Phase-4 2015 P (1) 27.01.2024 Q.paper Set-A

INTERNAL TEST
IIT – JEE 2023–2025

PHASE – IV
(2015)PAPER – I
DATE: 27.01.2024
SET-A
Time: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 264
INSTRUCTIONS:
A. General
1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 60 questions.
2. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and
electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.
3. Fill in the boxes provided for Name and Enrolment No.
4. The answer sheet, a machine-readable Objective Response (ORS), is provided separately.
5. DO NOT TAMPER WITH / MULTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.
B. Filling in the OMR:
6. The instructions for the OMR sheet are given on the OMR itself.
C. Question paper format:
7. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part
consists of two sections.
8. Section I contains 8 questions. The answer to each question is a single digit integer,
ranging from 0 to 9 (both inclusive).
9. Section II contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D) out of which ONE or MORE are correct.
10. Section III contains 2 Match the following type questions and you will have to match
entries in Column I with the entries in Column II
D. Marking Scheme
11. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken ALL the
bubble(s) corresponding to the correct answer(s) ONLY. In all other cases zero (0) marks
will be awarded. No negative marks will be awarded for incorrect answers in this section.
12. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken ALL the
bubble(s) corresponding to the correct answer(s) ONLY. In all other cases zero (0) marks
will be awarded. –2 marks will be awarded for incorrect answers in this section.
13. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 2 marks for each entry in Column I; if
you darken ALL the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct answer(s) ONLY. In all other
cases zero (0) marks will be awarded. –1 marks will be awarded for incorrect answers in
this section.
Don’t write / mark your answers in this question booklet.

If you mark the answers in question booklet, you will not be allowed to continue the exam.
NAME:
ENROLLMENT NO.:
(Hyderabad Classes) Limited. 5-9-14/B, Saifabad, (Opp. Secretariat) Hyderabad. 500 063. Ph: 040-66777000 – 03 Fax: 04066777004
PH-IV-2015-P(I)–PCM-2
SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks: 32)

 This section contains EIGHT questions.
 The answer to each question is a SINGLE DIGIT INTEGER ranging from 0 to 9, both inclusive.
 For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct integer in the ORS.
 Marking scheme:
+4 If the bubble corresponding to the answer is darkened.
0 In all other cases.
1. Distance between the centers of two stars is 10 a. The masses of these stars are M and 16 M and
their radii a and 2a respectively. A body of mass m is fired straight from the surface of the larger star
towards the smaller star. If its minimum initial speed to reach the surface of the smaller star
3 KGM
is , then what is the value of K.?
2 a
2. A solid uniform cylinder of mass m performs small oscillations due to the action of two springs of
 nM
stiffness k each (figure). The period of these oscillations in the absence of sliding is , then
2 k
what is the value of n.
3. A 0.1 kg mass is suspended from a wire of negligible mass. The length of the wire is 1m and its
–7 2
cross–sectional area is 4.9  10 m . If the mass is pulled a little in the vertically downward direction
–1
and released, it performs SHM with angular frequency 140 rad s . If the Young’s modulus of the
9 –2
material of the wire is p  10 Nm , find the value of p.
4. A cylinder of capacity 20 litres is filled with H2 gas. The total average kinetic energy of translatory
motion of its molecules is 1 5  105 J . The pressure of hydrogen in the cylinder is N  106 N/ m2 . Find
the value of N.
Space for rough work
5. The minimum energy required to launch a satellite of mass m from the surface of a planet of mass M
KGMm
and radius R in a circular orbit at an altitude of 2R is . Then what is the value of K.
6
6. A small bob attached to a light inextensible thread of length l has a periodic time T when allowed to
vibrate as a simple pendulum. The thread is now suspended from a fixed end O of a vertical rigid rod
of length 3 l /4. If now the pendulum performs periodic oscillations in this arrangement, the periodic
nT
time is . Then what is the value of n.
4
7. Two rectangular blocks having identical dimensions can be arranged either in configuration–I or in
configuration–II as shown in the figure. One of the blocks has thermal conductivity k and the other 2k.
The temperature difference between the ends along the x–axis is the same in both the configurations.
It takes 9s to transport a certain amount of heat from the hot end to the cold end in the configuration–
I. The time (in seconds) to transport the same amount of heat in the configuration–II is
8. The pressure that has to be applied to the ends of a steel wire of length 10 cm to keep its length
O 8
constant when its temperature is raised by 100 C is N  10 Pa. Then what is the value of N.
11 –2 –5 –1
(for steel Young’s modulus is 2  10 N m and coefficient of thermal expansion is 1  10 K )

 This section contains TEN questions.
 Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s)
is (are) correct.
 For each question, darken the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) in the ORS.
 Marking scheme:
+4 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) is (are) darkened.
0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
–2 In all other cases
9. Two point masses m and 2m are kept at points A and B as shown in the figure. E represents
magnitude of gravitational field strength and V the gravitational potential. As we move from A to B
(A) E will first decrease then increase (B) E will first increase then decrease
(C) V will first decrease then increase (D) V will first increase then decrease
10. A particle starts from a point P at a distance of A/2 from the mean position O and travels towards left
as shown in the figure. If the time period of SHM, executed about O is T and amplitude A then the
equation of the motion of particle is
 2   2 5 
(A) x  A sin  t  (B) x  A sin  t
 T 6  T 6 
 2   2 
(C) x  A cos  t  (D) x  A cos  t 
 T 6  T 3
11. Eight identical droplets each falling under gravity in the earth’s atmosphere with terminal velocity v,
combine to form a single drop. The terminal velocity of single drop and drag force on it are
calculated. Find the correct statement from the following.
(A) final terminal velocity is 4v (B) final terminal velocity is 8v
(C) drag force is increased to four times (D) drag force is increased to eight times
12. Figure shows a cylindrical vessel of height 90 cm filled up to the brim. There are four holes in the
vessel as shown. The liquid falling at maximum horizontal distance from the vessel would come from
(A) hole 1 (B) hole 2 (C) hole 3 (D) hole 4
13. A small solid ball of density  is held inside at point A in a cubical container of side L, filled with an
ideal liquid of density 4 as shown in the figure. Now, if the container starts moving with constant
acceleration a horizontally and the ball is released from point A simultaneously, then choose the
correct option(s)
(A) for ball to hit the top of container at end Q, a = 3g

(B) for ball to hit the top of container at end Q, a = 2g
L
(C) ball hits the top of container at end Q after a time t 
3g
2L
(D) ball hits the top of container at end Q after a time t 
3g
14. Two spheres A and B have same radius but the heat capacity of A is greater that of B. The surfaces
of both are painted black. They are heated to the same temperature and allowed to cool. Then
(A) A cools faster than B (B) both A and B cool at the same rate
(C) at any temperature the ratio of their rates of cooling is a constant
(D) B cools faster than A
15. Consider a thermodynamic cycle in a PV diagram shown in the figure performed on one mole of a
monatomic gas. The temperature at A is T0 and volume at A and B are related as VB = VC = 2VA.
Choose the correct option(s) from the following.
(A) the maximum temperature during the cycle is 4T0

(B) network done by the gas during the cycle is 0.5 RT0
(C) the heat capacity of the process AB is 2R
(D) the efficiency of the cycle is 8.33%
16. The given figure shows an indicator diagram. During path 1–2–3, 100 cal is given to the system and
40 cal work is done by the system. During path 1–4–3, the work done is 10 cal. Then
(A) heat given to the system during path 1–4–3 is 70 cal

(B) if the system is brought from 3 to 1 along straight line path 3–1, work done on the system is 25 cal
(C) along straight line path 3 –1, the heat ejected by the system is 85 J
(D) the internal energy of the system in state 3 is 140 cal above that in state 1
17. A cyclic process 1–2–3–4–1 is depicted on V–T diagram. The p–T and p–V diagrams for this cyclic
process are given below. Select the correct choice
None of these
(A) (B) (C) (D)
18. A siphon has a uniform circular base of diameter 8 /  cm with its crest A, 1.8 m above the water
2
level vessel B is of large cross section (g = 10 m/s and atmospheric pressure P0  105 N / m2 )
(A) velocity of flow through pipe is 6 2 m/s

(B) discharge rate of flow through pipe is 96 2  10 4 m3 / s
(C) velocity of flow through pipe is 6m/s
5 2
(D) pressure of A is 0.46  10 N/m

 This section contains TWO questions.
 Each question contains two columns, Column I and Column II
 Column I has four entries (A), (B), (C) and (D)
 Column II has five entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T)
 Match the entries in Column I with the entries in Column II
 One or more entries in Column I may match with one or more entries in Column II.
 The ORS contains a 4  5 matrix whose layout will be similar to the one shown below:
(A) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
(B) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
(C) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
(D) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
 For each entry in Column I, darken the bubbles of all the matching entries. For example, if entry (A) in
Column I matches with entries (Q), (R) and (T), then darken these three bubbles in the ORS. Similarly, for
entries (V), (C) and (D).
 Marking entry in Column I.
+2 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct match (s) is (are) darkened.
–1 In all other cases.
O
19. In a container of negligible mass ‘m’ grams of steam at 100 C is added to 100g of water that has
O
temperature 20 C. If no heat is lost to the surroundings at equilibrium, match the items given in
O
Column–I with that in Column–II ( L v = 540 cal/g, s w = 1 cal/g C)
Column-I Column-II
(A) Mass of steam in the mixture, if m = 20 g (in g) (p) 114.8
(B) Mass of water in the mixture, if m = 20 g (in g) (q) 76.4

O
(C) If m = 20 g, final temperature of the mixture (in C) (r) 5.2
O
(D) If m = 10 g, final temperature of the mixture (in C) (s) 100
20. A particle of mass 2 kg is moving on a straight line under the action of force F = (8 –2x) N. The
particle is released from rest at x = 6m. For the subsequent motion, match the following (all the
values in the Column–II are in their SI units)
Column-I Column-II
(A) Equilibrium position is at x (p) /2
(B) Time taken to go directly from x = 2 to x = 4 (q) 4
(C) Energy of SHM is (r) 6

Phase constant of SHM assuming equation of the form
(D) (s) 2
A sin (t + )

 Marking scheme:
21. The no of C in the smallest alkane which can show optical isomerism (excluding isotope)
22. How many of the following will show geometrical isomerism ?
(A) CH3–N=N–CH=CH2 , CH2 CH CH CH2 , CH3–CH=NOH , ,
Cl C2H5 CH3 CH3

C C C C C C C C C
H H , H H ,
H3C-CH=CH-CH(OH)-COOH, H3C COOH
Na
23. C2H5Br  CH3Br 
ether
 products
Maximum number of Hydrocarbons formed in the above reaction.
24. The number of geometrical isomers of the given compound is

C 6 H 5  CH  CH  CH  CH  CH  CH  COOH
25. No. of Chiral centres in the following compounds are
HO
26. The number of isomers of the compound C 2 BrFCI is___
27. The no. of secondary carbons in N, N–diethyl–4–methylpentan–2–amine is /are
28. The R isomer has specific rotation of +20. A 10 g sample containing R & S isomers produces a
specific rotation of +8. Then the weight (in grams) of R isomer in the mixture is

is (are) correct.
 Marking scheme:
29. In which of the following case/s second canonical form makes the greater contribution to the
resonance hybrid?
O O
 
(A) (B) CH 3  O  CH 2 or CH 3  O  CH 2
or
CH3 CH3
O O
(C) (D) H3C or H3C
or O O
30. Which of following compounds can exhibit free rotation about the C=C?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
31. In which of the following pairs the first one is the stronger base than second.
(A) CH 3COO , HCOO
 
(B) HO , NH 2
 
(C) CH 2  C H : , H  C  C : (D) CH 3 NH 2 , CH 3OH
32. Tautomerism is exhibited by
(A) CH CH OH (B) O
O O
(C) (D)
O O
33. Consider following compounds :

OH HO CH CH3 OCH3 CH2OCH3
, ,
C 2H 5 , CH3
I II III IV
Choose the correct statement
(A) I, II and III are functional isomers
(B) I, II are positional isomers
(C) III and IV are chain isomers (d) III and IV are metamers
34. Predict the amount of product A and B that are obtained by monohalogenation of 2-methylpropane
X
X
A B
(A) if X = either Cl or Br , A and B will be obtained as 1:1 ratio
(B) if X = either Cl or Br, % of A is greater than % of B
(C) if X = Cl, % of A is less than % of B
(D) if X = Br then % of B is much greater than % of A
35. Which of the following is correct

(A) Methane can be prepared in Chemanson’s reduction
(B) Methane can be prepared is Wurtz reaction
(C) Methane can be prepared is corey house synthesis
(D) Methane can be prepared with grignard reagent.
36. Which of the following molecules of alkane will give only one mono halogenated product on reaction
with halogen in presence of sunlight?
(A) H2 C  CH3 (B) H3 C  CH2  CH3
(C) H3C 4 C (D) CH2
37. There exists the tautomeric forms

O O OH O
C C C 2H 5 C C C 2H 5
H3 C O H3 C O
I II
which are correct: with respect to pure liquid state :
(A) % of form I increases in H2O (B) % of form II decreases in H 2O
(C) % of form II increases in ether (D) % of from II decreases in ether
38. Which of the following compounds has been correctly named ?

OH
(A) O 2–bromo-3–hydroxy cyclopropane carboxylic acid

Br
OH
O O
(B) 5–Bromo–2–oxo cyclohexane carbaldehyde
Br
5-methyl cyclopent-2-en-1-ol
(C)
(D) 7–ethyl –2, 4, 5, 6–tetramethyl deca–1, 8–diene

(A) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
(B) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
(C) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
(D) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
39.
Column – I Column – II
(Reaction) (Reagent)
Br
(A) Br (p) Red P + HI
(B) (q) Na / ether
OH
OH
(C) (r) Zn–Hg/ HCl

O
COOH CH3
–
(D) (s) NH2–NH2/ OH
(t) Zn/ether
40.
Column – I Column – II
H H H Cl
(A) C C & C C (p) Diastereomers
Cl Cl Cl H
(B) (q) Conformation
(C) (r) Identical
(D) (s) Enantiomers

 Marking scheme:
2
41. The point of intersection of the tangents drawn to the curve x y = 1 – y at the points where it is meet
by the curve xy = 1 – y, is given by (a, b) then a + b =
42. If the tangent to the curve 2y3  ax 2  x 3 at the point (a, a) cuts off intercepts  and  on the
2 2 a
coordinate axes, (where  +  = 61) then the value of 
10
43. A balloon is in the form of right circular cylinder of radius 1.5m and length 4m and is surmounted by
hemispherical ends. If the radius is increased by 0.01m and the length by 0.05m, the percentage
change in the volume of the balloon is x% then [x] is ([.] is greatest integer function)
44. If the area of the triangle whose vertices are A(1, 2, 3) B(2, –1, 1) and C(1, 2, –4) is  sq unit then
2
 must be
10
x  4 y  6 z 1
45. The lines   and 3x – 2y + z + 5 = 0 = 2x + 3y + 4z – k are coplanar for k is equal to
3 5 2

46.  
The distance of the point i  2j  3k from the plane r  i  j  k  5 measured parallel to the vectors
2i  3j  6k must be
47.     
If y  1  x  1  x 2 1  x 4     1  x 2n , then
dy
dx
at x = 0 is
48. If y  tan1 
e     tan
 log e / x 2
1  3  2loge x  d2 y
 , is
   
 loge ex 2  1  6loge x  dx
2

is (are) correct.
 Marking scheme:
49. The plane x – 2y + 7z + 21 = 0

x 1 y 3 z  2
(A) contains the line   (B) contains the point (0, 7, –1)
3 2 1
x y z
(C) is perpendicular to the line   (D) is parallel to the plane x – 2y + 7z = 0
1 2 7
50. If p1, p2, p3 denote the distances of the plane 2x – 3y + 4z + 2 = 0 from the planes
2x – 3y + 4z + 6 = 0, 4x – 6y + 8z + 3 = 0 and 2x – 3y + 4z – 6 = 0 respectively, then
(A) p1 + 8p2 – p3 = 0 (B) p3 = 16p2
(C) 8p2 = p1 (D) p1 + 2p2 + 3p3 = 29
   
51. Let a  2iˆ  ˆj  kˆ , b  î  2ˆj  kˆ and c  î  ˆj  2kˆ be three vectors. A vector in the plane of b and
 
c whose projection at a is of magnitude  2 / 3  is
(A) 2iˆ  3 ˆj  3kˆ (B) 2iˆ  3 ˆj  3kˆ (C) 2iˆ  ˆj  5kˆ (D) 2iˆ  ˆj  5kˆ
52. The volume of the tetrahedron whose vertices are the points with position vectors î  6ˆj  10kˆ ,
 î  3ˆj  7kˆ , 5iˆ  ˆj  kˆ and 7iˆ  4ˆj  7kˆ is 11 cubic units then the value of  is
(A) –1 (B) 1 (C) –7 (D) 7
53. Let f  x   2x 2  In x , x  0, then f(x) is

 1  1 
(A) monotonically increasing in   , 0    ,  
 2  2 
 1  1 
(B) monotonically decreasing in   , 0    ,  
 2  2 
 1  1
(C) monotonically increasing in  ,    0, 
 2  2
 1  1
(D) monotonically decreasing in  ,     0, 
 2  2
54. Let f  x   ax 3  bx 2  cx  1 have extrema at x = ,  such that  < 0 and f().f() < 0, then the
equation f(x) = 0 has
(A) three equal real roots (B) three distinct real roots
(C) one positive root, if f() < 0 and f() > 0 (D) one negative root, if f() > 0 and f() < 0
55. A line l passing through the origin is perpendicular to the lines

l1 :  3  t  î   1  2t  ˆj   4  2t  kˆ , – < t < 
l2 :  3  2s  î   3  2s  ˆj   2  s  kˆ – < s < 
then, the coordinate(s) of the point(s) on l2 at a distance of 17 from the point of intersection of l and l1
is (are)
7 7 5 7 7 8
(A)  , ,  (B) (–1, –1, 0) (C) (1, 1, 1) (D)  , , 
3 3 3 9 9 9
         
56. Let PQR be a triangle. Let a  QR , b  RP and c  PQ . If a  12 , b  4 3 , b  c  24 , then
which of the following is(are) true?
2 2
c  c 
(A)  a  12 (B)  a  30
2 2
     
(C) a  b  c  a  48 3 (D) a  b  72

57.
  
 2 2  2
 
Let the function g :  ,      ,  be given by g  u   2 tan1 eu  . Then, g is
(A) even and is strictly increasing in (0, )

(B) odd and is strictly decreasing in (–,)
(C) odd and is strictly increasing in (–,)
(D) neither even nor odd, but is strictly increasing in (–,)
x2  1
58. If f  x   , for every real number x, then the minimum value of f
x2  1
(A) does not exist because f is unbounded
(B) is not attained even though f is bounded
(C) is equal to1 (D) is equal to –1

(A) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
(B) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
(C) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
(D) (P) (Q) (R) (S) (T)
x 1 y z3 x4 y3 z3

59. Consider the lines L1    , L2    and the planes ,
2 1 1 1 1 2
P1 : 7x  y  2z  3 , P2 : 3x  5y  6z  4 . Let ax + by + cz = d be the equation of the plane passing
through the point of intersection of lines L1 and L2 , and perpendicular to planes P1 and P2.
Match the Column – I with Column – II and select the correct answer.
Column-I Column-II
(A) a= (p) 13
(B) b= (q) –3
(C) c= (r) 1
(D) d= (s) –2
60. Match the Column – I with Column – II and select the correct answer.
Column-I Column-II
Volume of parallelepiped determined by vectors
  
(A) a, b and c is 2. Then the 
volume of the parallelepiped
    (p) 100
  
determined by vectors 2 a  b , 3 b  c and 2 c  a is   
  
Volume of parallelepiped determined by vectors a, b and c is
(B) 5. Then the volume 
of the parallelepiped determined by
  (q) 30
   
vectors 3 a  b , 3 b  c and 2 c  a is  
Area of a triangle with adjacent sides determined by vectors
 
(C) a and b is 20. Then the area of the triangle with adjacent (r) 48
   

sides determined by vectors 2a  3b and a  b   
Area of a parallelogram with adjacent sides determined by
 
(D) vectors a and b is 30. Then the area of the parallelogram (s) 180
  
with adjacent sides determined by vectors a  b and a is  

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INTERNAL TEST

IIT – JEE 2023–2025

Don’t write / mark your answers in this question booklet.

SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks: 32)

Space for rough work

Space for rough work

SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks: 40)

Space for rough work

(A) hole 1 (B) hole 2 (C) hole 3 (D) hole 4

(A) for ball to hit the top of container at end Q, a = 3g

Space for rough work

(A) the maximum temperature during the cycle is 4T0

(A) heat given to the system during path 1–4–3 is 70 cal

Space for rough work

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(A) velocity of flow through pipe is 6 2 m/s

Space for rough work

SECTION 3 (Maximum Marks: 16)

(B) Mass of water in the mixture, if m = 20 g (in g) (q) 76.4

Space for rough work

(B) Time taken to go directly from x = 2 to x = 4 (q) 4

(C) Energy of SHM is (r) 6

SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks: 32)

22. How many of the following will show geometrical isomerism ?

(A) CH3–N=N–CH=CH2 , CH2 CH CH CH2 , CH3–CH=NOH , ,

Cl C2H5 CH3 CH3

H3C-CH=CH-CH(OH)-COOH, H3C COOH

Space for rough work

24. The number of geometrical isomers of the given compound is

25. No. of Chiral centres in the following compounds are

26. The number of isomers of the compound C 2 BrFCI is___

27. The no. of secondary carbons in N, N–diethyl–4–methylpentan–2–amine is /are

Space for rough work

SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks: 40)

 This section contains TEN questions.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Space for rough work

32. Tautomerism is exhibited by

33. Consider following compounds :

35. Which of the following is correct

Space for rough work

(C) H3C 4 C (D) CH2

37. There exists the tautomeric forms

38. Which of the following compounds has been correctly named ?

(A) O 2–bromo-3–hydroxy cyclopropane carboxylic acid

(B) 5–Bromo–2–oxo cyclohexane carbaldehyde

(D) 7–ethyl –2, 4, 5, 6–tetramethyl deca–1, 8–diene

Space for rough work

SECTION 3 (Maximum Marks: 16)

(B) (q) Na / ether

(C) (r) Zn–Hg/ HCl

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(B) (q) Conformation

(C) (r) Identical

(D) (s) Enantiomers

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SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks: 32)

2i  3j  6k must be