Ooo - para Jumbled Types Catking

Odd One Out (Parajumbles)
What are CATKing Bible LOD 2 Books?

CATKing Bible LOD 2 Books are specially designed books which are useful in getting
students Boosted Up and Ready for All Management Entrance Tests (CAT / CET /
NMAT / CMAT / SNAP / TISSNET / MICAT / IIFT). They are recommended for all
students who wish to solve advanced-level questions in any section for any
Management Entrance Test.
How to make the best use of CATKing Bible LOD 2 Books?

i. Attend the CATKing Concept Builder Classes to gain an idea of what all are the
basic pointers of the chapters.
ii. Go through that chapter in the CATKing Bible LOD 1 Books and read all the
Theory and Formulae provided in the Introduction of the chapter.
iii. After studying for the theory, clear your basics from CATKing Bible LOD 1 by
solving basic questions and then solve advanced-level questions from CATKing
Bible LOD 2 books.
iv. Solve all the Questions provided on your own and then refer to the solutions at
the end so as to verify if you have solved the questions correctly or is there a
better smarter approach for the same question.
v. If you are able to solve the majority of questions correctly, then move to the
next step of preparation by taking the Topic-wise Tests.
vi. Once you are done with a good set of 4 - 5 Topics, give the Sectional and Full-
length Mocks and see where you stand.
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Table of Contents
Content Page
Questions 1
Solutions 47
Q get started…
Let’s
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Questions
S.1-100) 5 sentences related to a topic are given below. 4 of them can be put
together to form a meaningful and coherent short paragraph. Identify the odd
one out.
Q.1)
A) The tussle between the elected government and the LG has been ongoing for
some time.
B) He is bound by the aid and advice of NCT Government in areas other than those
exempted.”
C) However, subsequently, in 2017, a constitution bench of the Supreme Court
clearly stated, “the LG is an administrative head in the limited sense and is not a
governor.
D) In 2016, a Delhi High Court ruling held that the LG is the administrative head
and need not seek counsel from the council of ministers.
E) The Supreme Court sought to outline the terrain of constitutional legitimacy of
government, and “purposively interpreted” the relevant Articles 239AA and 239AB
of the Constitution that outline “special provisions for Delhi.”
Q.2)
A) The use of a football club as a mere for-profit business is a crux.
B) Meaningful competition among them was seen as a meritocratic exercise.
C) Jurgen Klopp, Liverpool manager, even claimed to have been kept in the dark.
D) But with leagues increasingly awash with hedge fund money and hand-outs
from oligarchies, outfits are answerable more to investors and shareholders than
actual supporters.
E) Traditionally, clubs considered themselves to be public-spirited entities.
www.catking.in | 8999118999 1
Q.3)
A) Precious time was wasted before critical facilities began to be scaled up to meet
the demands of the second wave that is accelerating at an unprecedented pace,
leading to healthcare facilities being overwhelmed; the number of deaths shows a
sharp growth of 10.2%.
B) The Health Ministry’s July 2020 COVID-19 clinical management protocol does
suggest that Remdesivir may be considered in patients with moderate disease.
C) A mad scramble for hospital beds, oxygen, medicines, vaccines and even a quick
funeral is witnessed in many cities.
D) Though a small trial did show that the drug shortened the time to recovery, the
World Health Organization’s large Solidarity trial found no evidence of its benefit
in reducing mortality, initiation of ventilation or substantial reduction in the time
to recovery.
E) If the mindless rush for convalescent plasma and Hydroxychloroquine even in
the absence of any evidence of benefit was seen last year, there is now hysteria to
get Remdesivir for hospitalised patients, leading to drug shortages.
Q.4)
A) A ‘normal’ monsoon forecast this year is primarily predicated on ‘neutral’
surface temperatures in the Central Equatorial Pacific.
B) However, the models already show a good chance of ‘above normal’ rain in
central and southern India.
C) This year, a warming El Niño is unlikely, and another ocean parameter closer
home, the Indian Ocean Dipole, too is expected to be unfavourable for excess rains
and so the IMD seems more confident that its calculations are not going to be as
wrong.
D) Several businesses and service-sector industries need weather products and in
terms of science and infrastructure, few have the resources the IMD has.
E) In 2019 and 2020, the IMD forecast normal rains but India ended up with 110%
and 109% of the LPA.
Q.5)
A) Fidel remained at the helm of affairs in the island, in the face of growing
hostility from the U.S. until he fell sick in 2006.
B) Two years later, he handed the party to his younger brother, who had fought
alongside him in the guerrilla war against the dictatorship of Fulgencio Batista in
the 1950s.
C) Under the younger Castro, Cuba started taking baby steps towards opening up
the state-controlled economy.
D) The retirement of Raul Castro as the first secretary of Cuba’s ruling Communist
Party brings to an end the six-decade-long rule of the “historic generation”, who,
under the leadership of Fidel Castro, captured power in 1959 through an armed
revolution.
E) The Castros built a closed, socialist economy that worked for many decades.
Q.6)
A) In the agreement between the Trump administration and the insurgents in
February 2020, U.S. troops were scheduled to pull back by May 1, in return for the
Taliban’s assurance that they would not let terrorist groups such as al-Qaeda and
the Islamic State operate on Afghan soil.
B) Besides the U.S. troops, the thousands of coalition troops under NATO’s
command are also expected to pull back along with the Americans.
C) But the Taliban have made it clear that they will not participate in it and have
threatened to step up attacks if the U.S. did not meet the May 1 withdrawal
deadline.
D) When Mr. Biden ordered a review of the U.S.’s Afghan strategy, there was
speculation that he would delay the pull-out at least until there was a political
settlement.
E) But he chose an orderly pull-out — the remaining troops (officially 2,500) will
start leaving Afghanistan on May 1, with a full withdrawal by September 11.
Q.7)
A) It opposed the CBI’s closure report and tried to revive the investigation by its
own police, but thankfully, the effort was shot down by the Supreme Court.
B) It would be in the fitness of things if there is no further impediment to the CBI in
proceeding with its investigation against the officers concerned, and that the
process of restorative justice leads to its logical conclusion.
C) That Mr. Narayanan has succeeded in the battle for restoring his honour is a
matter of relief, but it should be noted that the Kerala government has been
resisting calls for disciplinary action against the erring police officers.
D) When it awarded compensation, the Court was quite convinced that the initial
probe was malicious.
E) The police are given to using questionable methods and treat the gravity of the
charge as something that necessitates stronger and more persuasive means of
investigation.
Q.8)
A) The first is the athlete’s desire to win by putting in the greatest endeavour.
B) It is this enduring template that gets torn asunder when cricketers throw
matches or athletes consume anabolic steroids and break records.
C) Sport rests on two pivots.
D) Sport is real and its immediacy also invests it with long-lasting meaning.
E) The second attribute is the fans’ belief that what unfolds on the turf is based on
sincere effort.
Q.9)
A) In its policy statement this month, the central bank hoped that arrivals from the
rabi harvest as well as imports would likely augment supply, helping moderate
prices of pulses.
B) Consumer Price Index numbers show that stubbornly high food and fuel costs
remain the main drivers of price pressures.
C) While inflation in pulses accelerated to 13.3%, from 12.5% in February, oils and
fats saw a more than 400 basis points surge to 24.9%.
D) With meat and fish, and eggs yet again posting double-digit increases, inflation
in the food and beverages category quickened almost 100 basis points to 5.24%.
E) Pulses and edible oils, key kitchen staples and vital nutritional sources for
proteins and fats, have been climbing almost dizzyingly for the last few months, a
fact not lost on the RBI.
Q.10)
A) It is still a mystery why India did not plan for enough stocks like the U.K. and the
U.S. did.
B) Now, it seems India is taking a cue from these countries by conceding that no
country can be entirely ‘atmanirbhar’ in vaccinating its population.
C) However, India is in a crisis.
D) While there are several vaccine candidates at various stages of approval that
India can choose from, it must not repeat the same mistake of assuming that
choice translates into immediate availability.
E) All of the Indian companies that have tied up with foreign vaccine companies
are private players, i.e. while they may promise vaccines in the millions, it will
always be the case that priority will be accorded to the highest global bidders.
Q.11)
A) The government’s move to introduce the farm legislation shifts the focus onto
issues relating to the marketing of agricultural products, which, though important,
divert attention from the critical problems that Indian agriculture is saddled with.
B) For any observer of India’s economic progress, it should be obvious that India’s
agricultural sector has been steeped in crisis for the past several decades.
C) The Indian agricultural sector has long suffered a plethora of structural
infirmities that have contributed to the continuing crisis in the sector.
D) While India did well to achieve food self-sufficiency, after a couple of decades of
chronic food shortages following independence, this was achieved primarily by
adopting high-yielding varieties of seeds along with input and price subsidies.
E) However, these productivity gains have long plateaued.
Q.12)
A) The socio-economic diversity among students in a school has a critical role in
developing an effective school system.
B) In India, besides the binary of the public—state/local bodies—and private,
there are several grades of public institutions, each drawing its clientele from
specific classes of households and occupational categories.
C) Efforts at developing a singular public education system with participation from
every corner of society has been systematically undermined due to the growth of
multi-modal and plural management systems, particularly in the school education
sector.
D) The composition of students in school by ethnicity and social class may
influence students’ academic performance, emotional development, attitude
towards others, as well as the effective preparation of people for democratic
citizenship.
E) It is also true that the private sector is equally diverse and therefore cannot be
considered as a monolith.
Q.13)
A) Still, some ASCs appointed full-time faculty and staff, while many ASCs chose to
function with faculty on an honorary basis.
B) The functioning and output of such colleges are always compromised because
of obvious reasons.
C) Due to the short term, non-¬traditional and interdisciplinary nature of the
college, candidates were hard to come by for full-time appointments.
D) Hence, initially the academic staff was deputed from other university
departments, who worked part-time in the ASCs.
E) Since the ASC is a temporary scheme, appointments could be made only on a
tenure basis of five years.
Q.14)
A) I showed up at the library expecting to find pages and pages of answers, but I
discovered that there were only a handful of psych papers published on it.
B) I became fascinated with communication: facial expression, body language, and
words.
C) At an early age, I understood that the way I communicated was unusual, that
people were confused by my lack of facial expression.
D) I became a psychology professor because I’ve been interested in
communication ever since I was born.
E) I was born with Moebius syndrome, a disability characterized by facial paralysis
and the inability to move my eyes from side to side.
Q.15)
A) Now, the nickname “Muddy York” represents the early years of this Canadian
city.
B) The “York” part actually goes back to when Toronto was first colonized, and its
name was “Town of York” to honour Prince Frederick, Duke of York.
C) “Muddy York” is now not as popular a moniker as it used to be, but the name
refers to a time in Toronto’s history when there was no drainage system or
sewers—meaning the “muddy” part of the name was quite literal.
D) But it’s actually a nickname for the city of Toronto in Canada.
E) “Muddy York” sounds like a nickname that would be better suited for New York
when it’s raining.
Q.16)
A) There are not many clinicians who work with gang-affiliated children.
B) Her expression revealed a combination of both shock and slight disgust.
C) It is an onerous task to find helping professionals who are interested in the
mental health needs of these children.
D) Conventional wisdom promotes encouraging children to leave gangs in lieu of
helping them address emotional concerns (i.e., depression, anxiety, trauma, etc.).
E) In fact, some facilities refuse to treat children that self-identify as being gang
members.
Q.17)
A) Historically, the position of most female mystics was as sisters, wives, or
daughters of saints.
B) However, we have adequate evidence of women saints who were revered for
their own dynamic personalities.
C) Besides, from the early days of Islam, female mystics, who were ascetic and
celibate, were prominent in Sufism (Eickelman and Piscatory 1996: 75).
D) As with their male equivalents, many of their tombs became places of
pilgrimage.
E) Small shrines can also be found in Anatolia, Iran, North Africa, and South Asia.
Q.18)
A) The efforts of healthcare personnel, from ASHA workers with only basic training
to highly specialised intensive care physicians, have saved countless lives and
made India proud.
B) That healthcare is science-based was convincingly demonstrated.
C) The worst pandemic in a hundred years has demonstrated the importance of
healthcare and public health in times of a health crisis.
D) We need to distinguish between the two.
E) Lab diagnosis, clinical assessments, triage and management ranging from home
quarantine to intensive care, clinical trials discriminating between useful and
useless therapeutic modalities all gave society a glimpse of how modern medicine
works.
Q.19)
A) The Chupacabra only recently joined the vampire in the bestiary of
bloodsucking creatures.
B) As a fearsome but probably non-existent creature, the Chupacabra has been
characterized as the southern equivalent of the Sasquatch.
C) No actual specimens were found, and sceptics suggested that “witnesses” may
have been influenced by the Hollywood science-fiction horror film Species (1995),
which features a monster of similar appearance.
D) Early reports described a creature that stood upright and resembled a large
reptilian kangaroo with huge red eyes.
E) Chupacabras were first reported in 1995, in Puerto Rico, where they were
blamed for attacks on goats, sheep, and other domestic animals, supposedly
leaving uneaten carcasses that were drained of blood.
Q.20)
A) Your brain does reward you for moving to explore your environment as much as
possible so that you can discover the 2 most important things out there: food and
sex.
B) Your brain benefits when the movement addresses its unique evolutionary
priorities related to survival and procreation.
C) Personal survival and the continuation of the species are what brains evolved to
achieve.
D) In contrast to your body, your brain benefits most when you perform activities
that it evolved to perform—to move around your environment with purpose;
movement for diversion or sport is a waste of valuable energy.
E) Yes, your brain does pay attention to whether you are contracting your muscles,
just not always in the ways, or for the reasons, that you might think.
Q.21)
A) If the United States of America could see unbridled two-lakh-plus new cases
daily for one and a half months (December to mid-January) and almost 6 lakh
deaths to date, the same is not unimaginable elsewhere, including in India.
B) But that is exactly what has to be done to respond to this fresh health and
economic emergency — assume the worst-case scenarios and plan for them.
C) Extrapolating these facts for another fortnight, month or more is scary.
D) Daily new cases, which raced past the previous peak in early April to double in
just 11 days, are trending above two lakh by the mid-month; positivity rates are
still accelerating.
E) India is now firmly in the ferocious grip of another Covid wave.
Q.22)
A) Gold prices have also declined on an average to ₹40,179 in March 2021, which
is the lowest through the financial year 2020-21.
B) The industry body said that the growth of gold imports has been aided by a low
base effect as imports in March 2020 were 28 tonnes because of the outbreak of
Covid-19.
C) During 2020-21, total gold imports into the country was 632.73 tonnes, a
decline of 11.87 per cent compared with the previous fiscal.
D) Total import during March was 160 tonnes, a growth of 470 per cent compared
with the same period last year.
E) Gold imports during March have surged to 160 tonnes on the back of duty cuts
to 7.5 per cent; a reduction in gold prices and a rise in demand in India and
overseas according to industry body Gem and Jewellery Export Promotion Council
(GJEPC).
Q.23)
A) I found social media pages of various Srihatta Sammilanis all over India.
B) I also wanted to understand what constitutes this Sylheti identity and so I
started reaching out to Sylhetis and those who lived around Sylhetis.
C) Srihatta is the olden name for Sylhet.
D) I was surprised to learn that thus tossed about by lords, administrators and
politicians, after so many displacements, such a thing as a Sylheti identity has
endured.
E) Dasgupta’s book teases out the much-nuanced nature of this identity — there is
a chapter titled “Being Sylheti in Assam” and subheads in the chapter on the
referendum called “Sylheti Hindu Memories” and “Sylheti Muslim Memories”.
Q.24)
A) We exist in time and occupy space and, for the most part, are usually fairly
certain of the where and the when of our existence.
B) Virtually everyone I have spoken to during the last year has reported mild to
severe distortions in their sense of space and time.
C) Of course, neither time nor space is wholly objective, even if science tells us that
they are, for how we perceive time and how we relate to space determine how we
see ourselves in relation to the world around us.
D) There may be occasions when we are disorientated and unable to determine
with certainty our where and when-abouts, but these are relatively uncommon
events in most lives, and our sense of self is typically quite solidly grounded in both
space and time.
E) It was Aristotle (384-322 BCE) who, perhaps for the first time, noted how our
perception of time was dependent on change and movement.
Q.25)
A) We are living through a time when the founding ideals of the Indian republic are
changing seismically.
B) This is not to say that the Constitution is not a powerful symbolic presence.
C) The unashamed invocation of majoritarian prejudices and minority
appeasement means India’s much-vaunted secularism is irrelevant in electoral
politics.
D) The profusion of love jihad laws across the country to widespread popular
acclaim demonstrates how deeply vindictive society is.
E) The cult of the leader overpowering the party at the Central and State-levels
means that India today is a presidential system masquerading as a parliamentary
democracy.
Q.26)
A) History tells us that a single individual does not usually preside over both
revolution and reconstruction with the same success.
B) This raises the obvious question — with similar ideals but different tools, would
the Congress have survived in the India of the Sangha?
C) The Sangha’s tentative manifesto reflects many of the primary features of what
is now understood to be Nehruvian socialism and secularism.
D) Bose’s Sangha would provide “perfect equality” in terms of political and
economic rights, endorse no State religion, thereby allowing “complete religious
and cultural freedom”, and strive to eradicate poverty and unemployment by
means of “industrialisation and scientific agriculture through state aid”.
E) In ‘The Indian Struggle’, Bose imagines a new party for independent India — the
Samyavadi-Sangha — which would dominate the political landscape like a
colossus, functioning as a “well-organised, disciplined all-India party... the chief
instrument for maintaining national unity.”
Q.27)
A) Tourism and trade are also significant economic activities.
B) The implementation of “no activity whatsoever by human intervention” in the
SBR (Sundarbans Biosphere Area) is an impossibility since about 5,705 square
kilometres are designated as the ‘transition area’, home to about five million
people, practising agriculture, fishing and fishery in the main.
C) The office of the SBR director within the Wildlife Wing of the forest directorate
has limited resources for the protection of wildlife and the regulation of human
activity and entry into natural areas.
D) The livelihoods of such a large population cannot be washed away, particularly
in the absence of any mechanism to settle the inhabitants away from the SBR and
provide them with livelihoods.
E) The Calcutta High Court direction dated March 5, 2021, requiring that there be
“absolutely no activity of converting any part of Sundarbans from its ‘as is where
is’ condition, as obtained now” will come in the way of the socio-economic
activities of the residents of the SBR.
Q.28)
A) The CJI’s statement opened up the horizon of possibility.
B) He was responding to a plea filed by the Supreme Court Women Lawyers
Association asking that the Supreme Court intervene to ensure the appointment of
more women as judges in high courts.
C) Considering the scale of gender imbalance in the higher judiciary, the plea was a
modest one.
D) According to the Chief Justice of India, the time had come for the appointment
of a woman as CJI.
E) Has the time come at last?
Q.29)
A) The scale of the crisis — the nation is at war with a virus — makes it imperative
for the Central government to be collaborative in its approach.
B) Bolstering federalism and a conciliatory approach towards the Opposition, some
of whose constituents have vast experience in running the country, should be
deemed important in these desperate times.
C) Had this been done earlier, India could have saved many more lives.
D) It is this shared spirit of cooperation that has helped the country stand together
during many a crisis in the past — medical, political or economic.
E) It is a pity that the ruling Bharatiya Janata Party refuses to learn useful lessons
from this history.
Q.30)
A) Before either of these, January brought a preview of what censorship by
grievance might look like via the controversy over the web show, Tandav.
B) Newspaper delivery bans are usually restricted to group housing, and journalists
can work online more easily than cine workers can.
C) After announcing a three-tier regulatory framework for digital content in
February that would affect the over-the-top streaming video industry, earlier this
month, the government scrapped the Film Certification Appellate Tribunal, which
has been in existence as a statutory body since 1983.
D) This functioned as a court of appeal for film-makers unhappy with cuts imposed
by the Central Board of Film Certification and gave them negotiating space without
having to initiate a legal process.
E) The OTT industry got its first taste of trouble in November last year when a
gazette notification brought all streaming platforms under the ambit of the
ministry of information and broadcasting.
Q.31)
A) Introduced in the early 19th century by the Belgian mathematician Lambert
Adolphe Quetelet, BMI is a widely used measure in population health.
B) It is a simple calculation: weight divided by height squared.
C) BMI was never designed to be a measure of the overall physical and mental
health of an individual, and it’s never used as a sole measure in clinical practice.
D) But simplicity comes at a cost.
E) Despite not having a low BMI, these people can still be at significant risk of
physical and mental health complications.
Q.32)
A) We think of the battles of the Somme, Mons, and Passchendaele.
B) When we think of the First World War, we think of the interminable trenches of
the western front.
C) We do not think of the first shot fired by a British soldier, Regimental Sergeant-
Major Alhaji Grunshi of the Gold Coast, during the Anglo-French invasion of
Togoland (now Togo), which was then a German colony.
D) We think of wartime poets like Wilfred Owen, Siegfried Sassoon and Rupert
Brooke.
E) Whenever there is debate around decolonising the curriculum, there is a false
assumption that those arguing for it are focused on removing what we do not like.
Q.33)
A) Despite lying to the DUP and businesses that he would do no such thing, this
meant he had to accept a non-tariff hard border down the Irish Sea.
B) Northern Ireland has everything to gain by remaining alongside the Republic in a
collective market.
C) Hence the protocol under which Johnson left the north within the EU’s single
market, allowing free movement of goods and people.
D) Building a Brexit border across Ireland would wreck that agreement.
E) The biggest cost was always going to be paid by Northern Ireland, where the
1998 Good Friday agreement was yielding a steadily beneficial economic merger
with the south.
Q.34)
A) But I had something many of my predecessors didn’t – close links with
supporters’ groups.
B) To explain, I have to go back to when I was appointed as culture secretary in
early 2008.
C) Until that point, the Premier League had been used to going over the Culture
Secretary’s head to Downing Street to get its way.
D) Amid an outcry across the sporting world, the idea died.
E) I spoke out against Game 39 and got immediate backing from those fans.
Q.35)
A) But this fails to recognise eating disorders as complex mental illnesses.
B) Some wrongly presume that you can see an eating disorder and that a patient
only needs to eat appropriately for the illness to go away.
C) There’s a huge training deficit across the healthcare sector that means many
practitioners aren’t trained to identify an eating disorder, nor equipped with the
knowledge to direct someone to specialist services.
D) But the workforce issue is about more than the number of specialists working in
eating disorder services.
E) Part of the reason is because NHS eating disorder services are under-resourced
and struggle to keep up with demand.
Q.36)
A) Time travel is impossible but Google Earth’s new Time-lapse feature is all that
you need.
B) The new 3D feature allows users to see changes that have taken place from
1984 to 2020, which also brings into focus how climate change has affected us.
C) You will end up watching how the planet has changed over a period of time.
D) It’s the biggest update to Google Earth since 2017. “With Time-lapse in Google
Earth, 24 million satellite photos from the past 37 years have been compiled into
an interactive 4D experience.
E) Once you launch Google Earth, click or tap on the Voyager tab and you will be
able to search for a place of interest or check out one of Google’s five “guided
tours” about “forest change, urban growth, warming temperatures, mining and
renewable energy sources, and ‘the Earth’s fragile beauty’.”
Q.37)
A) From packaging to products, everything is built on the idea of a clean future,
saying no to chemicals and embracing recyclable plastic for packaging.
B) In fact, international brands often have double standards with regards to what
they sell in India and what they are allowed to sell internationally.
C) A boon for people following the Curly Girl Method, their haircare range is one
that they swear by, with the main focus being on the original hair gel that is a
super hit amongst brand loyalists!
D) Dhruv Bhasin and Dhruv Madhok hadn’t envisaged that a chance encounter
with a mom-made hair gel from flaxseeds would pave the path for a brand that
now boasts of products for skincare, haircare, oral care and body.
E) All-natural, completely vegan and sustainable, this brand is slowly making its
mark for those who are increasingly choosing to take a ‘clean-beauty’ approach in
life.
Q.38)
A) Yet the bookies’ frontrunner by a long way is none of the above.
B) The field from which its choices will be made provides not just cinematic quality,
but also an impressive reflection of current social concerns.
C) This year’s ceremony may be the least-watched for decades, but its decisions
will still be telling.
D) Yet, for now, Hollywood’s historic contest retains its glittering crown.
E) Hollywood’s share of global cinema may be small and shrinking: its major
studios have delivered only one of the eight nominees for best picture.
Q.39)
A) Architecture is a divisive subject, an area in which people’s tastes are stubborn
and admirers argue passionately for their favourite styles.
B) Poundbury is billed as “traditionalist’ but it rather resembles a model village or
miniature golf course.
C) But there is one school of architecture that splits people up like no other, and
that is modernism; more specifically, brutalism.
D) This is particularly tragic because Prince Charles has the worst taste in
architecture known to man.
E) Prince Charles, for instance, maintains a keen interest in the subject, which has
resulted in the creation of his own personal project: the town of Poundbury, on
land he owns in Dorset.
Q.40)
A) Mangroves undoubtedly need protection.
B) In the present case, it appears that the court has been given to understand that
mangrove forest land is being converted into fisheries.
C) Observations made by the bench on that day are thus: “This matter pertains to
the pristine mangrove forests in the Sundarbans being destroyed by converting
forest land into fisheries upon uprooting the plants.”
D) From time to time, mangrove patches outside designated forest areas in the
SBR come under assault in spite of being protected everywhere by the Supreme
Court judgement of December 11, 1996.
E) This is apparent from the observations made by the bench on December 10,
2020: “the writ petitioner complains of illegal activities undertaken to convert
forest land into fisheries upon uprooting the mangrove trees”.
Q.41)
A) It seems rather ironic as this period was dominated by some of the finest
investigative reports such as the Watergate investigations by The Washington Post
and the Pentagon Papers by The New York Times.
B) The impact of these journalistic endeavours went beyond the shores of the
Atlantic and Pacific oceans.
C) A recent study by the Media Insight Project, a collaboration of the American
Press Institute and The Associated Press-NORC Centre for Public Affairs Research
shows 2 phases of decline.
D) The slide started in the pre-Internet decades between 1972 and 2000.
E) Unlike India, the United States has an empirical approach to measure the
decline in trust in the media.
Q.42)
A) From financial sustainability to an enabling legal and regulatory framework, a
news organisation must be firmly wedded to the vibrancy of our democratic
institutions.
B) Journalism, in its desire to remain the node of empowerment, has to constantly
remind itself and the citizens of the troubled past and the fragile present.
C) The other is to serve the whims of the government, where the role of the
information ecosystem is reduced to that of a mere amplifier of the claims of
those in power.
D) One is aimed at empowering citizens and helping them sharpening their spirit of
critical inquiry.
E) Information in the public sphere often travels in two contradictory and
contending trajectories.
Q.43)
A) Nearly 10 High Courts have taken up pressing matters pertaining to COVID-19.
B) But as each successive blaze proves, business as usual may extract a heavy
price.
C) It would be logical to add fire safety to such scrutiny, to make accidents rare.
D) With no end in sight to serious hospital fires, there may be a case for judicial
oversight and systematic inquiries into such mishaps.
E) COVID-19 has turned into a conflagration, and the Supreme Court has taken suo
motu cognisance of many aspects of pandemic management, such as availability of
oxygen and essential drugs, method and manner of vaccination, and declaration of
lockdowns.
Q.44)
A) The only party that did not have a problem with the election being spread over
eight phases over five weeks has been the BJP.
B) Even after it became evident that the new surge was turning out to be severe,
the BJP continued with big rallies in the State.
C) Allegations that this helped the BJP that was dependent on its star campaigners
and workers from other States moving from one region to the next carries weight.
D) It is ironic that the BJP that argues for clubbing together all elections across the
country has been happy about such a prolonged process in Bengal.
E) The unusual and unreasonable schedule of the Bengal election during the
pandemic was unwise and avoidable.
Q.45)
A) As might be guessed, the word hippie is derived from the word hip, which
conveys being up-to-date and fashionable.
B) The term can be descriptive or derogatory and was not initially used by the
youths to describe themselves.
C) These Beat writers and thinkers were idolized by a growing number of youths in
the 1960s, and by 1965 a burgeoning counterculture movement began to
converge in San Francisco’s Haight-Ashbury district.
D) In the 1950s, “hip” was commonly applied to the Beats, such as Allen Ginsberg
and Jack Kerouac, who represented and inspired the bohemian artist communities
in San Francisco, Los Angeles, and New York City.
e) This meaning of hip is thought to have originated with African Americans during
the Jive Era of the 1930s and ‘40s.
Q.46)
A) Why do airlines oversell their flights?
B) The reported reason why airlines routinely oversell their seats is to recover
costs the airline incurs for seat cancellations and for travellers who do not show up
to take the flight.
C) If these annoyances weren’t enough, once a passenger finally makes it to their
gate, they face the possibility of being “bumped”—that is, kept from occupying the
seat they purchased because the flight was oversold.
D) There’s turbulence, baggage limitations, intrusions by airport security, and the
overhyped fear of plane crashes.
E) Traveling by air can be a stressful activity.
Q.47)
A) It’s a mixture of portraits of friends, family, and figures who inspire him;
photographs by Stipe, plus images of pots and book jackets he commissioned to
honour people he admires.
B) Now, it’s time for Stipe’s third, which he made (mostly) on his own, to be called
Michael Stipe.
C) What he has done in his decade of non-music time is art: mostly photography,
though he also creates sculpture and video.
D) On our Zoom call, their apartment stretches out behind Stipe, open-plan, with a
kitchen to the left and large windows to the right.
E) He’s speaking to me today from the New York apartment he shares with his
long-term boyfriend Thomas (pronounced Tohma) Dozol, who is also a
photographer.
Q.48)
A) And because the people no longer have existential concerns, they have no need
for religion either.
B) For instance, it helped enforce morality by inventing ever-watching gods that
punished misbehaviour in the next life if not this one.
C) It’s comforting to know that a god is looking after our best interests.
D) According to this view, religion arose to serve new social needs as humans
developed civilization.
E) Secularization theory proposes that religion is a product of cultural practices
and transmission.
Q.49)
A) Farokh Engineer, as wicketkeeper and bon vivant in a team of bon vivants in the
1960s and 70s, had the talent and the record to match.
B) And what of the current players?
C) His main competitor was Budhi Kunderan, who struck the ball with equal
ferocity and could turn an innings with similar ease.
D) His name usually followed the adjective ‘flamboyant’ and when he modelled for
Brylcreem, the hair care product, he became more than a batsman who nearly
made a century before lunch.
E) There was a suggestion that he had enough inside his head to match what was
outside, but he never got to lead India.
Q.50)
A) At what point did the core values of journalism lose their universal appeal and
get reduced to a mere professional creed?
B) We need imaginative silo-breakers to create an inclusive public sphere.
C) Herein lies the conundrum.
D) Why are people not accepting the arguments put forth by journalists?
D) When did the dialogue between journalists and citizens become a concurrent
monologue?
Q.51)
A) As the Commonwealth War Graves Commission finally admits today, up to
54,000 casualties, from Indian, East African, West African, Egyptian, and Somali
units were treated with unequal dignity in death.
B) Some were commemorated collectively on memorials, instead of being given
individually marked graves like their European counterparts.
C) As many as 350,000, mainly east African and Egyptian, personnel who fought for
Britain were not commemorated by name.
D) Others had their names recorded on registers, rather than in stone.
E) No condolences can ever make up for the indignity suffered by the
unremembered.
Q.52)
A) But from the 1990s onwards, profit-driven businesses sought affluent middle-
class fans; while the cost of a pint of milk has doubled since 1990, a match ticket
has increased more than sixfold, and many games are only accessible via
subscription services, fuelling an inflationary bubble of players’ salaries and
agents’ fees.
B) Football is a pillar of our national culture, one of the key sources of emotion in
many people’s lives, sometimes second only to family.
C) It is a game with unequivocally working-class origins – Manchester United was
founded by railwaymen, Arsenal by armaments workers – and in the early 1950s,
the maximum wage of a football player was £14 a week.
D) Along with the weather, it constitutes the go-to small talk with which strangers,
disproportionately male, dispel awkward silences.
E) If corporate power can be driven back in football then why not in sectors of
society of greater consequence for our lives?
Q.53)
A) For others involved in the scandal, he may turn out to be a very convenient fall
guy.
B) Like many high flyers of his generation, Heywood also venerated the private
sector.
C) Since then, his role in this growing scandal – in the blurring of boundaries
between Conservative governments, corporate interests and the civil service – has
become of great interest to the media and multiple official inquiries.
D) The book had received admiring reviews, seemingly cementing Heywood’s
status as a hero of the retreating centrist establishment, the kind of supposedly
neutral and deft civil servant who might have reined in the crude Brexiters now
running the country.
E) The Greensill scandal broke just weeks after ‘What Does Jeremy Think?’ was
published.
Q.54)
A) By conflating LGBT+ identity with a vice or illness, those who attempt to change
or suppress the sexual orientation or gender identity of non-heterosexual-cis
persons are targeting LGBT+ persons with physical and/or emotional abuse.
B) It is appropriate and, indeed, responsible to be concerned whenever proposed
state regulations appear to encroach upon our fundamental human rights.
C) The testimonies of survivors of LGBT+ conversion practices are chilling.
D) More frequently, victims are impelled to reject their innate identity as sinful or
wrong through discredited and damaging forms of talk therapy or religious
counselling.
E) In its most extreme forms, LGBT+ persons are subjected to shock therapy,
starvation, isolation and so-called “corrective rape”.
Q.55)
A) That political pressure could, in due course, lead to some more intelligent
policymaking is probably the best hope.
B) Fortunately, her Labour opponents appear increasingly alert to this weakness.
C) The home secretary Priti Patel prides herself on talking tough about crime, but
she recently announced a plan for league tables is remarkably backward, given
target culture’s strong association with poor practice and perverse incentives.
D) Whether ministers will pay attention to this latest warning is doubtful.
E) High levels of crime and violence were shown to be prominent among them.
Q.56)
A) Nearly three decades ago, during the Earth Summit held in 1992 in Rio de
Janeiro, the international community acknowledged the need to address the
growing challenges posed by the state of the environment.
B) The ultimate goal of this multilateral initiative has been to prevent unchecked,
runaway climate change from harming natural ecosystems, threatening food
production or hindering sustainable development.
C) Several resolutions and agreements emerged from that historic conference,
among them the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change.
D) Reversing this trend is possibly the most important and pressing task faced by
humanity today.
E) In short, to preserve the world as we know it.
Q.57)
A) And the review needn’t take long.
B) It should be given wide-ranging powers of approval over proposed takeovers,
and owners and directors under the fit-and-proper-person test.
C) If I was her, I would go no further unless she gets a clear commitment from the
prime minister that he will back her recommendations with urgent legislation in
the forthcoming Queen’s speech.
D) I felt a weary sense of deja vu when I heard about the government’s “fan-led
review” in response to this week’s events.
E) But I am prepared to give it the benefit of the doubt because I have a lot of time
for Tracey Crouch, the former sports minister who will run the review.
Q.58)
A) Amid an outcry across the sporting world, the idea died.
B) To its credit, the FA had a go.
C) I spoke out against Game 39 and got immediate backing from those fans.
D) But I had something many of my predecessors didn’t – close links with
supporters’ groups.
E) Until that point, the Premier League had been used to going over the Culture
Secretary’s headed to Downing Street to get its way.
Q.59)
A) It is 300 years since Scotland was last independent, sold into union with
England, wrote Robbie Burns, by “a parcel of rogues as a nation”.
B) The 2011 census suggested that 83% of Scots feel some Scottish identity, while
62% proclaim themselves “Scottish only”.
C) Imperial arrogance helped them lose Ireland.
D) Whether English people – or even some Scottish expatriates – are against
independence is not the issue; self-determination means what it says.
E) The union achieved good and ill but it has clearly failed to gel.
Q.60)
A) Religious or cultural practices such as female genital mutilation, early and
forced marriage and “honour” killings are rightly condemned as human rights
abuses, with many countries criminalising their commission.
B) The fact that conversion practices are conducted within almost all major faith
communities in the UK cannot be an excuse for the state to treat it differently
from other gendered practices that both constitute and cause serious harm.
C) States cannot compel faith leaders to change their beliefs on sexuality or gender
diversity.
D) However, some pay less attention when it comes to ending harmful gendered
practices that are less easily characterised as “contrary to western values”.
E) Countries already restrict manifestations of religion to protect those within their
jurisdiction from harm.
Q.61)
A) The services that homemakers provide need to be recognised as an important
aspect of economic activity and included in national income.
B) The gains from specialisation come from increasing returns in sector-specific
human capital and productivity increases; the gender gap in earnings occurs when
women spend little time in market human capital and allocate most of their energy
to the household.
C) Division of labour within families means that women specialise in non-market
activities.
D) A Treatise on the Family served to consolidate Beckers choice-theoretic
framework for analysing the different facets of family life.
E) The use of the economic approach to analyse non-market activities was
pioneered and popularized by Gary Becker.
Q.62)
A) It points to the moral force of a discourse of development in furthering the
agenda of capital accumulation.
B) It gave the public a span of just over three months to read and respond to the
draft notification, raising questions over the government’s willingness to enable
citizen participation in discussions on the proposed changes.
C) Introduced during the COVID-19 pandemic, the Ministry of Environment, Forest
and Climate Change (MoEFCC) released the draft on its website on 23rd March
2020, a day after a nationwide lockdown was announced by the central
government.
D) The notification is the latest in changes to state policy to facilitate the smooth
functioning of businesses and corporations, removing bureaucratic hur-dles along
the way that allegedly slow down and complicate the establishment of new
industries.
E) The draft Environment Impact Assessment notification, 2020 (EIA 2020) has
caused a stir in civil society and amidst people threatened by forcible land
acquisition and displacement in the name of “national development.”
Q.63)
A) The apparent absence of a revisioning of feminist politics only suggests an
ideological position of multiple/plural feminist standpoints.
B) Yet, there has been a reluctance on part of white feminists to confront the
challenges posed to them by black and third world feminism.
C) Within such a framework of ‘difference’ issues of caste become the sole
responsibility of the Dalit women’s organisations.
D) The assertion of autonomous Dalit women’s organisations in the 1990s threw
up several crucial theoretical and political challenges, besides underlining the
Brahmanism of the feminist movement and the patriarchal practices of Dalit
politics.
E) While initially, they promoted serious debate among both left party-based
women’s groups as well as autonomous women’s movement, they seem to have
come to rest today.
Q.64)
A) The Bharatiya Janata Party in its election manifesto told the nation that if it is
voted to power it would impose a “complete ban on the slaughter of cows, calves,
bulls and bullocks.”
B) No vegetable protein content goes beyond 10 per cent.
C) Such a position of the BJP emanates from its self-constructed notion that beef is
the food of Muslims and Christians only, and beef food culture is an imposition of
Islamic-Christian culture on the Indian people.
D) In other words, it told the nation that it would impose a total ban on beef food
of Indian people.
E) The BJP realised that it can no longer brow-beat the minorities by setting up
agendas of demolition of religious shrines, as such agendas were becoming
counter-productive.
Q.65)
A) Both the campaigners and the voters need to acquire this foresight
B) This is not to say that the Constitution is not a powerful symbolic presence.
C) The acute desire to pull the crowd, especially in difficult times, is fraught with
the tension between foresight and “insight;” insight into self-interest.
D) Foresight into the future of a healthy society is contingent upon the reflective
restraints exercised by the political leaders, while insight into narrow political
interest renders the desire for crowd-pulling in difficult times quite unrestrained.
E) Without this foresight, the whole election campaign would be reduced to the
politics of election crowd-pulling even in a critical time such as a pandemic.
Q.66)
A) In addition to this, the elected members of the Panchayat are obliged to read
out the ﬁnancial statements and balance sheet to ensure transparency.
B) Besides, grama sabhas can be convened as and when the necessity arises.
C) According to the rules framed by the Tamil Nadu government, it is mandatory
that grama sabhas meet at least four times in a calendar year.
D) Grama sabhas can be the platform to resolve such issues.
E) For seemingly trivial and easily resolvable issues, the villages did not have to
seek the assistance of the State or the Central governments.
Q.67)
A) Friedrich’s ataxia occurs when both copies of the FXN gene have the defect.
B) We all carry two copies of every gene, each inherited from a parent.
C) First, it brought home the thirst for scientific knowledge and the eagerness to
probe and understand complex phenomena, among the readers.
D) The researchers had identified a way to tag the defective part of the gene and
bind it so that frataxin can be produced normally.
E) The defective FXN gene causes a problem in producing a protein called frataxin,
which is found in cells throughout the body, with the highest levels in the heart,
spinal cord, liver, pancreas, and muscles used for voluntary movement.
Q.68)
A) In rural areas, online access remains an aspiration.
B) Every single teacher-educator and student, even in the metros, has experienced
poor connectivity.
C) Exams have lost their credibility.
D) Internet penetration in India is 50% and that reveals one reason for the less-
than-efficient achievement in the online education sector.
E) With physical classes out of the reckoning, access to education is now almost
exclusively online.
Q.69)
A) Medicine and social science are two essential pillars of public health.
B) The situation with the second wave is hardly different.
C) And this goes beyond the abomination of political rallies potentially spreading
infection, or public representatives failing at crucial public messaging by not
wearing masks themselves.
D) However, medical interventions have historically been the ones to usurp the
public health space.
E) Much to the detriment of public health, this has time and again resulted in a
subconscious dismissal of social science-based approaches that hold the keys to
the public health castle.
Q.70)
A) Is the United States defending multilateral rules or the hegemony over the rules
it had set?
B) Mobile digital payment interconnections impact society and the international
system, having three strategic implications.
C) The shift of global power from the Atlantic to the Indo-Pacific raises strategic
questions for India.
D) Is the world divided because of an assertive China or is the shift of power to
Asia a switch to the historical norm?
E) Should India take sides or bide its time as a neutral contender to both China and
the U.S.?
Q.71)
A) Placebo and nocebo effects are produced by specific beliefs that are acquired
via cultural learning.
B) Remedies or curses that don’t have a direct impact on the body can work, but
only when the recipient truly believes they will work.
C) My neighbours may benefit from hypnotherapy, but the technique likely won’t
work in West Africa because not so many West Africans have a cultural script for
hypnosis per se—although they may have one for a traditional healing trance.
D) A voodoo hex may work in Haiti, but it probably won’t work in my small college
town in Wisconsin.
E) To say that placebo and nocebo effects are “just in your head” is seriously
misleading.
Q.72)
A) In another recent study, parental reports of boredom proneness and ADHD
symptoms were correlated in children and adolescents diagnosed with ADHD.
B) The researchers also found that after three months of treatment with stimulant
medication, both ADHD symptoms and boredom proneness decreased.
C) Sure enough, those with ADHD engaged in more risky decision making.
D) But when medication was withdrawn, ADHD symptoms and boredom
proneness increased once again in a lock-step fashion.
E) The idea that boredom is associated with reduced physiological arousal, and
thus alleviated by stimulating medication, is not a new one (having been studied as
far back as the 1930s) and suggests just how tight the association may be between
boredom and ADHD.
Q.73)
A) Even captain Scarratt was uncharacteristically out of sorts, missing two
penalties that would have eased that pressure.
B) France trudged from the field looking like they had been mugged.
C) Zoe Aldcroft was outstanding in England’s reconstructed back row but too many
of her teammates had off days.
D) The French forwards were formidable and their defence unyielding.
E) England knew they were going to be in for a close contest but perhaps not as
close as this.
Q.74)
A) I am so excited because we arrived [at Wembley] and we have qualified for the
semi-finals of the Champions League, a competition where this club has struggled
for the last few years.
B) Absolutely not.
C) If I don’t want this I would resign.
D) But it’s our job, I am not complaining.
E) The day after we did so, flying back here and having a glass of wine on the
plane, I was enjoying the moment but also had to think about Chelsea [who City
lost to in the FA Cup semi-final].
Q.75)
A) On her list of apocalyptic developments is the production of AI-enabled,
animatronic sexbots; the race to produce “clean meat”, a lab-grown food made
from animal cells; the “bio-bag”, an artificial womb that could make childbirth as
straightforward as “opening a Ziplock bag”; and the growing market for suicide
kits.
B) “We are on the brink of an age when technology will redefine … the
fundamental elements of our existence.”
C) “What you are about to read is not science fiction,” she warns in her preface.
D) In ‘Sex Robots & Vegan Meat’, Kleeman examines the innovations that promise
to change the way we love, eat, reproduce, and die in the future.
E) We know the meat industry is cruel and environmentally-toxic but giving up
burgers and chicken nuggets for the greater good is, it seems, too much to ask.
Q.76)
A) Agnes is drawn with extraordinary sympathy: she simply leaps from the page as
she juggles motherhood, a violent and philandering husband and her own demons,
drink foremost among them.
B) With Big Shug sleeping through the day and driving his taxi at night on journeys
that are as much about scratching his sexual itch as they are about earning his
living, Agnes and her youngest child are thrown together, forming a strong and
complex bond.
C) She is troubled, lovable, vulnerable, and resilient, with ambitions for her
children and a vivid, painful memory of what it was to be young, to dance, to be
loved.
D) The novel moves in leaps through the 80s as we follow Shuggie and Agnes as
they each attempt to escape, either literally or metaphorically, the misery of their
surroundings.
E) Once you launch Google Earth, click or tap on the Voyager tab and you will be
able to search for a place of interest or check out one of Google’s five “guided
tours” about “forest change, urban growth, warming temperatures, mining and
renewable energy sources, and ‘the Earth’s fragile beauty’.”
Q.77)
A) There’s no way you’ve missed menopause, although you may not have had a
name for the traumatic experiences you’ve been enduring, so I’m surprised it
doesn’t feature in your line-up of woes.
B) You’ve got every right to be angry, but you need to be looking back at what
you’ve been through, rather than remain buried under it.
C) Such are the levels of shame attached that we try to negotiate it in woeful
ignorance, without the hormonal supplements we need, which should be as easily
available as tampons or pills for period pain but are not.
D) That we enter this phase of our lives ill-prepared and under-supported is among
my many bugbears about the way women are still discriminated against and
overlooked.
E) For far too many women this liminal phase in our lives continues to be the one
we dare not mention.
Q.78)
A) Griffiths draws inspiration from Romantic writers such as Hermann Hesse,
Keats, and Novalis, as well as the wisdom of indigenous people.
B) In our age of “lethal literalism” we have lost our connection to the natural
world.
C) But also hope at the growing tide of awareness and the demands for change.
D) There is despair here at the horror of the situation, and anger too.
E) This slight book has grown from a series of essays into a powerful plea for
action, written from the heart.
Q.79)
A) China has a $53-trillion mobile payments market and it is the global leader in
the online transactions arena, controlling over 50% of the global market value.
B) The global strategic balance will depend on new data standards.
C) India’s goal is to become a $5-trillion economy by 2025.
D) The U.S., in contrast, lags behind, with only around 30% of consumers using
digital means and with the total volume of mobile payments less than $100 billion.
E) India’s Unified Payments Interface (UPI) volume is expected to cross $1 trillion
by 2025.
Q.80)
A) The Government of India owns the airwaves.
B) All India Radio (AIR) is blessed with 470 broadcasting centres which cover 92%
of the country’s geographical area and 99.19% of our population.
C) My suggestion is this: let the AIR devote four hours (per class) to educational
broadcasting and let DD undertake educational broadcasting for an hour (per
class).
D) Prasar Bharati is India’s broadcasting corporation handling both radio and
television in India.
E) Doordarshan (DD) handles television, online and mobile broadcasting across our
country and the world with 34 satellite channels, 17 well-equipped studios in State
capitals and 49 studio centres in other cities.
Q.81)
A) But if they’d found the paintings so thrillingly beautiful in the first place, why
should they care?
B) Much of the high-end art world had been duped. Little by little, the truth came
out, ending with the confession in court of the woman who’d brought the
paintings to the gallery.
C) Nonetheless, the paintings were sold at auction for a total of about $70 million.
D) Though some art experts said the works looked authentic, others disagreed.
E) The gallery had either overlooked or covered up the fact that these paintings
didn’t come with any evidence of how they came to be owned by the anonymous
collector.
Q.82)
A) Without denigrating commercial and industrial success, Coleridge argued that
the haste for economic improvement led to a decline in culture, tradition and
spiritual wellbeing.
B) Today, Coleridge is far more often remembered as a poet than a philosopher.
C) Coleridge’s poetry resonated with the psychedelia of the 1960s and a general
cultural shift that emphasised the value of the imagination and a more holistic
view of the human place within nature.
D) His philosophy languished while his verse rose.
E) The almost-total eclipse of British idealism by the rise of analytic philosophy saw
a general decline in Coleridge’s philosophical stock.
Q.83)
A) But we also trust our senses, as well as the patterns we discern from our
experiences and the words we use to communicate with one another.
B) The gambler’s ‘argument’ in the opening story illustrates a whole spectrum of
misconceptions that fuel games of chance.
C) Mathematics has its own language, and the extent to which we should trust
mathematics depends on how we interpret these words, especially when applied
to physical reality.
D) Some people believe that confronting problem gamblers with the ‘reality’ of
mathematics – a kind of mathematical counselling, often called ‘facing the odds’ –
can help them overcome it.
E) After all, since our earliest school days, many of us have learned to trust
mathematics as the provider of necessary and logical truths.
Q.84)
A) And I wondered, as her memories vanished, had she become a little less herself,
a little less human?
B) When I visited my grandmother at the undertakers, an hour or so before her
funeral, I was struck by how different death is from sleep.
C) The dead seem to rest in paused animation, so still they look smaller than in life
D) A sleeping individual shimmers with fractional movements.
E) It’s almost impossible not to feel as if something very like the soul is no longer
present.
Q.85)
A) Neurobiologists have known about the brain’s EM field for more than a century
but have nearly always dismissed it as having no more relevance to its workings
than the exhaust of a car has to its steering.
B) Each ‘firing’ event involves the movement of electrically charged atoms called
ions in and out of the neurons.
C) However, I also had enough physics to know that there was a crucial difference
between a million scattered neurons firing and the EM field generated by their
firing.
D) The information encoded by the million discrete bits of information in a million
scattered neurons is physically unified within a single brain EM field.
E) Yet, since information is just correlation, I knew that the underlying brain EM
field tremors that generated the spikes on the EEG screen knew the slamming of
the hospital room door, just as much as the neurons whose firing generated those
tremors.
Q.86)
A) I can diagnose diabetes based on a number on a blood test: it is binary and
quantifiable.
B) Even more, once people are over 80, very few have pure Alzheimer’s pathology.
C) Deter had a rare genetic cause for her dementia, but for most people dementia
is not a strictly genetic disease, it’s related to lifestyle and factors that we don’t yet
understand.
D) Dementia isn’t a disease itself, it’s caused by other diseases, such as
Alzheimer’s, vascular dementia, Lewy body dementia, alcohol use disorder and
others.
E) Dementia is a loss of memory and thinking that affects someone’s ability to
function in everyday life.
Q.87)
A) It was also the first to be colonised in the name of self-determination.
B) The Arab East was among the last regions in the world to be colonised by
Western powers.
C) With Britain’s blessing, France had occupied Syria two months earlier and
overthrown the short-lived, constitutional Arab Kingdom of Syria.
D) Seated to one side is the Patriarch of the Maronite Church, an Eastern Christian
Catholic sect.
E) An iconic photograph from September 1920 of the French colonial general Henri
Gouraud dressed in a splendid white uniform and flanked by two ‘native’ religious
figures captures this moment.
Q.88)
A) In many ways, Darwinism posed a threat to this intensifying vision of the human
and our place in nature.
B) Through mental powers, humans live more meaningfully than other beings.
C) In other words, we humans have a soulful mind.
D) According to them, it was the fruits of our intelligence that made us truly
human.
E) Enlightenment figures such as John Locke and Immanuel Kant in the 17th and
18th centuries developed this further.
Q.89)
A) I am a professor of philosophy, and I have always thought in sound.
B) This lack of visual imagery is known as aphantasia, partial in my case.
C) Indeed, I completed my doctorate only because of patient teachers who care
deeply.
D) Allow me to fine-tune, in my own way.
E) One of the distinctive features of my cognition is that not only do I think with
sound and music; I also don’t think in images during my waking hours (although I
dream vividly and visually at night).
Q.90)
A) So, when the many scattered neurons are processing the various features of my
glasses yet I fail to see them, those neurons will be firing asynchronously, out of
step with one another.
B) I will see my glasses.
C) Crick proposed that we should identify what’s different between the neural
processing that precedes and then follows conscious awareness.
D) Several decades of research by many neurobiologists around the world have
identified synchronous neuronal firing as the best correlate of consciousness.
E) In that ‘Aha!’ moment when I finally spot them, all those scattered neurons line
up to fire synchronously.
Q.91)
A) First, the external experts should prepare a short shortlist, and then the local
hiring committees should attempt hiring from within this shortlist.
B) The applicants should be required to submit information demonstrating the
best aspects of their work.
C) At the first stage, the external professors could prepare a shortlist based solely
on the two best publications and sample pedagogic materials.
D) Each applicant should be asked to provide, in addition to their full curriculum
vitae, their two best research publications, and their two best pedagogic materials
such as a homework assignment or examination.
E) A waning fantasy is that only large companies and organisations can invent new
technologies.
Q.92)
A) Recent years have seen the rise of women-led dairy unions and companies.
B) To this end, the NDDB has played a proactive role in setting up women-led
producer enterprises like Shreeja Mahila Milk Producer Company, which was
started with 24 women and now has more than 90,000 members, with an annual
turnover of approximately ₹450 crores.
C) For instance, Navalben Dalsangbhai Chaudhary from Vadgam earned almost ₹88
lakh by selling 2,21,595 kg of milk in 2019-20, and Malvi Kanuben from Dhanera
earned about ₹74 lakh by selling 2,50,745 kg of milk.
D) Last year, Amul Dairy released a list of 10 women dairy farmers who became
millionaires by selling milk to the company.
E) In many instances, this becomes the first step for women in breaking free from
traditional practices.
Q.93)
A) While the rich are beginning to buzz around their global world again, a new
architecture of economic growth is required to create better lives for the majority
in India.
B) According to global assessments, India ranks 120 out of 122 countries in water
quality, and 179 out of 180 in air quality.
C) This accounts for nearly 60% of the global increase in poverty, the report says.
D) According to a report released by the World Bank, while India’s stock markets
rose during the pandemic and the very rich became even richer, the number of
people who are poor in India (with incomes of $2 or less a day) is estimated to
have increased by 75 million.
E) Like aerodynamic stress tests reveal structural weaknesses in the designs of
aircraft, the pandemic has revealed structural flaws in countries’ economies.
Q.94)
A) I went a bit waffle mad, making them nearly every day, from the dough-style
Liège waffles with pearl sugar to standard sweet waffles and all the way to savoury
– I even, in exhaustion, used my machine to make cheese toasties (it works really
well, incidentally).
B) In a large bowl, stir the ricotta, milk, honey and eggs until well mixed.
C) A few months ago, I got my hands on a waffle machine.
D) I love making a batch of these in advance, cooking them, then popping them in
the toaster in the morning – easy!
E) I then got to testing waffles with one of my favourite ingredients, ricotta, and
got such good results: fluffy and perfectly golden.
Q.95)
A) Ironically, amateur sleuthing exposed Arriola’s game: one woman who’d spent
four (then expensive) hours on his website later called the real local police
department he’d referenced to confirm the crime was fictitious.
B) Though Arriola merely posed as “Detective Ted Armstrong” and his story of a
brutally murdered student was purely fictional, many early internet users
enthusiastically believed the case was real.
C) The trend is almost as old as the world wide web itself – in 1995, an American
theatre director named Tom Arriola started a website called Crime Scene, inviting
members of the public to hunt through case documents in order to help solve a
murder.
D) From nosy neighbours on Nextdoor to obsessives on gossip forums, anti-vaxxers
on Facebook or Twitter’s moral arbiters, more and more people seem to spend
their time online digging and deducing, hunting for clues about other people’s
lives.
E) In 2013, Reddit users infamously tried to find the perpetrator of the Boston
Marathon bombing and incorrectly identified student Sunil Tripathi, bombarding
his family with distressing phone calls.
Q.96)
A) The year was 1963. A musical force was being created — the theme music for
Dr Who.
B) Though synthesisers were still a few years away, at hand was Delia Derbyshire,
who had recently joined the BBC Radiophonic Workshop.
C) Ron Grainer had worked on the tune to match the graphics while he had a list of
noises that were required, like wind and bubbles.
D) Using sine- and square-wave oscillators, cutting and joining tapes, recording the
results and so on, the results she delivered surprised Grainer, who wanted to give
her half the royalties but BBC, back then, usually kept members of the workshop
uncredited.
E) French-American director Lisa Rovner has spent years piecing together difficult-
to-find video clips to map a thrilling story.
Q.97)
A) Patriarchy has not disappeared; it has changed form. In the old form, women
were forced to obey an overbearing husband in the privacy of an unjust marriage.
B) To this lady, who shone a flashlight of courage when despair and darkness had
shrouded me, I transfer my well-worn cape.
C) Now, despite a much wider acceptance of women as workers, men dominate
women anonymously outside the marriage.
D) As marriage has evolved and mutated, a new strain, in effect, a novel version of
patriarchy, has been installed.
E) Arlie Russell Hochschild, academic and sociologist who coined terms like
‘emotional labour’ and phrases like ‘economy of gratitude’, in her seminal book
about unfair divisions of labour, The Second Shift, wrote: “Formerly, many men
dominated women within marriage.
Q.98)
A) I was 19 back then, five years ago.
B) I used to play basketball.
C) But eventually you grew up and I got into sports.
D) As a kid I would see my mom dress up and I loved all that jazz.
E) I have been a model since I was 16.
Q.99)
A) The past century has been a good one for individual freedoms – in almost every
respect.
B) Comfort is king in the modern world, and comfort is the excuse proffered for
the evaporation of formality from daily life.
C) I hold an unpopular view.
D) And how they like it is invariably: ‘casual’, ‘low key’, ‘without too much fuss’,
‘not too precious’, ‘not too pretentious’, ‘not ostentatious’ or, as I heard just the
other day, ‘not too “bougie”‘ (qua ‘bourgeois’) in short, informal.
E) This wholesale liberalisation has included the freedom of individuals to dress,
dine and discourse how they like it.
Q.100)
A) When we look at a Rembrandt, we feel like we’re reading a message sent to us
today by this long-ago genius.
B) His self-portraits suggest a certain kind of self-scrutiny.
C) We try to imagine what these prehistoric artists with minds like ours were
thinking, feeling and intending by their actions in painting these images.
D) The brushstrokes are clues to how his arm was moving as he painted, and how
his arm moved can be read as an expression of his state of mind as he created this
image.
E) We feel that we can see Rembrandt’s awareness of how he’s coming across and
understand his penetrative self-analysis in the series of self-portraits made over
time as he aged.
Solutions
Q.1) Answer- E
ADCB would be the correct sequence and E would be the odd one.
A will be the introductory sentence setting the context of the conflict. DC will be
the pair in sequence, basis the chronological order of events being described. ‘He’
in B refers to the LG and is in continuation with C.
Statement E describing the interpretation will come, if at all after the above 4
statements.
Q.2) Answer- C
AEBD would be the correct sequence and C would be the odd one.
EB will be pair as ‘them’ in B refers to clubs mentioned in E. D then gives a
contrasting view by using ‘but’. A will start the paragraph, setting the context.
C talks about the information specific to a person and not the clubs in general,
unlike the other 4 statements.
Q.3) Answer- B
ACED would be the correct sequence and B would be the odd one.
A sets the context of the second wave and will start the paragraph. C explains
further as to how the healthcare facilities are overwhelmed. ED will be a pair in
sequence as D mentions the detail about the drug (Remdesvir) mentioned in E.
Statement B gives the health ministry’s view on the usage of Remdesivir which
seems related to the topic and may come later in the text. It will be the odd one
for the current paragraph as described and linked above.
Q.4) Answer- D
AECB would be the correct sequence and D would be the odd one.
A will start the sequence. E compares the prediction with that in preceding years
and will follow. C then details about this year’s possibility and B discusses it
further.
D talks about the business/infrastructure end of the weather and will be the odd
one.
Q.5) Answer- E
DABC would be the correct sequence and E would be the odd one.
D will be the opening statement as it introduces the retirement of Raul Castro. All
other statements will follow details pertaining to that. A will follow d as it
mentions only first name Fidel of Fidel Castro stated in D. BC will be pair and will
follow A arranging the sequence of events in order.
E mentions about Castros as a group, as to what they did and may come later in
the text.
Q.6) Answer- C
ADEB would be the correct sequence and C would be the odd one.
A would start the sequence by setting up the context as to what was decided. DE
will be a pair talking about the expected and the actual decision. B adds to the
pull-out details mentioned in E. A would follow, probably as a transition statement
talking about the peace talks.
Clearly, C needs a related statement which would come before it regarding the
Taliban’s participation and as B is not that, it will be the odd one out.
Q.7) Answer- D
ECAB would be the correct sequence and D would be the odd one.
E will start the sequence by mentioning about the investigation in call. CA will be a
pair where ‘it’ in A refers to the Kerala Government in C. B follows a continuing to
talk about CBI’s investigation.
D seems related to the topic but doesn’t fit the current sequence.
Q.8) Answer- B
CAED would be the correct sequence and B would be the odd one.
CAE will clearly be in sequence describing the two pivots. Between D & B, B
mentions about some template which is not talked about. D relates more to the
context and will follow CAE.
Q.9) Answer- D
BECA would be the correct sequence and D would be the odd one.
B will be the opener starting the conversation about CPI. EC will follow as a pair
mentioning about pulses and oils in detail. A further gives details on how the
situation may come under control.
D will be the odd one as it shifts focus to eggs and meat from pulses.
Q.10) Answer- C
ABDE would be the correct sequence and C would be the odd one.
AB will be a pair as ‘these countries’ in B refers to US and UK in A. DE will follow as
D mentions that availability might not be as easy as choosing the vaccine and E
gives the reason for it.
C is a generic statement and although contextual, doesn’t fit here in the sequence
as above.
Q.11) Answer- B
CDEA would be the correct sequence and B would be the odd one.
C will start the sequence as it sets the tone for the condition of the Indian
agricultural sector. DE will be pair as they talk about productivity gains achieved
earlier. A will conclude, mentioning about the government’s move to shift the
focus from existing issues.
B is a statement with more of a holistic view, and though related to the context
doesn’t fit in the above sequence.
Q.12) Answer- E
ADCB would be the correct sequence and E would be the odd one.
A would be the opening sentence as it introduces the diversity parameter in
educational institutions. D follows as it speaks further on how diversity can
benefit. C goes on to mention that how the consistency in the public education
system is undermined and B further elaborates on the differences.
E talks specifically about the private sector and may come later in the text.
Q.13) Answer- B
EDCA would be the correct sequence and B would be the odd one.
E will be the only possible starter as it introduces ASC being a part of a temporary
scheme and all other statements would relate to this. D will follow as it captures
what was done initially, keeping in mind the temporary nature of the scheme. CA
will be a pair as we discuss the relevance of full-time appointments.
B is a clear odd one which focuses on specific colleges (‘such colleges’) rather than
the nature of the scheme itself.
Q.14) Answer- A
DECB would be the correct sequence and A would be the odd one.
D starts the sentence as a self-introduction and links with E mentioning about the
disability at birth. C and B further give some specifics about the medical condition
and how the personal experience/understanding of the disability progressed.
A captures an incident in the library which may be related to the context but
wouldn’t fit the above sequence.
Q.15) Answer- A
EDCB would be the correct sequence and A would be the odd one.
ED would be a clear starter pair stating the view on the nickname ‘Muddy York’. CB
goes on to explain it further in parts.
Statement A sort of concludes the above sequence but as it comes, at last, we’ll
have to pick it as the odd one.
Q.16) Answer- B
AEDC would be the correct sequence and B would be the odd one. The passage
doesn’t speak about anyone’s expression but talks about children’s.
Q.17) Answer- E
ABCD would be the correct sequence and E would be the odd one.
The paragraph seems to be about female mystics. AB will start the sequence in
that order mentioning about their secondary roles moving into the role of the
primary ones. CD further illuminates the individual identity of female mystics.
E seems to be out of context from above as it simply states about a shrine.
Q.18) Answer- D
CABE would be the correct sequence and D would be the odd one.
C introduces the topic of healthcare and its importance in India. ABE further gives
instances of how science and medicine worked to save lives.
D speaks about the difference between two entities and is quite vague to fit in the
context.
Q.19) Answer- B
AEDC would be the correct sequence and B would be the odd one.
A introduces ‘Chupacabra’ creature and would begin the sequence. E follows as it
gives the origin info. D & C proceed with the report and its findings.
B could later come into the picture as a part of the context.
Q.20) Answer- C
EDBA would be the correct sequence and C would be the odd one.
E will start the sequence. D will follow as it gives the details of what sort of
movements benefit the brain. BA continues to explain this.
C is more of a generic statement that captures what brains are meant to do.
Q.21) Answer- A
E makes a genuine start by mentioning about the second wave of Covid in India.
‘Facts’ in C refer to the ones described in D. B further states the need of the hour
in relation to those alarming facts.
Statement A while related to the context doesn’t immediately fit in the narrative
above.
Q.22) Answer- A
EDCB talk majorly about gold imports and A talks of its price.
ED and CB are pairs as they mention about the imports in March and yearly
quantity respectively and describe them.
Q.23) Answer- B
DEAC would be the correct sequence and B would be the odd one.
DE will be a pair as ‘this identity’ mentioned in E refers to ‘Sylheti identity’ stated
in D. AC will be another pair with ‘Srihatta’ link.
B would be the remaining one without any direct link to the other given
statements. It may come later in the context.
Q.24) Answer- B
ADCE would be the correct sequence and B would be the odd one.
A starts by mentioning what is usual; D then follows and says how even the
opposite could be true sometimes. CE will follow, mentioning how space and time
aren’t objective but related in perspective.
B is a little offbeat and mentions about the cases of reported distortions.
Q.25) Answer- B
AECD would be the correct sequence and B would be the odd one.
A would start the paragraph as it mentions what kind of time we are living in
where India is changing. E then mentions that change as to what India has become
in terms of the kind of rule we have these days. The rest of the two sentences (C &
D) goes on describing and adding to it.
B states about the role of the Constitution and may be a part of another paragraph
in the same text.
Q.26) Answer- A
E will start the sequence by introducing the Sangha for the first time. D refers to
the Sangha introduced in E and goes on describing its purpose and ideals.
‘Tentative manifesto’ mentioned in C links it to D. B follows with a relevant
question post the comparison stated in C.
A seems a generic statement and doesn’t fit in the above context.
Q.27) Answer- C
BAED would be the correct sequence and C would be the odd one.
B will start the sentence as the other statements refer to multiple information in B.
A adds to the list of economic activities mentioned in B. ED will be a pair as they
further describe the hindrance in pursuing socio-economic activities in the region.
C may start/be part of another paragraph in the related context.
Q.28) Answer- A
EDBC would be the correct sequence and A would be the odd one.
ED would be the pair as the question in E is addressed in D. ‘He’ in B refers to the
CJI in D. C goes on to make another comment about the plea which came up in B.
Thus, EDBC is the correct sequence and A may mark the beginning of another
paragraph in the same text which talks about the possibilities.
Q.29) Answer- C
A talks about the collaborative approach and D follows, referring to ‘it’ as ‘this
shared spirit of cooperation’.
In E, history refers to the ‘past’ being mentioned in D. B would then conclude in
line with the tone.
C seems related but doesn’t fit in the above sequence of 4.
Q.30) Answer- B
CDAE would be the correct sequence and B would be the odd one.
C would start the sentence, introducing the decision. The ‘court’ mentioned in D
refers to the Appellate in C. So, D follows. A & E would follow continuing the
reverse chronological order of the harsh decisions for the movie/streaming
platforms industry.
B talks of the effect on newspaper delivery ban and would be the odd one.
Q.31) Answer- E
ABDC would be the correct sequence and E would be the odd one.
A introduces the concept of BMI. B defines it in simple terms. D follows,
challenging that simplicity and C elaborates on it.
Statement E, though about the BMI, talks about a specific kind of people and
doesn’t fit in the above sequence.
Q.32) Answer- E
BADC would be the correct sequence and E would be the odd one.
B starts as it sets the context for the time we are referring to. C will come at the
end as it moves the narration from assertive (we think) to negation (we do not
think.)
Q.33) Answer- B
ED and CA would be pairs. ‘That agreement’ in D refers to the ‘Good Friday’
agreement mentioned in E.
‘He’ in A is the pronoun used for Johnson.
B may belong to the text but is generic for the above sequence.
Q.34) Answer- B
CA will be pair as C talks of what had happened till date and A brings about the
transition by mentioning what the subject does now. ED provides more
information on what happened next about the idea.
B seems related but off the point basis above sequence.
Q.35) Answer- E
DCBA would be the correct sequence and E would be the odd one.
D brings about the transition from the workforce to the other issue. The rest then
adds on to it. C describes the problem. B adds more details and A mentions what it
could result into.
E seems to be more about the workforce issue.
Q.36) Answer- E
ACBD would be the correct sequence and E would be the odd one.
A introduces the new feature and C goes on to tell its use in brief. B gives
additional information about the new 3D feature and D sort of wraps it up with
another piece of information on what went into developing the feature.
E moves on to the next bit by describing how to practically use it and might be a
part of another paragraph in the same text.
Q.37) Answer- B
DECA would be the correct sequence and B would be the odd one.
D would be the obvious opener with an introduction to the genesis of the brand.
EC & A continue to provide details about the brand from general to specific in
sequence.
B will be the odd one out as it talks about the international brands, in general, and
not the homegrown brand which is in focus here.
Q.38) Answer- A
ED will be a pair talking of contrasting perspectives. CB will make a subsequent
pair talking about this year’s ceremony.
A will be the odd one and doesn’t seem to be related to the sequence.
Q.39) Answer- C
AEDB would be the correct sequence and C would be the odd one.
A starts as it talks about architecture as a subject. E follows with an example. D & B
further elaborate on that example.
C mentions another school of architecture and could be a part of another
paragraph.
Q.40) Answer- C
ADBE would be the correct sequence and C would be the odd one.
A introduces the Mangroves and the need for their protection. D goes on to give
the reason for that. B follows D; ‘the court’ refers to the Supreme Court. E then
elaborates on the fisheries scenario mentioned in B.
C might be talking about observations made on some other day which is not
referred to here. Hence, it must be part of some other paragraph.
Q.41) Answer- B
ECDA would be the correct sequence and B would be the odd one.
E starts by mentioning about the empirical approach. C describes that approach. D
states facts about the decline spotted in C. A refers to the ‘time period’ mentioned
in D.
B talks about the effect of journalistic efforts crossing borders and would be the
odd one from the above logical sequence.
Q.42) Answer- A
EDC will be the obvious sequence with two trajectories being described. B goes on
to conclude what Journalism involves.
A seems to talk about the regulatory framework for a news organization, A
separate topic.
Q.43) Answer- B
D introduces the need for judicial oversight and then E & A state-specific
interventions by the Supreme court and high courts. C adds on another element to
the scrutiny need.
B seems related to the context but doesn’t fit in the above sequence.
Q.44) Answer- E
ACDB would be the correct sequence and E would be the odd one.
A sort of introduces the party in question (BJP) and sets the context. ‘this helped’
in C refers to the spread of election over 5 weeks as mentioned in A. Thus, AC is a
logical pair. D & B further continue to state the wrongdoings that BJP committed in
lieu of not realizing the gravity of the situation.
E sort of concludes and may come later in the text.
Q.45) Answer- B
AE will be a pair talking about the meaning of ‘hippie’. EDC then continue the
sequence by making references in chronological order.
B further states the usage possibilities of the term and may come later in the text.
Q.46) Answer- B
E starts the para, introducing the topic. D follows by saying how flying can be a
stressful activity. The ‘annoyances’ mentioned in C have been talked about in D. A
follows, continuing with the relevant question of overselling (as indicated in C
towards the end).
Statement B tries to capture the reason of overselling which may form the part of
another para in the text.
Q.47) Answer- C
BA and ED are pairs talking about ‘Michael Stipe’ and the zoom call respectively.
Statement C talks about someone in the third person and doesn’t fit in the above
sequence.
Q.48) Answer- A
EDBC talks about how religion has been useful and what it has meant to mankind
and would be coherent, while A shifts to talk about dying need for religion and
would be the odd one.
Q.49) Answer- B
ADEC would be the correct sequence and B would be the odd one.
ADEC as a para talks of Farokh Engineer while B is an odd one as it shifts the
narration to the current players in general.
A introduces with the full name, D adds on to the information related to the name,
E provides some additional info and then C goes on to talk about his competitor.
Q.50) Answer- B
C introduces with the keyword being ‘conundrum’ and then a series of questions
follow. B is the only statement (and not a question) which may come later in the
scene.
Q.51) Answer- E
A starts by mentioning the unequal treatment of casualties. BD would be a pair
(Some… Others) describing the unequal treatment. B would continue with that
tone.
E, sort of, concludes the context here and would come only after the above four.
Q.52) Answer- E
BDCA would be the correct sequence and E would be the odd one.
BDC would be in that sequence as they talk about Football as it was. A comes in
with a smooth transition into what it has become afterwards.
E talks of driving the corporate power away which may find a place later in the
narrative and will be the odd one from above.
Q.53) Answer- B
ED will be the pair. E mentions the book name and ‘this book’ in D refers to it. ‘He’
in C & A subsequently refer to Heywood mentioned in D and would finish the
sequence.
B mentions a random fact about Heywood’s preference which doesn’t seem to
belong to the above context of a scandal.
Q.54) Answer- B
Statement C mentions about the testimonies being chilling and the subsequent
statements talk about relevant instances. (A, E, and D).
B talks about human rights in general and may or may not be related.
Q.55) Answer- E
CB will be a pair, talking about Priti Patel. a will follow, referencing political
pressure hinted in B. D seems to be an appropriate start talking about ministers’
response and, then CBA talk about the relevant instance.
E is the odd one here.
Q.56) Answer- D
ACBE would be the correct sequence and D would be the odd one.
ACBE will form a coherent para, talking about the initiative in support for
measures against climate change.
D on the other hand talks of some trends and reversals in it which is unclear.
Q.57) Answer- B
D will start, mentioning about the review. EC will follow as a pair. (‘Her’ in C refers
to Tracey Crouch in E) A adds a viewpoint about the review.
B rather seems to move in another direction, talking about something ‘it’ shall
refer to, and doesn’t fit in the sequence.
Q.58) Answer- B
ED will be an appropriate pair with contrast being set up. C continues to establish
and adds on to what is stated in D. A then captures the result of the initiative.
B seems vaguely related and would be the odd one.
Q.59) Answer- C
AE will be pair. (ref union). D further elaborates on the issue. B gives some relevant
facts.
C would be the odd one out as it is not specifically talking about Scotland’s
prerogative like others in the sequence above.
Q.60) Answer- C
EADB would be the correct sequence and C would be the odd one.
E introduces the topic. A follows, talking about criminalizing harsh acts, D goes on
to give a contrary view as well and B then states the situation in the UK with
regards to the topic in discussion.
C is more of a general judgement or an opinion with reference to the topic and will
not fit in the above sequence.
Q.61) Answer- A
EDCB talk about the economic approach by Gary Becker.
A puts forward an argument as to what could be done with respect to the services
provided by homemakers. This could come as a part of separate para in the text.
Q.62) Answer- A
E starts as it talks about the notification. D will follow, describing as to what the
notification is about, CB will follow as pair talking about the timing of the
announcement and its implications.
A is vague and may or may not be related to the given context.
Q.63) Answer- B
While DEAC talks of Dalit women specifically, B doesn’t.
Q.64) Answer- B
ADCE would be the correct sequence and B would be the odd one.
A introduces the idea of beef ban that BJP talks about. D reiterates the agenda
mentioned in A. C & E follow with more details about their stand.
B talks about the content of food unlike the political and religious angle around it
and would be the odd one.
Q.65) Answer- B
AE form a pair with statement and reason for acquiring the foresight. CD will
follow as a pair talking of foresight vs insight.
B talks about the Constitution being the symbolic presence and is off track
compared to the sequence described above.
Q.66) Answer- A
E introduces the topic. ‘such issues’ in D refers to those mentioned in E. CB gives
information about the functioning of gram sabhas introduced in D.
EDCB in that order states as to how Gram Sabhas function, in general, in Tamil
Nadu.
A, however, specifically talks about the proceedings with respect to financial
matters and may come later in the text.
Q.67) Answer- C
B sets the context. A follows by mentioning the condition associated with the gene
defect. E & D follow by stating the cause, symptoms and possible cure for the
condition.
Q.68) Answer- C
EDBA would be the correct sequence and C would be the odd one.
While EDBA talks about the access to online education per se, C brings forward the
loss of credibility for the exams and thus would be the odd one.
Q.69) Answer- C
A starts the sequence by mentioning about the two pillars. D rightly follows,
stating how the importance has always been given to one of the pillars only. E talks
about how that choice has impacted and B adds on by providing additional info.
C adds on detail about another situation(rallies) and may not be related to the
above sequence.
Q.70) Answer- B
C introduces the topic by mentioning how the shift of power raises strategic
questions for India. While DAE bring those questions forward, B would be the odd
one out, digressing from the topic.
Q.71) Answer- E
ABDC talks about how placebo and nocebo effects work and adds examples to it. E
seems related to the topic but doesn’t fit in the above sequence. It may come later
in the text.
Q.72) Answer- C
ABDE would be the correct sequence and C would be the odd one.
A introduces the concept of correlation between ADHD symptoms and boredom.
BD would be a pair as we talk about the effect of medication/treatment. E
concludes.
C gives an additional fact which doesn’t fit suitably in the above sequence.
Q.73) Answer- A
The text is most probably from a sports match. While EDCB go on talking about
how England and France were too close in a contest, a move is a bit offbeat by
mentioning specifically about a player without any hint of linkage to
England/France. Hence, the odd one out.
Q.74) Answer- B
B is the vague statement while the rest all seem to fall in sync as the subject in the
first person speaks his thoughts out loud.
Q.75) Answer- E
D starts as the book is being introduced. C and B continue by quoting a few lines
from the book in the discussion. A further talks of what the author has tried to
showcase in the text.
E seems a related viewpoint in regard to one of the things mentioned in the book,
it however doesn’t fit the above sequence.
Q.76) Answer- E
DACB would be the correct sequence and E would be the odd one. d introduces
the character followed by a which describes Agnes. C follows a with more details
about Agnes. D then follows C.
E speaks about the earth which is irrelevant with respect to other points.
Q.77) Answer- B
Q.78) Answer- B
E introduces about the book. DC is a pair. A speaks about the book’s inspiration.
The passage does not speak about lethal literalism and hence B is irrelevant.
Q.79) Answer- C
The para seems to be about digital payments and AEDB will form a logical
sequence.
C speaks about majorly just the economic goal in general and will be the odd one.
Q.80) Answer- C
ADBE will form a group of coherent sentences talking factual data about the
airwaves and two main channels of broadcasting.
C on the other hand is more of a suggestion on the use of channels and will not
directly fit in the above sequence.
Q.81) Answer- A
E sort of starts the para by introducing the issue. DC will be the contrasting pair. B
goes on to explain what happened as a result of the auction mentioned in C.
‘They’ as mentioned in B doesn’t have a noun precedent to follow. It seems related
but doesn’t fit in the above sequence.
Q.82) Answer- A
EDCB will make a perfect sequence as the narrative moves from Coleridge’s
philosophy towards his art of poetry.
A is a viewpoint of Coleridge’s about the economy and not suited as a part of the
above sequence.
Q.83) Answer- B
D starts by bringing forward the idea of how mathematics can help gamblers
overcome their problem. E elaborates on that idea. A continues with contrast and
C sort of concludes it.
Statement B seems like an opening statement of another para related to the same
text but doesn’t exactly fits in the above sequence.
Q.84) Answer- A
BDCE would be the correct sequence and A would be the odd one.
BDCE makes a sensible sequence mentioning the author’s observations about the
difference between sleep and death.
Statement A raises a seemingly unrelated/vague question.
Q.85) Answer- B
The context revolves around the brain’s EM field. EC is a pair with the usage of
words like ‘yet’ and ‘however’. B is the only statement which doesn’t seem to be
directly talking about the topic.
Q.86) Answer- B
EDCB would be the correct sequence and a would be the odd one.
The para is about dementia. E starts with the meaning of dementia and D speaks
about the causes of dementia. C follows D and ends with B speaking specifically
about deter. Only A speaks of diabetes and would be the odd one out in this
sequence.
Q.87) Answer- C
BA will be pair talking about the colonization of the Arab East. ED will be a pair as
D describes the photograph mentioned in E.
C talks specifically about occupying Syria and will be the odd one here.
Q.88) Answer- A
E starts the paragraph with an introduction of characters. ED will be pair because
‘them’ in D refers to Kant & John in e. BC is another pair.
A speaks about Darwinism which is irrelevant.
Q.89) Answer- C
The para is about a philosophy professor.
A gives a clear introduction in the first person. D follows (fine-tuning the
music/sound). E goes on to describe the concept of ‘thought in sound’. B continues
with explaining more of the lack of visual imagery mentioned in E.
C probably gives another info about the professor but is diverted from the above
topic of ‘thought in sound’.
Q.90) Answer- B
C proposes an idea followed by AE as a pair.
Except for B, all statements relate to neural processing and its relationship with
consciousness.
Q.91) Answer- E
ABDC would be the correct sequence and e would be the odd one.
A starts the paragraph followed by B. DC is a pair.
The para is about hiring. Except for E, the sequence runs us through the proposed
procedure of hiring.
Q.92) Answer- D
ABEC would be the correct sequence and D would be the odd one.
Statement D becomes specifically about the women who benefited from Amul
dairy. The remaining sentences make a narration about how women as a part of
dairy collectives are being empowered in general.
Q.93) Answer- B
EDCA would be the correct sequence and B should be the odd one.
The sequence EDCA focuses on the economic condition of the masses while B talks
about the rating of India across parameters.
E starts with introducing the issue. DC form a pair referring to the numbers (75 m -
-> 60%). A sort of concludes the idea.
Q.94) Answer- B
C starts the paragraph. The sequence CAED explains how the author got interested
in making waffles while B is the odd one, as it seems to be a part of the para,
mentioning the recipe in detail.
Q.95) Answer- E
D starts by introducing the concept of online digging into people’s lives. ‘The trend’
in C refers to this.
B & A follow to continue the narrative about Tom Ariola and his story.
Statement E mentions another incident which may or may not be related to the
above.
Q.96) Answer- E
ACBD would be the correct sequence and E would be the odd one.
A starts by introducing the musical force. D will come only after C & B respectively
as it refers to Grainer & Delia (she) together.
E seems to be unrelated to this sequence.
Q.97) Answer- B
Apart from B, all other statements talk about the transition in the form of
patriarchy.
Q.98) Answer- A
EDCB would be the correct sequence and a would be the odd one.
ED would be a pair talking about the genesis of being a model. CB will be another
pair talking about sports. A will be the odd one.
Q.99) Answer- C
AEDB would be the correct sequence and c would be the odd one.
A starts by mentioning how the past century has been about individual freedoms.
E talks about some of these freedoms. D & B further elaborate on them.
C mentions in the first person about a view. It’s a generic statement and doesn’t
exactly fit in the sequence.
Q.100) Answer- C
A introduces the character and D speaks about the portrait. BE is a pair.
All statements except C talk specifically about Rembrandt and his works.

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