JEE MainAdvanced Nurture A0 A1 and B0 MT02 16902387 TEST PDF MTxIs7O0Vt

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PAPER CODE : CJA101002230087

TEST PATTERN
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME
ENGLISH

JEE (Advanced)
(Academic Session : 2023 - 2024) REVIEW TEST

JEE (MAIN+ADVANCED) : NURTURE COURSE (A', A0, B0, B1)


DATE : 31 - 03 - 2023
Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 240
READ THE INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY
GENERAL :
1. This sealed booklet is your Question Paper. Do not break the seal till you are told to do so.

DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS WITHOUT BEING INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE INVIGILATOR


2. Use the Optical Response sheet (ORS) provided separately for answering the questions.
3. Blank spaces are provided within this booklet for rough work.
4. Write your name, form number and sign in the space provided on the back cover of this booklet.
5. After breaking the seal of the booklet, verify that the booklet contains 29 pages and that all the 20
questions in each subject and along with the options are legible. If not, contact the invigilator for
replacement of the booklet.
6. You are allowed to take away the Question Paper at the end of the examination.
OPTICAL RESPONSE SHEET :
7. The ORS will be collected by the invigilator at the end of the examination.
8. Do not tamper with or mutilate the ORS. Do not use the ORS for rough work.
9. Write your name, form number and sign with pen in the space provided for this purpose on the ORS.
Do not write any of these details anywhere else on the ORS. Darken the appropriate bubble
under each digit of your form number.
DARKENING THE BUBBLES ON THE ORS :
10. Use a BLACK BALL POINT PEN to darken the bubbles on the ORS.
11. Darken the bubble COMPLETELY.
12. The correct way of darkening a bubble is as :
13. The ORS is machine-gradable. Ensure that the bubbles are darkened in the correct way.
14. Darken the bubbles ONLY IF you are sure of the answer. There is NO WAY to erase or
"un-darken" a darkened bubble.

Name of the Candidate (in Capitals)

Form Number Batch & Phase (in Capitals) :

Centre of Examination (in Capitals) :

Candidate’s Signature : Invigilator’s Signature :

Please see the first page of this booklet for rest of the instructions
City Head Office : ALLEN AHMEDABAD “SADHYA - SBR" Opp. Saptavilla Bungalow, Behind Sindhubhavan, Thaltej,
Ahmedabad (GUJARAT) 380059 +91-79-49033100 infoadi@allen.ac.in allen.ac.in/ahmedabad
Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2025/31-03-2024
SYLLABUS
Physics : Electrostatics and Heat Transfer, KTG, Thermal Properties of Matter,

Laws of Thermodynamics

Chemistry : Bonding, Chemical Kinetics

Mathematics : Complete Syllabus (11th)

SOME USEFUL CONSTANTS


Atomic No. H = 1, B = 5, C = 6, N = 7, O = 8, F = 9, Al = 13, P = 15, S = 16,
Cl = 17, Br = 35, Xe = 54, Ce = 58,
Atomic masses : H = 1, Li = 7, B = 11, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23,
Mg = 24, Al = 27, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, Ca = 40, Fe = 56, Br = 80,
I = 127, Xe = 131, Ba = 137, Ce = 140,

· Boltzmann constant k = 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1


· Universal gravitational constant G = 6.67259 × 10–11 N–m 2 kg–2
· Speed of light in vacuum c = 3 × 108 ms–1
· Stefan–Boltzmann constant s = 5.67 × 10–8 Wm–2–K–4
· Wien's displacement law constant b = 2.89 × 10–3 m–K
· Permeability of vacuum µ0 = 4p × 10–7 NA–2
1
· Permittivity of vacuum Î0 =
μ 0c 2
· Planck constant h = 6.63 × 10–34 J–s
Nurture Course/A', A0, B0, B1/31-03-2024

BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING


PART-1 : PHYSICS
SECTION-I : (Maximum Marks: 48)
This section contains TWELVE (12) questions.
Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are)
correct answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all ) the correct answer(s)
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen.
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and
both of which are correct.
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
For Example : If first, third and fourth are the ONLY three correct options for a question with second
option being an incorrect option; selecting only all the three correct options will result in +4 marks.
Selecting only two of the three correct options (e.g. the first and fourth options), without selecting any
incorrect option (second option in this case), will result in +2 marks. Selecting only one of the three
correct options (either first or third or fourth option), without selecting any incorrect option (second
option in this case), will result in +1 marks. Selecting any incorrect option(s) (second option in this
case), with or without selection of any correct option(s) will result in –2 marks.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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Target:JEE (Main + Advanced) : 2025/31-03-2024
1. At a distance of 5cm and 10cm from surface of a uniformly charged solid sphere, the potentials are 100V
and 75V respectively. Then,
50
(A) potential at its surface is 150 V (B) The charge on the sphere is × 10−10 C
3
(C) The electric field on the surface is 1500 V/m (D) The electric potential at its centre is 25V
2. The quarter disc of radius 'R' (shown in figure) has a uniform surface charge density ' σ '.
σ √ 2
(A) Electric potential at (0, 0, Z) is ( R + Z 2 − Z)
8ε0

σ Z
(B) Z-component of electric field at (0, 0, Z) is (1 − )
8ε0 √ R2 + Z 2
σ √ 2
(C) Electric potential (0, 0, Z) is ( R + Z 2 − Z)
4ε0
(D) x and y components of electric field at (0, 0, Z) are zero
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3. A conducting bubble of radius a, thickness t (<<a) has a potential 'V. Now the bubble collapses into a
drop. Assuming that there is no leakage of charge
3
(A) Radius of drop = √3 a t
2

1/3
(B) Potential of drop = V ( a )
3t
V
(C) Electric field on surface of drop =
(9at2 )1/3
Va
(D) The charge on drop is
R
4. A charged cork ball of mass 'm' is suspended by means of a light string in the presence of an electric

field as shown in the figure. When the electric field given by E = Aiˆ + Bjˆ is switched on (A > 0,B > 0)
the ball attains equilibrium as shown.
mg
(A) Charge on ball is A cos θ + B
mg
(B) Charge on ball is A cot θ + B
mgA
(C) Tension in string is
A cos θ + B sin θ
T ension
(D) = cos θ
mg

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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Target:JEE (Main + Advanced) : 2025/31-03-2024
5. A rod of original length L1 changes its temperature from T1 to T2. Let a is temperature coefficient of
linear expansion and L2 is length of temperature T2. Choose the correct option
(A) L2 = L1 [1 + α (T2 − T1 )], where T2 – T1 and α are not large
(B) L2 = L1 eα(T2 −T1 ) , where α is constant
T2
∫ αdT
(C) L 2 = L 1 eT 1 , where α is function of temperature
(D) Formula in option (A) is valid in all conditions
6. A hollow spheres of glass whose external and internal radii are 11 cm and 9 cm respectively, is completely
filled with ice at 0°C is placed in a bath of boiling water (at 100°C). Given, density of ice is 0.9 g cm –3,
latent heat of fusion of ice is 80 cal g –1 and thermal conductivity of glass is 0.002 cal cm –1 s –1 °C –1.
Choose the correct options
π −1
(A) Rate of melting of ice is nearly gs .
2
(B) Rate of melting of ice is nearly 2 π gs –1.
(C) Time taken by ice to melt completely is nearly 10 min
(D) Time taken by ice to melt completely is more than 10 min
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7. A person is standing in a large room. Temperature of person is 29°C and temperature of room is 20°C.
Outer surface area of person is 1.6 m2 and the convective heat transfer coefficient is 6 Wm –2 °C –1.
Then, choose the correct options.
(A) Heat transfer by conduction only is nearly zero
(B) Heat loss due to convection only is 86.4 W
(C) Heat loss due to radiation cannot exceed 86 W
(D) Total heat loss does not exceed 123 W
8. An ice cube of mass 0.1 kg at 0°C is placed in an isolated container at 227°C. Specific heat of container
is given by S = A + BT, where A = 100 cal kg –1 K –1 and B = 2 x 10 –2 cal kg –2 K –2. If
final temperature after stabilization is 27°C, then which of these are correct? (Take, Lwater = 80 cal g –1
K –1 and Cwater = 103 cal kg –1 K –1)
(A) Ice receives a total of 10700 calories of heat
(B) Container lost around 10700 calories of heat
(C) Container has an approximate mass of 0.5kg
(D) Water equivalent of container is 300 g
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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Target:JEE (Main + Advanced) : 2025/31-03-2024
9. Acubical box of side 5m contains helium gas at a pressure 320N/m2. During an observation time of 1
second, an atom travelling with root mean square speed parallel to one of the sides of the cube was found
to make 1000 hits with a particular wall, without any collision with the other atoms, (take
25
R= J/mol − K ). Then
3
(A) The temperature of gas is 16 × 103 K
(B) The temperature of gas is 8 × 103 K
(C) The total mass of helium gas in the box is 1.2 gm
(D) The total mass of helium gas in the box is 2.4 gm
10. Two identical adiabatic vessel are filled with oxygen at pressure P1 and P2 (P1 > P2). The vessels are
interconnected with each other by a non-conducting pipe. If Ui1 and Ui2 denote initial internal energies of
oxygen in first and second vessels respectively and Uf1 and Uf2 denote final internal energies
respectively, then
Ui 1 P Ui 1 P
(A) = 1 (B) = 2 (C) Uf 1 = Uf 2 (D) Uf 1 > Uf 2
Ui 2 P2 Ui 2 P1

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11. Two identical vessels are connected by a tube. Volume of the tube is vanishingly small and it is equipped
with a valve. One of the vessels contains nitrogen at pressure P1 and temperature T1 and the other vessel
contains oxygen at pressure P2 and temperature T2. The system is well insulated from the surroundings.
Now the valve is opened. The final pressure P and temperature T are attained by mixture of both the
gases. Then (Assuming gases to be ideal and non-interactive)
P1 + P2
(A) P=
2
(B) P= P1 + P2
(P1 + P2 ) T1 T2
(C) T=
2 (P1 T2 + P2 T1 )
(P1 + P2 ) T1 T2
(D) T=
P1 T2 + P2 T1
12. n moles of an ideal gas undergo an isothermal process at temperature T. P-V graph of the process is as
shown in the figure. A point A(V1, P1) is located on the P-V curve.
Tangent at point A, cuts the V-axis at point B. AO is the line joining the point A to the origin O of PV
diagram. BC is perpendicular to OB. Then
P1
(A) The co-ordinates of point C are ( 2V1 , )
2

3 2
(B) The co-ordinates of point C are ( V1 , P 1 )
2 3

(C) Area of the triangle AOB is equal to nRT

nRT
(D) Area of the triangle AOB is equal to
2

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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Target:JEE (Main + Advanced) : 2025/31-03-2024
SECTION-II : (Maximum Marks: 32)
This section contains EIGHT (08) questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
For each question, enter the correct numerical value of the answer in the place designated to enter the
answer. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to Two
decimal places; e.g. 6.25, 7.00, –0.33, –.30, 30.27, –127.30, if answer is 11.36777..... then both 11.36
and 11.37 will be correct)

Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered.
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.

1. On a semicircular ring of radius = 4R, charge +3q is distributed in such a way that on one quarter +q is
uniformly distributed and on another quarter +2q is uniformly distributed. Along its axis a smooth non-
conducting and uncharged pipe of length 6R is fixed in such a way that the centres of both coincide as
shown. A small ball of mass m and charge +q is thrown from one end of pipe with speed u. The
xq 2
minimum speed u so that ball will come out from the other end of pipe should be √ . Find the
40πε0 Rm
value of x; taking all in SI units.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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2. Rods AC, CB and CD of same length l and cross-sectional area A are arranged as shown in the figure

Heat is supplied through end A and the rate of 200 cal s –1 and end B is kept at 100°C. End D is dipped
in a beaker containing ice at 0°C (latent heat of ice = 80 cal g –1). Thermal conductivities of AC, CB and
CD and K, 2K and K/2 respectively with K = 100 cal m –1 s –1 °C –1. Area of cross-section A is 10 cm2.
Length of each rod l = 1 m. Time (in sec) in which 440 g of ice melts is
3. A particle that carries a negative charge ' – q' Cis placed at rest in a uniform electric field 10 N/C . It
experiences a force and moves. In a certain time t, it is observed to acquire a velocity 10iˆ − 10jˆ m/s. The
given electric field intersects a surface of area A m2in the x - z plane. Electric flux through the surface is
5 x A Nm2/C. Find the value of x.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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Target:JEE (Main + Advanced) : 2025/31-03-2024
4. A square loop of side 'l' having uniform linear charge density ' λ ' is placed in 'xy' plane as shown in the
figure. There is a non-uniform electric field E = a (x + ℓ) ˆi where a is a constant. Find the resultant


electric force in µN on the loop if l = 10 cm, a = 2 N/C and charge density λ = 2 µc/m.

5. a
In the given figure a charge 'q' is placed at ( 0, , 0). Then electric flux through the given triangular
√ 2
nq
face is then (n + m) is
6mε0

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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6. In a certain region, there are non-uniform electrical potential (Ve) as well as gravitational potential (Vg).
The electrical potential varies only with x as shown in figure (i) and the gravitational potential varies
only with y as shown in figure (ii). Consider a particle of mass 200 kg and charge 20 µC in this field.

ˆ ˆ
Then acceleration of the particle at point (25, 35) cm is ( ai + bj) × 10−2 m/sec2 then value of (a + b) is

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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Target:JEE (Main + Advanced) : 2025/31-03-2024
7. A charged particle of charge 'Q' is held fixed and another charged particle of mass 'm' and charge 'q' (of
the same sign) is released from a distance 'r'. The impulse of the force exerted by the external agent on
Qqm
the fixed charge by the time distance between 'Q' and 'q' becomes 2r is √
then value of x is -
xπ∈0 r
8. The pressure and volume of an ideal gas in a particular process at any state is represented by the
following graph. The ratio of maximum temperature to minimum temperature in complete cyclic process
2
4 + √x
is ( ) the value of x + y is _______
4 − √y

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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Nurture Course/A', A0, B0, B1/31-03-2024
PART-2 : CHEMISTRY
SECTION-I : (Maximum Marks: 48)
This section contains TWELVE (12) questions.
Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct
answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all ) the correct answer(s)
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen.
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and
both of which are correct.
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
For Example : If first, third and fourth are the ONLY three correct options for a question with second
option being an incorrect option; selecting only all the three correct options will result in +4 marks.
Selecting only two of the three correct options (e.g. the first and fourth options), without selecting any
incorrect option (second option in this case), will result in +2 marks. Selecting only one of the three
correct options (either first or third or fourth option), without selecting any incorrect option (second
option in this case), will result in +1 marks. Selecting any incorrect option(s) (second option in this
case), with or without selection of any correct option(s) will result in –2 marks.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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Target:JEE (Main + Advanced) : 2025/31-03-2024
1. A catalyst
(A) Remains unchanged chemically at the end of a reaction
(B) Does not alter the equilibrium in a reversible reaction
(C) Is used for altering the velocity of the reaction
(D) All of these
2. Which of the following molecule has zero dipole moment:

(A) (B) (C) (D) All of these

3. Which of the following planar molecule having polar bond ?


(A) B3N3H6 (B) S3O9 (C) SiO2 (D) CH4

4. Which of the following pair have same shape & total number of lone pair and σ -bond pair on central
atom?
(A) XeF6 , XeF5− (B) XeOF4 , XeF5⊕ (C) XeF4 , XeOF2 (D) XeF4 , XeO3

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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5. A compound of boron is used in detergent as brightner and having peroxy linkages, the formula of the
compound is:
(A) Na2B2O4(OH)4 (B) NaB3O3(OH)4 (C) Na2B4O7.10H2O (D) Na2B4O7
6. For a first order reaction
(A) The degree of dissociation is equal to 1 – e –kt
(B) A plot of reciprocal of concentration of reactant vs. time gives a straight line
(C) The time taken for the completion of 75% of reaction is thrice the t1/2 of the reaction
(D) The pre-exponential factor in the Arrhenius equation has the dimensions of time
7. For the reaction : 2A + B → A2 B
the rate = k[A] [B]2 with k = 2.0 × 10 –6 mol2 L2 s –1. If the initial concentration of A and B are 0.1 mol
L –1 and 0.2 mol L –1 respectively then which of the following is /are correct?
(A) Initial rate of reaction is 8 × 10 –9 mol L –1 sec –1
(B) When A is reduced to 0.06 mol L –1 then rate becomes 3.89 × 10 –9 mol L –1 sec –1.
(C) When A is reduced to 0.06 mol L –1 then B will be 0.16 mol L –1
(D) All of these
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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Target:JEE (Main + Advanced) : 2025/31-03-2024
8. Which is/are correct statement for following ?
Mn+4, Cr+2, Ni+2, Zn+2
(A) Cr+2 have maximum magnetic moment (B) Only Zn+2 is diamagnetic
(C) Mn+4 have maximum magnetic moment (D) Ni+2 have maximum magnetic moment
9. Which of the following molecule is/are electron deficient?
(A) BeCl2 (B) CH2Cl2 (C) BH3 (D) NH2Cl
10. Which of following pair of species is having different hybridization but same shape?
(A) BeCl2 and CO2 (B) CO2 and SO2 (C) SO2 and I3+ (D) ICl−2 and BeH2
11. Which of the following pair of element will form ionic compound?
I : [Xe] 6s1
II : [Ne] 3s2 3p5
III : 1s2 2s2 2p4
IV : [Kr] 5s2
(A) I & II (B) II & III (C) II & IV (D) III & IV
12. Which of the following mixtures can be separated by steam distillation?
(A) o-Nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol (B) Aniline and chlorobenzene
(C) Benzoic acid and NaCI (D) Acetone and methanol
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

16/29 3010CJA101002230087
Nurture Course/A', A0, B0, B1/31-03-2024
SECTION-II : (Maximum Marks: 32)
This section contains EIGHT (08) questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
For each question, enter the correct numerical value of the answer in the place designated to enter the
answer. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to Two
decimal places; e.g. 6.25, 7.00, –0.33, –.30, 30.27, –127.30, if answer is 11.36777..... then both 11.36
and 11.37 will be correct)

Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered.
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
1. In the following first order reaction:
K1
A + Reagent −→ Product
K2
B + Reagent −→ Product
The ratio of K1 when only 50% of B react in a given time when 94% of A has been reacted is:
K2
(log102 = 0.30, log103 = 0.48)
2. The rate constant for an isomerisation reaction A → B is 4.5 × 10 –3 min –1. If the initial concentration
of A is 1 M. The rate of reaction is x × 10 –3 at 60 min., the value of x is?
(log10 (0.7634) = – 0.117)
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3. A hypotlietical reaction A2 + B2 → 2AB follows the mechanism as given below:
A2 → A + A (fast)
A + B2 → AB + B (slow)
A + B → AB (fast)
The order of the overall reaction is

4. Sum of p π -d π bonds in Cl2O7, and (SO3)3 is:

5. AB2L2, AB4L, AB3L2, AB5L, AB4L2, AB2L, OAB4, OAB3, AB2O3, AB2OL2, AB4OL
Where A is central atom, B is surrounding atom, O-oxygen, L is lone pair.
Among the following molecules, number of molecules in which lone pair and /or O-atoms have no
preference for occupying any specified position i.e,, they can occupy any available position.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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6. Find the number of molecules or ions in which d-orbital is/are not used in hybridization:
P Cl−6 , P Cl+4 , IF5 , XeO3 F2 , ICl+2 , SF2 , SF6 , AsF4+ , SiF4

7. Total number of molecules in which all the possible bond angles are identical:
PF3, CF4, XeF4, PF5, IF7, BeF2, SF6

8. For a certain first order reaction 32% of the reactant is left after 570 s.
The rate constant of this reaction is ________ × 10 –3 s –1. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).
[Given : log102 = 0.301, ln10 = 2.303]

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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Target:JEE (Main + Advanced) : 2025/31-03-2024
PART-3 : MATHEMATICS
SECTION-I : (Maximum Marks: 48)
This section contains TWELVE (12) questions.
Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct
answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all ) the correct answer(s)
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen.
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and
both of which are correct.
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
For Example : If first, third and fourth are the ONLY three correct options for a question with second
option being an incorrect option; selecting only all the three correct options will result in +4 marks.
Selecting only two of the three correct options (e.g. the first and fourth options), without selecting any
incorrect option (second option in this case), will result in +2 marks. Selecting only one of the three
correct options (either first or third or fourth option), without selecting any incorrect option (second
option in this case), will result in +1 marks. Selecting any incorrect option(s) (second option in this
case), with or without selection of any correct option(s) will result in –2 marks.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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1. Consider the system of equation (|x| – 7)2 + (|y| – 6)2 = 1, then
(A) System represents four circles.
(B) Total area of system of equation is 4 π (square units)
(C) Pair of lines 49y2 = 36x2 cuts the curve at 8 points
(D) Pair of lines xy = 0 cuts the curve at 4 points
2. Coefficient of xpyqzr in the expansion of (x + 2y + 3z)7 where p,q,r are three distinct terms of a G.P., can
be-
(A) 105 × 81 (B) 105 × 324 (C) 105 × 12 (D) 105 × 4
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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Target:JEE (Main + Advanced) : 2025/31-03-2024

3. 3π
Let line segment joining points A(2, – 1), B(1, 2) subtends an angle at P(x, y), then locus of P is -
4
(A) minor segement of circle x2 + y2 – 5 = 0, whose chord is AB
(B) minor segment of circle x2 + y2 – 6x – 2y + 5 = 0, whose chord is AB
(C) complete circle x2 + y2 = 5
(D) complete circle x2 + y2 – 6x – 2y + 5 = 0
4. Consider a three digit numbers x1 x2 x3 such that x1, x2, x3 ∈ N, then -
(A) Number of possible numbers are 36 if x1 = 2x2
(B) Number of possible numbers are 45 if x1 = 2x2
(C) If the product of x1, x2, x3 is a prime number, then number of possible numbers are 12
(D) If the product of x1, x2, x3 is a prime number, then number of possible numbers are 8
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

22/29 3010CJA101002230087
Nurture Course/A', A0, B0, B1/31-03-2024
3n 3n 3n 3n
r r r r
5. If ∑ ar (x − 4) = ∑ Ar (x − 5) and ak = 1 ∀ k > 2n ; ∑ dr (x − 8) = ∑ Br (x − 9) ;
r=0 r=0 r=0 r=0
3n 3n
∑ dr (x − 12)r = ∑ Dr (x − 13)r and dk = 1 ∀ k > 2n, then
r=0 r=0

(A) A2n = B2n + D2n (B) B2n = D2n


A2n + D2n
(C) B2n
=2 (D) A2n ≠ B2n = D2n

6. 7 5
If the inequality √ 2 − x + √4 − 3x + √5 − 4x + √8x − 7 ⩽ k holds good for all x in [ , ], then
8 4
possible values of k is (are)
(A) 3 (B) 7 (C) 5 (D) 9
7. A square ABCD is drawn with A on y-axis and B on x-axis and C at point (13, 8). Which of the
following is/are true
(A) Area of square ABCD is 89
(B) If (a, b) be the point of intersection of diagonals then (a + b) is 13
(C) Slope of line through A and B is – 1
(D) Co-ordinates of point D is (9, 12)
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

3010CJA101002230087 23/29
Target:JEE (Main + Advanced) : 2025/31-03-2024
8. If n3 – (n – 1)3 + (n – 2)3 ..... + ( – 1)n–1 13 = 208 where n is an odd integer then n cann't be
(A) 5 (B) 7 (C) 9 (D) 11
9. Which of the following statement is/are true?
n
(r + 3) 2(2(n+1) − 1)
(A) ∑ (n C r ) = 2 n +
r=0
(r + 1) (n + 1)

(B) If λ is the value of sum of coefficients in the expansion of (3x + 2y + 4z)50, then the last digit
of λ is 1.
2 3 20
(C) 1 + ∑ (2 Cr ) + ∑ (3 Cr )+. . . + ∑ (20 Cr ) = (221 − 22)
r=1 r=1 r=1
10
(D) ∑ r(r!) is divisible by 2
r=1

10. Consider two quadratic polynomials as P(x) = x2 – 2x + (a2 – 11a + 10) and Q(x) = x2 + (3 – b)x + b
where a, b ∈ R then which of the following statement/s is/are incorrect ?
(A) The roots of equation P(x) = 0 are non-real for every real value of a
(B) There is no value of 'b' for which roots of equation Q(x) = 0 are additive inverse of each other
(C) There is no value of b for which exactly one root of the equation Q(x) = 0 is zero
(D) There are exactly two values of 'a' for which the roots of the equation P(x) = 0 are
multiplicative inverse of each other
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

24/29 3010CJA101002230087
Nurture Course/A', A0, B0, B1/31-03-2024
11. Locii of a point P(x, y) satisfying the relation x4 + y4 + 2x2y2 – 2x2 – 6y2 + 1 = 0 are the two circles,
these circles
(A) have centre on y-axis (B) cut each other orthogonally
(C) are congurent (D) have exactly two common tangents.
12. There are 7 seats in a row. The number of ways three persons take seats so that middle seat is always
occupied and no two persons are consecutive is equal to n!, then which of the following statements
is(are) true -
(A) Number of ways in which n points are selected from 12 distinct collinear points so that no two
of them are consecutive is 9C5
(B) The number of (n + 1) digit numbers in which the digit in any place is greater than the digit to
the left of it is 9C5
(C) The number of odd proper divisors of 20412 is 3n + 1
1
(D) + log6 n + log8 6 ⩾ 32/3
2
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

3010CJA101002230087 25/29
Target:JEE (Main + Advanced) : 2025/31-03-2024
SECTION-II : (Maximum Marks: 32)
This section contains EIGHT (08) questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
For each question, enter the correct numerical value of the answer in the place designated to enter the
answer. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to Two
decimal places; e.g. 6.25, 7.00, –0.33, –.30, 30.27, –127.30, if answer is 11.36777..... then both 11.36
and 11.37 will be correct)

Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered.
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
1. Let ( α , β ) be the centre of a smaller circle which touches the lines 7x – y – 5 = 0 and x + y + 13 = 0 and
which passes through (1,2), then the value of | α + β | is
2. Number of solution(s) of the equation −cot2 x + cos 12x = 5 sin 3x + 9tan2 x, where x ∈ [0, 2 π ] is

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

26/29 3010CJA101002230087
Nurture Course/A', A0, B0, B1/31-03-2024

3. Let (3 − sin B sin C) sin A + (3 − sin C sin A) sin B + (3 − sin A sin B) sin C = 0, A,B,C ≠ , n ∈ I.
2
sin A sin B sin C sin A. sin B. sin C
If 2
+
2
+
2
=λ , then sum of all possible integral values of λ is
cos A cos B cos C cos2 A. cos2 B. cos2 C

4. Let P(x1, y1) and Q(x2, y2) lie on x2 + y2 = 1 and (x – 1)2 + y2 = 1 respectively and value of
b
(2x1 − 1)2 + (2x2 − 1)2 + 4 (y12 + y22 ) lies in [a, b] then is
a

5. Let (1 + x)15= a0 xP0 + a1 xP1 + a2 xP2 +. . . . +a15 xP15 where a0 ⩾ a1 ⩾ a2 ⩾ a3 . . . . . ⩾ a15 > 0 and
Pi+1 > Pi , if ai = ai+1 = 2n + 1, n ∈ I, i ∈ {0, 1, 2, . . . . . , 14}
{ , then the value of
Pi+1 < Pi , if ai = ai+1 = 2n, n ∈ I, i ∈ {0, 1, 2, . . . . . , 14}
a5 + P5 + a11 + P11 + 869
is
a9 + P9 + P14 + a14 + 32

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

3010CJA101002230087 27/29
Target:JEE (Main + Advanced) : 2025/31-03-2024
6. If [x]3 + [y]3 + [z]3 – 3[x] [y] [z] = 4 where x, y, z > 0 then maximum possible value of ([x] + [y])[z] is
(where [.] represents greatest integer function)

7. If all the roots of polynomial ƒ(x) = x4 + ax3 + bx2 + cx + 120 are positive integers and distinct and
ƒ (1)
greater than one then is
4

8. If each pair of x2 + ax + b = 0, x2 + cx + d = 0 and x2 + ex + f = 0 has exactly one root in common and


(a + c + e)2
all equations do not have common roots, then the value of is
ac + ce + ea − b − d − ƒ

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

28/29 3010CJA101002230087
Nurture Course/A', A0, B0, B1/31-03-2024
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

3010CJA101002230087 29/29
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
Form Number : Paper Code : CJM202466230007
TEST PATTERN
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME
GUJARATI

JEE (Main)
(Academic Session : 2023 - 2024) MINOR TEST - 3

JEE (Main) : ENTHUSIAST COURSE (BHAVNAGAR)


Time : 3 Hours TEST DATE : 09 - 07 - 2023 Maximum Marks : 300

ykÃku÷ Mkq[Lkkyku æÞkLkÚke ðkt[ku


yøkíÞLke Mkq[Lkk :
1. Test Booklet Lkk yk ÃkuEÍ Ãkh íkhík s Vku{o Lktçkh ðkˤe fu fk¤e ÃkuLkÚke ¼he Ëku. ÃkuÂLMk÷Lkku WÃkÞkuøk Mk¾ík «ríkçktrÄík Au.

DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS WITHOUT BEING INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE INVIGILATOR


2. W{uËðkhkuyu Œu{™ku Vku{o ™tƒh Test Booklet/Answer Sheet …h ƒesu fâkt (WÕ÷ur¾Œ søÞk r‚ðkÞ) ÷¾ðku òuEyu ™nª.
3. yk «&™Ãkºk{kt 90 «&™ku Au.
4. «§…ºk{kt 1,2,3 {kt ¼kirŒfþk†, h‚kÞýþk† y™u „rýŒ™k ºký ¼k„ Au. su{kt «íÞuf rð»kÞ{kt 30 «§ku Au y™u Ëhuf rð»kÞ{kt ƒu
rð¼k„ Au.
(i) rð¼k„-I {kt {kºk yuf ‚k[k rðfÕ… ‚kÚku 20 MCQ ™k «§ku Au.
Marking scheme : Mkk[ku sðkƒ nkuÞ íkku +4 økwý, fkuEÃký W¥kh sýkðu÷ Lk nkuÞ íkku þqLÞ økwý yLku çkkfeLkk çkÄk s rfMMkk{kt
(–1) økwý ykÃkðk{kt ykðþu.
(ii) Section-II {kt 10 «&™ku Au. rðãkÚkeoykuyu 10 {ktÚke 5 «&™kuLkk W¥kh ykÃkðkLkk Au.
òu 5 Úke ðÄw «&™kuLkk W¥kh ykÃku÷ nþu íkku «Úk{ 5 «&™LkkuLkwt {qÕÞktfLk fhðk{kt ykðþu. Ëhuf «&™Lkku sðkçk MktÏÞk¥{f Au.
Marking scheme : Mkk[ku sðkƒ nkuÞ íkku +4 økwý, fkuEÃký W¥kh sýkðu÷ Lk nkuÞ íkku þqLÞ økwý yLku çkkfeLkk çkÄk s rfMMkk{kt
(–1) økwý ykÃkðk{kt ykðþu.
5. W¥khÃkrºkfkLke Side–1 yLku Side–2 Lke çkkswyu ftEf ÷¾ðk{k{kt fu W¥kh {kxu Võík fk¤e fu ðkˤe ÃkuLkLkku s WÃkÞkuøk fhku. ÃkuÂLMk÷Lkku
WÃkÞkuøk Mk¾ík «ríkçktrÄík Au.
6. yku¤¾Ãkºk rMkðkÞ yLÞ fkuEÃký ðMíkw rðãkÚkeoyu suðe fu ÷¾u÷ MkkrníÞ, fkøk¤ fu r[êe, {kuçkkE÷ VkuLk fu yLÞ fkuE E÷uõxÙkuLkef MkkÄLk
÷kððwt Ãkheûkk¾tz{kt {kLÞ LkÚke.
7. hV fkÞo {kxu y÷økÚke fkøk¤ ykÃkðk{kt ykðþu Lknª. ykÃku÷ søÞk{kt s hV fÞko fhðwt.
8. Ãkheûkk Ãkqýo ÚkÞk çkkË, rðãkÚkeoyu Answer Sheet Ãkheûkk¾tzLkk rLkheûkfLku ykÃkðkLke hnuþu Ãký Test Booklet íku{Lke MkkÚku ÷E sE þfþu.
9. Answer Sheet ðk¤ðe Lkne fu íku Lkk Ãkh fku E zk½ ÷økkzðku Lkne.

Name of the Candidate (in Capitals) :

Batch & Phase (in Capitals) :

Centre of Examination (in Capitals) :

Candidate’s Signature : Invigilator’s Signature :

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in JEE (Main) 2024


ALLEN AHMEDABAD
“SADHYA - SBR" Opp. Saptavilla Bungalow, Behind Sindhubhavan, Thaltej, Ahmedabad (GUJARAT) 380059 +91-79-49033100
infoadi@allen.ac.in allen.ac.in/ahmedabad
Form Number : Paper Code : CJM202466230007
TEST PATTERN
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME
GUJARATI

JEE (Main)
(Academic Session : 2023 - 2024) MINOR TEST - 3

JEE (Main) : ENTHUSIAST COURSE (BHAVNAGAR)


Time : 3 Hours TEST DATE : 09 - 07 - 2023 Maximum Marks : 300

ykÃku÷ Mkq[Lkkyku æÞkLkÚke ðkt[ku


yøkíÞLke Mkq[Lkk :
1. Test Booklet Lkk yk ÃkuEÍ Ãkh íkhík s Vku{o Lktçkh ðkˤe fu fk¤e ÃkuLkÚke ¼he Ëku. ÃkuÂLMk÷Lkku WÃkÞkuøk Mk¾ík «ríkçktrÄík Au.

DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS WITHOUT BEING INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE INVIGILATOR


2. W{uËðkhkuyu Œu{™ku Vku{o ™tƒh Test Booklet/Answer Sheet …h ƒesu fâkt (WÕ÷ur¾Œ søÞk r‚ðkÞ) ÷¾ðku òuEyu ™nª.
3. yk «&™Ãkºk{kt 90 «&™ku Au.
4. «§…ºk{kt 1,2,3 {kt ¼kirŒfþk†, h‚kÞýþk† y™u „rýŒ™k ºký ¼k„ Au. su{kt «íÞuf rð»kÞ{kt 30 «§ku Au y™u Ëhuf rð»kÞ{kt ƒu
rð¼k„ Au.
(i) rð¼k„-I {kt {kºk yuf ‚k[k rðfÕ… ‚kÚku 20 MCQ ™k «§ku Au.
Marking scheme : Mkk[ku sðkƒ nkuÞ íkku +4 økwý, fkuEÃký W¥kh sýkðu÷ Lk nkuÞ íkku þqLÞ økwý yLku çkkfeLkk çkÄk s rfMMkk{kt
(–1) økwý ykÃkðk{kt ykðþu.
(ii) Section-II {kt 10 «&™ku Au. rðãkÚkeoykuyu 10 {ktÚke 5 «&™kuLkk W¥kh ykÃkðkLkk Au.
òu 5 Úke ðÄw «&™kuLkk W¥kh ykÃku÷ nþu íkku «Úk{ 5 «&™LkkuLkwt {qÕÞktfLk fhðk{kt ykðþu. Ëhuf «&™Lkku sðkçk MktÏÞk¥{f Au.
Marking scheme : Mkk[ku sðkƒ nkuÞ íkku +4 økwý, fkuEÃký W¥kh sýkðu÷ Lk nkuÞ íkku þqLÞ økwý yLku çkkfeLkk çkÄk s rfMMkk{kt
(–1) økwý ykÃkðk{kt ykðþu.
5. W¥khÃkrºkfkLke Side–1 yLku Side–2 Lke çkkswyu ftEf ÷¾ðk{k{kt fu W¥kh {kxu Võík fk¤e fu ðkˤe ÃkuLkLkku s WÃkÞkuøk fhku. ÃkuÂLMk÷Lkku
WÃkÞkuøk Mk¾ík «ríkçktrÄík Au.
6. yku¤¾Ãkºk rMkðkÞ yLÞ fkuEÃký ðMíkw rðãkÚkeoyu suðe fu ÷¾u÷ MkkrníÞ, fkøk¤ fu r[êe, {kuçkkE÷ VkuLk fu yLÞ fkuE E÷uõxÙkuLkef MkkÄLk
÷kððwt Ãkheûkk¾tz{kt {kLÞ LkÚke.
7. hV fkÞo {kxu y÷økÚke fkøk¤ ykÃkðk{kt ykðþu Lknª. ykÃku÷ søÞk{kt s hV fÞko fhðwt.
8. Ãkheûkk Ãkqýo ÚkÞk çkkË, rðãkÚkeoyu Answer Sheet Ãkheûkk¾tzLkk rLkheûkfLku ykÃkðkLke hnuþu Ãký Test Booklet íku{Lke MkkÚku ÷E sE þfþu.
9. Answer Sheet ðk¤ðe Lkne fu íku Lkk Ãkh fku E zk½ ÷økkzðku Lkne.

Name of the Candidate (in Capitals) :

Batch & Phase (in Capitals) :

Centre of Examination (in Capitals) :

Candidate’s Signature : Invigilator’s Signature :

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in JEE (Main) 2024


City Head Office : ALLEN AHMEDABAD “SADHYA - SBR" Opp. Saptavilla Bungalow, Behind Sindhubhavan, Thaltej,
Ahmedabad (GUJARAT) 380059 +91-79-49033100 infoadi@allen.ac.in allen.ac.in/ahmedabad

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