PHYSICS:- DAY 8/9/10

CHEMISTRY:- DAY 8/9/10

BIOLOGY:- DAY 8/9

NEET 2024 DAILY TARGET SERIES FOR 30 DAYS

DAY-17/30 Days
(MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS)
Date:-23 April 2024

PHYSICS
1. A cylindrical resonance tube, open at both ends, has a fundamental frequency f in
air. If half of the length is dipped vertically in water, the fundamental frequency of
the air column will be...
1. 3f/2
2. 2f
3. f
4. f/2

2. A wave of frequency 500 Hz has a velocity of 350 m/s. The distance between two
nearest points, if the wave is 60° out of phase, will be approximately...
1. 70 cm
2. 0.7 cm
3. 12.0 cm
4. 120. cm

3. Energy of simple harmonic motion depends upon.

1. 1/ω2
2. ω
3. a2
4. 1/ a2

4. A wave of frequency 100Hz is sent along a string towards a fixed end. When this
wave travels back, after reflection, a node is formed at a distance of 10cm from the
fixed end of the string. The speeds of incident ( and reflected ) waves are
1. 48 m/s
2. 20 m/s
3. 10/m/s
4. 15 m/s
5. In a simple harmonic motion, when the displacement is one-half the amplitude,
what fraction of the total energy is kinetic?
1. 0
2. 1/4
3. 1/2
4. 3/4

6. A body executes S.H.M with an amplitude A. At what displacement from the mean
position is the potential energy of the body is one fourth of its total energy ..
1. A/4
2. A/2
3. 3A/4
4. Some other fraction of A

7. The period of oscillation of a mass M suspended from a spring of negligible mass is

T. If along with it another mass M is also suspended, the period of oscillation will
now be ..
1. T
2. T / √2
3. 2T
4. T√2

8. Two simple harmonic motions od angular frequency 100 and 1000 rad s-1 have the
same displacement amplitude. The ratio of their maximum acceleration is .
1. 1: 10
2. 1: 102
3. 1:103
4. 1:104

9. A particle of mass m and charge q is placed at rest in a uniform electric field E and
then released. The kinetic energy attend by the particle after moving a distance y
is
1. q2Ey
2. qEy
3. qE2y
4. qEy2

10. The ratio of electric force to gravitational force acting between two electrons
will be
1. 1×1036
2. 2 × 1039
3. 6 × 10>45
4. 4 × 1042

11. The four capacitors, each of 25 µF are connected as shown in figure. The DC
voltmeter reads 200V. The charge on each plate of capacitor is ….
1. ± 2×10-3 C
 2. ± 5×10-3 C
3. ± 2×10-2 C
4. ×± 10-2 C

12. If the potential of a capacitor having capacity 6&mirco;F is increased from 10V
to 20V, then increase in its energy will be
1. 4×10-4 J
2. 4×10-14 J
3. 9×10-4 J
4. 12×10-6 J

13. A resistance wire connected in the left gap of a metre bridge balances a 10 Ω
resistance in the right gap at a point which divides the bridge wire in the ratio 3 : 2.
If the length of the resistance wire is 1.5 m, then the length of 1 Ω of the resistance
wire is :
1. 1.0×10−2 m
2. 1.0×10−1 m
3. 1.5×10−1 m
4. 1.5×10−2 m

14. The color code of a resistance is given below

The values of resistance and tolerance, respectively, are

1. 470 kΩ, 5%
2. 47 kΩ, 10%
3. 4.7 kΩ, 5%
4. 470 Ω, 5%

15. The reading of ideal voltmeter in the circuit shown is

1. 0.6V
2. 0V
3. 0.5V
 4. 0.4V

16. The meter bridge shown in the balance position with P/Q=l1/l2 .

1. Yes P/Q=(l2-l1)/(l2+l1 ).
2. No, no null point
3. Yes P/Q=l2/l1
4. Yes P/Q=l1/l2 .

17. An ideal transformer has primary power of 10kW. The secondary current when
the transformer is on load is 25A. If the primary and secondary turns are in ratio is
8:1 then the potential difference applied in the primary coil is ...
1.

2.

3.

4.
18. A current carrying wire in the neighborhood produces ..
1. electric and magnetic fields
2. magnetic field only
3. no field
4. electric fields

19. A cyclotron is operating at frequency of 12×106Hz. Mass of deuteron is 3.3× 10-

27Kg and charge on deuteron is 1.6×10-19 coulomb To accelerate deuterons the
magnetic induction of the necessary magnetic field is ..
1. 0.016 tesla
2. 0.16 tesla
3. 16 tesla
4. 1.6tesla

20. bar magnet of magnetic moment 200 A-m2 is suspended in a magnetic field of
intensity 0.25N/Am. The couple required to deflect it through 30° is ...
1. 15 N-m
2. 20N-m
3. 25 N-m
4. 50 N-m

21. If the magnetic dipole is rotated through the angle θ with respect to the
direction of H, then work done will be..
1. MH(1-cosθ)
2. MH cosθ
3. MH(1-sinθ)
4. MH sinΘ

22. A diamagnetic substance is placed in a magnetic field of a bar magnet Then it is

...
1. repelled by magnet
2. attracted by magnet
3. attracted by S-pole and repelled by N-pole
4. attracted by S-pole and repelled by N-pole

23. In an LCR series circuit, the voltage across each of the components. L, C, and R
is 50 V. The voltage across the LC combination will be....
1. 50V
2. 0V
3. 50√2 V
4. 100 V

24. In a LCR series circuit, the potential difference between the terminals of the
inductance is 60V, between the terminals of the capacitor is 30V and across
resistance is 40V. Then supply voltage will be equal to ....
1. 50 V
2. 70V
 3. 130V
4. 10V

25. In A.C. circuit in which inductance and capacitance are joined in series, current
is found to be maximum when the value of inductance is 0.5H and the value of
capacitance is 8µF. The angular frequency of applied alternating voltage will be ..
1. 400 Hz
2. 5000Hz
3. 2×105 Hz
4. 500 Hz

26. Which of the following halogen does not exhibit positive oxidation state in its
compounds
1. Cl
2. Br
3. I
4. F

27. Which of the following statements is not true for halogens ?

1. All but fluorine show positive oxidation states.
2. All are oxidizing agents.
3. All form monobasic oxyacids.
4. Chlorine has the highest electron-gain enthalpy.

28. In the structure of ClF3, the number of lone pairs of electrons on central atom
‘Cl ’is ....
1. four
2. two
3. one
4. three

29. Which of the following is antiseptic?

1. I
2. Br
3. Cl
4. F

30. Identify the incorrect statement. ....

1. Interstitial compounds are those that are formed when small atoms like H, C or
N are trapped inside the crystal lattices of metals.
2. The oxidation states of chromium in CrO42- and Cr2O72- are not the same.
3. Cr2+ (d4) is a stronger reducing agent than Fe2+ (d6) in water.
4. The transition metals and their compounds are known for their catalytic activity
due to their ability to adopt multiple oxidation states and to form complexes.

31. The calculated spin only magnetic moment of Cr2+ ion is

1. 5.92 BM
 2. 2.84 BM
3. 3.87 BM
4. 4.90 BM

32. The manganate and permanganate ions are tetrahedral, due to :

1. The π-bonding involves overlap of p-orbitals of oxygen with d-orbitals of
manganese
2. There is no π-bonding
3. The π-bonding involves overlap of p-orbitals of oxygen with p-orbitals of
manganese
4. The π-bonding involves overlap of d-orbitals of oxygen with d-orbitals of
manganese

33. Which one is malachite from the following?

1. CuFeS2
2. Cu(OH)2
3. Fe3 O4
4. CuCO3 .Cu(OH)2

34. Which of the following is the correct order of increasing field strength of ligands
to form coordination compounds?
1. F- < SCN- < C2O42- < CN-
2. CN- < C2O42- < SCN- < F-
3. SCN- < F- < C2O42- < CN-
4. SCN- < F- < CN-< C2O42-

35. Iron carbonyl, Fe(CO)5 is

1. trinuclear
2. mononuclear
3. tetranuclear
4. dinuclear

36. The type of isomerism shown by the complex [CoCl2(en)2] is

1. Ionization isomerism
2. Coordination isomerism
3. Geometrical isomerism
4. Linkage isomerism

37. The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the complex [Ni(CO)4] are
1. square planar geometry and paramagnetic
2. tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic
3. square planar geometry and diamagnetic
4. tetrahedral geometry and paramagnetic

38. Correct IUPAC name of K4[Fe(CN)6] is ?

1. tetra potassium ferrous cyanide
2. potassium ferri cyanide
 3. potassium ferro cyanide
4. potassiumhexacyanoferrate(II)

39. The coordination number of copper in cuprammonium sulphate is

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 6

40. Which of the following ions forms most stable complex compound?
1. Cu2+
2. Ni2+
3. Fe2+
4. Mn2+

41. Which of the following ions forms most stable complex compound?
1. Cu2+
2. Ni2+
3. Fe2+
4. Mn2+

42. In which there is outer orbital hybridization?

1. [Zn(NH3)6]2+
2. [Co(NH3)6]3+
3. [Cr(NH3)6]3+
4. [V(NH3)6]3+

43. Which of the following alkane cannot be made in good yield by Wurtz reaction?
1. n-Heptane
2. n-Butane
3. n-Hexane
4. 2,3-Dimethylbutane

44. An alkene on ozonolysis gives methanal as one of the product. Its structure is ...
1.

2. Rosenmund reaction
3. Friedel-CCraft reaction
4. Gattermann Hoch reaction

45. The number of sigma (σ) and pi (π) bonds in pent-2-en-4-yne is ....
1. 10σ bonds and 3π bonds
2. 8σ bonds and 5π bonds
3. 11σ bonds and 2π bonds
 4. 13σ bonds and no π bonds

46. The compound C7H8 undergoes the following reactions :

The product ‘C ’is ....

1. 3-bromo-2,4,6-trichlorotoluene
2. o-bromotoluene
3. m-bromotoluene
4. p-bromotoluene

47. Electrolysis of potassium acetate gives ..

1. Ethylene
2. Acetylene
3. Ethane
4. Potassium hydroxide

48. Identify the correct statement from the following :

1. Vapour phase refining is carried out for Nickel by Van Arkel method.
2. Pig iron can be moulded into a variety of shapes.
3. Wrought iron is impure iron with 4% carbon.
4. Blister copper has blistered appearance due to evolution of CO2.

49. In the extraction of copper from its sulphide ore, the metal finally obtained by
the reduction of cuprous oxide wit
1. iron (II) sulphide
2. carbon monoxide
3. copper (I) sulphide
4. sulphure dioxide

50. Roasting of sulphides gives the gas X as a by-product. This is a colourless gas
with choking smell of burnt sulphure and causes great damage to respiratory
organs as a result of acid rain. Its aqueous solution is acidic acts as a reduing
agent and its acid has never been insolated. The gas X is ...
1. H2S
2. SO2
3. CO2
4. SO3

51. Fibres associated with phloem are ... ...

1. Hard fibres
2. Wood fibres
3. Surface fibres
4. Bast fibres
52. Grass leaves curl inwards during very dry weather. Select the most appropriate
reason from the following ... ..
1. Closure of stomata
2. Flaccidity of bulliform cells
3. Shrinkage of air spaces in spongy mesophyll
4. Tyloses in vessels

53. Which of the statements given below is not true about formation of Annual Rings
in trees? ...
1. Annual ring is a combination of spring wood and autumn wood produced in a
year
2. Differential activity of cambium causes light and dark bands of tissue early and
late wood respectively.
3. Activity of cambium depends upon variation in climate.
4. Annual rings are not prominent in trees of temperate region.

54. Phloem in gymnosperms lacks :

1. Albuminous cells and sieve cells
2. Sieve tubes only
3. Companion cells only
4. Both sieve tubes and companion cells

55. Match List-I with List-II [ NEET 2021]

List – I List – II

a) Aspergillus niger i) Acetic acid

b) Acetobacter aceti ii) Lactic acid

c) Clostridium butylicum iii) Citric acid

d) Lactobacillus iv) Butyric acid

Choose the correct answer from the option given below

1. a – iv, b – ii, c—i, d – ii
2. a – iii, b – i, c—iv, d – ii
3. a – i, b – ii, c—iii, d – iv
4. a – ii, b – iii, c—i, d – iv

56. Which of the following is put into Anaerobic sludge digester for further sewage
treatment?
1. Effluents of primary treatment
2. Activated sludge
3. Primary sludge
4. Floating debris

57. Which of the following is put into Anaerobic sludge digester for further sewage
treatment?
 1. Effluents of primary treatment
2. Activated sludge
3. Primary sludge
4. Floating debris

58. Which of the following is a commercial blood cholesterol lowering agent?

1. Cyclosporin A
2. Statin
3. Streptokinase
4. Lipases

59. Select the incorrect statement. ...

1. Male fruit fly is heterogametic
2. In male grasshoppers 50% of sperms have no sex-chromosome
3. In domesticated fowls, sex of progeny depends on the type of sperm rather than
egg
4. Human males have one of their sexchromosome much shorter than the other

60. A cross between tall pea plant and its recessive parent is known as
1. Back cross
2. Test cross
3. Recessive cross
4. Dominant cross

61. Assertion: Induced mutations are exploited in plant breeding to induce

variations. Reason: Mutations are the only reason for variation in living world.
1. Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion.
2. Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation
of Assertion.
3. Assertion is true but Reason is false.
4. Both Assertion and Reason are false.

62. Which of the following conditions represent a case of co- dominant genes ?
1. A gene expresses itself , suppressing the phenotypic effect of its alleles.
2. genes that are similar in phenotypic effect when present separately, but when
together interact to produce a different trait.
3. Alleles, both of which interact to produce effect in homozygous condition
4. Alleles, both of which interact to produce an independent effect in heterozygous
condition.

63. The specific palindromic sequence which is recognized by EcoRI is ...

1. 5' - CTTAAG - 3' ,3' - GAATTC - 5'
2. 5' - GGATCC - 3' ,3' - CCTAGG - 5'
3. 5' - GAATTC - 3' ,3' - CTTAAG - 5'
4. 5' - GGAACC - 3' ,3' - CCTTGG - 5'
64. Variations caused by mutation, as proposed by Hugo de Vries are ....
1. random and directional
2. random and directionless
3. small and directional
4. small and directionless

65. Match the following genes of the Lac operon with their respective products :
(a) i gene (i) β-galactosidase

(b) z gene (ii) Permease

(c) a gene (iii) Repressor

(d) y gene (iv) Transacetylase

Select the correct option.

1. a → i; b → iii; c → ii; d → iv;
2. a → iii; b → i; c → ii; d → iv;
3. a → iii; b → i; c → iv; d → ii;
4. a → iii; b → iv; c → i; d → ii;

66. Which of the following statements is false about age pyramids?

1. The shape of the pyramids reflects the growth status of the population.
2. For human population, the age pyramids generally show age distribution of
males and females in a combined diagram.
3. In declining population, the number of pre-reproductive individuals is high.
4. If in an age pyramid, post reproductive individuals are minimum, it will be
expanding population.

67. If global warming continues, how would the distributional range of some species
be affected?
1. There will be poleward shift
2. There will be equatorial shift
3. No change expected for any species
4. Shift to marine water from land

68. An association between two or more species in which both are benefited is
known as
1. commensalism
2. symbiosis
3. mutualism
4. cooperation

69. In Galapagos Islands, Abingdon tortoises became extinct within a decade after
goats were introduced on the island, because:
1. Resources are limited.
 2. Intraspecific competition.
3. Greater browsing efficiency of goats.
4. Resources are limited.

70. Which of the following algae is likely to be found in the deepest waters?
1. Green
2. Brown
3. Red
4. All are found at equal depths

71. In relation to Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity of an

ecosystem, which one of the following statements is correct?
1. Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity are one and same
2. There is no relationship between Gross primary productivity and Net primary
productivity
3. Gross primary productivity is always less than net primary productivity
4. Gross primary productivity is always more than net primary productivity

72. Which of the following is the most important cause for animals and plants being
driven to extinction?
1. Habitat loss and fragmentation
2. Drought and floods
3. Economic exploitation
4. Alien species invasion

73. Which of the following ecological pyramids is generally inverted?

1. Pyramid of numbers in grassland
2. Pyramid of energy
3. Pyramid of biomass in a forest
4. Pyramid of biomass in a sea

74. Energy transfer from organisms to organism in a natural community develops ....
....
1. Biological control
2. Food chain
3. Natural barriers
4. Food web

75. Which of the following would appear as the pioneer organisms on bare rocks?
1. Lichens
2. Liverworts
3. Mosses
4. Green algae

76. Select the correct sequence for transport of sperm cells in male reproductive
system. ...
1. Testis → Epididymis → Vasa efferentia → Rete testis → Inguinal canal → Urethra
 2. Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vasa efferentia → Epididymis → Vas
deferens → Ejaculatory duct → Urethra → Urethral meatus
3. Seminiferous tubules → Vasa efferentia → Epididymis → Inguinal canal →
Urethra
4. Testis → Epididymis → Vasa efferentia → Vas deferens → Ejaculatory duct →
Inguinal canal → Urethra → Urethral meatus

77. Which of the following contraceptive methods do involve a role of hormone?

1. Lactational amenorrhea, Pills Emergency contraceptives.
2. Barrier method, Lactational amenorrhea, Pills.
3. CuT, Pills, Emergency contraceptives.
4. Pills, Emergency contraceptives, Barrier methods.

78. Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases is not completely curable?
1. Gonorrhoea
2. Genital warts
3. Genital herpes
4. Chlamydiasis

79. Extrusion of second polar body from egg nucleus occurs :

1. after entry of sperm but before fertilization
2. after fertilization
3. before entry of sperm into ovum
4. simultaneously with first cleavage

80. Hormones secreted by the placenta to maintain pregnancy are ...

1. hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens
2. hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin
3. hCG, hPL, progestogens, prolactin
4. hCG, progestogens, estrogens, glucocorticoids

81. The difference between spermiogenesis and spermiation is ...

1. In spermiogenesis spermatozoa from sertoli cells are released into the cavity of
seminiferous tubules, while in spermiation spermatozoa are formed.
2. In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation spermatids are
formed.
3. In spermiogenesis spermatids are formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa are
formed.
4. In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa
are released from sertoli cells into the cavity of seminiferous tubules.

82. The contraceptive ‘SAHELI ’.....

1. is an IUD.
2. increases the concentration of estrogen and prevents ovulation in females.
3. blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus, preventing eggs from getting implanted.
4. is a post-coital contraceptive.
83. Meiotic division of the secondary oocyte is completed ... ..
1. After zygote formation
2. At the time of fusion of a sperm with an ovum
3. Prior to ovulation
4. At the time of copulation

84. Which of the following hormone levels will cause release of ovum (ovulation)
from the graffian follicle?
1. Low concentration of LH
2. Low concentration of FSH
3. High concentration of Estrogen
4. High concentration of Progesterone

85. Identify the wrong statement with reference to immunity.

1. Active immunity is quick and gives full response.
2. Foetus receives some antibodies from mother, it is an example for passive
immunity.
3. When exposed to antigen (living or dead) antibodies are produced in the host’s
body. It is called “Active immunity”
4. When ready-made antibodies are directly given, it is called “Passive immunity”

86. Colostrum the yellowish fluid, secreted by mother during the initial days of
lactation is very essential to impart immunity to the new born infants because it
contains ...
1. Natural killer cells
2. Monocytes
3. Macrophages
4. Immunoglobulin A

87. Drug called ‘Heroin ’is synthesized by ....

1. methylation of morphine
2. acetylation of morphine
3. glycosylation of morphine
4. nitration of morphine

88. Both B-cells and T-cells of immune system are produced in …

1. Spleen
2. Lymphoid nodes
3. Thymus
4. Bone marrow

89. Which of the following causes plague? ..

1. Salmonella typhimurium
2. Trichinella spiralis
3. Yersinia pestis
4. Leishmania donovani
90. Histamines or inflammation producing substances are formed by
1. Macrophages
2. Sustentacular cells
3. Mast cells
4. Collagen fibres

91. In gel electrophoresis, separated DNA fragments can be visualized with the help
of.....
1. Acetocarmine in UV radiation
2. Ethidium bromide in infrared radiation
3. Acetocarmine in bright blue light
4. Ethidium bromide in UV radiation

92. DNA precipitation out of a mixture of biomolecules can be achieved by

treatment with ...
1. Isopropanol
2. Chilled ethanol
3. Methanol at room temperature
4. Chilled chloroform

93. Which of the following is true for Golden rice?

1. It is Vitamin A enriched, with a gene from daffodil
2. It is pest resistant, with a gene from Bacillus thuringiensis
3. It is drought tolerant, developed using Agrobacterium vector
4. It has yellow grains, because of a gene introduced from a primitive variety of
rice
5. 1
94. Plasmids are suitable vectors for gene cloning because they are ...
1. Small circular DNA molecules with their own origin of replication site
2. Small circular DNA molecules which can integrate with host chromosomal DNA
3. Having antibiotic genes
4. Able to shuttle between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells

95. Which transgenic animal has been given human genes for organ transplantation
into humans without risk of rejection ...
1. Sheep
2. Goat
3. Pig
4. Cow

96. Biolistic gun is suitable for ...

1. Transformation of plant cells
2. Disarming pathogen vectors
3. DNA finger printing
4. Constructing recombinant DNA

97. Protein α-1 antitrypsin is used to treat ...

 1. Cancer
2. Rheumatoid arthritis
3. Alzheimer's disease
4. Emphysema

98. Natural genetic engineer is ..

1. Pseudomonas putida
2. Agrobacterium tumefaciens
3. Escherichia coil
4. Bacillus subtilis

99. Tobacco plants resistant to nematodes have been developed by introduction of

DNA that produces ...
1. Both sense and antisense RNA
2. An antifeedant
3. A toxic protein
4. A particular hormone
100. cry I Ac and cry I Ab produce toxins that control ...
1. Cotton bollworms and corn borer respectively
2. Corn borer and cotton bollworms respectively
3. tobacco budworms and nematodes respectively
4. Nematodes and tobacco budworms respectively