidial leukoplakia. It appears as thick plaques of
keratotic epithelium. The plaques cannot be rubbed off. It
mostly affects angles of mouth. Underlying conditions such
as diabetes, malnutrition and immunosuppression must be
Oral candidiasis
corrected.
2. Immune disorders:
a. Aphthous ulcers
b. Behcet’s syndrome: Synonym “Oculo-Oro-Genital (OOG)”
syndrome. It is characterized by anterior uveitis, genital and
oral ulcers. Oral ulcers are usually similar in appearance to the
major aphthae. If symptoms are severe then systemic steroids are
given.
A case of Behcet’s
syndrome
3. Trauma:
This is usually caused by biting or by sharp edges of broken tooth or artificial denture. If it
does not heal even on removal of initiating factors, it should be biopsied.
4. Tumors:
Malignancy of the oral cavity may present as chronic ulcer. The most common malignancy of
oral cavity is squamous cell carcinoma. Other tumors causing oral ulcers are mixed salivary
gland tumors and non-Hodgkin lymphoma.
5. Mucocutaneous disorders:
A. Pemphigus vulgaris: It is a rare disease
caused by immunological failure. It is
characterized by vesicles or bullae on the skin
and/or mucous membrane. Histologically
epithelial cells lose their attachment to each
other---a phenomenon known as “Acantholysis”.
Mouth lesion usually precede the skin lesion.
Nikolsky’s sign is diagnostic (striking the mucus
membrane causes the bullae or vesicles to
appear). Disease may be mild or severe. In the
severe cases, there may be widespread ulceration
in the mouth and skin. After the rupture of vesicles, A case of pemphigus vulgaris
underlying ulcers are painful. Treatment is carried
out by corticosteroids and azathioprine which must be continued throughout life.
B. Mucous membrane pemphigoid: It is not as fulminant as pemphigus
vulgaris. Bullae and erosions of mucus membrane are found but skin is usually not
affected. Immunological failure is thought to be causative factor. The disease mainly
affects women. Mouth being the most common site. It also affects pharynx, larynx
and soft palate. After the vesicles rupture, the membrane heals with scaring.
Treatment is with systemic corticosteroids.
C. Lichen planus: The condition is very common particularly in women beyond
middle age. Exact cause is unknown but an immunological
cause is suspected. In the mouth the lesions are usually
symmetrical. These are commonest on the buccal mucosa and
A case of lichen planus
tongue. Symptoms may vary in different patients. It may be
detected as an incidental finding. There may be complaint of
roughness of mouth. Lesions may be painful and chewing
food may be difficult.
On examination lesions form whitish striae with lace like pattern on buccal mucosa
or skin. Histologically, there is lymphocytic infiltration and liquefaction
degeneration of basal layer. There are three types of lichen planus:
I. Strial
II. Atrophic
III. Erosive
Treatment includes betnisol tablets 0.5 mg 1-10 tab per day in three divided doses.
6. Blood disorders:
Due to weakness of defense mechanisms for example in leukemia and agranulocytosis,
infections dominate and cause oral ulceration.
7. Drug allergy:
A. Steven Johnson syndrome: Synonym: Acute erythema multiforme. There are split, crusted
and bleeding lips.
B. Certain drugs, penicillin, phenytoin etc may cause mouth ulcers.
8. Nutritional deficiency:
Deficiency of vit B2 (riboflavin), vit B12, vit C, nicotinic acid and folic acid may cause oral
ulceration.
9. Miscellaneous conditions:
Radiotherapy and chemotherapy can lead to oral ulceration.
APHTHOUS ULCERS
There are three types of aphthous ulcers;
1. Minor aphthae:
These are also known as Miculickz aphthae. These are small shallow ulcers, 2-3 mm in
diameter. These have a yellowish floor and a sharply defined red margin. These affect non-
keratinized areas of moveable oral mucosa. The exact etiology is unknown but is said to be
because of immunological abnormalities. These are more common in women than men.
These are more common in sedentary people as compared to manual workers.
2. Major aphthae:
These ulcers are several centimeters in diameter and persist for
many months. A biopsy should be taken to differentiate them from
carcinoma.
3. Herpetiform aphthae:
These ulcers are much less regular in size and shape. These are A case of
characterized by a very large number of small ulcers. These ulcers may aphthous ulceration
305
become confluent with each other.
Treatment:
1. Mouth washes containing tetracyclines, and 0.2% chlorhexidine are given.
2. Corticosteroids are applied locally.
3. Sodium chromoglycate reduces the intensity of pain.
4. Levamisole (ketrax) 40 mg: Three tablets are given as single dose which enhances both
cellular and humoral immune response. It reduces the number, frequency and severity of
aphthous ulcers.
5. Dietary deficiencies if any should be corrected.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Behcet’s syndrome is characterized by the following except
a. genital ulcers c. parotid swelling
d. uveitis
b. oral ulcers e. none of the above
Q. 2. All are true about pemphigus vulgaris except
a. acantholysis d. immunological disorder
b. vitamin A e. vitamin C
c. vitamin B 2
Q. 4. Acute erythema multiforme is otherwise known as
a. Eagle’s syndrome d. Usher’s syndrome
1. Acute pharyngitis:
Definition:
It is an acute inflammatory condition of the pharynx.
Etiopathology:
Acute pharyngitis is very common and occurs due to different etiological factors like viral,
bacterial, fungal or others. Viral causes are more common. Acute streptococcal pharyngitis
(due to group A beta-haemolytic streptococci) has received more importance because of its
etiology in rheumatic fever and post streptococcal glomerulonephritis.
Clinical features:
Acute pharyngitis may occur in different degrees of severity. Mild infections present with
discomfort in the throat, malaise and low-grade fever. Pharynx in these cases is congested but
there is no lymphadenopathy.
Moderate and severe infections present with pain in throat,
dysphagia, headache, malaise and high-grade fever. Pharynx in these
cases shows erythema, exudate and enlargement of tonsils and
lymphoid follicles on posterior pharyngeal wall.
Very severe cases show edema of soft palate and uvula with
enlargement of cervical lymph nodes. A case of acute
pharyngitis
Treatment:
1. General measures: Bed rest, plenty of fluids, warm saline gargles and analgesics form
the mainstay of treatment. Local discomfort in the throat in severe cases can be relieved
by lignocaine before meals to facilitate swallowing.
2. Specific treatment: Streptococcal pharyngitis (group A, beta-haemolytic
streptococcus) is treated with penicillin G, 200,000 to 250,000 units orally four times a
day for 10 days or benzathine penicillin G, 600,000 units once i.m. for patient < 60 lb in
weight and 1.2 million units once i.m. for patient > 60 lb. In penicillin sensitive
individuals, erythromycin 20-40 mg/kg body weight daily, in divided oral doses for 10
days is equally effective.
Diphtheria is treated by diphtheria antitoxin and administration of penicillin or
erythromycin. Gonococcal pharyngitis responds to conventional doses of penicillin or
tetracycline.
Viral infections causing pharyngitis:
Herpangina
Infectious mononucleosis
Cytomegalovirus
Measles and chickenpox
2. Chronic pharyngitis:
308 Part D Oral Cavity and Pharynx
Definition:
It is a chronic inflammatory condition of the pharynx.
Etiopathology:
It is characterized by hypertrophy of mucosa, seromucinous glands, subepithelial
lymphoid follicles and even the muscular coat of the pharynx. It is of two types;
1. Chronic catarrhal pharyngitis.
2. Chronic hypertrophic (granular) pharyngitis.
A large number of factors are responsible for chronic pharyngitis. These include;
a. Chronic irritants (smoking, chewing tobacco, pan, drinking)
b. Laryngopharyngeal reflux
c. Postnasal discharge.
d. Environmental pollution.
e. Mouth breathing
Clinical features:
Severity of symptoms in chronic pharyngitis vary from person to person.
1. Discomfort or pain in the throat is the most common presentation. This is specially
noticed in the morning.
2. Foreign body sensation in the throat leads to a constant desire to swallow or clear his
throat to get rid of this “foreign body”.
3. Cough: Throat is irritable and there is tendency to cough. Mere opening of mouth may
induce retching or gaging.
4. Tiredness of voice: Patient cannot speak for long and has to make undue effort to speak
as throat starts aching. The voice may also lose its quality and may even crack. On
examination findings depend on the type of pharyngitis.
Chronic catarrhal pharyngitis: There is congestion of posterior pharyngeal wall with
engorgement of vessels. Faucial pillars may be thickened. There is increased mucous
secretion which may cover pharyngeal mucosa.
Chronic hypertrophic (granular) pharyngitis: Pharyngeal wall
appears thick and edematous with congested mucosa and dilated
vessels.
Posterior pharyngeal wall may be studded with reddish nodules
(hence, the term granular pharyngitis). These nodules are due to
hypertrophy of subepithelial lymphoid follicles normally seen in
pharynx. Lateral pharyngeal bands become hypertrophied. Uvula may
be elongated and appear edematous.
A case of granular pharyngitis
309 Part D Oral Cavity and Pharynx
Treatment:
1. Etiological factor should be sought and removed.
2. Benzydamine mouth washes/warm saline gargles, especially in the morning are
soothing and relieve discomfort.
3. Mandl’s (compound iodine) paint may be applied to the pharyngeal mucosa.
4. Cautery of lymphoid granules. Throat is sprayed with local anesthetic and granules are
touched with 10-25% silver nitrate. Electrocautery or diathermy of nodules may require
general anesthesia.
5. Voice rest and speech therapy is essential for those with faulty voice production.
Hawking, clearing the throat frequently or any other such habit should be stopped.
Fungal pharyngitis:
Candida infection of oropharynx can occur as an extension of oral thrush. It is seen in the
patients who are immunosuppressed, debilitated or taking high doses of antibiotics. Usually,
patient complains of pain in the throat with dysphagia. Treatment of choice is oral nystatin.
01 ml i.e., 10000 units given 6-hourly at least for 2 weeks.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Infections of the pharynx in adults are virtually confined to
a. hypopharynx d. oropharynx
c. oral cavity
Q. 2. Chronic pharyngitis is common in
a. drinkers d. smokers
ADENOIDITIS
310 Part D Oral Cavity and Pharynx
Definition:
It is defined as inflammation of the nasopharyngeal tonsils, sufficient
to produce symptoms.
Etiopathology:
Adenoids are also known as nasopharyngeal tonsils. Physiological
enlargement of adenoids usually starts between the ages of 5-7 years.
Most of the lymphoid tissue atrophy with the onset of puberty e.g.,
thymus. Atrophy of adenoids usually begins by the age of 10 years A diagram of adenoids
and is complete before the age of 15-16 years.
Recurrent episodes of rhinitis, sinusitis or tonsillitis may lead to adenoid hypertrophy.
Clinical features:
These may be due to simple enlargement, inflammation or both. It
is the size of the adenoids relative to the nasopharyngeal space that is
of importance and not its absolute size. Clinical manifestations of
adenoids may be nasal, aural or general.
A. Nasal manifestations:
1. Nasal obstruction leads to mouth breathing, noisy breathing, Adenoid facies
snoring and toneless voice. There may even be obstructive sleep
apnea syndrome.
2. Nasal discharge is due to associated rhinosinusitis and choanal obstruction.
3. Epistaxis can occur due to acute infection of adenoids.
4. Adenoid facies may develop in long standing cases i.e., dull looking triangular face,
open mouth posture, prominent crowded upper teeth, broad upper lip, pinched nose and
high arch palate.
B. Aural manifestations:
1. Eustachian tube obstruction leads to hearing loss.
2. Otitis media, which may be in the form of serous/acute/recurrent/ chronic otitis media.
C. General manifestations:
Mental dullness, lack of concentration (aprosexia), apathy, nocturnal enuresis, sleep apnea,
night terrors and pulmonary hypertension leading ultimately to cor pulmonale. Very large
adenoids may occasionally be visible through the open mouth.
Posterior rhinoscopic examination is usually diagnostic in patients over the age of three
years. Flexible nasopharyngoscopy or zero-degree endoscopy may reveal status of adenoids.
Investigations:
X-ray soft tissue nasopharynx lateral view for adenoids, may show narrowing of the
nasopharyngeal air space.
Treatment:
A. Conservative:
1. Removal of underlying cause such as allergy, immunity deficiency should be corrected.
2. Antibiotics, nasal decongestant drops may give relief when symptoms are not severe.
Patient should be instructed in nose blowing and nasal douching.
B. Surgical:
1. Adenoidectomy is performed under general anesthesia, when medical treatment fails or
symptoms are very severe.
2. Myringotomy with or without grommet insertion may be considered if patient has got
otitis media with effusion.
Differential diagnosis:
1. Foreign body nose
2. Meningoencephalocele
3. Angiofibroma
4. Thornwald’s cyst
Differential diagnosis of a pediatric nasopharyngeal mass:
Pediatric nasopharyngeal masses are rare. These cause respiratory obstruction and create
problems in diagnosis and management. Besides adenoid hypertrophy (which is unusual in
early infancy) and antrochoanal polyp, the differential diagnosis of a nasopharyngeal mass
includes:
1. Teratoid e.g., dermoids, teratoma, epignathi
2. Neuroectodermal e.g., encephalocele, brain heterotopia, meningioma
3. Dysontogenetic e.g., chordoma, craniopharyngioma
4. Miscellaneous e.g., cysts, haemangioma, hamartoma, rhabdomyosarcoma
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Adenoiditis is inflammation of
a. inner Weldeyer’s ring d. outer Weldeyer’s ring
c. oropharyngeal tonsils
c. proptosis
Q. 6. Adenoid facies include all except
as allergy
b. antibiotics
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
313 Part D Oral Cavity and Pharynx
c. craniopharyngioma
Scenario A: A 07 years old girl presented with mouth breathing, recurrent upper respiratory
tract infections and nasal discharge for last 06 months. X-ray lateral view neck showed a soft
tissue mass in the nasopharynx.
1. What is the most probable clinical diagnosis?
2. How will you confirm your diagnosis?
3. How are you going to manage this patient?
B: A 09 years old boy presents in ENT OPD with his mother with complaints of mouth
breathing, snoring and occasional bleeding from nose for the last 02 months. On examination
patient has got dull looking triangular face.
1. What is the most probable clinical diagnosis?
2. How will you confirm your diagnosis?
3. How are you going to manage this patient?
C: A 06 years old child presented with persistent nasal discharge and mouth breathing for
last 01 year and now he started feeling decrease in hearing. There is no history of ear
discharge or earache.
1. What pathology is likely to cause symptoms of ear in this child?
2. What investigations you want to request in this case in order to reach the diagnosis?
3. How will you manage this case?
-------------------------------------------------------- ANSWERS-----------------------------------------------------
Q.1. b 2. d 3. e 4. e 5. c 6. a
pack (also known as epilaryngeal pack) is removed. Boyle Davis mouth gag is removed.
A simple way of removing the adenoids is FESS (Functional Endoscopic Sinus Surgery)
and microdebrider.
Complications:
1. Hemorrhage usually indicates inadequate removal. So, adenoids should be removed
thoroughly. Perioperative hemorrhage is managed by placing a pack for a few minutes.
Postoperative hemorrhage is managed by nasal decongestant drops. If bleeding is severe,
it is managed by placing a post nasal pack in the nasopharynx under general anesthesia.
2. Injury to pharyngeal opening of eustachian tube may occur.
3. Dislocation of the atlantoaxial joint (if vigorous curettage of adenoids is performed).
4. Palatal insufficiency may occur if adenoidectomy is performed in a patient with
submucous cleft palate.
5. Nasopharyngeal stenosis as a result of scar formation.
Postoperative care:
It is same as that for tonsillectomy.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Adenoidectomy is indicated in all of the following except
a. nasal obstruction due to allergic c. otitis media with effusion
rhinitis d. recurrent otitis media in children
b. nasal obstruction due to adenoid e. recurrent rhinosinusitis
hyperplasia
Q. 2. All are contraindications of adenoidectomy except
a. acute respiratory tract infection c. cleft palate
b. bleeding disorder like thrombocytope- d. clotting disorder like hemophilia
nia e. otitis media with effusion
Q. 3. Before adenoidectomy nasopharynx is palpated to identify
a. adenoids d. meningocele
d. nasopharyngeal stenosis
-------------------------------------------------------- ANSWERS-----------------------------------------------------
Q.1. a 2. e 3. e 4. a 5. e
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
TONSILLITIS
Definition:
It is defined as an inflammation of palatine tonsils (also known as pharyngeal tonsils).
Clinically it is divided into;
A. Acute tonsillitis
B. Chronic tonsillitis
A. Acute tonsillitis
Etiopathology:
Acute tonsillitis is a disease of children and young adults although it may present at any age.
It is rare in infants and after 50 years of age. It may be caused by viruses or bacteria. The
most common causative organisms are Beta hemolytic Streptococcus. Less common
causative organisms are Staphylococci, Pneumococci and H. influenzae.
Acute inflammation of the tonsil is classified as follows;
1. Acute catarrhal tonsillitis:
In this, infection is limited to the surface epithelium of the tonsil.
2. Acute follicular tonsillitis:
In this, infection spreads into crypts of the tonsil. Openings of the crypts
are visible as whitish or yellowish dots, where exudate from the crypts
coalesce to form a membrane on the surface and is then known as
membranous tonsillitis. A case of acute
3. Acute parenchymatous tonsillitis: follicular tonsillitis
In this, infection spreads into the substance of the tonsil and the tonsil is enlarged.
Clinical features:
These vary with the severity of infection.
1. Sore throat is the most common presentation.
2. There may be complaint of odynophagia.
3. General symptoms like fever, anorexia, malaise and bodyaches may also occur.
Occasionally referred earache may occur due to stimulation of glossopharyngeal nerve.
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
317 Part D Oral Cavity and Pharynx
Complications:
Acute tonsillitis may give rise to following complications;
A. Local complications:
1. Chronic tonsillitis. In acute tonsillitis, infection may persist in the tonsil and may change
into chronic tonsillitis.
2. Peritonsillar abscess, parapharyngeal abscess, retropharyngeal abscess and acute
otitis media may occur as a result of spread of infection to adjacent structures.
B. Distant complications:
1. Rheumatic fever
2. Acute glomerulonephritis rarely.
Investigations:
Diagnosis of acute tonsillitis is usually clinical.
Throat swab is sent for culture and sensitivity in doubtful or resistant cases.
Treatment:
1. Bed rest is advised.
2. Antibiotics like penicillin or erythromycin are given for 7-10 days.
3. Analgesics and antipyretics are given to relieve pain and fever.
Differential diagnosis:
1. Diphtheria:
It is slow in onset as compared to acute tonsillitis. Sore throat is also less as compared to
acute tonsillitis. In cases of diphtheria, membrane extends beyond the tonsil on to the faucial
pillars and soft palate, whereas in acute tonsillitis, membrane is localized only to the tonsils.
In cases of diphtheria, membrane is dirty grey in color and tightly adherent. Removal
of the membrane leaves a bleeding surface. Smear and culture of throat swab/membrane
shows Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
318 Part D Oral Cavity and Pharynx
4. Agranulocytosis
5. Leukemia
6. Aphthous ulcers
7. Malignancy of tonsil
8. Candida infection of tonsil
B. Chronic tonsillitis
Etiopathology:
Long standing infection of the tonsils may occur as a result of; A case of chronic
tonsillitis
1. Subclinical infection of the tonsil
2. Complication of acute tonsillitis
Chronic post nasal discharge secondary to chronic sinusitis is usually a predisposing factor.
Chronic tonsillitis usually occurs in children or young adults.
Clinical features:
1. Patient usually presents with recurrent episodes of sore throat.
2. There may be chronic irritation in the throat.
3. If the tonsils are large, there may be difficulty in swallowing and choking sensation
during sleep.
4. There may be bad taste in mouth or foul breath (halitosis) due to pus in crypts.
On examination signs of chronic tonsillitis are positive i.e.
a. Tonsils are usually enlarged.
b. Crypts are prominent.
c. Anterior faucial pillars give an appearance of a flare (also known as anterior
faucial flare).
d. Jugulodigastric lymph nodes are enlarged.
Investigations:
Diagnosis of chronic tonsillitis is mainly clinical. No investigation is required for diagnostic
purposes. Investigations may be required for differential diagnosis, identification of any
complication or fitness of the patient for general anesthesia and surgery.
Treatment:
1. Removal of the underlying cause such as rhinitis and sinusitis. Nutrition and hygiene
should be improved.
2. Tonsillectomy should be performed as a last resort if the tonsils interfere with daily
routine life, deglutition, respiration and sleep.
Complications:
These are same for acute as well as chronic tonsillitis.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Acute or chronic tonsillitis is usually diagnosed on
a. culture and sensitivity of blood d. X-ray
c. infectious mononucleosis
Q. 6. Tonsillar lymph node is
a. hyoglossus d. palatopharyngeus
b. palatoglossus d. styloglossus
Complications of tonsillectomy:
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
323 Part D Oral Cavity and Pharynx
c. Late complications:
Postoperative scaring: Careless traumatic surgery with loss of the soft palate may
lead to scarring and limited mobility of the soft palate. it leads to nasal regurgitation of
fluids and hypernasal voice.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Indications of tonsillectomy include
a. chronic tonsillitis obstruction
Joint
e. all of the above
Q. 5. If tonsillectomy is carried out within three weeks of an acute attack, then
a. dissection is easy morrhage
3. Dysphonia
4. Dyspnea and stridor
On examination;
1. Tightly adherent greyish pseudomembrane on tonsils, faucial pillars, soft palate and
posterior pharyngeal wall is visible. Bleeding occurs when trying to remove the
pseudomembrane.
2. There is tender cervical lymphadenopathy.
Complications:
1. The membrane may spread to the larynx causing rapidly increasing airway obstruction
and death.
2. Most of the deaths in diphtheria are due to toxemia which causes myocarditis, cardiac
conduction defects and arrhythmias producing acute circulatory failure.
3. Neurological complications may appear 3-6 weeks after the onset of diphtheria and
include paralysis of soft palate, diaphragm and extraocular muscles.
4. The exotoxins may also produce fatal thrombocytopenia.
Investigations:
Diagnosis is usually made on clinical grounds but may be confirmed by smear and culture
of throat swab/membrane and isolation of Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
Treatment:
1. Admission in hospital and isolation. It is done on urgent basis.
2. Maintenance of airway with endotracheal intubation or tracheostomy must be done if
there is risk of airway obstruction.
3. Strict bed rest is given to avoid the risk of myocarditis.
4. Benzyl penicillin 500,000 units intramuscular, every 6 hours for 6 days is effective
against diphtheria bacilli. Erythromycin may be given if patient is allergic to penicillin.
5. Diphtheria antitoxin; Its dose varies from 20,000 units to 100,000 units, through
intravenous infusion. It neutralizes free toxin circulating in blood.
Prevention:
Active immunization against diphtheria is done by injection of toxoid in three doses,
beginning at 45 days of age.
Differential diagnosis:
1. Acute membranous tonsillitis
2. Infectious mononucleosis
3. Agranulocytosis
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
327 Part D Oral Cavity and Pharynx
4. Leukemia
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. The causative organism of diphtheria is
e. Streptococcus pneumoniae
Q. 2. Corynebacterium diphtheria is
a. gram negative bacillus d. gram positive bacillus
Left
peritonsillar abscess
329
2. There is severe pain in the throat on the side of peritonsillar cellulitis.
3. There is plummy quality of voice and intense salivation with dribbling.
4. There may be ipsilateral referred earache. There is also rise in the body temperature.
5. There may be fetid smell.
On examination there is;
1. Asymmetry of oropharynx with hyperemia and edema of the soft palate.
2. Medial displacement of the tonsil.
3. Trismus caused by spasm of medial pterygoid muscle due to contact with pus.
4. Ipsilateral tender enlarged cervical lymph nodes.
Complications:
1. Airway obstruction may occur due to edema of larynx.
2. Spread of infection to other spaces of the neck especially parapharyngeal space may
occur.
Investigations:
1. Wide bore aspirate is sent for microbiology, culture and sensitivity.
2. CT/MRI is carried out in case of suspected complications such as spread of infection to
parapharyngeal space, retropharyngeal space or mediastinum.
Treatment:
1. In early stages of cellulitis, conservative
treatment is carried out with intravenous
antibiotics for 48 hours.
2. In late stages, patient is admitted in the
hospital for I/V antibiotics and observation for
any airway obstruction.
3. Wide bore needle aspiration is often
curative. It is carried out at a point where a
horizontal line drawn from the base of uvula
and a vertical line drawn from medial border
of anterior faucial pillar meet together.
4. Incision and drainage of the abscess under
local anesthesia is carried out if wide bore
aspiration fails or insufficient. It is done with
bistoury knife at the point mentioned above.
Efficient suction is carried out at the same
time. Even if pus is not formed, early
resolution of symptoms may be achieved with
Differential diagnosis:
1. Parapharyngeal abscess
2. Retropharyngeal abscess
3. Parapharyngeal tumor
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Peritonsillar abscess is also called
abscess
c. drained by external cervical approach
Q. 4. In peritonsillar abscess, pus lies
b. Masseter e. Temporalis
c. Medial pterygoid
Scenario A: An 18 years old male presented with severe sore throat and odynophagia for last
seven days. Pain was mostly confined to left side of throat and there was also difficulty in
opening the mouth. Throat examination revealed a rounded, reddish diffuse bulge in the left
supratonsillar region.
1. What is the most probable clinical diagnosis?
2. What usual complications are associated with this condition?
3. How will you manage this case?
B: A 35 years old patient presents with left sided sore throat, odynophagia and high-grade
fever for the last six days. Throat examination is difficult because of inability to open the
mouth. Left sided jugulodigastric lymph nodes are palpable and painful. CBC reveals
neutrophilia and ESR was 25 mm/hour.
1. What is the provisional diagnosis?
2. Mention three conditions included in differential diagnosis.
3. What usual complications are associated with this disease?
4. Give your plan to manage this case.
C: A 25 years old young boy presented with severe odynophagia for the last seven days,
associated with high-grade fever and drooling of saliva. Pain was mostly confined to left side
of the throat and there was also difficulty in opening the mouth. Throat examination revealed
a round, reddish bulge in the left supratonsillar region and further detailed examination is
not possible due to pain and trismus.
1. What is possible clinical diagnosis?
2. How would you manage this case?
3. What complications are associated with this condition?
--------------------------------------------------------ANSWERS-----------------------------------------------------
Q.1. d 2. a 3. e 4. d 5. e 6. e 7. e 8. c
Scenario A: 1. Peritonsillar abscess 2. Airway obstruction, parapharyngeal abscess 3. I.v
antibiotics, wide bore needle aspiration, incision and drainage.
B: 1. Peritonsillar abscess 2. Parapharyngeal abscess, retropharyngeal abscess,
parapharyngeal tumors 3. Airway obstruction, parapharyngeal abscess 4. Intravenous
332
antibiotics, wide bore needle aspiration, incision and drainage.
C: 1. Peritonsillar abscess 2. Intravenous antibiotics, wide bore needle aspiration, incision
and drainage 3. Airway obstruction, parapharyngeal abscess.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-
PARAPHARYNGEAL ABSCESS
Definition:
It is defined as suppurative infection of parapharyngeal space.
Etiopathology:
Infection in the parapharyngeal space may spread from;
1. Pharynx e.g., infection of tonsils, adenoids, peritonsillar abscess,
retropharyngeal abscess.
2. Teeth e.g., infection of lower last molar tooth.
3. Foreign body penetration
4. Ear e.g., petrositis
A case of parapharyngeal abscess
The abscess may occur at any age but is more frequent in
adolescents and adults.
Clinical features:
These are very similar to those of peritonsillar abscess.
1. History of causative factors is usually present.
2. Pain, odynophagia, dysphagia, dyspnea and trismus (because of
involvement of medial pterygoid muscle) are usual symptoms.
There is rise in body temperature between 101-102ºF.
CT of left
3. Difficulty in flexing and turning the neck. parapharyngeal
abscess
On examination;
1. Pharyngeal wall and tonsil pushed medially. The swelling is more inferiorly placed and
the soft palate is less edematous as compared to peritonsillar abscess.
2. Paralysis of 9th, 10th, 11th, 12th cranial nerves and cervical sympathetic chain.
3. There may be tender swelling on the side of neck behind the middle third of
sternomastoid muscle.
Complications:
1. Airway obstruction due to edema of larynx.
2. Spread of infection into other spaces of neck.
3. Spread of infection into the mediastinum.
4. Thrombosis of internal jugular vein.
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
333 Part D Oral Cavity and Pharynx
Differential diagnosis:
1. Acute epiglottitis
2. Peritonsillar abscess
3. Parapharyngeal abscess
B. Chronic retropharyngeal abscess:
Etiopathology:
It is usually caused by tuberculous infection. There are two types of retropharyngeal abscesses;
1. Tuberculous infection of the retropharyngeal lymph nodes due to spread of infection from
cervical lymph node. The abscess lies laterally in the space of Gillette.
2. Tuberculous caries of the cervical vertebrae, when the abscess lies centrally behind the
prevertebral fascia.
Clinical features:
This is usually slow in onset. It is usually seen in older children, adolescents and adults.
Local symptoms and signs may be minimal or absent.
1. There may be mild sore throat, slight dysphagia and cough.
2. The “cold” abscess is present in the posterior pharyngeal wall in the midline in cases of
spinal caries.
3. Enlarged painless lymph nodes may be present in the deep cervical chain.
Investigations:
X-ray neck lateral view shows similar findings are those for acute
retropharyngeal abscess. In addition, radiography may reveal calcification
in tuberculous lymph nodes or vertebral disease.
Treatment:
1. Incision of the abscess is made through neck, never through mouth.
The approach is made in front of sternomastoid muscle in the plane
between the carotid sheath and the visceral compartment of neck. If the abscess is highly
situated, it is better approached from behind the carotid sheath through an incision behind
the sternomastoid muscle.
2. Antituberculous chemotherapy must be given in preoperative and postoperative period.
3. Any spinal caries is managed by stabilization of spine otherwise neurological deficit
may occur.
Complications of retropharyngeal abscess:
1. Airway obstruction
2. Parapharyngeal abscess
3. Prevertebral abscess
4. Lemierre’s syndrome resulting in internal jugular vein thrombosis, septicemia and
septic emboli
5. Mycotic aneurysm of carotid artery
6. Carotid blow out with massive hemorrhage
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Retropharyngeal space lies
a. anterior to buccopharyngeal fascia d. posterior to prevertebral fascia
c. parapharyngeal abscess
Scenario: A 03 years old child presented with the history of dysphagia, dyspnea and high-
grade fever for last one week. On examination of throat, there is unilateral bulging of
posterior pharyngeal wall which is fluctuant.
1. What is the most probable clinical diagnosis?
2. What investigations will you carry out?
3. How will you treat this patient?
ANSWERS--------------------------------------
-------------------------------------------------------- ---------------
Q.1. b 2. d 3. d 4. c 5. e
6. d 7. b 8. e 9. b 10. e
Scenario: 1. Acute retropharyngeal abscess 2. X-ray soft tissue neck lateral view 3. Incision
and drainage, antibiotics.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-
TUMORS OF ORAL CAVITY, OROPHARYNX AND
HYPOPHARYNX
TUMORS OF ORAL CAVITY
Tumors of oral cavity may be divided into:
A. Benign tumors
B. Malignant tumors
A. Benign tumors:
The common benign tumors of mouth are;
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
339 Part D Oral Cavity and Pharynx
1. Biopsy under local anesthesia is taken. It determines not only the type of carcinoma but
also its degree of differentiation (well differentiated, moderately differentiated or poorly
differentiated).
2. CT shows exact extent of the tumor and site, size, number and level of lymph node
involvement.
3. OPG (orthopantomogram) shows evidence of bony invasion.
4. Panendoscopy: (oropharyngoscopy, hypopharyngoscopy, laryngoscopy,
tracheobronchoscopy, esophagoscopy and nasopharyngoscopy) under general
anaesthesia. Malignancies of head and neck region are usually multiple. These are
associated with malignancy elsewhere in the body. This second malignancy is known as
second primary. The second primary may exist simultaneously (known as synchronous)
or may occur later (known as metachronous) with the first primary. The incidence of
second primary is again highest in the head and neck region. So panendoscopy is
performed to rule out or find out second primary.
5. Radionucleotide scanning of the bone and liver is used to exclude metastasis.
6. Staining with toluidine blue leads to uptake of the dye by the carcinoma.
If neck nodes are present, surgery should be used as a first line of treatment.
2. Surgery:
For T3 and T4 lesions, radical surgery is usually done.
Standard procedures for oral cancer are partial or total glossectomy and mandibulectomy.
Dissection of the mandible with adjacent floor of the mouth is called the “commando
operation” (Combined dissection of the neck, Mandibulectomy and Oropharyngeal
resection).
In majority of cases of squamous cell carcinoma of oral cavity, a combination of surgery
and radiotherapy is required.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Premalignant lesions of the oral cavity include all except
a. erythroplakia d. leukoerythroplakia
b. lip e. tongue
c. nasopharynx
Q. 5. The most common site of tongue cancer is
a. base of the tongue d. tip of the tongue
c. lateral border
Q. 6. Clinical feature of oral cancer
a. discomfort on eating spicy food d. white/red patch on oral mucosa
c. trismus
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
342 Part D Oral Cavity and Pharynx
Q. 7. Investigation of oral cancer includes
a. biopsy d. panendoscopy
c. gentian violet
-------------------------------------------------------- ANSWERS-----------------------------------------------------
Q.1. b 2. c 3. e 4. a
5. c 6. e 7. e 8. e
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
TUMORS OF OROPHARYNX
The oropharynx is that part of pharynx which extends from the hard palate above to the hyoid
bone below. Oropharynx is further subdivided into palatine arch and oropharynx proper.
Etiopathology:
1. Smoking and alcohol are known etiological factors.
2. Human papilloma virus (HPV) due to orogenital sex is a new known
factor. Oropharyngeal tumors may arise from;
1. A lining of squamous epithelium which may give rise to squamous cell carcinoma. It is
the most common malignancy of oropharynx.
2. Tonsils and collection of minor lymphoid tissue on the base of the tongue, which may
give rise to lymphoma and lymphoepithelioma.
3. Collection of minor salivary glands, which may give rise to salivary gland tumors.
Clinical features:
1. Sore throat, dysphagia and odynophagia are common presentations.
2. Change of voice, (hot potato voice) and referred earache.
On examination of oropharynx;
1. Lesion may be exophytic or ulcerative. Exophytic type spreads superficially and the
ulcerative type infiltrates deeply.
2. On palpation the lesion is indurated.
3. Cervical lymph node enlargement is found in 50 % cases.
Investigations:
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
343 Part D Oral Cavity and Pharynx
1. CT shows exact extent of the tumor and site, size, number and level of lymph node
involvement.
2. Panendoscopy (oropharyngoscopy, hypopharyngoscopy, laryngoscopy,
tracheobronchoscopy, esophagoscopy and nasopharyngoscopy) under general
anaesthesia.
3. Biopsy under general anesthesia is done to confirm the diagnosis and to find out
extension of the disease into surrounding structures.
c. smoking
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
344 Part D Oral Cavity and Pharynx
Q. 2. The most common benign neoplasm of tonsil is
a. fibroma d. neuroma
b. haemangioma e. papilloma
c. neurofibroma
Q. 3. The most common malignancy of tonsil is
a. adenocarcinoma d. rhabdomyosarcoma
c. referred earache
-------------------------------------------------------- ANSWERS-----------------------------------------------------
Q.1. d 2. e 3. e 4. e
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
TUMORS OF HYPOPHARYNX
Hypopharynx is also known as laryngopharynx. It extends from the level of the hyoid bone
to the lower border of the cricoid cartilage. Anatomically it is divided into three sites.
According to UICC classification these sites are; (remember three Ps)
1. Posterior pharyngeal wall; It extends from the level of the floor of the valeculla to the
level of the cricoarytenoid joint.
2. Pyriform fossa/sinus; It extends from the pharyngoepiglottic fold to the upper end of
the esophagus.
3. Postcricoid area; It extends from the level of the arytenoid cartilage to the inferior
border of the cricoid cartilage.
Etiopathology:
Benign tumors of hypopharynx are very rare. These include fibrolipoma and leiomyoma.
These are removed by lateral pharyngotomy approach.
The most common malignant tumor of hypopharynx is squamous cell carcinoma.
1. Smoking and alcohol are known etiological factors.
2. Human papilloma virus (HPV) due to orogenital sex is a new known factor. But is
thought to play less role than in oropharynx. Malignancy of hypopharynx is common in
the 5th to 6th decade.
Clinical features:
1. Dysphagia or odynophagia are common presentations.
2. Dysphonia or dyspnea occur due to involvement of larynx.
3. There may be referred earache. There may also be complaint of weight loss.
On examination there may be:
1. Exophytic, fungating lesion in the region of hypopharynx with indirect laryngoscopic
mirror.
2. Fixation of the vocal cords or pooling of saliva in the pyriform sinuses is an important
sign which may indicate postcricoid carcinoma.
3. Laryngeal crepitus is absent in the postcricoid tumors.
4. Widening of laryngeal framework may be felt in advanced postcricoid carcinoma.
5. Cervical lymph node enlargement
Investigations:
1. CT/MRI shows the exact extension of the tumor and its relation to the neighbouring
structures. It may also indicate the site, size, number and level of lymph node involvement.
2. Panendoscopy under general anaesthesia is extremely important to find out the vertical
and horizontal extent of the disease. It is also useful in finding out second primary.
3. Biopsy is the last but not the least important part of endoscopy.
Classification of primary tumor (T) of hypopharynx
T1 Tumor < 2 cm and limited to one subsite of hypopharynx
T2 Tumor > 2 cm but < than 4 cm or invades more than one subsite of
hypopharynx or an adjacent site
T3 Tumor > 4 cm or with fixation of hemilarynx
T4 Tumor with extension to bone, muscle, skin, etc.
TX The minimum requirements to assess the tumor cannot be met
Classification of neck node metastasis (N), distant metastasis (M) and TNM
classification is almost the same as that for carcinoma of larynx
Treatment:
Clinical features:
1. Usually there is preceding history of dental pain.
2. Pain, salivation and trismus are common
presentations. On examination; Left sided
Ludwig’s angina
1. When infection is in the submaxillary space, there is swelling of upper
part of neck giving a ‘bull neck’ appearance.
2. When infection is in the sublingual space, the floor of mouth become swollen and may
rise to the level of biting edge of teeth. Tongue is pushed upwards.
3. On palpation swelling is tender and hard.
Investigations:
1. OPG (orthopantomogram) is carried out to find out causative diseased tooth.
2. Pus for culture and sensitivity. If there is discharge of pus, it should be sent for
culture and sensitivity.
3. CT/MRI is carried out if complications of Ludwig’s angina are suspected.
Treatment:
1. Admission in hospital and observation for airway obstruction.
2. Parenteral antibiotics are started.
3. Incision and drainage are carried out if there is no response to antibiotics for 24-48
hours or if fluctuation is present.
If infection is localized to sublingual space it is carried through intraoral incision. If
infection is localized to submaxillary space it is carried through neck crease incision
under local anesthesia.
4. Causative tooth should get proper attention by dental surgeon.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Space primarily involved in Ludwig’s angina includes
a. danger area of face b. parapharyngeal space
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
348 Part D Oral Cavity and Pharynx
Investigations:
Diagnosis is usually made on clinical grounds. In doubtful cases smear for Fusiform bacilli
and Spirochetes (Borrelia vincentii) is diagnostic.
Treatment:
1. Oral antibiotics including metronidazole are given.
2. Strong analgesics are given to relieve pain.
3. Irrigation and debridement of necrotic area, improvement of orodental hygiene and use
of oral rinse.
4. Underlying predisposing cause must be addressed.
Prognosis:
If untreated then infection may lead to rapid destruction of periodentum and can spread as
necrotizing stomatitis or cancrum oris (Noma).
It is especially dangerous in people with immunosuppression. It can spread to
neighbouring tissues in teeth, lips and bones of the jaw.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Vincent’s angina is also called
a. acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis d. both a & b
Q.1. e 2. e 3. e 4. e 5. a
Scenario: 1. Vincent’s angina 2. Apthous ulcer, traumatic ulceration 3. Oral antibiotics,
analgesics, irrigation and debridement.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
RANULA
Definition:
It is a uni or multilocular mucous filled cyst in the floor of mouth on one side of frenulum.
The term ranula is derived from a Latin word “rana” which means “belly of a small frog’’.
Etiopathology:
It is considered to arise from sublingual salivary gland due to obstruction of its duct. It is of
two types;
1. Simple ranula: It is limited to floor of mouth.
2. Plunging or burrowing ranula: It extends through the mylohyoid
muscle and presents as a swelling in neck as well.
Investigations:
Ultrasound/CT/MRI may be required rarely to find out exact extent of ranula.
Treatment:
1. Simple ranula is often treated by complete excision of ranula along with sublingual
gland through an intraoral incision.
2. Plunging ranula is treated by marsupialization of ranula along with excision of the
sublingual gland.
As the ranula is very thin walled, it is difficult to excise it completely. So incomplete removal
may lead to recurrence.
Differential diagnosis:
1. Benign lymphoepithelial cyst
2. Dermoids
SELF ASSESSMENT
352 Part D Oral Cavity and Pharynx
Q. 1. A bluish cystic translucent swelling in the floor of mouth on one side of frenulum is
a. calculus in submandibular duct d. mucocele
b. dermoid cyst e. ranula
c. epidermoid cyst
Q. 2. All are true about ranula except
a. plunging ranula presents as swelling in mouth
the upper part of neck d. treated by intraoral incision
b. presents as bluish cystic swelling e. usually presents in center of floor of
c. simple ranula is limited to floor of mouth
Q. 3. All are treatments of ranula except
a. combined with excision of sublingual c. incomplete removal may lead to re-
gland currence.
b. combined with excision of submandib- d. plunging ranula is marsupialized
ular gland e. simple ranula is excised
Scenario: A 15 years old boy presents to you with progressive, cystic, bluish swelling on one
side of floor of mouth for last 06 months.
1. What is the most probable clinical diagnosis?
2. What is the differential diagnosis?
3. How will you manage this patient?
--------------------------------------------------------ANSWERS-----------------------------------------------------
-
Q.1. e 2. e 3. b
Scenario: 1. Ranula 2. Benign lypmhoepithelial cyst, dermoids 3. Excision if simple ranula
and marsupialization if plunging ranula.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
SUBMUCOUS FIBROSIS (SMF)
Definition:
It is deposition of fibrous tissue in the submucosal space of the oral cavity and pharynx.
Etiopathology:
It is found usually in poor socioeconomic people.
1. Betel nut, pan, gutka or tobacco chewing are major causative
agents.
2. Smoking and alcohol are also contributing factors.
3. Anemia, vitamin A, zinc and certain micronutrient
deficiencies may also be causative factors.
A case of submucosis fibrosis
353
Subepithelial inflammatory response to the irritants is presumed to be the cause of
submucous fibrosis. There is formation of fibroelastic connective tissue in the lamina propria
associated with atrophy of epithelium.
Patient usually presents between third and fourth decade of life. It is a pre-malignant
condition with a tendency to undergo malignant change in 3-6% of cases.
Clinical features:
1. There is complaint of progressive sore mouth, intolerance to chillies and spices.
2. In late cases there may be inability to open the mouth (trismus) and protrude the
tongue.
On examination;
1. There is trismus and blanching of oral mucosa.
2. There are fibrous bands over the soft palate, buccal mucosa and faucial pillars.
Staging:
There are following stages of submucous fibrosis.
1. Burning sensation in mouth
2. Limitation of jaw movements
Sequelae of limitation of jaw
movements:
A. Poor orodental hygiene
B. Emaciation
C. Limitation of palatal movement which may lead to;
a. Nasal regurgitation of fluids.
b. Otitis media with effusion (conductive hearing loss, earache and tinnitus).
Treatment:
A. Conservative:
1. Removal of underlying factors. Betel nut, pan, gutka, tobacco chewing, smoking
and alcohol should be avoided.
2. Correction of anemia, vitamin, zinc and nutritional deficiencies.
3. Topical steroid injections into the affected site at a dose of 4 mg biweekly for 8 to
12 weeks may show some improvement. It may be combined with hylase injections
1500 IU/ml.
4. Antioxidants are given for a long time.
5. Physiotherapy of jaw should be encouraged.
B. Surgical:
354 Part D Oral Cavity and Pharynx
c. laser excision
Scenario: A 45 years old female visited OPD for the treatment of burning sensation in throat
and trismus for the last two years. She has a habit of pan chewing and alcohol consumption.
Oral cavity examination reveals poor orodental hygiene and whitish oral cavity mucosa in
the vestibule.
1. What is the patient pathologically suffering from?
2. Enumerate four predisposing factors in this patient.
3. What is the pathological significance of this condition?
4. How will you manage this case?
-------------------------------------------------------- ANSWERS-----------------------------------------------------
Q.1. c 2. a 3. d 4. e 5. e
6. e 7. b
Scenario: 1. Submucous fibrosis 2. Betel nut, pan, gutka, smoking, alcohol, vitamins, anemia,
zinc and nutritional deficiencies 3. It is premalignant condition 4. Removal of underlying
factors, correction of anemia, vitamins, zinc, topical steroid injection. Surgical removal of
fibrous tissue and grafting, laser treatment.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-
GLOBUS PHARYNGEUS
Synonyms: Globus pharyngis, Globus hystericus, Globus syndrome
Definition:
It is a feeling of a lump or tightness in the throat. Latin “Globus” means a Sensation of
ball. It is a functional disorder. lump in throat
Clinical features:
Patient is usually young or middle-aged female. Patient presents with a sensation of lump in
the throat or intermittent (pseudo) dysphagia. The dysphagia is between the meals and
there is no dysphagia during meal.
Generally, history of anxiety, stress from any source such as family, social, employment,
education, social or psychological is positive.
Clinical examination is unremarkable.
Investigations:
Diagnosis is made on high index of suspicion and by exclusion of other causes of dysphagia.
Radiological and endoscopic findings are unremarkable.
Treatment:
Treatment is directed towards reassurance, alleviation of anxiety and relaxation training.
Differential diagnosis:
1. Cricopharyngeal spasm
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
356 Part D Oral Cavity and Pharynx
2. Pharyngeal pouch
3. Postcricoid carcinoma
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Globus pharyngeus is also called
c. relaxation training
Scenario: A 45 years old female presented with the history of intermittent dysphagia and
feeling of lump in the neck for last 06 months. On examination and investigation, no
abnormality is present;
1. What is the most probable clinical diagnosis?
2. How will you treat this patient?
-------------------------------------------------------- ANSWERS-----------------------------------------------------
Q.1. d 2. a 3. b 4.d
Scenario: 1. Globus pharyngeus 2. Treatment is directed towards reassurance, alleviation of
anxiety and relaxation training.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
PARAPHARYNGEAL SPACE
Synonyms: Pterygomaxillary space, Lateral pharyngeal
space, Pharyngomaxillary space
Anatomy:
357 Part D Oral Cavity and Pharynx
Parapharyngeal space is roughly in the shape of a “five-sided inverted pyramid” with base
towards sphenoid bone and apex towards lesser horn of hyoid bone.
Relations of the space are;
1. Anteriorly----- --pterygoid muscles
2. Posteriorly---- --cervical spine covered by prevertebral muscles and fascia
3. Medially-------- --pharynx with tonsillar fossa inferiorly and eustachian tube superiorly
4. Laterally-------- --ascending ramus of mandible
5. Posterolaterally---deep lobe of parotid gland
Parapharyngeal space is divided into anterior (pre-styloid) and posterior (post-styloid)
compartments by styloid process and three muscles and two tendons attached to it (Riolan’s
bouquet).
Almost all the important structures i.e., internal carotid artery, internal jugular vein, last
four cranial nerves and cervical sympathetic chain lie in post-styloid compartment.
Parapharyngeal space is connected with retropharyngeal space in an area just medial to
carotid sheath.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Parapharyngeal space is also called
c. vagus nerve
-------------------------------------------------------- ANSWERS-----------------------------------------------------
Q.1. d 2. b 3. d
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-
These may also be seen intraorally displacing the tonsil, lateral pharyngeal wall and soft
palate medially.
Sources of parapharyngeal space tumors;
1. Originate from various types of cells and tissues present in this space.
2. By direct extension of tumor arising from various surrounding structures.
3. Through lymphogenous and hematogenous spread.
Types of parapharyngeal space tumors;
1. Salivary gland tumors----------50%
2. Neurogenic tumors-------------30%
3. Variety of the other tumors---20%
A. Salivary gland tumors:
There are two types of salivary gland tumors in the parapharyngeal space:
1. Which arise de-novo from salivary gland tissue in the parapharyngeal space.
2. Parotid tumors which arise from deep lobe of the parotid gland.
B. Neurogenic tumors:
1. Nerve sheath tumors:
a. Schwannoma:
All peripheral sensory and motor axons are covered by schwan cells. Tumor arising
from these cells is called schwannoma. This is the most common neurogenic tumor in
parapharyngeal space. This tumor is capsulated. This is usually solitary and is seen
in relation to nerve trunks. This can readily be dissected from the nerve of origin,
most often the vagus nerve. Axons are found in the capsule and not within the bulk of
the tumor.
b. Neurofibroma:
Neurofibromas arise from schwan cells and the perineural fibroblasts. These tumors
are unencapsulated. These are usually multiple. These encompass the nerve of
origin and virtually it is impossible to dissect out the tumor without sacrificing the
nerve of origin.
c. Malignant schwannoma:
This is a malignant tumor of nerve sheath origin which infiltrates locally and also
metastasize.
2. Malignant gangliomata
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. The most common primary parapharyngeal tumor is
a. neurofibroma d. schwannoma
b. nerves e. vessels
c. squamous epithelium
Q. 3. Usual clinical feature of parapharyngeal space tumor includes
a. dysphagia d. lump on the side of upper part of
b. hearing loss neck
c. Horner’s syndrome e. All of the above
Q. 4. A parapharyngeal mass displacing the tonsil and tonsillar fossa medially with
pulsations on intraoral palpation is due to
a. Hodgkin’s lymphoma d. pleomorphic adenoma
c. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
Scenario: A 55 years old male presented in ENT OPD with the history of chronic sore throat,
speech defects and dysphagia for last 01 year. He is also having hard and fixed swelling at
level III with 9th, 10th, 11th and 12th cranial nerve palsy.
1. What is the most probable diagnosis?
2. What investigations will you carry out?
3. How will you manage this patient?
ANSWERS-----------------------------------------------
-------------------------------------------------------- ------
Q.1. c 2. d 3. e 4.b
Scenario: 1. Parapharyngeal space tumor 2. CT/MRI, FNAC 3. Surgery, chemotherapy or
radiotherapy depending upon histopathology.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-
SLEEP APNEA SYNDROME
Definition:
It is defined as 30 apneic spells (each spell lasting for at least 10 seconds or more) during a
period of 7 hours sleep.
361 Part D Oral Cavity and Pharynx
Etiopathology:
Sleep apnea syndrome may be central,
obstructive or mixed.
A. Central sleep apnea syndrome:
It occurs due to a failure of respiratory
drive.
B. Obstructive Sleep Apnea
Syndrome (OSAS):
It occurs due to the obstruction of upper
respiratory passages.
C. Mixed sleep apnea syndrome:
In it both the central and mixed causes are present.
Clinical features:
1. Patient presents with periods of apnea during sleep.
2. Sleep is completely restless.
3. There is loud snoring. It is to be remembered that all patients with OSAS snore heavily
but not all snorers have OSAS.
4. During sleep there is kicking of legs, slapping of arms and choking.
5. There is early morning headache, irritability and daytime somnolence. There is also lack
of concentration and memory.
6. On examination, there may be obesity, nasal polypi, antrochoanal polypi, DNS,
adenoids, enlarged tonsils, lax soft palate/uvula, nasopharyngeal tumor, retrognathia or
macroglossia.
Pickwickian syndrome is a typical example of OSAS. This is a squat obese individual with
a short fat neck who snores heavily with increasing respiratory effort until prolonged apnoeic
episodes occur with cyanosis. The patient then begins to breath again with semi-arousal only
to drift back into sleep and a further apnoeic episode. This disturbed sleep with oxygen
desaturation leads to daytime somnolence such that individual is falling off to sleep during
daytime. The patient develops right sided heart failure.
Complications:
In untreated cases of OSAS, there may be hypertension, type II diabetes, cardiac arrythmias,
angina pectoris, myocardial infarction, cerebrovascular accidents, or cor pulmonale.
Excessive daytime somnolence can lead to higher incidence of road traffic accidents (RTA).
Investigations:
These highly depend on the findings of history and examination.
1. These may simply include sinus and chest X-rays and pulmonary function tests.
2. Polysomnography in a sleep laboratory i.e., ECG, EEG (electroencephalogram), EOG
(electrooculogram), EMG (electromyogram), record of chest and abdominal respiratory
movements, nasal and oral airflow, pulse oximetry, recording of body movements with a
vibration transducer and tape recording of snoring.
3. In an awake patient, Muller’s maneuver may be performed. In this flexible
nasopharyngoscope is passed to the postnasal space and the patient is instructed to
attempt a snore with the mouth closed. With this maneuver the principal site of
obstruction can be seen directly.
4. Drug induced sedation endoscopy (DISE) is useful in evaluating the exact site and
extent of upper airway obstruction.
5. Cephalometry with CT/MRI may be used to evaluate upper airway.
Treatment:
A. Conservative:
1. Weight reduction
2. Avoidance of sedatives, hypnotics, smoking, alcohol and high altitude.
3. Prosthesis of different types may be used during sleep to relieve the site of
obstruction in obstructive sleep apnea syndrome (OSAS).
4. CPAP (Continuous Positive Airway Pressure) is very effective for the management
of OSAS.
5. APAP (Autotitrating PAP) is now available which continuously adjusts the pressure.
6. Drugs like tricyclic antidepressants, L-tryptophan and medroxyprogesterone are
given in central sleep apnea.
B. Surgical:
1. Surgical procedures such as
septoplasty, polypectomy, adenoidectomy,
tonsillectomy, UvuloPlatoPharyngoPlasty (UP3),
mandibular advancement, genial tubercle
advancement, hyoid suspension, hyoid expansion
or base of tongue resection to relieve obstruction.
2. Tracheostomy rarely may be the only
method to relieve obstructive sleep apnea
syndrome.
SELF ASSESSMENT Uvuloplatopharyngoplasty
b. 22 e. 44
c. 26
363 Part D Oral Cavity and Pharynx
Q. 2. Total duration of each apnoeic spells in OSAS is
a. at least 04 seconds d. at least 10 seconds
b. ECoG e. EOG
c. EEG
Q. 9. All of the following are conservative managements of OSAS except
a. avoidance of alcohol d. smoking
c. obesity
Scenario: A 40 years old male presented in ENT OPD with the complaint of disturbed sleep
and daytime somnolence for last 05 years. His wife added that he has loud snoring and apnea
for which she needs to wake him up sometimes.
1. What is the most probable clinical diagnosis?
2. What are the usual causes of this condition?
3. How will you treat this patient?
---------------------------------------------- ANSWERS--------------------------------------------
---------- ---------
Q.1. d 2. d 3. d 4. b 5. e 6. c 7. c
8. b 9. d 10. c 11. b 12. a 13. b
Scenario: 1. Obstructive sleep apnea 2. Obstruction of upper airway 3. Conservative and
surgical treatment.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-
PHARYNGEAL POUCH
Synonyms: Zenker’s diverticulum, Posterior pharyngeal
pulsion diverticulum, Hypopharyngeal diverticulum
Definition:
Anatomy of pharyngeal
In this condition, pharyngeal mucosa (outpouching of epithelium pouch
and lamina propria) herniates through Killian’s dehiscence (also
known as ‘gateway of tears’).
Etiopathology:
Inferior constrictor muscle has two parts thyropharyngeus and cricopharyngeus. Killian’s
dehiscence is a weak area between the two. Exact cause of pharyngeal pouch is unknown.
365 Part D Oral Cavity and Pharynx
Clinical features:
1. Dysphagia which appears after a few initial boluses is the most common presentation.
The pouch gets filled with food and causes pressure on the esophagus leading to
dysphagia.
2. Gurgling sound during swallowing is sometimes noticed by patient.
3. At night when the patient is lying, undigested food may regurgitate leading to coughing,
choking and hoarseness.
4. There may be complaint of foul taste in mouth due to prolonged retention of undigested
food.
5. There may be complaint of weight loss due to prolonged dysphagia.
On examination;
1. Patient is usually emaciated.
2. There may be swelling in neck usually on left side in the lower part of anterior triangle.
3. Swelling is usually soft and reducible. It may gurgle on palpation and is known as
Boyce’s sign.
4. Spasm of coughing may be caused during palpation due to spillage of contents into the
larynx.
Investigations:
History and examination are usually diagnostic.
1. Plain X-ray soft tissue neck lateral view may show
triangular translucency in prevertebral soft tissues.
Apex of the triangle is at cricoid level while base of the
translucent triangle has a meniscus due to fluid in the
fundus of the sac with air above it.
2. Barium swallow with fluoroscopy usually confirms
the sac and its size. The sac gives the classic ‘pear
Zenker’s diverticulum with barium
shape’ appearance. swallow
3. Esophagoscopy may be required not only for diagnosis
but also, to rule out suspected carcinoma of the diverticulum.
Treatment:
366 Part D Oral Cavity and Pharynx
A small pouch with minimal symptoms may not require any intervention.
1. Diverticulectomy i.e., excision of the pouch and cricopharyngeal myotomy through a
neck incision.
2. Dohlman’s operation: The wall between the esophagus and the pouch is divided either
by diathermy or carbon dioxide laser using special endoscopic equipments.
The excised pouch should be sent for histopathological examination to rule out malignancy.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Pharyngeal pouch is also called
a. hypopharyngeal diverticulum c. Zenker’s diverticulum
b. posterior pharyngeal pulsion divertic- d. all of the above
ulum e. none of the above
Q. 2. Which statement is true about Killian’s dehiscence?
a. also called Lamer-Hackermann area d. lies between esophageal muscle
b. area of weakness below superior con- fibers
strictor muscle e. lies between thyropharyngeus and
c. causes laryngocele cricopharyngeus
Q. 3. All are usual clinical features of pharyngeal pouch except
a. dysphagia which appears after a few triangle
boluses d. swelling may gurgle on palpation
b. foul taste in mouth e. swelling is irreducible
c. swelling in lower part of left anterior
Q. 4. All are true about pharyngeal pouch except
a. Boyce’s sign is positive d. Heller’s myotomy may be performed
b. barium swallow shows pear shaped for its treatment
appearance e. treatment is done with excision of
c. Dohlman’s operation may be per- pouch
formed for its treatment
Q. 5. All of the following statements about Zenker’s diverticulum are correct except
a. arises from posterior part of hypo- c. traction diverticulum
pharynx
d. treated by cricopharyngeal myotomy
Scenario: A 38 years old male presented with complain of dysphagia after 2 to 3 bites of
food and regurgitation of undigested food at night time. The symptom is lasting for several
years. He is also having chest infection.
1. What is the most probable diagnosis?
367 Part D Oral Cavity and Pharynx
2. What are the positive findings on radiological investigations?
3. How will you treat this patient?
ANSWERS--------------------------------------------
-------------------------------------------------------- ---------
Q.1. d 2. e 3. e 4. d 5. b
Scenario: 1. Pharyngeal pouch 2. Triangular translucency in prevertebral soft tissues on X-
ray and on barium swallow with fluoroscopy ‘pear shape’ appearance 3. Diverticulectomy
and Dohlman’s procedure.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-
c. serum and urine amylase levels are e. unilateral parotid is usually affected
Q. 2. Usual complications that can occur with mumps include all except
a. conjuctivitis d. pancreatitis
c. meningitis
Q. 3. Treatment of choice in mumps is
c. broad-spectrum antibiotics
Scenario: A 04 years old child presented in ENT OPD with parotid swelling, high-grade
fever and malaise for past 05 days. On examination of swelling, severe tenderness is present.
Investigations shows raised levels of serum and urinary amylase and serum IgG and IgM.
1. What is your diagnosis?
2. What investigations will you carry out?
3. How will you treat this patient?
-------------------------------------------------------- ANSWERS-----------------------------------------------------
Q.1. d 2. a 3. a
Scenario: 1. Mumps 2. Serum and urinary amylase, serum IgG and IgM 3. Conservative with
analgesics.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-
ACUTE SUPPURATIVE PAROTITIS
Etiopathology:
The most common causative organism is Staphylococcus aureus but other gram-positive
anaerobic organisms may also be seen. It is most commonly seen in elderly, debilitated and
dehydrated patients. Infection usually travels from the oral cavity through the parotid duct. It
may involve parotid gland as well as sublingual salivary gland.
369
Clinical features:
1. Severe pain and enlargement of the parotid gland are usual symptoms.
2. On palpation parotid gland is tender.
A case of acute
3. Opening of the parotid duct (Stensen’s duct) is swollen and red.
suppurative
4. Gentle pressure on the parotid gland expresses pus from the opening of parotitis
parotid duct.
5. Patient is usually toxic.
Investigations:
1. Microscopy, culture and sensitivity of pus collected from the opening of parotid duct.
Treatment:
1. Parenteral antibiotics along with adequate hydration are given.
2. Surgical drainage is carried out if there is collection of pus.
3. Good oral hygiene is advised.
4. Sialogogues are prescribed to promote salivation.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Scenario: A 30 years old man presented in ENT OPD with the complains of severe pain and
swelling in parotid region for last few days. On examination, he looks toxic, has swelling with
tenderness of parotid region and oral cavity examination shows pus coming from parotid
duct on pressing the parotid gland. TLC count is raised with elevated neutrophils.
1. What is your clinical diagnosis?
2. How will you investigate this case?
3. What are the treatment options in this patient?
--------------------------------------------------------ANSWERS-----------------------------------------------------
Scenario: 1. Acute suppurative parotitis 2. Microscopy, culture and sensitivity of pus, TLC
3. Antibiotics, surgical drainage, oral hygiene is improved, sialogogues are prescribed.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Etiopathology:
It is usually due to infection with Staphylococci and Streptococci.
Clinical features:
During acute episode, salivary gland (parotid or submandibular) is enlarged and tender. Pus
can be expressed from the duct of the gland. Between the acute episode, gland is firm and
slightly enlarged. Sialography shows normal duct system.
Treatment:
Acute episode is treated similar to acute bacterial sialadenitis. Between the episodes, patient
is advised to observe good oral hygiene. Sialogogues are prescribed to promote salivation.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Scenario: A 25 years old male presented to ENT OPD with the complaint of recurrent
swelling of parotid gland for last 06 months. On examination, pus is coming from duct on
pressing the gland and gland is soft to firm in consistency. Sialography shows normal duct
system.
1. What is your most probable diagnosis?
2. What is your treatment plan?
--------------------------------------------------------ANSWERS-----------------------------------------------------
Scenario: 1. Chronic recurrent sialadenitis 2. Acute episode is treated similar to acute
bacterial sialadenitis. Between the episodes, patient is advised to observe good oral hygiene,
sialogogues to promote salivation.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
SIALECTASIS
Definition:
It is defined as dilatation of the duct system of salivary gland leading to stasis of secretions.
Etiopathology:
It is a chronic condition of major salivary gland. Sialectasis is comparable to bronchiectasis
where there is disintegration and necrosis. It results in formation of cellular debris which
causes obstruction, stenosis and dilatation of ducts along with stasis and cyst formation. This
stasis predisposes to infection. There may also be formation of salivary calculi.
Clinically sialectasis resembles chronic recurrent sialadenitis but it can be differentiated
from it by sialography which may indicate dilatation of the duct system. Causes of
sialectasis may be;
A. Granulomatous diseases
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
371 Part D Oral Cavity and Pharynx
Etiopathology:
It is an autoimmune disease involving exocrine glands of body. The disease is found in all age
groups but mostly affects between the ages of 40 and 60 years. Male to female ratio is 1:9.
It is classified as:
1. Primary Sjogren’s syndrome (also known as sicca complex or Mikulikz disease); It
consists only of xerostomia and xerophthalmia.
2. Secondary Sjogren’s syndrome; It consists of xerostomia,
xerophthalmia and a connective tissue disorder usually rheu-
matoid arthritis.
Risk of developing non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma in Sjogren’s
syndrome is 1 in 6. Clinical features of
Clinical features: Sjogren’s syndrome
It is a multisystem disorder which primarily affects oral cavity, the eyes and the salivary
glands.
1. Oral symptoms include dry mouth leading to stomatitis, glossitis, oral candidiasis and
subsequent dental caries.
2. Eye symptoms are keratoconjunctivitis sicca; foreign body sensation in the eye, burning,
redness, photosensitivity and inability to tolerate contact lenses.
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
372 Part D Oral Cavity and Pharynx
duct or gland.
3. Stone may be visible in the submandibular duct opening occasionally.
Investigations:
1. Plain X-ray. Eighty percent of the salivary stones are radiopaque;
hence, visible on plain X-ray.
2. Sialography and ultrasonography may be required for radiolucent
stones.
Plain X-ray showing
Treatment: sialolithiasis
1. Stones in the peripheral duct system are removed intraorally by
incision and marsupialization of the duct.
2. Stones in the proximal duct and parenchyma require excision of the affected gland.
3. Recently sialendoscopic lithotripsy is being used.
Differential diagnosis:
1. Sialadenitis
2. Sialactasis
3. Tumor of salivary gland.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. The percentage of salivary calculi seen in submandibular gland is
a. 10% d. 70%
b. 30% e. 90%
c. 50%
Q. 2. The percentage of radiolucent calculi in the salivary glands is
a. 10% d. 40%
b. 20% e. 50%
c. 30%
Q. 3. All are usual clinical features of sialolithiasis except
a. submandibular duct stone may be visible d. submandibular swelling subsides after
some time
b. submandibular gland swells up during e. 80% of the submandibular stones are
eating and drinking not visible on plain X-ray
c. submandibular stone may be palpable by
bidigitally
B. Malignant tumors
a. Carcinomas:
1. Adenoid cystic carcinoma (cylindroma):
It is the most common malignant tumor of salivary glands especially in adults. It is more
common in minor than in major salivary gland. It grows slowly and has a characteristic
tendency for perineural infiltration. The most common presenting feature is pain and
swelling. There may also be complaint of paralysis of the adjacent nerves e.g., facial
paralysis in parotid gland tumor. Incidence of lymph node involvement is 20%.
Treatment is widest possible excision followed by radiotherapy.
2. Adenocarcinoma:
Adenocarcinoma is relatively uncommon tumor. Presentation and management are similar to
that of adenoid cystic carcinoma.
3. Carcinoma ex pleomorphic adenoma:
Rarely carcinoma may arise from preexisting pleomorphic adenoma. This is called
carcinoma ex pleomorphic adenoma.
b. Mucoepidermoid tumor:
It is the most common salivary malignancy in childhood but the second most common
salivary malignancy over all. It grows slowly and recurs locally. Treatment is surgical
resection followed by radiotherapy.
Investigations of salivary gland tumors:
1. FNAC (Fine Needle Aspiration Cytology)
2. Frozen section histopathology
3. CT/MRI are the mainstays of investigation for salivary gland tumors.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. The most common malignant tumor of salivary gland in adults is
a. acinic cell carcinoma b. adenoid cystic carcinoma
379 Part D Oral Cavity and Pharynx
XEROSTOMIA
Synonym: Dry mouth syndrome
Definition:
It is an excessive dryness of mouth.
Etiopathology:
It is caused by;
1. Drugs e.g., antihistamines, anticholinergics, tricyclic
antidepressants, diuretics and benzodiazepines.
A case of xerostomia
2. Mouth breathing due to nasal obstruction.
3. Certain general conditions e.g., diabetes insipidus, uremia and Sjogren’s syndrome.
380 Part D Oral Cavity and Pharynx
c. mouth breathing
------------------------------------------------
-------- ANSWERS-----------------------------------------------------
Q.1. b 2. b
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
PTYALISM
Synonyms: Sialorrhea, Drooling, Hypersalivation, Hypersialia
a. drooling d. sialorrhea
c. hypersialia
b. 1000 ml e. 2500 ml
c. 1500 ml
Q. 3. Excessive salivation occurs in all except
a. inflammations of pharynx d. peritonsillar abscess
PART E
LARYNX
Chapter 13
DISEASES OF LARYNX
CONGENITAL ANOMALIES OF LARYNX
LARYNGOMALACIA
Definition:
It is a congenital malformation of the larynx associated with excessive softening of skeletal
framework of larynx.
Etiopathology:
It is the most common congenital malformation of the larynx. There is an abnormal
flaccidity of the laryngeal cartilages. This allows the laryngeal structures to vibrate like a
small elongated reed. It is characterized by partial or complete collapse of supraglottic
structures on inspiration. The condition becomes more severe during first 09 months of life
and then gradually resolves. It generally, disappears by the age of 02 years.
Clinical features:
1. It is the most common congenital condition causing inspiratory
stridor mainly. The stridor is usually worse during exertion
such as crying or lying supine position. It is diminished by rest
and during sleep.
2. Voice is normal.
Endoscopic view
3. Cyanosis may occur occasionally or shortly after birth. of laryngomalacia
Investigations:
History and examination are usually diagnostic.
Inspiratory stridor without hoarseness is always suggestive of laryngomalacia when
occurring at or soon after birth.
Flexible fiber optic/direct laryngoscopy shows;
1. Exaggerated infantile type of larynx.
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
384 Part E
2. The epiglottis is long and narrow and folded backwards at each lateral edge so the
epiglottis becomes omega shaped.
3. There are short aryepiglottic folds and redundant mucosa over the arytenoid cartilages.
The edges of the laryngeal inlet are seen to be drawn in with each inspiration.
4. Vocal cords are absolutely normal in laryngomalacia.
Treatment:
1. Reassurance is required in majority of cases. Laryngomalacia usually resolves
spontaneously. Resolution is usually complete by the age of 02 years.
2. In very severe cases, endoscopic aryepiglottoplasty (also called supraglottoplasty) is
carried out. It may be done microsurgically or by carbon dioxide laser using an
operating microscope.
3. In extremely severe cases, tracheostomy is rarely required to relieve the airway
obstruction.
Differential diagnosis:
1. Laryngeal web
2. Laryngeal cyst
3. Subglottic hemangioma
4. Acute laryngitis
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. The most common congenital anomaly of larynx is
b. 03 to 06 months e. 36 to 48 months
c. 06 to 12 months
Q. 4. All are usual clinical features of laryngomalacia except
c. stridor getting worse on crying or
a. hoarse cry exertion
b. onset of stridor soon after birth d. stridor which is mainly inspiratory
c. endoscopic aryepiglottoplasty
Scenario A: A one month old baby was brought to ENT consultant with history of noisy,
difficult breathing and occasional cyanosis when the baby is exerting or crying. The
symptoms are present since birth. At rest baby usually remains normal.
1. What is your probable clinical diagnosis?
2. How will you confirm your diagnosis?
3. How will you treat the baby?
B: A newborn baby was brought to the outpatient department with the complaint of stridor
which is present since birth. The stridor tends to increase during supine position. Breast
feeding of the baby is without any problem or respiratory difficulty.
1. What is the most likely diagnosis?
2. What are two other diseases which can be included in differential diagnosis?
3. How will you manage this case?
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
LARYNGEAL WEB
Etiopathology:
The web is due to incomplete recanalization of larynx during intrauterine life. It consists of
fibrous tissue stroma covered with epithelium in the anterior half of glottis . Occasionally
supraglottis may also be involved.
Clinical features:
Symptoms vary with the size of the web.
1. Hoarseness is the most common symptom. There may be
associated weak cry and dyspnea on exertion.
2. Stridor occurs in severe cases.
Differential diagnosis:
1. Laryngomalacia
2. Laryngeal cyst
3. Subglottic hemangioma
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
387 Part E
4. Acute laryngitis
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. The region most commonly affected in laryngeal web is
a. glottis d. trachea
b. laryngopharynx e. Supraglottis
c. posterior half of glottis
Q. 3. All are usual clinical features of laryngeal web except
a. dyspnea d. stridor
c. McNaught keel
Q. 5. All are included in the differential diagnosis of laryngeal web except
a. acute laryngitis d. laryngeal web
c. laryngeal cyst
Scenario: A mother comes to outpatient clinic with her 01-year-old baby. She complains of
hoarseness of voice, dyspnea and abnormal cry since birth. There is no other complaint.
1. What is the most likely diagnosis?
2. How can we confirm the diagnosis?
3. What is the treatment plan?
-------------------------------------------------------- ANSWERS-----------------------------------------------------
Q.1. a 2. a 3. c 4. d 5. b
Scenario: 1. Laryngeal web 2. Flexible nasopharyngoscopy, 70-degree endoscopy or direct
laryngoscopy 3. CO2 laser ablation, excision, tracheostomy if airway obstruction.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
388 Part E
INFLAMMATIONS OF LARYNX
ACUTE LARYNGITIS
Definition:
Acute inflammation of mucosa of larynx is known as acute
laryngitis.
Acute laryngitis on left side
Etiopathology: Normal larynx on right side
Acute laryngitis may be infective or noninfective.
1. Infective laryngitis: It is the most common form of
laryngitis. Majority of infections are caused by viruses.
The viruses usually found are rhinovirus, adenovirus, parainfluenza virus and respiratory
syncytial virus. Soon bacterial infection takes place with Streptococcus pneumoniae,
Haemophilus influenzae and Hemolytic streptococci.
2. Non infective laryngitis: It is due to vocal abuse, allergy, thermal or chemical burns to
the larynx. It may also be due to inhalation or ingestion of various substances or laryngeal
trauma such as endotracheal intubation.
Clinical features:
Symptoms are usually sudden in onset and consist of;
1. Hoarseness which may lead to complete loss of voice.
2. Discomfort or pain in throat, particularly after talking.
3. Dry, irritating cough which is usually worse at night.
4. General symptoms of rawness or dryness of throat, malaise and fever.
Laryngeal appearance varies with severity of the disease.
In early stages, there is erythema and edema of epiglottis, aryepiglottic folds, arytenoids
and ventricular bands. But the vocal cords appear white and near normal and stand out in
contrast to surrounding mucosa.
In later stages, there is hyperaemia and increase in swelling. Vocal cords also become red
and swollen. Subglottic region also gets involved. Sticky secretions are seen between the
cords and interarytenoid region. In case of vocal abuse, submucosal hemorrhages may be
seen in the vocal cords.
Treatment:
1. Vocal rest is the most important single step in the treatment of acute laryngitis. Use of
voice during acute laryngitis may lead to incomplete or delayed recovery.
2. Avoidance of smoking and alcohol.
3. Steam inhalation is given with tincture benzoin co. It has soothing effect and helps in
loosening viscid secretions.
4. Cough suppressant suppresses irritating cough.
5. Analgesics are given to relieve local pain and discomfort.
6. Antibiotics are given when there is secondary infection with fever and toxaemia or
purulent expectoration.
7. Steroids are useful in laryngitis following thermal or chemical burns.
Acute membranous laryngitis:
This condition is similar to acute membranous tonsillitis and is caused by pyogenic
nonspecific organisms. It may begin in the larynx or may be an extension from pharynx. It
should be differentiated from laryngeal diphtheria.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Scenario: A 35 years old male reported to ENT OPD with the hoarseness of voice after upper
respiratory tract infection 10 days ago. Hoarseness led to complete loss of voice and
discomfort and pain in throat also. Patient also complains of dry, irritating cough usually at
night. Indirect laryngoscopic examination shows vocal cords are red and swollen. Sticky
secretions are also seen in between cords and interarytenoid region.
1. What is your clinical diagnosis?
2. What is your treatment plan?
--------------------------------------------------------ANSWERS-----------------------------------------------------
Scenario: 1. Acute laryngitis 2. Voice rest, steam inhalation, cough suppressant, analgesics.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
ACUTE EPIGLOTTITIS
Synonyms: Supraglottitis, Supraglottic laryngitis
Definition:
It is defined as an acute infection primarily of the epiglottis.
Etiopathology:
It may involve other sites such as aryepiglottic folds and false cords.
It is a potentially life-threatening condition. It usually affects children between 04 to 05
years of age but adults may also be affected. In children it progresses very rapidly and may
compromise the airway.
The most common pathogen is Haemophilus influenza type B. Less common organisms
are group A Streptococcus pneumoniae and Staphylococcus aureus. Rarely viruses are
implicated particularly in adults.
Clinical features:
Usual clinical features are;
1. Short history of acute painful sore throat, odynophagia and
dysphagia.
2. High-grade fever developing within few hours is a very common
presenting symptom.
Endoscopic view of
3. Hoarseness of voice and dyspnea may be the presenting symptom epiglottitis
occasionally.
On examination;
1. Tripod sign i.e., patient is sitting and bending forward as dyspnea is improved in this
position.
2. Drooling sign i.e., there is dribbling of saliva from the angle of mouth because there is
increased production of saliva secondary to inflammation and patient is unable to
swallow the saliva due to odynophagia.
3. There may be dyspnea or even stridor especially on lying supine as the inflamed
epiglottis shuts down the glottis in this position.
Local examination of a patient with epiglottitis should be avoided as simple examination with
tongue depressor may lead to life-threatening glottic spasm.
On examination;
1. Epiglottis is swollen and gives ‘cherry red appearance’.
2. There may be edema of palatine arches and uvula.
3. Palpation may show extremely tender larynx and tender cervical lymphadenopathy.
Complications:
Acute epiglottitis may give rise to;
1. Acute airway obstruction and death due to spread of edema to glottis.
2. Epiglottic abscess.
3. Thrombosis of internal jugular vein (Lemierre’s syndrome).
Investigations:
1. X-ray soft tissue neck lateral view shows “thumbprint sign”.
2. Flexible nasopharyngoscopy or 70-degree endoscopy is very
useful for diagnosis.
X-ray soft tissue neck
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
shows thumbprint sign
391 Part E
2. Laryngotracheobronchitis
3. Foreign body inhalation
4. Angioedema
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Acute epiglottitis is also called
b. acute laryngitis
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
392 Part E
c. parapharyngeal abscess
Q. 7. Treatment of acute epiglottitis is
b. ampicillin e. tetracycline
c. cephalosporin
Scenario A: A 05 years old fit boy started having severe sore throat which developed into
odynophagia quickly. Inspiratory stridor with drooling of saliva followed soon. The child
looks terrified and feels comfortable only in sitting and leaning forward position.
1. What is the most probable clinical diagnosis?
2. How will you secure the airway in this patient?
3. Name three other conditions which can easily mimic this clinical picture?
B: A 05 years old boy was perfectly alright in the morning before going to school but on
returning home on afternoon he had high-grade fever, unable to eat because of severe pain
LARYNGOTRACHEOBRONCHITIS
Synonym: Croup
Definition:
It is defined as subacute inflammatory disease of the larynx and lower respiratory tract
predominantly involving subglottis, trachea and tracheobronchial tree.
Etiopathology:
It affects usually young children between the ages of 06 months to 03 years. It is the most
common cause of stridor in children. It is caused by viruses. Usual viruses are rhinovirus,
adenovirus, parainfluenza type 1 and type 2. There is characteristic subglottic edema.
Clinical features:
Clinical features of laryngotracheobronchitis are;
1. Croup
Investigations:
Diagnosis is usually clinical. Detection of viral antigen by sampling
mucous from the nasopharynx is helpful.
X-ray soft tissue neck AP view may show narrowing of
subglottis (steeple sign).
Treatment: Steeple sign in laryngo-
tracheobronchitis
1. Admission in hospital and observation for any airway obstruction.
2. Oxygen inhalation is given.
3. Broad-spectrum antibiotics are given to prevent secondary infection.
4. Steroids are given to reduce subglottic edema.
5. Nebulization with adrenaline is done to combat bronchoconstriction.
Airway and oxygen saturation should be monitored and endotracheal intubation considered if
airway is impaired.
Differential diagnosis:
1. Acute epiglottitis
2. Foreign body inhalation
3. Angioedema
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Laryngotracheobronchitis is also known as
Clinical features:
There is hoarseness of voice and productive cough. There may be pain in the throat and
referred earache.
On examination of larynx, there may be mucosal hyperemia, irregularity of the mucosal
surface, granuloma or ulceration in the posterior part of larynx.
Investigations:
9. X-ray chest usually shows focus of pulmonary tuberculosis.
10. Sputum for AFB is diagnostic.
Differential diagnosis:
1. Lupus vulgaris
2. Syphilis
3. Carcinoma of larynx
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. In the larynx tuberculosis usually starts in
b. epiglottis e. subglottis
c. false cords
Q. 3. Mouse nibbled appearance of vocal cord is seen in
a. cancer of larynx d. syphilis of larynx
c. scleroma of larynx
Scenario: A 35 years old lady reported to ENT OPD with the complains of hoarseness of
voice for 03 months and productive cough for 02 months. Now she is complaining of earache
which is more on left side. On indirect laryngoscopic examination, larynx is hyperemic with
irregularity of mucosal surface and ulcers on vocal cords with undermined edges and mouse
nibbled appearance of vocal cords.
1. What is the most probable clinical diagnosis?
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
397 Part E
2. What investigations will you carry out?
3. How will you treat this patient?
-------------------------------------------------------- ANSWERS-----------------------------------------------------
Q.1. d 2. d 3. e
Scenario: 1. Tuberculosis of larynx 2. X-ray chest, sputum for AFB, MycoDot test, PCR,
biopsy 3. Antituberculous drugs
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
SYPHILIS OF LARYNX
All stages of syphilis can manifest in the larynx. The mucosa is
swollen and infiltrated and later changes to deep punched out ulcer
with central sloughing. It has predilection for the anterior part of the
larynx i.e., epiglottis and the aryepiglottic fold.
c. scleroma of larynx
Scenario: A 50 years old non smoker male with saddle nose presented in ENT OPD with
complaint of hoarseness of voice for last 05 years. Anterior rhinoscopy reveals bony septal
perforation. On laryngeal examination there is punched out ulcers involving epiglottis and
aryepiglottic folds.
1. What is the most probable clinical diagnosis?
2. What investigations will you carry out?
3. How will you treat this patient?
--------------------------------------------------------ANSWERS-----------------------------------------------------
Q.1. a 2. d
Scenario: 1. Syphilis 2. VDRL, FTA, TPI test 3. High doses of penicillin
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
TUMORS OF LARYNX
PAPILLOMA OF LARYNX
Etiopathology:
It is the most common benign tumor of larynx. It is common in adults. It is usually solitary
and small in size. The usual site of origin is anterior commissure and anterior half of true
vocal cords. Rarely false cords may be involved. Its recurrence rate is much less than
juvenile laryngeal papillomatosis. It is caused by human papilloma virus.
Clinical features:
Patient usually presents with hoarseness of voice. Indirect
laryngoscopic examination shows pedunculated papilloma which may
be sucked down between the cords during inspiration and then blown
up again between the cords during expiration.
Papilloma of larynx
Treatment:
1. Endoscopic removal is carried out microlaryngoscopically or with carbon dioxide laser
when papilloma is small. Histological examination is necessary to rule out its benign
nature.
2. Laryngofissure occasionally may be required when papilloma is large.
CARCINOMA OF LARYNX
Etiopathology:
The most common malignant tumor of larynx is squamous cell carcinoma. Carcinoma of
larynx constitutes 01% of all malignancies in men.
It is more common in men as compared to women. Men over the age of 40 are usually
affected.
Tobacco and alcohol are the most common known causative factors. Combination of
tobacco and alcohol has synergistic effect (15-fold increase) in causing carcinoma of larynx.
Radiations and asbestos are also known causes of carcinoma of larynx. The most
commonly affected site in the larynx is glottis (76 %), the next frequent is supraglottis (19 %)
and least frequent is subglottis (05 %). Most frequent site involved in glottic carcinoma is
anterior 2/3rd of vocal cord.
Supraglottic carcinoma is the most aggressive of laryngeal carcinoma. The most
common site involved in supraglottic carcinoma is epiglottis. It presents in younger age
group as
Clinical features:
1. Persistent and progressive hoarseness of voice is the
most common presenting symptom.
2. Dyspnea and stridor may occur in later stages.
3. There may be swelling in the neck (due to lymph node)
or larynx (due to direct extension of the tumor outside the
larynx). Endoscopic view of
carcinoma of larynx
4. In supraglottic carcinoma, there may be referred earache.
On examination with indirect laryngoscopic mirror;
1. There is granular, exophytic or ulcerative lesion.
2. There may be limitation or loss of vocal cord movements.
3. Cervical lymph nodes may be enlarged especially in supraglottic carcinoma.
Investigations:
1. X-ray chest is done to find out metastasis and to access the general physical status of the
patient for general anesthesia and possible surgery.
2. CT/ MRI is carried out to find three-dimensional extent of the tumor site, size, number
and level of lymph node involvement).
3. Panendoscopy (oropharyngoscopy, hypopharyngoscopy, laryngoscopy,
tracheobronchoscopy, esophagoscopy and nasopharyngoscopy) under general anesthesia
is performed.
4. Biopsy of the lesion is taken for histopathology.
Differential diagnosis:
1. Granuloma of larynx
2. Carcinoma of hypopharynx
Anatomical regions of larynx:
Anatomically there are following regions of larynx;
1. Supraglottis
2. Glottis
3. Subglottis
Procedure:
After endotracheal intubation for general anesthesia, patient is made to lie supine on the table.
Sand bag is placed beneath the shoulders. Head and neck extended. Scrubbing and draping
done.
Gluck Soerenson incision made in the skin. The incision starts on the anterior border of
sternomastoid muscle, at the level of the hyoid bone, passes down along the anterior border
for about 6-7 cm and then curves across the midline at the level of the 2nd and 3rd ring of the
trachea. Skin flap elevated and strap muscles are divided in the neck as low as possible.
Suprahyoid muscles are separated from the hyoid bone. Larynx is entered through the
suprahyoid space. Constrictor muscles are separated from the posterior aspect of the thyroid
lamina. Superior thyroid and middle thyroid vascular pedicle on both sides are ligated.
Inferior thyroid pedicle on the diseased side is also ligated.
Contralateral lobe of thyroid gland i.e., healthy side of the thyroid gland freed from
specimen and conserved. Trachea divided from the larynx well below the tumor margin. A
nasogastric tube is passed and secured in position. End tracheostome fashioned and pharynx
is closed with absorbable sutures in 2 to 3 layers. Bilateral suction drains are placed and the
skin is closed in two layers.
Complications of total laryngectomy:
1. Hemorrhage
2. Wound infection
3. Pharyngocutaneous fistula
4. Necrosis of flap
5. Pulmonary and cerebral embolism
6. Parathyroid insufficiency
7. Thyroid insufficiency
8. Stomal recurrence
9. Pharyngeal recurrence
Postoperative care:
Continuous monitoring is done to check for any changes in vitals, bleeding, obstruction of
airway and any local infection.
Rehabilitation of voice after total laryngectomy
Different options are available for voice rehabilitation after total laryngectomy.
1. Esophageal speech:
The patient is trained to swallow some air into esophagus and then
expel the air into the pharynx. While expelling the swallowed air the
a. chondroma d. neurofibroma
b. larynx e. oropharynx
c. nasopharynx
Q. 5. The most common and earliest manifestation of carcinoma of the glottis is
a. cervical lymph node enlargement c. haemoptysis
b. dysphagia d. hoarseness
b. glottis e. supraglottis
c. posterior commissure
Q. 9. The most common primary head and neck malignancy is carcinoma of
a. hypopharynx and oropharynx d. oral cavity and hypopharynx
b. brain e. spleen
c. liver
Q. 11. A middle-aged male comes to OPD with the only complaint of progressive
hoarseness for the past 01 year. He is a smoker for last 30 years. On examination, reddish
areas of mucosal irregularity overlying both cords are seen. Investigations would include
all except
a. biopsy d. staining with toludine blue
Q.1. e 2. a 3. b 4. b 5. d 6. e 7. d 8. e 9. b
10. d 11. d 12. e 13. e 14. a 15. b 16. d
Scenario A: 1. Carcinoma of larynx 2. Endoscopy and biopsy 3. Stage III
4. Total laryngectomy.
B: 1. Tracheostomy 2. Hemorrhage, air embolism, apnea, cardiac arrest, damage to cricoid,
trachea and recurrent laryngeal nerve 3. X-ray chest CT/MRI, panendoscopy under general
anaesthesia and biopsy, treatment include radiotherapy for T1, T2 and surgery for T3, T4.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-
Patient is made to lie supine; occiput is elevated about 04-06 cm off the table. The neck is
flexed on trunk and head extended on neck (also called ‘sniffling position’). The
laryngoscope is held in the left hand and is introduced in the right side of patient’s mouth. So
that the tip of the blade approaches the midline to lie in the vallecula. The Z-shape cross
section of laryngoscope causes the tongue to be pushed out of the way to left. The handle of
the laryngoscope is lifted to the direction to which it points. It must not be rotated as this
movement will damage teeth, gums and mucus membrane of the pharynx.
Elevation of the root of the tongue will indirectly elevate the posteriorly placed epiglottis.
The laryngeal opening will come in view. The endotracheal tube is passed between the vocal
cords. If the larynx is difficult to see it may be brought into view by an assistant who gently
407 Part E
presses the thyroid cartilage posteriorly. Laryngoscope is removed. The cuff of endotracheal
tube is inflated with air. The endotracheal tube is attached with the Ambo bag, ventilator or
anaesthetic circuit. For prolonged intubation the cuff of the tube is temporarily deflated for
five minutes after every one hour.
Complications:
Following are complications of endotracheal intubation;
1. Tracheal/subglottic stenosis
2. Glottic granuloma
3. Laryngotracheal synechiae
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Indications of endotracheal intubation include
c. subglottic stenosis
-------------------------------------------------------- ANSWERS---------------------------------------------------
Q.1. e 2. d 3. e
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-
6. MINITRACHEOSTOMY
Synonyms: Laryngotomy, Cricothyroidotomy
2. Surgical emphysema i.e., air in the soft tissues due to overtight skin sutures
3. Pneumothorax due to damage to apical pleura
4. Tracheoesophageal fistula
5. Tracheo-arterial fistula
6. Infection
C. Late i.e., which occur when the patient has been discharged from
hospital e.g.,
1. Subglottic/tracheal stenosis
2. Tracheocutaneous fistula
3. Difficulty with decannulation
Postoperative care of tracheostomy:
1. Care of wound: Antiseptic dressing is applied daily for 07-10 Subglottic stenosis
days and stitches removed on 7th day.
2. Care of tracheostomy tube: Repeated suction is done to avoid
blockage. A few drops of saline or sodium bicarbonate instilled 02
hourly into the tracheostomy tube to humidify inspired air and to
avoid crusting. Double layer of wet gauze or steam tent may serve the
same purpose.
3. Care of chest: Tracheostomy patients are prone to develop chest X ray showing
subglottic stenosis
infection, so regular chest physiotherapy is instituted.
4. Care of communication: Loss of voice is a major handicap in
such patients. So, a bell should be provided to the patient to call for help in case of any
emergency. Patient should be provided with pen and paper.
Handicaps of a treacheostomized/laryngectomized patient:
1. Aphonia
2. Inability to blow the nose
3. Inability to build intra-abdominal and intra-thoracic pressure such as during
explosive coughing, climbing, lifting heavy weight, parturation, etc.
4. Inability to swim
5. Exposure of the lung to cold dirty air and thus, increase in incidence of physical and
microbial injury.
Types of tracheostomy tube:
A wide variety of tracheostomy tubes are available and their selection depends on;
1. Indications of the operation
2. Postoperative care
tube. The tube is closed and the patient monitored for a couple of days. If the patient is able to
withstand the blocked tube then the removal of tracheostomy tube is carried out. If the
tracheostomy is less than 16 weeks duration, tracheocutaneous fistula heals spontaneously.
Otherwise, surgical closure of fistula may be required.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Minitracheostomy is also called
b. laryngofissure e. thyroidotomy
c. low tracheostomy
Q. 3. Minitracheostomy is done through
a. cricothyroid membrane d. quardangular membrane
b. Corniculate e. Thyroid
c. Cricoid
Q. 6. All are criteria of emergency tracheostomy in upper airway obstruction except
a. normal pulse rate d. restlessness
c. cardiac arrest
b. Consonants e. Verbs
Foreign bodies of the larynx are not very common as most of them pass through the
larynx into tracheobronchial tree. Very large foreign bodies can get stuck in the larynx which
are usually fatal. Impaction of a large foreign body in glottis leads to the bronchospasm,
sudden complete airway obstruction and death.
Clinical features:
1. Usually there is history of oral intake of foreign body.
2. There is complaint of difficulty in breathing. There may be inspiratory stridor.
3. There may also be hoarseness of voice or even aphonia due to foreign body itself and
inflammation. Hoarseness is an important symptom to differentiate a foreign body in the
larynx from that in the tracheobronchial tree.
4. Cough is usually also present.
On examination; it is usually not possible to perform indirect laryngoscopy in children and
thus, one has to suspect the foreign body from the history. Examination of pharynx and lungs
should be carried out, however, to exclude foreign body in these regions.
Investigations:
1. Diagnosis is usually made on clinical grounds.
2. X-ray soft tissue neck may show radiopaque foreign body.
Treatment:
Whenever possible, try to get a template of the foreign body. It helps in
making the strategy and choosing proper instruments for safe removal of
foreign body. It also helps in anticipating the possible complications of the
foreign body and its removal.
Thin objects such as artificial nails may also be lodged into the larynx
which can be removed very easily. Large foreign bodies must be removed
urgently otherwise death may occur unless surgical airway is created within
Heimlich
maneuver
seconds.
In adults Heimlich maneuver also known as ‘bear hug’ is performed.
It involves sudden compression of upper abdomen to squeeze the air from
lungs, sufficient to expel the foreign body.
In infants back blow maneuver is performed. It involves sudden compression
of the chest from the posterior force while the anterior chest is held with head
down position. The child is held on its back on the adult’s knee and
pressed frequently on the upper abdomen to expel the foreign body.
Removal of the foreign body by performing direct laryngoscopy is
carried out. It is strongly recommended that tracheostomy is performed
before an attempt at removal of impacted foreign body is made, as
oxygenation of the already taxed heart is essential. Moreover, the
Back blow maneuver
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
416 Part E
Complications:
If the foreign body remains untreated, it may give rise to following complications;
1. Bronchiectasis
2. Pneumothorax
3. Pneumonia
4. Mediastinal shift
Investigations:
X-ray chest may show radiopaque foreign body. It may also show complications like
bronchiectasis, pneumothorax, pneumonia, mediastinal shift or hyperinflation of one lung.
The hyperinflation occurs due to ball valve effect where negative intrathoracic pressure on
inspiration dilates the lumen around the foreign body.
Treatment:
1. Whenever possible, try to get a template of the foreign body. It helps in making the
strategy and choosing proper instruments for safe removal of foreign body. It also helps
in anticipating the possible complications of the foreign body and its removal.
2. Foreign body may be removed with rigid or flexible bronchoscopy.
3. In the acute situation, whilest emergency preparations for bronchoscopy are underway,
high flow oxygen is essential. Once foreign body is removed after bronchoscopy,
meticulous examination of the tracheobronchial tree must be carried out to exclude
further foreign bodies or other abnormalities.
Even after successful removal, atelectasis, pneumonia, retained fragments, airway spasm or
airway edema may still occur and patient must be monitored closely.
4. Systemic steroids are given after rigid bronchoscopy, to reduce airway edema.
5. Nebulization with vasoconstriction is done to reduce the incidence of postoperative
complications.
6. Thoracotomy and lobectomy/lung resection may be required if the foreign body is left
untreated for many years.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Foreign bodies of aerodigestive tract are associated with the highest mortality when
the site of impaction is
a. esophagus d. main stem bronchi
b. hypopharynx e. oropharynx
c. larynx
Q. 2. Inhaled small smooth foreign body is commonly arrested in
a. larynx d. subglottic space
c. A 4 years old boy is referred to ENT OPD with complaint of recurrent attacks of lower
respiratory tract infection for last 4 months. ENT examination is unremarkable. On chest
auscultation there is decreased air entry on left side.
1. What is your provisional diagnosis?
2. How will you investigate this patient?
ANSWERS-----------------------------------------
-------------------------------------------------------- ------------
Q. 1. c 2. c 3. e 4. d 5. b
Scenario A: 1. Tracheobronchial foreign body 2. Bronchiectasis, pneumothorax, pneumonia,
mediastinal shift 3. Get a template of foreign body, bronchoscopy, high flow oxygen,
corticosteroids, nebulization, thoracotomy and lung resection.
B: 1. Foreign body larynx 2. Clinical grounds, X-ray neck and chest 3. Get a template of
foreign body, high flow oxygen, bronchoscopy, nebulization, corticosteroids, thoracotomy
and lung resection.
C: 1. Tracheobronchial foreign body 2. Clinical grounds, X-ray neck and chest
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-
VOCAL NODULES
Synonyms: Singer’s nodes/nodules, Teacher’s nodes/nodules, Hawker’s nodes/nodules,
Screamer’s nodes/nodules
Definition:
These are localized symmetrical swellings, on the edges of both vocal cords at the
junction of anterior one third and posterior two third (halfway along the membranous
cord). This is the area which vibrates maximally during speech.
Etiopathology:
These commonly occur in singers, teachers, hawkers, and screamers. Vocal nodules are
frequent cause of hoarseness in children who are naturally vocal and excitable.
These are manifestations of repeated trauma due to misuse of voice with tense vocal
cords. So, it is a hyperkinetic dysphonia. Certain aggravating factors are smoking, allergy,
infection and gastroesophageal reflux. There are following stages of vocal nodule formation:
1. Submucous transudation
2. Ingrowth of vessels
3. Fibrous organization
If the factors which have led to nodule persist for a long time, then the
nodules may become permanent.
Clinical features:
419 Part E
1. Progressive hoarseness of voice is the most common presenting symptom. In the initial
stages, hoarseness decreases during periods of vocal rest and increases during periods of
vocal misuse.
2. Pitch range is restricted.
3. On indirect laryngoscopy, there are whitish localized symmetrical swellings on the
edges of both vocal cords at the junction of anterior one third and posterior two third.
Investigations:
1. Flexible nasopharyngolaryngoscopy or 70-degree endoscopy is helpful in doubtful
cases.
2. Stroboscopy is diagnostic. A local edematous swelling of recent onset vibrates in phase
with the whole vocal cord on phonation, whereas an old and fibrous swelling can impede
the vibrations and only a part of the vocal cord vibrates.
Treatment:
1. Voice rest: Strict voice rest is advised at least for 02 to 03 weeks.
2. Speech therapy: Speech therapy is instituted to encourage the patient to avoid overuse
and abuse of voice. Laryngeal abuse such as whispering and shouting should be avoided.
3. Surgery: Surgery is reserved for those cases where voice therapy fails and patient re-
mains symptomatic. Microlaryngoscopic surgical removal or laser ablation of vocal
nod-ule is carried out under general anesthesia. Excision of nodule is carried out with no
exposure or damage to the underlying ligaments.
4. Aggravating factors such as smoking, allergy, infection and gastroesophageal reflux
should be addressed to reduce the chances of recurrence.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Vocal nodules are also called
c. Singer’s nodes
Q. 2. Singer’s nodules are
c. laryngeal edema
Scenario: A young teacher presented with progressive hoarseness of voice for last six months
and she is engaged in teaching for last five years. Her voice is persistently hoarse and is not
being relieved with medication by primary health care physician.
1. What is the most likely diagnosis?
2. How will you investigate this case?
3. How will you manage this case?
-------------------------------------------------------- ANSWERS-----------------------------------------------------
Q.1. e 2. c 3. c 4. c 5.e
Scenario: 1. Vocal cord nodule 2. Flexible nasopharyngoscopy, stroboscopy 3. Voice rest,
speech therapy, surgery.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-
VOCAL FOLD EDEMA AND LARYNGEAL POLYP
Synonyms: Reinke’s edema
Definition:
It is defined as an accumulation of fluid in the subepithelial Reinke’s space of vocal cords.
Etiopathology:
It is symmetrical swelling of whole membranous part of both vocal cords.
It originates from misuse of voice with relaxed vocal cords. So, it is a hypokinetic
dysphonia. Physical trauma (voice abuse, chronic cough), chemical trauma
(laryngopharyngeal reflux, smoking and alcohol), infection and inflammation are thought to
be responsible. Slight edema resolves with time, whereas excessive edema may change into
vocal polyp.
If the accumulation and inflammation is concentrated at one point, the epithelium
balloons out, this is known as vocal fold polyp (also known as laryngeal polyp). Polyp can
occur around the whole membranous part of vocal cord but it is more common near anterior
commissure.
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
421 Part E
Vocal fold polyp is a pedunculated or sessile lesion, often unilateral, that arises from the
free edge of the vocal cord.
Clinical features:
1. Voice is usually harsh.
2. Falsetto voice becomes almost
impossible. On indirect laryngoscopic
examination;
Endoscopic view of
1. Vocal cords are grossly edematous in the initial stages.
left vocal polyp
2. Smooth polyp is visible near anterior commissure in later stages.
The polyp moves up and down during respiration.
Investigations:
Flexible nasopharyngoscopy/70-degree endoscopy/ stroboscopy is diagnostic in doubtful
cases.
Treatment:
1. Strict voice rest is advised for at least 48 hours. Laryngeal abuse such as whispering,
shouting and smoking should be avoided.
2. Speech therapy is directed to encourage the patients to avoid overuse and abuse of
voice.
3. Microlaryngoscopic removal of vocal fold polyp is performed. Swollen mucosa is
excised surgically with preservation of underlying vocal ligament. Excised tissue is sent
for histopathology.
Spontaneous cure may occur rarely in early stages by rupture of the polyp.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Reinke’s space is found in the
c. saccule of larynx
Q. 2. Reinke’s space is found in the
c. Reinke’s edema
Q. 4. Vocal polyp is usually found on
Etiopathology:
It is due to narrowed air passages at or below the level of larynx. There is turbulence of air
flowing through it. Laryngeal stridor is usually inspiratory, whereas bronchial stridor is
usually expiratory.
It is a heralding symptom as well as sign which warrants immediate restoration of
airway. At the same time search should be made to find out the cause. Cause of stridor is
identified by history, clinical examination and investigations like radiology (e.g., X-ray neck
and chest, CT), endoscopy etc.
Causes:
Causes of stridor are classified into;
A. Congenital:
B. Acquired:
1. Traumatic
2. Inflammatory
3. Neoplastic
4. Paralytic
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
423 Part E
5. Granulomatous
6. Spasmodic
7. Mechanical
Different diseases causing stridor are;
A. Congenital:
1. Laryngomalacia is the most common cause of congenital laryngeal stridor.
2. Laryngeal web
3. Subglottic stenosis
4. Laryngeal cyst
5. Vocal cord paralysis
6. Hemangioma
7. Lymphangioma
B. Acquired:
a. Pyrexial:
1. Acute epiglottitis
2. Laryngotracheobronchitis
3. Diphtheria
b. Apyrexial:
1. Trauma to larynx
2. Tumors of larynx
3. Foreign body larynx
4. Recurrent respiratory papillomatosis
5. Scald
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Laryngeal stridor is usually
Snoring is disturbing harsh sound during sleep. It occurs when air flows through relaxed
tissues in the throat, causing the tissues to vibrate during breathing.
Causes:
A. Congenital:
1. Nasal obstruction e.g., choanal stenosis, congenital cysts of
nose, meningoencephalocele, encephalolaryngocele.
2. Facial skeletal anomalies e.g., Treacher Collins syndrome, Pierre Robin
syndrome, cleft palate.
3. Macroglossia e.g., Down syndrome, hemangioma or lymphangioma of tongue.
4. Pharyngeal swelling e.g., lingual thyroid, Thornwaldt cyst (bursa), chordoma,
craniopharyngioma.
B. Acquired:
1. Traumatic e.g., septal hematoma, septal abscess, facial fractures.
2. Inflammatory e.g., rhinitis, adenoiditis, tonsillitis
3. Neoplastic e.g., angiofibroma, nasopharyngeal carcinoma, lymphoma
4. Iatrogenic e.g., rhinitis medicamentosa, repair of cleft palate, anterior and posterior
nasal packing.
5. Miscellaneous e.g., cystic fibrosis, nasal polyps, antrochoanal polyp, DNS.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. All are true about stertor except
a. cause by airway obstruction above the d. noise produced by turbulent airflow
level of larynx e. noise produced when the patient is
b. high pitch noise awake
c. low pitch noise
Q. 2. All are causes of congenital stertor except
a. choanal stenosis d. lingual thyroid
b. angiofibroma e. tonsillitis
c. laryngomalacia
-------------------------------------------------------- ANSWERS-----------------------------------------------------
Q.1. b 2. b 3. c
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
426 Part E
4. Non-surgical trauma e.g., enlargement of the left atrium, aortic aneurysm or neck
trauma.
5. Neurological disorders e.g., cerebrovascular accidents, multiple sclerosis, alcoholic
and diabetic neuropathy.
Clinical features:
A. Superior laryngeal nerve paralysis:
It leads to paralysis of cricothyroid muscle. Its paralysis is
clinically unrecognized. In superior laryngeal nerve paralysis,
there is:
1. Bowing of the vocal cord Endoscopic view of unilateral
vocal cord paralysis
2. Vocal cord appears wavy as it is deprived of its tensor
cricothyroid.
3. Flapping of paralyzed vocal cord during phonation.
4. Overhanging epiglottis in cases of bilateral paralysis.
5. The voice fails to gain its strength
B. Recurrent laryngeal nerve paralysis:
It leads to paralysis of all the intrinsic muscles of larynx except cricothyroid. It causes the
vocal cord to lie in the paramedian position.
Wegner and Grossman theory:
It states that an immobile cord in the paramedian position has a total pure unilateral recurrent
laryngeal nerve paralysis, whereas an immobile cord in the lateral position has a combined
paralysis of superior and recurrent laryngeal nerve (because the adductive action of the
cricothyroid is lost).
Semon’s law is obsolete now and is of historical interest only.
Investigations:
Exact investigations depend on clinical findings.
1. Radiological: X-ray chest, X-ray base of skull and barium swallow. C.T scan of the
brain, base of skull, neck and chest.
2. Stroboscopy: It is done to assess the structure and fine movements of vocal cords.
3. Endoscopies: (oropharyngoscopy, hypopharyngoscopy, laryngoscopy,
tracheobronchoscopy, esophagoscopy and nasopharyngoscopy) under general
anaesthesia with biopsy of suspected sites.
4. Hematological:
Complete blood count, ESR, tests for diabetes, tuberculosis and syphilis.
Treatment:
When it is possible to treat the cause, it should be treated as a first priority. Then wait at
least 06 months for spontaneous recovery of the paralyzed vocal cord or compensation by the
opposite healthy vocal cord. When recovery is not expected or 06 months have passed after
the paralysis then the treatment of vocal cord paralysis depends on;
1. Etiology
2. Defect it causes
3. Profession of the patient
4. General state of the patient
b. interarytenoid e. vocalis
c. oblique arytenoid
Q. 2. The most common cause of left recurrent laryngeal nerve paralysis is
a. bronchogenic carcinoma d. nasopharyngeal carcinoma
c. Schmidt syndrome
Scenario: A 10 years old child developed hoarseness of voice following an attack of
diphtheria 02 months ago. On laryngeal examination right vocal cord is seen in paramedian
position.
1. What is the most probable clinical diagnosis?
2. What investigations will you carry out?
3. How will you manage this patient?
--------------------------------------------------- ANSWERS------------------------------------------------
----- -----
Q.1. a 2. a 3. d 4. a 5. a 6. e
7. e 8. e 9. e 10. c 11. c 12. b
c. respiratory obstruction
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
434 Part E
Q. 7. All are true about recurrent respiratory papillomatosis except
a. can undergo malignant change with chial tree
repeated removal d. notoriously recurrent
b. can undergo spontaneous remission e. viral in origin
c. implanted elsewhere in tracheobron-
Q. 8. Aim of treatment in recurrent respiratory papillomatosis is
a. avoidance of tracheostomy d. all of the above
b. cryosurgery e. mitomycin
c. interferon
Q. 11. The best laser for recurrent respiratory papillomatosis is
a. argon laser d. KTP-532 laser
c. Radiotherapy
Scenario: A mother comes to out patient clinic with her 02 years old boy, born through
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
435 Part E
normal vaginal delivery, suffering from progressively increasing stridor and abnormal cry
for last 06 months. There is no fever. Endoscopic examination shows multiple small warty
lesions on anterior part of the glottis.
1. What is the most likely diagnosis?
2. What are objectives of treatment?
3. What is the treatment plan?
------------------------------------------- ANSWERS------------------------------------
------------- -----------------
Q.1. a 2. e 3. e 4. a 5. c 6. e 7. a
8. d 9. c 10. b 11. b 12. e 13. b
Scenario: 1. Juvenile laryngeal papillomatosis 2. Preserve the airway, voice and avoid
tracheostomy 3. Endoscopic removal with microdebrider or with carbon dioxide laser,
adjuvant medical treatment with mitomycin, cidofovir or alpha interferon.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
DYSPHONIA PLICA VENTRICULARIS
Synonyms: False cord voice, Ventricular phonation, Diplophonia, Ventricular
dysphonia
Definition:
It is defined as phonation with false cords instead of true cords.
Etiopathology:
It may be;
1. Functional or psychogenic; It occurs in normal larynx. It is Dysphonia plica
associated with psychogenic disorders or in extreme vocal cords ventricularis
strains.
2. Organic; It occurs in certain pathologies of larynx. It occurs after surgery of vocal
cords, vocal cord paralysis, myasthenia gravis or neoplasms.
3. Idiopathic.
Clinical feature:
Voice is rough, low pitched and unpleasant. It is almost like a duet.
Indirect laryngoscopy or stroboscopy shows false cords meeting in midline on phonation
inhibiting the view of true cords.
Treatment:
1. Underlying cause is addressed.
2. Speech therapy.
3. Psychotherapy is helpful in functional cases.
4. Botulinum toxin injection into false cords may be considered in resistant cases.
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
436 Part E
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Dysphonia plica ventricularis is also known as
a. diplophonia d. ventricular phonation
c. microlaryngeal surgery
Scenario: A 40 years old patient presented in ENT OPD soon after discharge from
psychiatry department (for the treatment of anxiety neurosis) with complaint of unpleasant
voice production for last 1 year. On examination false cords are seen meeting in midline on
phonation.
1. What is the most probable clinical diagnosis?
2. What investigations will you carry out?
3. How will you manage this patient?
------------------------------------------------------ ANSWERS--------------------------------------------------
-- ---
Q.1. e 2. e 3. a 4. d 5.c
Scenario: 1. Dysphonia plica ventricularis 2. Flexible laryngoscopy 3. Treatment of
underlying psychiatric illness, speech therapy, botulinum toxins.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
PUBERPHONIA
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
437 Part E
Clinical features:
1. Pitch breaks at puberty may be very severe and frequent.
2. There is attempt to control this by “holding on” to the childhood voice. The production
of adulthood voice may be inhibited.
3. Indirect laryngoscopy shows that the glottis is oval or elliptical. Sometimes vocal
process partially closes to produce a triangle posteriorly known as mutational triangle.
Treatment:
1. Training in relaxing the vocal cord i.e., manipulating the position of larynx by pressing
Adam’s apple backward and downward (Gutzmann’s pressure) while the patient
phonates. This maneuver relaxes the tense vocal cords and helps to lower the pitch.
2. Psychological counselling is very helpful.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Puberphonia is also known as
c. speech therapy
Scenario: An 18 years old girl presented in ENT OPD with complaint of sudden loss of voice
for last 01 week following a quarrel at home. Coughing is normal. On indirect laryngeal
examination vocal cords fail to adduct on phonation.
1. What is the most probable clinical diagnosis?
2. How will you manage this patient?
ANSWERS---------------------------------------
-------------------------------------------------------- --------------
Q.1. d 2. b 3. c 4. b 5. d
Scenario: 1. Functional aphonia 2. Strong reassurance, speech therapy, psychotherapy
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
LARYNGOCELE
Definition:
It is defined as an air-filled sac due to dilatation of laryngeal saccule and its extension
above the level of upper border of thyroid cartilage.
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
440 Part E
Etiopathology:
Laryngocele is thought to arise from prolonged increase in transglottic pressure such as glass
blowers, weight lifters and trumpet players. It may be classified as;
1. External laryngocele: In it distended saccule herniates through the thyrohyoid
membrane and presents as swelling in the neck. It constitutes 30% of the laryngocele.
2. Internal laryngocele: It is confined within
larynx and presents as a distension of false vocal
cords and aryepiglottic folds. It constitutes 20% of
laryngocele.
3. Combined/mixed laryngocele: In it both the internal and external components are seen.
It constitutes 50% of laryngocele.
Clinical features:
1. Hoarseness of voice is the most common presentation.
2. In case of internal laryngocele, there may also be complaint of
airway obstruction and stridor. On indirect laryngoscopy there is
distension of false cords and aryepiglottic folds.
3. In case of external laryngocele, there may also be reducible
swelling in neck over thyrohyoid membrane which increases in
size on coughing and performing Valsalva maneuver.
A case of Rt.
external
Laryngoce
Investigations:
1. Plain X-ray neck (AP view) with or without Valsalva maneuver is usually diagnostic
showing an air-filled sac.
2. CT scan/ MRI is carried out to find out extent of laryngocele.
3. Direct laryngoscopy must be undertaken in cases of unilateral laryngocele to rule out
carcinoma of laryngeal ventricle. Because carcinoma can act as valve allowing air into
but not out of saccule thus, allowing formation of laryngocele.
Treatment:
1. No treatment is required if laryngocele is discovered incidentally and is limited within
the larynx. Patient is kept under annual review.
2. Excision of external laryngocele is done through external neck incision.
3. Marsupialization of internal laryngocele is done through laryngoscopy.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Laryngocele arises from
c. paraglottic space
e. vallecula
d. preepiglottic space
Q. 2. The laryngocele may be
a. combined d. all of the above
months. Examination shows distension of left false cord and aryepiglottic fold. There is also
reducible swelling over left thyrohyoid membrane.
1. What is the most probable clinical diagnosis?
2. Which investigation will help to reach the diagnosis?
3. What is the treatment of this patient?
ANSWERS--------------------------------------
-------------------------------------------------------- ---------------
Q.1. b 2. d 3. a 4.b
5. b 6. e 7. d
Scenario: 1. Laryngocele 2. Plain X-ray neck A.P view, CT/MRI, direct laryngoscopy
3. Excision of external laryngocele, marsupialization of internal laryngocele.
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
----------------
PART F
ESOPHAGUS
Chapter 14
DISEASES OF ESOPHAGUS
Plummer Vinson syndrome
Synonyms: Paterson-Brown-Kelly syndrome, Sidropenic dysphagia
Definition:
It is defined as dysphagia associated with anemia, koilonychia (spoon shape nails), angular
chelitis, smooth tongue, achlorhydria and splenomegaly.
Etiopathology:
There is hyperkeratinization with web or fibrous stricture formation in the postcricoid
region or upper esophagus. Dysphagia is due to web or fibrous stricture. The anemia is usually
microcytic but may be macrocytic. There is also vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) and B12 deficiency. It
usually affects middle-aged females. It is a premalignant condition with 10% risk of
developing carcinoma.
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
443 Part F Esophagus
Clinical features:
1. Patient presents with progressive dysphagia due to postcricoid web.
Dysphagia may be lasting for several years.
2. Absolute dysphagia usually indicates malignant change into
postcricoid carcinoma.
On examination;
1. There is pallor, koilonychia, angular chelitis, smooth tongue and
splenomegaly. Plummer Vinson
syndrome with
2. In cases of severe dysphagia indirect laryngoscopy may show pooling of koilonychia
saliva in the pyriform sinuses.
Loss of laryngeal crepitus usually indicates postcricoid carcinoma.
Investigations:
1. Barium swallow usually shows web in the postcricoid
region/upper esophagus.
2. Flexible/rigid esophagoscopy confirms web in the
postcricoid region/upper esophagus.
3. Hematological investigations usually show;
a. Hemoglobin, MCH (mean corpuscular haemoglobin)
and serum iron concentration is decreased. X-ray barium swallow showing web
gies
b. iron supplements
Scenario A: A 40 years old female suffering from progressive dysphagia for solids for last 08
years. Her clinical examination revealed koilonychia, pallor and angular chelitis.
1. What is the most probable clinical diagnosis?
2. What is the cause of dysphagia?
3. How will you manage this patient?
B: A 50 years old lady presented with progressive dysphagia for last 05 years. She is having
pallor smooth tongue and splenomegaly. Her Hb was 7 g/dl.
1. What is the most probable clinical diagnosis?
2. Which investigation will help to reach the diagnosis?
3. What is the treatment of this patient?
--------------------------------------------------------ANSWERS-----------------------------------------------------
Clinical features:
1. History of ingestion of foreign body is usually present.
3. A large foreign body in the upper esophagus can cause airway obstruction, by causing
compression of trachea.
On examination of oral cavity, oropharynx or hypopharynx;
1. Foreign body may be visible.
2. Pooling of saliva in the pyriform sinuses is usually seen on indirect laryngoscopy.
1. Endoscopic removal. Whenever possible try to get a template of the foreign body. It
helps in making the strategy and choosing proper instruments for safe removal of foreign
body. It also helps in anticipating the possible complications of the foreign body and its
removal. Once the diagnosis of pharnygeal/esophageal foreign body has been made,
arrangements should be made for safe and early removal as edema and mucosal swelling
will make removal of foreign body more difficult. Foreign bodies like alkaline batteries
are particularly dangerous because these may induce tissue necrosis.
For esophageal foreign bodies, flexible or rigid esophagoscope may be used. But for
irregular or pointing foreign bodies, rigid esophagoscope is preferable as complication of
such foreign bodies are reduced by their removal from within the rigid endoscope. Large
foreign bodies are removed as a trailing foreign body (both the endoscope and the foreign
body are removed simultaneously).
Contraindications:
1. Aneurysm of arch of aorta
2. Deformity of vertebral spine
3. Systemic disease like hypertension, diabetes, liver and
kidney diseases
4. Recent severe haematemesis
Procedure:
After general anesthesia the patient is made to lie supine
on the table with head projecting beyond the edge of the table
and supported by an assistant. The esophagus should be treated as if the walls were made
of wet blotting paper. Patient should be given a good muscle relaxant and the lumen kept in
view at all times. Initially head is flexed.
The esophagoscope is passed identifying the landmarks of uvula, epiglottis, endotracheal
tube and arytenoids. Head of the patient is gradually extended. The esophagoscope is
gradually advanced applying suction whenever required. When the esophagoscope has passed
through upper one third of the esophagus, the assistant lowers the head to the level of chest.
Cardiac end of the stomach is identified by the star shaped appearance of the mucosa.
During esophagoscopy any tumor, stricture or foreign body identified and dealt
accordingly. If removal of foreign body has been traumatic, a nasogastric tube should be
passed.
Complications:
1. Esophageal tear
2. Rupture of esophagus resulting in surgical emphysema or mediastinitis
3. Tracheoesophageal fistula
4. Perforation of aorta
5. Stricture of esophagus
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Large smooth ingested foreign bodies are usually impacted at
a. cardiac end of stomach d. mid esophagus
c. fever
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
448 Part F Esophagus
Q. 3. Small rounded ingested foreign body is usually excreted into faeces upto maximum
period of
a. 02 weeks d. 08 weeks
b. 04 weeks e. 10 weeks
c. 06 weeks
Q. 4. The most definitive test for establishing the identification of radiolucent foreign body
in upper aerodigestive tract is
a. endoscopy d. P.A and decubitus X-ray
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
ACHALASIA CARDIA
Synonyms: Hypochalasia cardia, Dyschlasia cardia, Esophagectasia, Mega esophagus,
Cardiospasm
Etiopathology:
It is characterized by failure of
relaxation of the lower esophageal
sphincter during swallowing thus,
causing dysphagia. It is due to
degeneration of ganglionic cells in
Auerbach’s myenteric plexus.
It is more common between 30 and 60
years of age. It is more common in
women than men.
Clinical features:
1. Patient presents with long standing
history of progressive dysphagia.
Dysphagia is more for liquids than
for solids (opposite to that seen in
malignancy and stricture). Dysphagia is Diagramatic view of achalasia cardia
progressively more severe with latter parts of
meal, as the esophagus becomes filled with meal.
2. There is regurgitation of swallowed food which can lead to aspiration, choking
and coughing at night.
Investigations:
1. Barium swallow shows a dilated esophagus with a narrowed ‘rat
tail’ or ‘bird’s beak’ appearance at lower end.
2. Esophageal manometry shows;
a. Failure of the lower esophageal sphincter to relax. Contrast study show-
ing achalasia cardia
b. Low pressure in the body of esophagus.
c. High pressure at the lower esophageal sphincter.
Treatment:
1. Calcium channel blockers
2. Botox injections may be given into the lower esophageal sphincter.
3. Sequential dilatation of the lower esophageal sphincter with intraluminal balloon or
hydrostatic bag.
4. Modified Heller’s myotomy of narrowest lower part of esophagus is the treatment of
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
450 Part F Esophagus
choice in resistant cases.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Achalasia cardia is also called
c. hypochalasia cardia
Q. 2. Achalasia cardia is also called
esophagus
c. Dohlman’s operation
Scenario: A 50 years old female presents with long standing history of progressive
dysphagia. Dysphagia is more for liquids than for solids. There is regurgitation of swallowed
food, choking and coughing at night. Barium swallow shows a dilated esophagus with a
narrowed ‘rat tail’ or ‘bird’s beak’ appearance at lower end.
1. What is the most probable clinical diagnosis?
2. What points you would like to confirm on manometry?
3. What would be the management plan?
-------------------------------------------------------- ANSWERS-----------------------------------------------------
Q.1. d 2. e 3. d 4.c
Scenario: 1. Achalasia cardia 2. Failure of the lower esophageal sphincter to relax, low
pressure in the body of esophagus, high pressure at the lower esophageal sphincter
3. Calcium channel blockers, botox injection, sequential dilatation, modified Heller’s
myotomy.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
HIATUS HERNIA
Definition:
It is defined as displacement of stomach up through hiatus (esophageal opening) of the
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
451 Part F Esophagus
Etiopathology:
There are basically following types of hiatus hernia;
1. Sliding hiatus hernia: In this gastroesophageal
junction ascends into chest and stomach is in line
with the esophagus. The consequence is
gastroesophageal reflux.
2. Paraesophageal hernia: In this
gasteroesophageal junction retains its normal
anatomical position below the diaphragm.
However, fundus of stomach ascends into chest
around side of esophagus through large hiatus.
Angle between stomach and the esophagus is
Diagramatic view of sliding hiatus hernia
maintained. These patients have no reflux.
Clinical features:
Most patients are over the age of 40 years.
In sliding hiatus hernia, there is reflux i.e., heart burn on bending and lying,
retrosternal discomfort, nausea and vomiting. Occasionally dysphagia may occur.
In paraesophageal hernia, there is anemia, dyspnea on exertion, pseudoangina and
abdominal discomfort.
Investigations:
1. Radiology
a. X-ray chest lateral view shows gastric air shadow behind heart.
b. Fluoroscopic studies of esophagus using contrast confirm the Diagramatic
diagnosis. representation of
hiatus hernia
2. Esophagoscopy is done to determine the level of gastroesophageal junction and to find
degree of esophagitis.
3. pH studies
4. Manometry
Treatment:
When there is no symptom, no treatment is required. When symptoms are severe, treatment is
instituted in the following order;
A. Conservative:
1. Weight reduction
2. Avoidance of tobacco and alcohol
3. Elevation of head end of bed at night about 03 cm
4. Drugs that reduce acidity
a. Antacid
b. H2 receptor antagonist
c. Proton-pump inhibitor
d. Antispasmodic
B. Surgical: Surgical treatment is considered in severe cases or where medical treatmet has
failed. In it, replacement of the stomach in the abdomen and repair of the diaphragmatic
opening is usually performed. Different surgical procedures are;
1. Belsey-Mark IV operation
2. Nissen fundoplication
3. Hill’s anti reflux procedure
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. All are true about hiatus hernia except
a. in paraesophageal hernia portion of geal junction ascends into chest
stomach protrudes up around side of d. in sliding hiatus hernia there is anemia
esophagus and psuedoangina
b. in paraesophageal hernia there is e. in sliding hiatus hernia there is heart
anemia and psuedoangina burn and retrosternal discomfort
c. in sliding hiatus hernia gastroesopha-
Q. 2. All are usual clinical features of paraesophageal hernia except
a. abdominal discomfort d. heart burn
c. Nissen fundoplication
Scenario: A 50 years old patient presents with long-standing history of reflux on bending
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
453 Part F Esophagus
and lying, retrosternal discomfort, nausea and vomiting. X-ray chest lateral view shows
gastric air shadow behind heart.
1. What is the most probable clinical diagnosis?
2. What would be the management plan?
-------------------------------------------------------- ANSWERS-----------------------------------------------------
Q.1. d 2. d 3. a 4. b 5. d
Scenario: 1. Hiatus hernia. 2. A; Conservative. Weight reduction, avoidance of tobacco and
alcohol, elevation of head end of bed at night about 3 cm, drugs that reduce acidity.
B; Surgical. Belsey-Mark IV operation, Nissen fundoplication, Hill’s anti reflux procedure.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
CORROSIVE STRICTURE OF ESOPHAGUS
Etiopathology:
Corrosive may be acid or alkali. Swallowing of corrosive may be suicidal or accidental.
Severity of injury depends on nature of corrosive, quantity, concentration and duration of its
contact with the tissues.
Alkalies are more destructive and penetrate into the deeper layers of esophagus.
Swallowed corrosive causes more damage in the mouth and lower third of esophagus
(because peristalsis is slow in this part). Late result of ingestion of corrosive is stricture
formation.
Clinical features:
These depend on the stage at which patient presents.
1. Pain and odynophagia are the most common symptoms in the initial stages.
2. Coughing and choking usually occur due to spill over.
3. In the later stages there is relative or absolute dysphagia.
Complications:
1. Immediate complications are laryngeal edema and airway obstruction.
2. Late complication is formation of esophageal stricture.
Investigations:
1. Barium swallow with fluoroscopy should be carried out to find
out site and length of the stricture.
2. Early esophagoscopy may lead to perforation of esophagus. So, it
Barium swallow
should be delayed for at least two weeks. showing cor-
rosive stricture
Treatment:
1. Immediate treatment: It is directed towards neutralization of corrosive,
maintenance
roids
b. maintenance of airway
Q. 3. All are included in the late management of corrosive stricture of esophagus except
a. laryngopharyngectomy d. repeated serial dilatation with
b. repeated serial dilatation with gum Maloney mercury bougies
elastic bougies e. resection of tight and elongated stric-ture
c. repeated serial dilatation with hydro-
static bag
Scenario: A female presented in ENT OPD with complaint of absolute dysphagia for last 04
days. There is history of corrosive intake 02 months back.
1. What is the most probable clinical diagnosis?
2. What investigations will you carry out?
3. How will you manage this patient?
-------------------------------------------------------- ANSWERS-----------------------------------------------------
Q.1. c 2. a 3. a
Scenario: 1. Corrosive stricture of esophagus 2. Barium swallow, esophagoscopy
3. Repeated and serial dilatation, resection and anastomosis if dilatation fails.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
455 Part F Esophagus
PERFORATION/RUPTURE OF ESOPHAGUS
Etiopathology:
There are following causes of esophageal perforation;
1. Instrumental such as esophagoscopy and bouginage is the
most common cause of esophageal perforation.
2. Foreign body penetration such as by needle, nail or bone Perforation with air in soft
chip. tissues
Investigations:
A. Plain X-ray chest and neck usually shows
1. Air in the soft tissues
2. Air in the mediastinal spaces
3. Air under diaphragm
4. Widening of mediastinum
5. Pneumothorax
6. Pleural effusion
c. surgical emphysema
Definition:
Reflux of gastric contents into the esophagus is known as gastroesophageal reflux disease
(GERD).
Etiopathology:
It occurs due to;
1. Laxity of lower esophageal sphincter
2. Pregnancy
3. Hiatus hernia
4. Excessive use of alcohol
5. Drugs which relax smooth muscles (calcium channel blockers and anticholinergics)
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
458 Part F Esophagus
Clinical features:
1. Substernal pain, heart burn and regurgitation are the most common symptoms.
2. There may be complaint of hoarseness of voice and irritation in throat.
Complications:
1. Esophagus; e.g., esophagitis, benign esophageal stricture, esophageal erosions and
hemorrhage
2. Lungs; e.g., pneumonia, bronchiectasis
PART G
NECK
Chapter 15
CLASSIFICATION OF NECK
MASSES
Most of the neck masses fall into the following categories:
1. Thyroid masses: This is the most common group
of neck swelling. Thyroglossal cyst is a common cause of
neck swelling.
2. Lymph nodes: These may be enlarged because of;
a. Infection in draining sites.
b. Infection of the lymphoreticular system e.g.,
infectious mononucleosis, toxoplasmosis and
cytomegalovirus. Neck masses
Investigations: In cases of neck lump after detailed history and examination, generally,
following investigations are carried out;
1. Fine Needle Aspiration Cytology (FNAC).
2. Ultrasonography/CT/MRI
If FNAC is inconclusive then Core Biopsy (CB) is carried out. If both FNAC and CB are
inconclusive then Open Biopsy (OB) is performed.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. The most common group of neck swellings seen in hospital are from
a. lymph node d. skin
b. metastasis e. thyroid
c. salivary gland
Q. 2. The most common skin lump in neck is
a. dermoid cyst d. melanoma
(FNAC)
e. ultrasonography
Q. 4. A 50 years old man presents with a mass of lymph nodes in the upper cervical region.
He is a smoker and also drinks two to three times per week. Complete phys-ical
examination of the upper aerodigestive tract does not reveal any primary tumor. Our next
diagnostic step should be
a. CT scan neck d. incisional biopsy of node
primary
c. fine needle aspiration cytology
(FNAC)
Q. 5. The mainstay initial investigation in cervical lymphadenopathy is
a. biopsy d. ultrasonography
c. FNAC
-------------------------------------------------------- ANSWERS-----------------------------------------------------
Q.1. e 2. e 3. b 4. c 5. c
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
THYROID TUMORS
1. Follicular adenoma: It is the most common benign
tumor
of thyroid gland. It is usually solitary encapsulated mass varying in
consistency from firm to soft. Adenoma may be non functional
(cold), normally functioning (warm), or hyperactive (toxic).
It is very important to rule out follicular carcinoma histologically
by looking for the absence of venous or capsular invasion. Thyroid carcinoma
by rapid growth, pain and early invasion of surrounding structures. It is hard and fixed to the
surrounding structures. Patients rarely survive for longer than one year after the diagnosis is
made.
Treatment of thyroid carcinomas:
Generally, if the tumor is;
a. Intrathyroidal then total thyroidectomy is performed and thyroxine is given life long.
b. Extrathyroidal then total thyroidectomy is followed by external beam radiotherapy
and thyroxine is given life long.
sion
d. site
b. consistency e. size
Clinical features:
1. Painless lump in the midline just below hyoid bone lasting for
several years is the most common presentation.
A case of
2. If the cyst is infected it becomes painful and there may be odynophagia. thyroglossal cyst
3. It moves on swallowing and usually on protrusion of the tongue as
well.
Thyroglossal cyst may change into thyroglossal sinus due to spontaneous or surgical
drainage/excision of thyroglossal cyst.
Differential diagnosis:
1. Dermoid cyst
2. Lipoma
3. Pyramidal lobe hypertrophy
4. Subhyoid bursitis
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
466 Part G Neck
Investigations:
Diagnosis is usually made on clinical grounds.
1. Thyroid radionucleotide scan is carried out to confirm the presence and location of
normal thyroid gland.
2. FNAC and USG of lump is required in doubtful cases.
3. Sinogram/fistulogram is done in cases of thyroglossal sinus/fistula to find out length and
pathway of the tract.
Treatment:
1. If thyroglossal cyst is asymptomatic, no treatment is required and it may be left as such.
2. If there is infection with pain or swelling, initially wide bore needle aspiration is
carried out along with systemic antibiotics and analgesics.
3. Sistrunk’s operation is the best treatment. In this operation excision of the cyst along
with the tract, body of hyoid bone medial to the lesser cornu and the core of base of
tongue upto the region of foramen caecum is performed.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. The most common congenital neck mass below hyoid bone in the first decade of life is
a. branchial cyst d. lymphangioma
c. open biopsy
Q. 8. Treatment of thyroglossal cyst is
c. Nissen fundoplication
Scenario: A 06 years old boy presents with a mass in the midline of neck just below the
hyoid bone noted 06 months back. It moves with protrusion of tongue.
1. What is the most probable clinical diagnosis?
2. How will you investigate this case?
3. How will you manage this case?
ANSWERS------------------------------------------------
-------------------------------------------------------- -----
Q.1. e 2. c 3. d 4. a 5. b
6. e 7. d 8. d
Scenario: 1. Thyroglossal duct cyst 2. Thyroid radioneucleoside scan, FNAC and USG of
lump 3. Sistrunk’s operation.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
BRANCHIAL CYST
Synonym: Lateral cervical cyst
This is usually a result of anomaly of second brachial arch. This is located deep to
sternomastoid at the junction of upper one third
and lower two third. This is common in second decade of life but can occur at any age. These
may be bilateral. Cyst presents as a smooth, rounded, fluctuant, non tender and
non- transilluminant swelling. Swelling may increase in size during upper respiratory tract
infection. A branchial cyst may be associated with a sinus or a fistula.
Treatment:
If branchial cyst/sinus/fistula is asymptomatic, no treatment is required.
1. If there is infection with pain or swelling, initially wide bore needle aspiration is
carried out along with systemic antibiotics and analgesics.
2. When the infection has settled, excision of the cyst/sinus/fistula is performed. Methylene
blue can be injected into sinus/fistula to detect the pathway of tract.
Step ladder incision is made in neck for exposure of the tract of cyst/sinus/fistula. Care
is taken not to leave behind any portion of the tract otherwise, it may lead to recurrence.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Branchial cyst originates from
a. the junction of anterior 1/2 with pos- 2/3 of sternomastoid muscle
terior 1/2 of tongue d. the junction of upper 1/2 with lower 1/2
b. the junction of anterior 1/3 with pos- of sternomastoid muscle
terior 2/3 of tongue e. the junction of upper 2/3 with lower 1/3
c. the junction of upper 1/3 with lower of sternomastoid muscle
Q. 2. All are true about branchial cyst except
a. anomaly of second branchial arch fistula
b. common presentation is in the second d. may increase in size during upper
decade of life respiratory tract infection
c. may be associated with a sinus or e. presents in the midline
Q. 3. All are true about branchial sinus/fistula except
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
469 Part H General Topics
c. anti-inflammatory drugs
Q. 6. Treatment of branchial fistula is
c. Nissen fundoplication
-------------------------------------------------------- ANSWERS-----------------------------------------------------
Q.1. c 2. e 3. e 4. b 5. d 6. b
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
470 Part H General Topics
PART H
GENERAL TOPICS
Chapter 16
ACQUIRED IMMUNODEFICIENCY SYNDROME (AIDS)
Etiopathology:
The agent responsible for Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome is retrovirus. HIV-1
enveloped retrovirus having a genomic strand with RNA. Viral DNA is integrated into host
cell DNA, called the provirus which is reverse transcribed into viral RNA. This RNA is
utilized for RNA genome of virus or acts as messenger RNA for translation to viral proteins.
Retrovirus do not cause cell lysis, so the infection becomes permanently encoded.
HIV can be isolated from body fluids like blood, semen, saliva, vaginal secretions, urine,
tears, CSF and breast milk.
Transmission:
It can occur from:
1. Sexual intercourse
2. I/V drug abuse and infected needles
3. Blood transfusion and organ transplantation
4. Mother to child transmission, both in utero and milk
Clinical features:
Fourty per cent of patients present with otolaryngological symptoms. Some of which are
in the mouth.
1. Kaposi sarcoma: Raised or flat red patches which may ulcerate on mucous membrane.
Histological examination shows sarcomatous change. Thirty percent of AIDS patients
have Kaposi sarcoma and 25 % present with it.
2. Hairy leukoplakia: White patches on the tongue which regress and recur. Histology it
shows leukoplakia with marked keratinization.
3. Candidiasis: Appearance in a young male must be viewed with suspicion unless there
are obvious predisposing factors.
4. Persistent cervical lymphadenopathy: It may be associated with generalized lymphade-
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
471 Part H General Topics
Classification of lymphoma:
Lymphoma is generally, divided into;
1. Hodgkin’s disease
2. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
Etiopathology:
In most cases exact etiology is unknown.
There is a high Epstein-Barr virus titre in Burkitt’s lymphoma. It is B-cell lymphoma
of lymphoblastic type with evidence of chronic immunosuppression due to medicines.
T-cell lymphoma is associated with HTLV-I infection.
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
473 Part H General Topics
Histopathology:
Hodgkin’s disease:
On histology Reed-Sternberg (mirror image) cells are hallmark of Hodgkin’s disease.
Histologically the disease is classified into four subtypes according to the Rye classification
which was modified from Lukes Butler system;
1. Lymphocytic predominant
2. Nodular sclerosis
3. Mixed cellularity
4. Lymphocytic depleted
These subtypes also give an indication of prognosis. Lymphocytic predominant and nodular
sclerosing types have a better prognosis than the other two categories.
However, clinical staging is more important than the histological subtypes in determining
the prognosis of Hodgkin’s disease.
Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma:
Kiel’s classification (modified from Lennert) of non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma is usually used. It
is divided into low-grade and high-grade lymphomas.
Low-grade lymphomas usually contain mature cells, such as centrocytic lymphoma,
lymphocytic lymphoma, immunocytoma, plasmocytoma etc.
High-grade lymphomas contain premature cells such as centroblastic lymphoma,
lymphoblastic lymphoma, immunoblastic lymphoma etc.
Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma is classified on the basis of predominant cell type involved
and subdivided according to whether the neoplastic cells are arranged in nodules or in a
diffuse pattern. A nodular pattern is associated with a better prognosis.
Features which favor low-grade rather than high-grade are;
a. A nodular rather than a diffuse histological pattern
b. A lymphocytic rather than a histiocytic morphology.
c. Well differentiated rather than poorly differentiated cells.
Histological grading is more important than the clinical staging in determining the
prognosis of non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma.
3. Radiology:
a. Whole body scan to find out area of active disease.
b. X-ray chest PA view to demonstrate hilar lymph node involvement, mediastinal
disease and parenchymal lung disease.
c. Ultrasound, CT/MRI of chest, abdomen and pelvis to detect involvement of lymph
nodes, spleen or other extralymphatic structures.
4. Hematology: CBC, ESR, liver function tests, renal function tests, serum uric acid (as
hyperuricemia may result from early stages of treatment).
Treatment:
1. Hodgkin’s disease:
For stage I and II, radiotherapy is the treatment of choice.
For stage III and IV, chemotherapy is the treatment of choice.
For disease above the diaphragm, ‘mantle technique’ of radiotherapy is used. It covers
the cervical, clavicular, axillary, mediastinal and hilar lymph nodes.
For diseases below the diaphragm, ‘inverted Y technique’ of radiotherapy is used. It
covers the para-aortic nodes from the level of diaphragm to the bifurcation of the aorta,
together with pelvic and inguinal nodes.
Some clinicians advocate chemotherapy along with radiotherapy (mantle + inverted Y
technique) in stage III. In stage IV disease, combination chemotherapy is used in the form of
following regimens. The regimens include;
a. MOPP i.e., Nitrogen mustard, Oncovin, Procarbazine and Prednisolone
b. MVPP i.e., Nitrogen mustard, Vinblastine, Procarbazine and Prednisolone
2. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma:
This disease is usually more widespread at the time of presentation and, therefore, unsuitable
for radiotherapy.
For stage I and II, radiotherapy is the treatment of choice especially in low-grade malignancies.
For stage III and IV, chemotherapy is the treatment of choice. The regimen depends on
histological classification;
a. For low-grade tumors, alkylating agents are given.
b. For high-grade tumors, aggressive combination chemotherapy is instituted in the
form of following regimens;
COPD i.e., Cyclophosphamide, Oncovin, Prednisolone and Doxorubicin
CHOP i.e., Cyclophosphamide, Hydroxydaunorubicin, Oncovin, Prednisolone.
SELF ASSESSMENT
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
477 Part H General Topics
Q. 1. Extranodal involvement is more commonly a manifestation of
a. Cytomegalovirus d. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
b. doxorubicin e. prednisolone
c. heparin
Scenario: A 22 years old boy presented to ENT OPD with the complain of progressively
increasing swelling in lower neck for last 04 months. He has mild fever but no history of
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
478 Part H General Topics
Staging:
Definition:
It is the grouping together of TNM features which may share a level of prognosis or certain
treatment.
TNM/Clinical staging
Stage 0 Tis, N0, M0
Stage I T1, N0, M0
jugular vein
e. superior mediastinum
Q. 2. The lymph nodes of the level II are found in
a. around lower one third of internal c. around upper one third of internal
jugular vein jugular vein
jugular vein
e. superior mediastinum
Q. 3. The lymph nodes of the level III are found in
a. around lower one third of internal c. around upper one third of internal
jugular vein jugular vein
jugular vein
e. superior mediastinum
Q. 5. The lymph nodes of the level V are found in
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. In classical/radical neck dissection all of the following structures are removed except
a. all lymph nodes extending from the hyoid c. spinal accessory nerve
and mandible above to the clavicle below d. sternomastoid
e. vagus nerve
b. internal jugular nerve
Q. 2. In type I modified neck dissection the structure conserved is
a. all lymph nodes extending from the hyoid region
and mandible above to the clavicle below c. internal jugular nerve
d. spinal accessory nerve
b. all lymph nodes in the submandibular e. sternomastoid
Q. 3. In type II modified neck dissection, the structure conserved is
a. all lymph nodes extending from the below
-------------------------------------------------------- ANSWERS-----------------------------------------------------
Q.1. e 2. d 3. e 4. d 5. d
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-
OCCULT PRIMARY
Patient presenting with a metastatic cervical lymph node from an unknown primary source is
said to have an occult primary.
The following primary sites should always be under suspicion as a source of metastatic
lymph nodes in the cervical region.
1. Nasopharynx
2. Tonsils
3. Base of tongue
4. Thyroid
5. Hypopharynx
Search for primary disease:
When a patient presents with a cervical mass which is considered to be a metastatic node, the
search for primary tumor should follow an established sequence of investigations. The order
of investigations may have to be tailored to the individual. After a careful history and a
general physical examination, nasal cavity, oral cavity, oropharynx, hypopharynx, larynx and
nasopharynx should be carefully investigated. Examination is further facilitated by palpation
in areas where this can be carried out bimanually. Palpation is an important part of
examination. It should be performed during examination of head and neck where a finger
may reach likening its value to that of having the added facility of a third eye.
Investigations:
1. Sinus and chest X-rays, contrast study of the upper and lower gastrointestinal tract.
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
484 Part H General Topics
Treatment:
If the lesion appears resectable, surgery should be performed in the form of radical neck
dissection as a treatment of choice. However, for patients with multiple enlarged unilateral
nodes, radical neck dissection is combined with postoperative radiotherapy.
Second primary tumor:
Cancer of the head and neck tends to be multiple in both time and space. The incidence of a
second primary tumor is about 10%. The interval between the diagnosis of the first cancer
may be long but mostly present within 03 years. The most common site for a second primary
is another site in the head and neck, particularly in the mouth. The oropharynx and the lungs
are also other common sites for second primary tumor.
RADIOTHERAPY
Definition:
It is defined as treatment with ionizing radiations.
Now radiotherapy is being extensively used in
the treatment of E.N.T, head and neck
malignancies.
Indications of radiotherapy:
For the treatment of epithelial malignancies in
head and neck region, a number of options are
available. These options are surgery, radiotherapy,
chemotherapy or combination of above.
Complications of radiotherapy:
A. Early:
1. Radiation sickness
2. Mucositis
3. Moniliasis
4. Dryness of mucous membrane
5. Xerostomia
6. Hematopoietic suppression
7. Skin reactions (erythema)
B. Late:
1. Permanent xerostomia
2. Decaying of teeth
3. Osteoradionecrosis
4. Transverse myelitis
5. Trismus
6. Endocrinal defects and malignancy
Clinical radiotherapy:
1. Curative radiotherapy: Also called radical radiotherapy and is given with intent to cure
the disease. Although time consuming and unpleasant but it has two main distinct advantages.
Firstly, it preserves function. Secondly it can achieve control particularly in small lesions
where the results are comparable to surgery and provides increased disease-free interval.
2. Palliative radiotherapy: Although basically given with palliative intent, when given in
radical doses, it has the remarkable ability to achieve disease control. Palliative situations
include too large a primary tumor, positive distant metastasis or the general condition of the
patient does not permit radical surgery or radical radiotherapy.
3. Preoperative radiotherapy: Preoperative radiotherapy has the ability to decrease the
size of primary tumor which is then amenable to surgery. This therapy causes fibrosis,
thereby blocking lymphatic spread at the time of surgery without much interference with
tissue oxygenation. In addition, it achieves an excellent control of microscopic disease in
neck nodes. It however, decreases tissue vitality, delays healing and tissue fibrosis. It leads to
difficult tumor margin identification at the time of surgery. It may increase the incidence of
fistula, flap necrosis and carotid artery rupture post-operatively.
4. Postoperative radiotherapy: In contrast, post operative radiotherapy is able to achieve
better control due to removal of tumor mass, identification of residual disease and exact areas
to be covered. Tumor margins are easily identified at surgery with good healing. There are
lesser chances of fistula formation, flap necrosis or other complications. It has the
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
486 Part H General Topics
distinct ability to achieve control of microscopic disease not encompassed in surgical fields.
However, reduced blood supply and the oxygenation may make it ineffective when used
postoperatively.
Mechanism of action:
Basic aim is to achieve maximum radiation dose to the tumor for the purpose of cure and
minimum exposure to adjacent structures.
It damages DNA of the cells. Healthy cells undergo repair, whereas malignant cells do
not have this capacity and are, therefore, killed.
Head and neck squamous cell carcinoma are less sensitive to radiotherapy as compared to
lymphoma, thereby require more doses. Close approximation of vital structure like brain stem
in head and neck require precision and controlling the exposure.
Radiotherapy patterns:
1. External beam radiotherapy/teletherapy: Photon or electron beams are projected by
kilo voltage or linear accelerator machine onto the tumor. These energies containing photon
beams have poor penetration power, about 01 cm, and are useful for superficial tumors.
Linear accelerators produce high energy million-volt beams which have enhanced penetration
power and gradual dose fall off with added advantage of well-defined edge and equal
absorption in different tissues. Electrons are used for superficial lesions or as dose boosters.
Beneficial effects of the neutron therapy are not universally accepted.
2. Interstitial radiotherapy/brachytherapy: It works on the principle of placing a
radioactive isotope material in close contact with the tumor. Thus, giving maximum dose to
the tumor locally and sparing the adjacent regions. The radioactive material can be implanted
in the form of needles, wires or seeds of radium which are removable or radon implants
which are permanent.
Intracavity implant is another type in which the radioactive isotope is placed in the
body cavity near the tumor e.g., carcinoma maxillary sinus or nasopharynx. The isotope
can also be moulded to fit the site of implant.
Types of radiation:
1. Photon beam therapy: Photon is a bundle of electromagnetic radiations. It includes
high energy X-ray and gamma rays from radioactive elements. It is the most commonly used
type of radiotherapy.
2. Electron beam therapy: Electron beam is emitted by linear accelerator. These increase
the radiation dose to the target due to sharp rise and fall of the dose. This type of radiotherapy
is the second most common in practice.
3. Radioactive isotopes: In these radioactive particles like neutrons or protons are given
intravenously or orally. These particles build up in malignant tissues generating high local
dose. An example is radioactive iodine for thyroid malignancies.
Radiotherapy sources:
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
487 Part H General Topics
c. teletherapy
Q. 3. One rad is equivalent to
a. 0.001 Gy d. 1.0 Gy
b. 0.01 Gy e. 10.0 Gy
c. 0.1 Gy
Q. 4. All are common complications of radiotherapy of nasopharyngeal carcinoma
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
488 Part H General Topics
except
b. moniliasis e. xerostomia
c. transverse myelitis
-------------------------------------------------------- ANSWERS-----------------------------------------------------
Q.1. a 2. b 3. b 4. a
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-
CHEMOTHERAPY
Mechanism of action:
The tumor cells have a cell cycle and an intervening resting phase. Chemotherapy has anti
cellular properties against normal and cancer cells. Few drugs act throughout the cycle and a
few act on resting phase.
Drugs are tested as phase 1, phase 2, phase 3 clinical trials.
1. In phase 1 trial, dose is gradually increased to assess toxic levels.
2. In phase 2 trial, the toxicity along with clinical response is assessed.
3. In phase 3 trial, the main point of interest is in survival figures.
Aims of chemotherapy:
1. Treatment of advanced, recurrent or disseminated disease.
2. Relief of symptoms.
3. Control the micro/occult metastasis after the surgery/radiotherapy.
Uses of chemotherapy:
Chemotherapy can be used alone for palliation or in combination with other treatment options
like radiotherapy and surgery. Usual head and neck malignancies are squamous cell
carcinomas which limit the use of chemotherapy due to low sensitivity. Hodgkin’s and non-
Hodgkin lymphomas in head and neck region are however, sensitive and show very good
response to chemotherapy.
If used before primary therapy, it decreases tumor load and reduces occult metastasis at
the time of surgery or radiotherapy. However, it does not seem to improve the overall
survival rates.
Drugs commonly used in chemotherapy:
Single drug or combination of following different drugs is usually used.
1. Antifolates e.g., methotrexate
2. Anti-metabolites e.g., 5-flourouracil
3. Alkaloids e.g., vincristine
SELF ASSESSMENT
Q. 1. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy is given
CRYOSURGERY
Rapid cooling of tissues to bring it below freezing level and then gradual defrosting or
warming is the basic principle of cryosurgery by which tissues are destroyed.
Cryoprobe:
It is an extension of the system through which a compressed gas when passed, get expanded
resulting in sub zero temperatures. It can achieve -30 to -70 degrees Celsius temperature.
Special thermometer attachment gives the overall temperature around a probe.
Agents used:
1. Nitrogen in liquid form
2. Nitrous oxide snow
3. Carbon dioxide snow
Mechanism of action:
It works on the principle of cellular dehydration and denaturation of proteins along with
arresting vascular flow and cellular respiration. Cryoprobe is applied to the tissue for 05-10
minutes under anesthesia. It is allowed to defrost slowly. Procedure may need repetitions.
Clinical applications:
1. Carcinoma near cartilage
2. Nasal turbinate reduction
3. Leukoplakia
4. Oral and cheek tumors
5. Recurrent tumors
6. Angiofibroma
7. Glomus tumor
Special features:
1. Major anesthesia avoidable
2. Minimal blood loss
3. Manageable as O.P.D procedure
4. Minimal postoperative scaring
5. Makes tissue useless for histology
laser.
2. All the exposed areas of the patient should be protected by the saline soaked gauze.
3. Only non-inflamed gases like halothane and enflurane should be used. While using CO2
laser, endotracheal tube should be wrapped with reflective metallic wire. Cuff of the en-
dotracheal tube is inflated with color saline.
4. Protection of eyes: All the personnel in the operation theatre should wear protective
glasses as laser beam may cause burn to the cornea and retina.
SELF ASSESSMENT
Scenario: A 40 years old male came to ENT OPD with the complaint of hoarseness of voice
for 20 days and he is a teacher by profession. On indirect laryngoscopic examination, there
are bilateral vocal nodules.
1. What are different treatment options?
2. What is best treatment of vocal nodules in modern era?
--------------------------------------------------------ANSWERS-----------------------------------------------------
Scenario: 1. Voice rest, speech therapy, microlaryngeal surgery, laser surgery 2. Excision
with CO2 laser.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-
FUNCTIONAL ENDOSCOPIC SINUS SURGERY (FESS)
Indications:
It was originally designed for the treatment of rhinosinusitis and nasal
polypi but now its use has been extended e.g.,
1. Allergic fungal sinusitis
2. Repair of cerebrospinal fluid leak FESS under progress
3. Dacryocystorhinostomy
4. Choanal atresia
5. Hypophysectomy
6. Management of epistaxis
7. Management of some benign and malignant tumors
Contraindications:
An acute infection leading to;
1. Meningitis
2. Epidural abscess
3. Cavernous sinus thrombosis
4. Visual loss
Complications:
1. CSF rhinorrhoea
2. Visual loss
3. Frontoethmoidal mucocele
4. Epistaxis
SELF ASSESSMENT
Scenario: A 35 years old male came to ENT OPD with the complaint of progressive bilateral
nasal obstruction, post nasal discharge and loss of sense of smell for last one year. On
examination, there are whitish grape like pedunculated glistening masses (most probably
ethmoidal polyp).
1. What is most modern surgical intervention?
2. What are other indications of this surgical procedure?
--------------------------------------------------------ANSWERS-----------------------------------------------------
Scenario: 1. Functional endoscopic sinus surgery 2. Repair of cerebrospinal fluid leak,
dacryocystorhinostomy, choanal atresia, hypophysectomy, management of epistaxis,
management of some benign and malignant tumors.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-
DIFFERENCES BETWEEN CT AND MRI
CT MRI
1. Patient is exposed to ionizing radiations Patient is not exposed to ionizing radiations
2. No potential for direct three plane Potential for direct three plane imaging
imaging
3. Chances of artifacts Absence of artifacts
4. Tissue characteristic is not so good Tissue characteristics is much better
5. Contrast enhancement is required for Superior density resolution without
density resolution contrast enhancement
6. Radioiodinated compound (conray) is Paramagnetic agent i.e., Gd-DTPA
used as a contrast (Gadolinium-Diethylene Triamine Penta
Acetic acid) is used as a contrast
Flap:
It is defined as a mass of tissue for grafting (usually including skin) only partly removed from
one part of the body so that it retains its own blood supply during its transfer to another site.
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
494 Part H General Topics
It is also defined as a piece of tissue which retains its own blood supply.
Graft:
Any tissue or organ for implantation or transplantation.
SYNDROMES IN E.N.T
1. Alport syndrome:
Glomerulonephritis, corneal dystrophy and progressive sensorineural hearing loss.
2. Apert syndrome:
Syndactyly and conductive hearing loss.
3. Branchio-oto-renal syndrome:
Branchial fistula, malformed pinna and conductive hearing loss.
4. Boerhaave syndrome:
Spontaneous rupture of esophagus due to severe vomiting.
5. CHARGE syndrome:
C-Coloboma of eye, H-Heart defects, A-Atresia of choana, R-Retarded growth, G-
Genital hypoplasia, E-Ear anomalies.
6. Collet Sicard syndrome:
Paralysis of 9th, 10th, 11th, and 12th cranial nerves.
7. Costen syndrome:
Abnormality of temporomandibular joint due to defective bite, otalgia, blocked ear,
tinnitus, vertigo.
8. Down syndrome:
Mental retardation, slanting eyes, short stature, ear canal stenosis and conductive hearing
loss.
9. Eagle syndrome also known as syndrome of elongated styloid process:
Discomfort in throat, pain in ear, upper neck and dysphagia. Cranial nerve 5th, 7th, 9th
and 10th nerve may be irritated.
10. Frey’s syndrome also known as gustatory sweating:
Sweating and flushing of skin over parotid area during mastication.
11. Grisel syndrome:
Atlanto-axial dislocation. It follows adenoid surgery/nasopharyngeal infection. Painful
neck torticollis.
12. Gradenigo’s syndrome:
Persistent ear discharge, 5th and 6th cranial nerve palsy (deep seated orbital pain).
13. Horner’s syndrome:
Ptosis, meiosis, anhydrosis, enophthalmos and loss of ciliospinal reflex.
14. Hugling Jackson syndrome:
Paralysisof 10th, 11th and 12th cranial
nerves.
15. Jugular foramen syndrome:
Paralysis of 9th, 10th, 11th cranial nerves. It is seen in carcinoma of nasopharynx, glomus
jugulare, large acoustic neuroma and thrombophlebitis of jugular bulb.
16. Kartagener’s syndrome:
Bronchiectasis, sinusitis and situs inversus.
17. Lermoyez syndrome:
Variant of Meniere’s disease. Initially hearing loss and tinnitus occur but after an episode
of vertigo follows relieving tinnitus and hearing loss.
18. Lemierre’s syndrome:
Thrombosis of internal jugular vein.
19. Pierre Robin syndrome:
Micrognathia, glossoptosis, cleft palate and sensorineural hearing loss.
20. Pendred syndrome:
Goiter and sensorineural hearing loss.
21. Ramsay Hunt syndrome:
Herpes zoster oticus with involvement of 5th ,7th ,8th cranial nerves.
22. Schmidt syndrome:
Paralysis of 10th and 11th cranial nerves.
23. Sjogren’s syndrome:
Xerostomia and xerophthalmia.
24. Sleep apnea syndrome:
Thirty apneic spells (each spell lasting at least 10 seconds) during a period of 7 hours sleep.
25. Treacher Collins syndrome:
Coloboma lower eyelid and mandibular & malar hypoplasia, malformed pinna,
malformed malleus and incus and conductive hearing loss.
26. Usher syndrome:
Rhinitis pigmentosa, night blindness, sensorineural hearing loss.
b. 5th, 7th, 9th and 10th cranial nerves e. 11th and 12th cranial nerves
c. 9th and 10th cranial nerves
Q. 2. Horner’s syndrome may be associated with
a. Eagle syndrome d. Vernet’s syndrome
c. Pancoast syndrome
Q. 9. Sensorineural hearing loss associated with night blindness is seen in
c. Usher syndrome
-------------------------------------------------------- ANSWERS-----------------------------------------------------
Q.1. b 2. e 3. c 4. d 5. d
6. d 7. b 8. d 9. c
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
498 Part I Miscellaneous MCQs
PART I
MISCELLANEOUS MCQs
EAR
Q. 1. Following structures develop from 1st brachial arch except
a. incus d. tensor palati
c. frontalis muscle
Q. 3. Pinna develops from
tubercles
c. six endodermal tubercles
Q. 4. Tympanic membrane is derived from
a. ectoderm only d. all of the above
c. mesoderm only
Q. 5. The cartilage of pinna is
b. 0.1 to 0.5 mm e. 01 cm to 02 cm
c. 0.5 to 01 mm
Q. 7. Stapes footplate covers
c. pyramid
a. 1.5 sq mm d. 3.2 sq mm
b. 2.2 sq mm e. 04 sq mm
c. 3.0 sq mm
Q. 9. Use of Seigel’s speculum during examination of the ear provides all except
a. assessment of movement of the tym- c. as applicator for the powdered anti-
panic membrane septic to ear
b. as applicator for the powdered antibi-otic d. magnification
to ear e. removal of foreign body from the ear
Q. 10. Which focal length in the objective piece of microscope is commonly used for ear
surgery?
a. 150 mm d. 450 mm
b. 250 mm e. 550 mm
c. 350 mm
Q. 11. All are functions of the middle ear except
a. act as air cushion to protect inner ear c. decreases the force of sound energy
b. converts mechanical energy to electrical d. increases the force of sound energy
impulse e. all of the above
Q. 12. The length of external auditory meatus in an adult is
a. 15 mm d. 27 mm
b. 19 mm e. 35 mm
c. 24 mm
Q. 13. The length of internal auditory meatus is
a. 0.5 cm d. 04 cm
b. 01 cm e. 06 cm
c. 02 cm
Q. 14. Plate of bone separating the middle cranial fossa from middle ear is called
a. epitympanum(attic) d. septum musculotuberosum
b. otalgia e. vertigo
NOSE
Q. 1. Nasal vestibule is lined by
a. columnar ciliated epithelium d. transitional cell epithelium
c. hiatus semilunaris
Q. 3. Torus tubaris refers to
a. bony swelling in the hard palate palatopharyngeus
b. elevation raised by cartilage of eustav- d. mucosal fold raised by salpingopha-
chian tube ryngeus muscle near the eustachian tube
c. mucosal ridge raised by fibers of e. none of the above
b. frontal e. sphenoid
c. maxillary
Q. 10. Trephining for acute frontal sinusitis is done through
a. anterior wall d. roof
c. posterior wall
Q. 11. All are true about features of congenital syphilis except
a. atrophic rhinitis may occur c. perforation in nasal septum
b. mucocutaneous lesions d. saddle nose deformity
b. lymphoma e. rhabdomyosarcoma
c. malignant teratoma
Q. 17. A female infant is born with a tumor of the nasopharynx, the likely nature of tumor
is
a. chondroma d. rhabdomyosarcoma
b. craniopharyngioma e. teratoma
c. neurofibroma
Q. 18. Which of the following statements is not correct?
a. Bilateral choanal atresia in a newborn pathic
precipitates respiratory distress d. Lower border of alar cartilage forms
b. Bilateral nasal packing increases pul- the nasal valve
monary resistance e. Posterior epistaxis can present as a
c. the most common cause of epistaxis is case of hematemesis
idio-
Q. 19. The Stenson’s duct of the parotid gland passes through buccinator to open in the
mucosa against the
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
503 Part I Miscellaneous MCQs
c. Malignant melanoma
-------------------------------------------------
------- ANSWERS-----------------------------------------------------
Q.1. c 2. c 3. b 4. a 5. c 6. c 7. a
8. b 9. b 10. b 11. b 12. b 13. b 14. c
15. e 16. e 17. b 18. d 19. c 20. c
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-
THROAT
c. duct of Stensen
Q. 2. The duct of parotid gland is also known as
c. cricotracheal membrane
Q. 9. The longest cranial nerve in the body is
a. 4th cranial nerve d. 10th cranial nerve
PART J
OSPE
EAR
Q.1. Carefully examine the given photograph and answer the following questions:
1. What test is being performed? 02
2. What will be the finding of this test if the patient has conductive
hearing loss in his left ear? 02
Key:
1. Tuning fork test (Weber test)
2. Weber will be lateralized to left ear
Q.2. Carefully examine the given picture and answer the following
questions:
1. What is the diagnosis? 01
2. What is the cause in this case? 01
3. How will you treat is? 02
Key:
1. Keloid
2. Ear piercing
3. Excision, with local steroid injection. In refractory cases it may need excision with low
dose radiation within 24 hours of surgery.
Q.3. Carefully examine the given photograph and answer the following questions:
1. What is your diagnosis? 02
2. How will you manage the case? 02
Key:
1. Otomycosis
2. Management:
• Suction clearance
• Topical antifungal medicine (2% salicylic acid in rectified spirit)
• Prevent water from entering in the ear
• Avoid poking the ears
Q.4. Carefully examine the patient and answer the following questions:
1. Which cranial nerve is paralyzed? 01
2. Which side is affected? 01
3. Give at least three common causes of such paralysis. 02
Key:
1. Facial nerve
2. Left side
3. Congenital, middle ear and mastoid surgery, acute/chronic suppurative otitis media,
tumors of IAC/middle ear/parotid, idiopathic Bell’s palsy.
Q.5. Carefully examine the given photograph and answer the following questions:
1. What is shown in this picture? 01
2. What procedures are accomplished through this? 01
3. What are the advantages of this procedure? 02
Key:
1. Postauricular approach to the mastoid
2. Different mastoidectomy operation are accomplished through this
approach
3. Mastoid antrum is approached directly
Q.6. Carefully examine the given photograph and answer the following questions:
1. What is shown in this picture?
01
2. What procedures are accomplished through this?
01
3. What are complications of this procedure?
02
Key:
1. Endaural approach to the mastoid process
2. Different mastoidectomy operations are carried out through
this approach
3. Damage to facial nerve, damage to labyrinth
Q.7. Carefully examine the given photograph and answer the following questions:
1. What is this graph? 01
2. What is this showing? 01
3. What is threshold? 01
4. Suppose this graph is obtained from a child of five
years, what do you suspect in this case? 01
Key:
A B C D
KEY
1. Tuning fork to assess hearing
2. Jobson Horne probe to remove wax
3. Agneo’s myringotome to make incision in tympanic membrane
4. Mollison’s self retaining mastoid retractor for ear surgeries e.g., cortical
mastoiddectomy, radical mastoidectomy and modified radical mastoidectomy
Q.12. Carefully observe the given radiograph and answer the following questions
1. Name the radiograph and its view? 01
509 Parrt J OSPE
2. Describe the findings? 01
3. What will be your diagnosis? 02
Key
1. X-ray mastoid both ears lateral oblique view
2. Sclerosis of mastoid air cells
3. Chronic suppurative otitis media
Q.13. Carefully observe the given photograph and answer the following questions
1. What is the diagnosis, and which side is affected? 01
2. What are two types, according to site of lesion? 01
3. What are the medical and surgical treatment options in
idiopathic type? 02
Key
1. Facial nerve palsy, left side
2. a) Upper motor neuron pasly
b) Lower motor neuron palsy
3. Medical treatment: steroids, antiviral therapy, physiotherapy, facial exercises,
protection of the eye
Surgical treatment: facial nerve decompression
NOSE
Q.1. Carefully examine the given photograph and answer the following questions:
1. Identify the instrument? 01
2. Name of the procedure where it is used? 01
3. What are indications of its use? 01
4. Name at least three usual complications it can produce? 01
Key:
1. Tilley’s Lichtwitz trocar and cannula
2. Antral washout
3. Acute and subacute sinusitis
4. Complications:
• Trauma to cheek
• Trauma to orbit
• Bleeding
• Air embolism
Q.2. Carefully examine the given photograph and answer the following questions:
1. What is the diagnosis? 01
2. Enumerate its two causes? 01
3. What is the treatment? 01
4. What complications can arise if untreated? 01
Key:
1. Septal hematoma
2. Fracture nose and septal surgery
3. Incision & drainage plus antibiotics
4. Septal abscess, cavernous sinus thrombosis, septal perforation and saddle nose
Q.3. Carefully examine the given photograph and answer the following questions:
1. What investigation is this? 01
2. What are the findings? 02
3. Give at least two differential diagnoses? 01
Key:
1. Coronal CT scan of nose and paranasal sinuses
2. Findings:
• Air fluid level in left maxillary sinus
• Haziness of left nasal cavity
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY
FAHIM AWAN
511 Parrt J OSPE
• Haziness of left ethmoid sinuses
• Haziness of left frontal sinus
3. Differential diagnosis:
a. Acute sinusitis
b. Chorionic sinusitis
Q.4. Carefully examine the given X-ray and answer the following questions:
1. What is this X-ray? 01
2. What is the positive finding in this radiograph? 01
3. Mention two complications associated with this pathology? 01
4. How will you manage? 01
Key:
1. This is X-ray PNS, occipitomental view
2. Radiopaque, rounded shadow seen in one nasal cavity
3. Rhinitis, sinusitis, nose bleeding
4. Removal of rhinolith
Q.5. Carefully examine the given photograph and answer the following questions:
1. What is the name of the instrument? 01
2. What is its function and in which operation kit it is used? 01
3. Mention three complications of the operation? 02
Key:
1. Ballenger swival knife
2. It is used to cut the septal cartilage in one block. It is used in SMR operation
3. Septal hematoma, septal perforation, saddle nose
Q.6. Carefully examine the given photograph and answer the following questions:
1. What are the names of these instruments? 01
2. In which operation these are used? 01
3. What are the usual complications associated with the conditions
where these instruments are used? 02
Key:
1. Asch’s forceps and Walsham’s forceps
2. For correction of fractured nasal bones
3. Massive nasal bleeding, septal haematoma, septal ascess and CSF rhinorrhoea
Q.9. Carefully observe the given photograph and answer following questions
1. Name the radiograph and its view? 01
2. Describe finding in this radiograph? 01
3. Name types of fractures of nasal bones? 02
Key
1. Radiograph nasal bones lateral view
2. Loss of continuity and loss of alignment of nasal bones
3. There are three classes/types of fracture nasal bones
a) Class 1 fracture b) Class 11 fracture c) Class 111 fracture
Q.12. Carefully observe the given photograph and answer following questions
1. What are the clinical findings in this 10-years-old boy? 01
2. What is the most common cause? 01
3. How will you treat this patient? 01
4. Where pathology is suspected? 01
Key:
1. Solitary globular whitish mass in left nasal cavity, left proptosis
2. Left antrochoanal polyp
3. FESS, Intranasal polypectomy
4. Left maxillary sinus
Q.4. Carefully examine the given photograph and answer the following questions:
A 20 years old male presents with two days history of severe odynophagia, high-grade
fever and trismus:
1. What is your diagnosis? 01
2. What is the treatment of this condition? 01
3. What complications can occur if not treated? 02
Key:
1. Peritonsillar abscess (quinsy)
2. Incisions and drainage, I.V. antibiotics
3. Complications:
• Airway obstruction
• Parapharyngeal abscess
• Retropharyngeal abscess
• Internal jugular vein thrombosis
Q.5. Carefully examine the given photograph and answer the following questions:
1. What is the diagnosis? 01
2. How will you confirm whether it is in the esophagus or trachea? 01
3. How will you manage it? 01
4. Mention one important complication of its removal. 01
CONCEPT BOOK OF DISEASES OF EAR, NOSE & THROAT BY FAHIM AWAN
516 Parrt J OSPE
Key:
1. Foreign body
2. Needs lateral view to decide
3. Rigid endoscopy and removal of foreign body under general anesthesia
4. Damage to teeth, esophageal tear, esophageal perforation
Q.6. Carefully examine the given photograph and answer the following questions:
1. What is this picture? 01
2. What are radiological findings? 01
3. What is pathology? 01
4. How will you deal with this pathology? 01
Key:
1. CT scan axial view showing upper part of neck and floor of mouth
2. There is radiopaque shadow in the left submandibular region
3. Stone in submandibular gland.
4. Excision of submandibular gland.
Q.7. Carefully examine the given photograph and answer the following questions:
1. What is radiograph A and radiograph B? 01
2. What is importance of radiograph A and radiograph B. 01
3. What are positive radiological findings? 01
4. How will you manage this case? 01
Key:
1. Radiograph A is AP view and radiograph B is a lateral view of chest and neck
2. Radiograph A is done to detect the pathology and radiograph B is done to determine the
position of the pathology
3. There are radiopaque shadows in both radiographs coinciding with coin
4. Endoscopic removal of coin under general anesthesia
Q.8. Carefully examine the given photograph and answer the following questions:
1. What does this diagram show? 01
2. It is used for what purpose? 01
3. Enumerate three disabilities of such a patient who had this tube
inserted. 02
Key:
1. Tracheostomy tube
Q.11. Carefully observe the given photograph and answer following questions
1. Identify the instrument? 02
2. Name the procedure in which this is used? 01
3. What is the significance of these markings? 01
Key:
1. Rigid esophagoscope
2. Esophagoscopy