THE NAVIGATOR HIGHER SECONDARY SCHOOL THATTA

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ECAT/ETP/2024 TEST -3 20-05-24

1. Which of the following quantities is NOT constant in SHM?

a) Amplitude b) Period c) Frequency d) Acceleration
2. The restoring force acting on a mass in SHM is directly proportional to:
a) Mass b) Velocity c) Acceleration d) Displacement from equilibrium position
3. The total mechanical energy of a mass undergoing SHM:
a) Increases with displacement b) Decreases with displacement
c) Remains constant d) Depends on the direction of motion
4. The time taken for one complete oscillation in SHM is called the:
a) Amplitude b) Frequency c) Period d) Time duration
5. The frequency of SHM is related to the period (T) by:
a) f = T b) f = 1/T c) f = 2πT d) f = √T
6. A mass is suspended by spring. If the mass is stretched & released, it will undergo SHM. The natural frequency of this oscillation depends on:
a) Mass of the object only b) Spring constant only c) Both mass and spring constant
7. At the equilibrium position in SHM, the object's:
a) Displacement is max. b) Velocity is maximum c) Acceleration is max. d) Kinetic energy is maximum
8. In a damped SHM, the amplitude of oscillation:
a) Increases with time b) Decreases with time c) Remains constant d) Becomes negative
9. The motion of a swing set back and forth is an example of:
a) Uniform circular motion b) Simple harmonic motion c) Projectile motion d) Random motion
10. The mathematical relationship between displacement (x), amplitude (A), and angular frequency (ω) in SHM is:
a) x = Aωt b) x = A sin(ωt) c) x = A cos(ωt) d) x = ωt2
11. Which of the following describes a periodic motion?
a) Motion with constant speed in a straight line b) Motion that repeats itself over a fixed time interval
c) Motion with constantly changing acceleration d) Motion along a circular path
12. The swinging of a pendulum is an example of:
a) Translational motion b) Rotational motion
c) Both translational and rotational motion d) None of the above
13. The time period of an oscillation is the time taken for:
a) One complete cycle b) The displacement to reach its maximum value
c) The velocity to reach its maximum value d) The acceleration to reach its maximum value
14. The frequency of an oscillation is the:
a) Number of oscillations per unit time b) Displacement of the oscillating object
c) Maximum speed of the oscillating object d) Time taken for the displacement to reach zero
15. In a mechanical oscillation, the restoring force:
a) Always acts in the direction of motion b) Always acts opposite to the direction of motion
c) Does not depend on the direction of motion d) May or may not act opposite to the motion
16. The amplitude of an oscillation represents the:
a) Time period of the oscillation b) Maximum displacement from the equilibrium position
c) Average velocity of the oscillation d) Frequency of the oscillation
17. A mass hanging on a spring is stretched and released. This is an example of:
a) Damped oscillation b) Driven oscillation c) Simple harmonic motion d) None of the above
18. The period of a simple pendulum depends on:
a) Mass of the bob only b) Length of the pendulum c) Amplitude of oscillation d) Both mass and length of the pendulum
19. In a damped oscillation, the amplitude gradually:
a) Increases b) Decreases c) Remains constant d) Becomes negative
20. A driven oscillation can be maintained at a constant amplitude by providing:
a) Friction b) A heavier mass c) A shorter period b) Energy input at the resonance frequency
21. A mass of 2 kg is attached to a spring with a spring constant of 100 N/m. If the mass is displaced 0.1 m from equilibrium and released, what
is the angular frequency (ω) of its oscillation?
a) ω = 10 rad/s b) ω = 20 rad/s c) ω = 5 rad/s d) ω = 15 rad/s
22. A pendulum with a length of 1 meter has a time period of 2 seconds. What is the acceleration due to gravity (g) at the location?
a) g = 2 m/s² b) g = 4.9 m/s² c) g = 9.8 m/s² d) g = 19.6 m/s²
23. A mass is undergoing SHM with a frequency of 4 Hz and an amplitude of 0.2 m. What is the max. speed of the mass during its oscillation?
a) vmax = 0.8 m/s b) vmax = 1.6 m/s c) vmax = 2.5 m/s d) vmax = 5.0 m/s
24. A simple harmonic oscillator has a total mechanical energy of 10 J. If the amplitude of the motion is 0.5 m, what is the maximum potential
energy of the oscillator?
a) PEmax = 2.5 J b) PEmax = 5 J c) PEmax = 7.5 J d) PEmax = 10 J
25. A mass on a spring completes 20 oscillations in 10 seconds. What is the frequency of the oscillation?
a) f = 0.5 Hz b) f = 1 Hz c) f = 2 Hz d) f = 4 Hz
26. A pendulum with a length of 0.5 meters has a time period of 2 seconds. What is the acceleration due to gravity (g) at the location?
a) g = 2 m/s² b) g = 3.9 m/s² c) g = 9.8 m/s² d) g = 19.6 m/s²
27. A simple pendulum with a mass of 1 kg is released from a starting angle of 10 degrees. If the length of the pendulum is 1 meter, what is the
potential energy of the mass at the starting position?
a) PE = 0 J b) PE = 0.1 J c) PE = 0.98 J d) PE = 9.8 J
28. You want to design a pendulum clock that has a period of 1 second. What length of pendulum is required?
a) l = 0.25 m b) l = 0.5 m c) l = 1 m d) l = 2 m
29. A pendulum with a length of 2 meters swings with a maximum angle of 30 degrees on each side. What is the approximate maximum speed
of the bob (mass not given)?
a) vmax = 0.5 m/s b) vmax = 1 m/s c) vmax = 2 m/s d) vmax = 4 m/s
30. A pendulum is used to determine the value of g. The pendulum has a length of 0.75 meters and a measured time period of 1.5 seconds. What
is the estimated value of g using this pendulum?
a) g = 2 m/s² b) g = 4.9 m/s² c) g = 7.4 m/s² d) g = 9.8 m/s²
31. The speed of sound (v) depends on the:
a) Pressure (P) of the medium b) Density (ρ) of the medium
c) Both pressure (P) and density (ρ) of the medium d) Neither pressure nor density of the medium
32. The formula for the speed of sound (v) is:
a) v = P / ρ b) v = ρ / P c) v = √(P/ρ) d) v = Pρ
33. In which medium does sound travel the fastest at a given temperature?
a) Gases b) Liquids c) Solids d) All travel at the same speed
34. If the density of a medium increases, the speed of sound in that medium will:
a) Increase b) Decrease c) Remain the same
35. If the temperature of a gas increases, the speed of sound in that gas will:
a) Increase b) Decrease c) Remain the same
36. A sound wave travels a distance of 1700 meters in 5 seconds. What is the speed of sound in meters per second (m/s)?
a) v = 340 m/s b) v = 1360 m/s c) v = 850 m/s d) v = 250 m/s
37. A sound wave travels through water at a speed of 1500 m/s. If the density of water is 1000 kg/m³, what is the approximate pressure (P)
associated with the sound wave? (We can assume a constant value for γ, the ratio of specific heats.)
a) P = 2.25 x 10⁶ Pa b) P = 1.5 x 10⁹ Pa c) P = 750 x 10³ Pa d) P cannot be determined with the given information
38. Sound travels at approximately 343 m/s in air at a specific temperature. If the speed of sound in a different gas is measured to be 965 m/s at
the same temperature, which gas molecule likely has a lower density compared to air?
a) Oxygen (O₂) b) Nitrogen (N₂) c) Helium (He) d) Carbon dioxide (CO₂)
39. Doctors use ultrasound for medical imaging. Ultrasound waves have frequencies much higher than the audible range for humans. Does the
speed of sound change depending on the frequency of the sound wave?
a) Yes, the speed increases with higher frequency. b) Yes, the speed decreases with higher frequency.
c) No, the speed is independent of frequency.
40. In a transverse wave, the particles of the medium vibrate:
a) In the same direction as the wave propagation b) Up and down relative to the wave propagation
c) Perpendicular to the wave propagation d) In a circular motion
41. An example of a transverse wave is:
a) Sound wave in air b) Water wave in a lake c) Light wave d) Both b & c
42. In a longitudinal wave, the particles of the medium vibrate:
a) In the same direction as the wave propagation b) Up and down relative to the wave propagation
c) Perpendicular to the wave propagation d) In a circular motion
43. Sound waves can travel through:
a) Vacuum only b) Solids only c) Liquids only d) Both b & c
44. Which of the following is an example of longitudinal waves?
a) Water wave in a lake b) Light wave c) Seismic S-wave d) Radio wave
45. The principle of superposition states that:
a) When two waves meet, they cancel each other out completely.
b) The resultant displacement at a point is the sum of the displacements of the individual waves at that point.
c) Only waves with the same frequency can superpose.
d) Superposition only applies to light waves.
46. Two waves with the same frequency and amplitude travelling in the same direction will interfere:
a) Destructively if they are in phase. b) Constructively if they are in phase.
c) Destructively if they are out of phase by 180 degrees. d) Not interfere at all.
47. In a double-slit experiment, the bright fringes on the screen correspond to:
a) Destructive interference of light waves. b) Constructive interference of light waves
c) Light waves with the same wavelength but different amplitudes. d) None of the above.
48. When two waves of different frequencies superpose, the resulting wave will exhibit:
a) A single, constant frequency. b) A beating pattern with a frequency equal to the average of the two original frequencies.
c) A completely new and unpredictable frequency. d) No change in frequency.
49. The principle of superposition can be used to explain:
a) Reflection of waves b) Refraction of waves c) Diffraction of waves d) All of the above
50. Stationary waves are formed by the:
a) Superposition of two waves with different frequencies traveling in opposite directions.
b) Superposition of two waves with the same frequency traveling in the same direction.
c) Reflection of a wave from a fixed boundary.
d) Absorption of a wave by a medium.
51. In a stationary wave, the points with no displacement are called:
a) Antinodes b) Nodes c) Crests d) Troughs
52. The harmonic frequencies of a vibrating string are:
a) Any random frequencies. b) Discrete frequencies that are multiples of a fundamental frequency.
c) Frequencies that depend on the material of the string only. d) Frequencies that depend on the length of the string only.
53. In a closed organ pipe, the resonant frequencies correspond to:
a) All possible harmonic frequencies. b) Only odd-numbered harmonic frequencies.
c) Only even-numbered harmonic frequencies. d) None of the above.
54. The fundamental frequency of a vibrating string is:
a) The highest frequency it can vibrate at. b) The lowest frequency it can vibrate at and produce a standing wave.
c) The frequency at which the amplitude of vibration is maximum. d) Independent of the length and tension of the string.
55. When a source of sound (e.g., ambulance siren) is approaching an observer, the observer hears a:
a) Lower frequency b) Higher frequency c) No change in frequency.
56. A stationary observer hears the siren of a fire truck approaching at 70 km/h. If the siren produces a sound of 420 Hz and the speed of sound
is 343 m/s, what is the approximate frequency heard by the observer? (Convert km/h to m/s first)
a) f' = 440 Hz b) f' = 40 Hz c) f' = 820 Hz d) f' = 1120 Hz
57. An ambulance with a siren emitting a frequency of 500 Hz is moving away from a stationary observer at a speed of 25 m/s. The speed of
sound in air is 343 m/s. What is the apparent frequency heard by the observer?
a) f' = 485 Hz b) f' = 1500 Hz c) f' = 15 Hz d) f' = 150 Hz
58. When a source of light (e.g., a star) is moving away from Earth, the light observed on Earth will be:
a) Shifted towards a higher frequency (blue shift) b) Shifted towards a lower frequency (red shift).
59. A train with a whistling horn that produces a sound of 250 Hz is approaching a stationary observer at a speed of 15 m/s. The speed of sound
in air is 343 m/s. What is the apparent frequency heard by the observer?
a) f' = 1235 Hz b) f' = 550 Hz c) f' = 265 Hz d) f' = 75 Hz
60. Which of the following is an application of Doppler effect?
a) RADAR b) SONAR c) VOR d) All of these

CHEMISTRY

61. Which of the following elements readily forms ionic bonds?

a) Helium (He) b) Oxygen (O) c) Neon (Ne) d) Argon (Ar)
62. In a covalent bond, atoms share:
a) Protons b) Neutrons c) Electrons d) All of the above
63. Which of the following molecules is primarily held together by ionic bonding?
a) Hydrogen gas (H₂) b) Sodium chloride (NaCl) c) Methane (CH₄) d) Water (H₂O)
64. Lewis structures are used to represent:
a) Nuclear structure of atoms b) Electron configuration of atoms
c) Arrangement of electrons around atoms to achieve stability d) Isotopes of elements
65. Which of the following statements is NOT true about noble gases?
a) They have a full valence shell. b) They are generally unreactive.
c) They can form ionic bonds. d) They have low ionization energies.
66. The octet rule states that atoms tend to gain, lose, or share electrons to achieve a valence electron configuration of:
a) s²p² b) s² c) d¹⁰ d) Eight electrons
67. A hydrogen bond is a special type of:
a) Covalent bond b) Ionic bond c) Dipole-dipole interaction d) Metallic bond
68. Which of the following factors does NOT influence the polarity of a molecule?
a) Electronegativity difference between atoms b) Geometry of the molecule
c) Number of covalent bonds d) Presence of lone pairs of electrons
69. Diamond is a very hard substance due to the presence of:
a) Ionic bonds b) Metallic bonds c) Covalent network d) Hydrogen bonds
70. Intermolecular forces are the forces acting:
a) Between atoms within a molecule b) Between different molecules
c) Between the nucleus and electrons d) None of the above
71. The valence shell electron pair repulsion (VSEPR) theory predicts the:
a) Type of bonding between atoms (ionic or covalent) b) Geometry of molecules based on electron pair repulsion
c) Stability of different Lewis structures d) Electron configuration of elements
72. Which of the following statements is NOT a principle of Lewis theory?
a) Atoms achieve stability by forming bonds to have an octet of electrons in their valence shell.
b) A single bond consists of one shared pair of electrons.
c) Double and triple bonds involve sharing two or three pairs of electrons, respectively.
d) Lewis structures can only represent ionic compounds.
73. Metallic bonding involves the attraction between:
a) Positively charged ions and negatively charged electrons b) Positively charged metal cations and a delocalized "sea" of electrons
c) Atoms sharing electrons to form covalent bonds d) Highly electronegative atoms and hydrogen atoms (hydrogen bonding)
74. Hybridization of atomic orbitals results in:
a) Loss of electrons from an atom b) Formation of new atomic elements
c) Mixing of atomic orbitals to create new hybrid orbitals with different shapes and energies
d) Sharing of electrons between different molecules
75. In a molecule of water (H₂O), the central oxygen atom undergoes:
a) sp hybridization b) sp² hybridization c) sp³ hybridization d) No hybridization
76. The bond order in a molecule is an indicator of:
a) The number of atoms in the molecule b) The type of bonding (ionic or covalent)
c) The strength and stability of a covalent bond d) The polarity of a molecule
77. Which of the following statements about ionic bonding is FALSE?
a) It involves the transfer of electrons from one atom to another. b) It results in the formation of oppositely charged ions.
c) The attraction between the ions is electrostatic. d) Ionic bonds can form between non-metals only.
78. Resonance structures are used to represent:
a) Different Lewis structures for the same molecule with the same overall number of electrons
b) Different isomers of a molecule c) The movement of electrons within a molecule
d) The hybridization of atomic orbitals
79. In a molecule of carbon dioxide (CO₂), what is the formal charge on the carbon atom?
a) +1 b) +2 c) 0 d) -1
80. The molecular orbital theory explains bonding by:
a) Electron dot structures and octet rule b) The overlap of atomic orbitals to form molecular orbitals
c) The electrostatic attraction between oppositely charged ions d) The minimization of electron-electron repulsion
81. Which of the following refers to the heat transferred during a chemical reaction at constant pressure?
a) Enthalpy change (ΔH) b) Entropy change (ΔS) c) Free energy change (ΔG) d) Internal energy change (ΔE)
82. In an exothermic reaction, the system releases heat to the surroundings. What is the sign of ΔH for an exothermic reaction?
a) Positive (+) b) Negative (-) c) Zero (0) d) Depends on the reaction
83. The standard enthalpy of formation (ΔH°f) refers to the enthalpy change when:
a) One mole of a substance decomposes into its elements.
b) One mole of a substance is formed from its elements in their standard states.
c) A specific amount of a reaction occurs.
d) The temperature changes by 1 degree Celsius.
84. Hess's Law states that the overall enthalpy change for a reaction is the sum of the enthalpy changes of the individual steps in the reaction
pathway, regardless of whether the steps are carried out separately or in a single step.
a) True b) False
85. Entropy (S) is a measure of:
a) The enthalpy of a system b) The disorder or randomness of a system
c) The temperature of a system d) The amount of heat transferred
86. In a spontaneous reaction, the total entropy of the universe (system + surroundings) must increase.
a) True b) False
87. The free energy change (ΔG) combines the information about enthalpy (ΔH) and entropy (ΔS) to determine the spontaneity of a reaction at
constant temperature. A negative ΔG indicates a spontaneous reaction.
a) True b) False
88. Which of the following factors can influence the rate of a chemical reaction?
a) Temperature b) Concentration of reactants
c) Presence of a catalyst d) All of the above
89. Chemical equilibrium refers to a state where:
a) The reaction stops completely. b) The concentrations of reactants and products remain constant over time.
c) Only the forward reaction occurs. d) Only the reverse reaction occurs.
90. Le Chatelier's principle states that if a stress is applied to a system at equilibrium, the system will shift its position to counteract the stress
and re-establish equilibrium.
a) True b) False
91. Consider the following equilibrium: 2SO2(g) + O2(g) <=> 2SO3(g) Adding more SO2(g) to the system will cause the equilibrium to shift:
a) To the left, favoring reactants. b) To the right, favoring products.
c) Not at all, the equilibrium constant will remain unchanged. d) It depends on the initial concentration of O2(g)
92. The equilibrium constant (Kc) for a reaction is the ratio of the product concentrations raised to their respective coefficients, divided by the
reactant concentrations raised to their respective coefficients.
a) True b) False
93. A large equilibrium constant (Kc) indicates:
a) The reaction favors the reactants. b) The reaction favors the products.
c) The reaction proceeds very quickly. d) The forward and reverse reaction rates are equal.
94. Which of the following factors can influence the position of equilibrium (according to Le Chatelier's principle)?
a) Temperature change b) Pressure change (for gaseous reactions)
c) Concentration change of reactants or products d) All of the above
95. In a closed container containing an equilibrium mixture of gases, increasing the pressure will cause the equilibrium to shift in the direction
that produces:
a) More moles of gas b) Fewer moles of gas
c) No change in the number of moles of gas d) It depends on the specific reaction.
96. A catalyst can increase the rate of both the forward and reverse reactions in a chemical equilibrium, but it does not affect the position of
equilibrium.
a) True b) False
97. When a strong acid is added to a solution containing the equilibrium H₂O <=> H⁺ + OH⁻, the equilibrium will shift:
a) To the left, decreasing the concentration of H⁺ ions. b) To the right, increasing the concentration of H⁺ ions.
c) Not at all, since the concentration of water doesn't change. d) It depends on the initial concentration of OH⁻ ions.
98. Consider the following equilibrium: 2H₂ (g) + O₂ (g) <=> 2H₂O (g) + heat
According to Le Chatelier's principle, what will happen to the equilibrium position if the temperature is increased?
a) Shifts left (towards reactants) b) Shifts right (towards products)
c) No change d) Depends on the initial concentrations
99. In the Haber-Bosch process, nitrogen and hydrogen react to form ammonia: N₂ (g) + 3H₂ (g) <=> 2NH₃ (g) + heat
The reaction is exothermic (releases heat). How will adding a catalyst to the system affect the equilibrium position?
a) Shifts left b) Shifts right c) No change d) Consumes all the reactants
100. For the following equilibrium: CO (g) + 2H₂ (g) <=> CH₃OH (g) + H₂O (g)
There are 4 moles of CO and 8 moles of H₂ present at equilibrium. If more CO is added, what will happen to the concentration of methanol
(CH₃OH)?
a) Increases b) Decreases c) No change d) Cannot be determined

THE NA VIGATOR ENTRANCE TEST PREPARATIONS

thenavigatorcollege@gmail.com
ETP 2024 (SUMMER) 20-05-2024

Math-I PARTIAL FRACTION, SEQUENCE & SERIES, PERMUTATION, COMBINATION & PROBABILIT
𝑃(𝑥)
1. A rational fraction is called proper fraction if the degree of p(x) is _____ than the degree of q(x).
𝑄(𝑥)
a) < b) > c) =
3𝑥+5
2. Resolve into partial fractions.
2𝑥 2 −5𝑥−3
 2 1 3 2 2 1 4 1
a) + b) − c) − d) −
𝑥−3 2𝑥+1 𝑥−3 2𝑥+1 𝑥−3 2𝑥+1 𝑥−3 2𝑥+1
3𝑥+1
3. Resolve (𝑥−1)2 into partial fractions.
(𝑥+2)
5 4 5 1 3 4
a) + − b) + −
9(𝑥−1) 3(𝑥−1)2 9(𝑥+2) 9(𝑥−1) 3(𝑥−1)2 9(𝑥+2)
5 2 4 1 2 4
c) + − d) + −
3(𝑥−1) 3(𝑥−1)2 3(𝑥+2) 9(𝑥−1) 3(𝑥−1)2 9(𝑥+2)
4𝑥 3 +10𝑥+4
4. Resolve into partial fractions.
𝑥(2𝑥+1)
4 3 4 3 4 3 1 3
a) 2𝑥 − 1 + + b) 2𝑥 + 1 + + c) 2𝑥 − 1 − − d) 2𝑥 + 1 + +
𝑥 2𝑥+1 𝑥 2𝑥+1 𝑥 2𝑥+1 𝑥 2𝑥+1
𝑥 3 +1
5. Resolve into partial fractions.
𝑥 2 +1
𝑥+1 𝑥+1 𝑥+1 1
a) 𝑥 − b) 𝑥 + c) 2𝑥 − d) 𝑥 −
𝑥 2 +1 𝑥 2 +1 𝑥 2 +1 𝑥 2 +1
7𝑥+25
6. Resolve into partial fractions.
(𝑥+3)(𝑥+4)
4 3 4 3 1 2 1 2
a) − b) + c) + d) −
𝑥+3 𝑥+4 𝑥+3 𝑥+4 𝑥+3 𝑥+4 𝑥+3 𝑥+4
𝑥 2 +𝑥−1
7. Resolve into partial fractions.
(𝑥+2)3
1 1 1 1 3 1 1 3 1 1 3 1
a) − (𝑥+2)2 + b) − (𝑥+2)2 − c) − (𝑥+2)2 + d) + (𝑥+2)2 +
𝑥+2 (𝑥+2)3 𝑥+2 (𝑥+2)3 𝑥+2 (𝑥+2)3 𝑥+2 (𝑥+2)3
3𝑥−11
8. Resolve into partial fractions.
(𝑥 2 +1)(𝑥+3)
2𝑥−3 2 2𝑥+3 2 2𝑥−3 1 𝑥+3 2
a) − b) − c) − d) −
𝑥 2 +1 𝑥+3 𝑥 2 +1 𝑥+3 𝑥 2 +1 𝑥+3 𝑥 2 +1 𝑥+3
3𝑥
9. Resolve into partial fractions.
(𝑥−1)(𝑥+2)
1 1 1 2 2 2 1 2
a) + b) − c) + d) +
𝑥−1 𝑥+2 𝑥−1 𝑥+2 𝑥−1 𝑥+2 𝑥−1 𝑥+2
𝑥−18
10. Resolve into partial fraction.
𝑥(𝑥−3)2
2 2 5 2 2 5 2 2 5 1 3 5
a) + − b) − + − c) − + + d) + −
𝑥 𝑥−3 (𝑥−3)2 𝑥 𝑥−3 (𝑥−3)2 𝑥 𝑥−3 (𝑥−3)2 𝑥 𝑥−3 (𝑥−3)2
2𝑛−3
11. Find the 1st three term of the sequence whose nth term is 𝑎𝑛 = .
6
a) 1, 1/6, -1/6 b) 1, 1/6, ½ c) 1, -1/6, ½ d) 1, -1/, 1/6
12. The sum of AP 2, 5, 8, … upto 50 terms is:
a) 3775 b) 3557 c) 3757 d) 3575
13. Find the 16th term of the AP 9, 12, 15, 18, …
a) 51 b) 54 c) 57 d) 48
14. Find the sum of the series 5+13+21+…+181.
a) 2100 b) 1200 d) 2139 d) 1239
15. If the sum of n terms of an AP is given by 𝑆𝑛 = 3𝑛 + 2𝑛2 , then the common difference of the A.P is:
a) 5 b) 9 d) 4 d) 7
16. The number of terms in the A.P 7, 10, 13, …, 31 is:
a) 7 b) 9 c) 6 d) 8
𝑎 5 𝑎
17. If in an A.P 7 = , find 4.
𝑎10 7 𝑎7
a) 4/5 b) 6/7 c) 3/5 d) 1/5
18. Find the middle term(s) in the A.P 20, 16, 12, …-176.
a) -76 b) -80 c) Both a and b d) None of these
19. The sum of three consecutive terms of an AP is 15 and their product is 105. Find the number.
a) 7, 5, 3 b) 3, 5, 7 c) 2, 5, 8 d) Both a and b
20. Find the sum of all natural numbers between 1 and 100 which are multiples of 3.
a) 1863 b) 1683 c) 1738 d) 1763
21. Express the repeating decimal 0.253535353… as a fraction.
a) 251/990 b) 215/900 c) 215/990 d) 151/900
22. Which term of the sequence 3072, 1536, 768, … is 48?
a) 7th b) 8th c) 9th d) 10th
23. Ali is saving to buy a book. In the first week, he put aside Rs. 42 and in each of the following weeks, he added Rs. 8 to his savings.
He needs Rs 400 for the book that he wants. In which week will he have enough money for the book?
a) 43rd week b) 44th week c) 45th d) 46th
24. Find the five arithmetic means between 2 and 23.
a) 11/2, 9/2, 25/2, 16, 39/2 b) 11/2, 9, 25/2, 16, 39/2 c) 11/2, 9, 25/2, 16, 38/2 d) 11/2, 9, 24/2, 16, 39/2
25. Find the sum of the first 15 terms of the arithmetic series 1+4+7+…
a) 330 b) 340 c) 430 d) 303
26. Which term in the arithmetic progression 17, 13, 9, … is -19?
a) 12 b) 10 c) 11 d) 9
27. The sum of three numbers in an A.P. is 12 and the sum of their cubes is 408. Find them.
a) 7, 4, 1 b) 8, 3, 1 c) 6, 4, 2 d) 6, 3, 3
28. The population of a town increases at the rate of 10% annually. Its present population is 2,00,000. What will be its population at the
end of 5 years?
a) 2,00,000(1.1)5 b) 2,00,000(1.01)6 c) 2,00,000(1.01)5 d) 2,00,000(1.1)6
29. The value of an automobile depreciates at the rate of 15% per year. What will be the value of an automobile after 3 years which is
now purchased for Rs. 45,000?
a) 27635.63 b) 32512.50 c) 38250.81 d) 16740.98
30. A rubber ball is dropped from a height of 16 dm, it continuously rebounds to ¾ of the distance of its previous fall. How high does it
rebound its fourth time?
a) 7.05 b) 6.05 c) 5.06 d) 4.06
31. Find the sum of the series 3+33+333+… to n terms.
a) 1/3 [10(10n +1)/9 - n] b) 1/9 [10(10n -1)/9 - n] c) 1/3 [10(10n -1)/9 - n] d) 1/3 [(10n -1)/9 - n]
32. Find the fraction equivalent to the recurring decimals 0. 1̇2̇3̇
a) 40/333 b) 41/313 c) 41/303 d) 40/300
33. Find the sum of the series 1.6+0.32+0.64+…
a) 1.2 b) 2 c) 3 d) 3.1
34. Find the sum to n terms of a G.P whose nth term is 3(2)𝑛−1 .
a) 3(2n) b) 2n-1 c) 3(2n-1) d) 3(2n-1)
35. The harmonic mean of two number is 4. Their arithmetic mean is A and geometric mean is G. If G satisfies 2A+G2 = 27, the numbers
are:
a) 9, 12 b) 3, 6 c) 4, 8 d) 6, 9
36. If the 6th term of an H.P is 10 and the 11th term is 18. The 16th term will be:
a) 90 b) 110 c) 99 d) 93
37. Find the single H.M between 15 and 30.
a) 12 b) 25 c) 20 d) 35
38. If the 3rd, 6th and the last terms of an H.P are respectively 1/3, 1/5 and 3/203. Find the number of terms.
a) 200 b) 150 c) 100 d) 50
𝑥(𝑦−𝑧)
39. If x, y, z are in A.P. then =
𝑥−𝑦
a) x b) y c) z d) All of these
40. Find the 20th term of an H.P of which the first two terms are 2/39 and 2/37.
a) 4 b) 2 c) ½ d) ¼
41. The third term of G.P is 4. The product of its first 5 terms is:
a) 43 b) 44 c) 45 d) None of these
th 5 5 5
42. Find the 10 term of the G.P , , , …
2 4 8
5 5 1 1
a) b) c) d)
210 29 210 29
43. Which term of the 2, 2√2, 4 …. is 128?
a)11 b) 12 c) 13 d) 10
2 7
44. For what values of x, − , 𝑥, are in G.P?
7 2
a) 1 b) ±1 c) ±7 d) ±2
45. How many terms of a G.P 3, 32, 33, … are needed to give the sum 120?
a) 7 b) 5 c) 6 d) 4
𝑎𝑛+1 +𝑏𝑛+1
46. Find the value of n so that 𝑛 𝑛 may be the geometric mean between a and b.
𝑎 +𝑏
a) ½ b) -1/2 c) 1 d) -1
47. Four geometric means between 3 and 96 are:
a) 9, 18, 24, 48 b) 9, 18, 21, 52 c) 6, 12, 24, 48 d) 6, 18, 27, 52
48. The sum of certain term of a G.P is 315 whose first term and the common ratio are 5 and 2 respectively. Find the last term.
a) 210 b) 150 c) 160 d) 120
49. If in a G.P, 𝑎3 + 𝑎5 = 90 and r = 3, find first term of the G.P.
a) 9 b) 1/9 c) -9 d) 9/2
50. The first term of a G.P is 2 and sum to infinity is 6, find common ratio.
a) 2/3 b) ½ c) 3/2 d) ¾
1 1 1
51. Find the sum to infinity of the series 1 + + + + ⋯
3 9 27
a) 2/3 c) 4/3 c) 3/2 d) ¾
52. The A.M and G.M between two positive numbers are 10 and 8 respectively. Find the numbers.
a) 2, 8 b) 4, 8 c) 2, 16 d) 4, 16
1 1 1
53. 52 . 54 . 58 … . =
a) 0 b) ∞ c) 1 d) 5
54. A plant grown 1.67 cm in its first week. Each week it grows by 4% more than it did the week before. By how much does it grow in 3
weeks, including the first week?
a) 6.21 b) 7.21 c) 4.21 d) 5.21
55. If A, G, H are Arithmetic, Geometric, and Harmonic mean between two numbers, then
a) H > G > A b) G> H > A c) A > G > H d) A > H > G
56. Which of the following series is convergent?
a) 2-6+18+… b) 8+4+2+… c) 5+10+20+… d) 3/2+3+6+…
57. Ali started to work in 2011 at an annual salary of 40,000 rupees. He received a 3000 rupees raise each year. What will be his annual
salary in 2020?
a) 70,000 b) 67,000 c) 65,000 d) 62,000
58. An infinite geometric series is convergent if
a) r< 1 b) r > 1 c) r = 1 d) Both b and c are correct
59. The sum of a finite geometric series is 729 and the first term is 3. If the number of terms is 6. What is the common ratio.
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
60. Find the sum of the first 7 terms of the G.P -4, 12, -36,…
a) 2188 b) -2188 c) 1288 d) -1288
61. In a class there are 20 boys and 16 girls. The teacher wants to select either a boy or a girl to represent the class in a function. In how
many ways the teacher can make this selection?
a) 20!16! b) 320 c) 36! d) 36
62. How many three digit odd numbers can be formed from the digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5. If the digits can be repeated.
a) 125 b) 5! c) 75 d) 120
63. In how many ways can 3 people be seated in a row containing 7 seats.
a) 7! B) 7×3 c) 120 d) 210
64. How many 5 digit numbers can be formed using the digits 0 or 9 if each number starts with 67, and no digit appears more than once?
a) 336 b) 5! C) 240 d) 120
65. How many numbers are there between 100 and 1000 such that 7 does not appear at all.
a) 900 b) 648 c) 252 d) 520
66. How many numbers are there between 100 and 1000 such that at least one of their digits is 7.
a) 900 b) 648 c) 252 d) 520
67. A coin is tossed twice. Find the number of possible outcomes.
a) 2 b) 4 c) 8 d) 1
68. The digit from 0 to 9, are written on slip of paper and placed in a box. Three of the slips of paper are drawn and placed in order. How
many different outcomes are possible?
a) 540 b) 6 c) 720 d) 240
69. How many three-digit numbers more than 600 can be formed by using the digits 2, 3, 4, 6 and 7?
a) 3! b) 25 c) 50 d) 625
70. How many different numbers below 1000 can be formed from the digits 3, 7, 6, 4 and 8 if digits can be repeated.
a) 155 b)125 c) 150 d) 120
71. 4!-3! =
a) 1! b) 18 c) 20 d) 12
20!
72. =
18!(20−18)!
a) 156 b) 196 c) 120 d) 240
73. How many 3 digits even numbers can be made using the digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 7, if no digit is repeated.
a) 125 b) 50 c) 60 d) 120
74. Find n if n-1P3:nP4 = 1:9
a) 6 b) 7 c) 8 d) 9
75. Find r if 5×4Pr = 6×5Pr-1.
a) 10 b) 3 c) 4 d) 8
𝑛! 𝑛!
76. If : = 2: 1. Find the value of n.
2!(𝑛−2)! 4!(𝑛−4)!
a) 0 b) 3 c) 5 d) 6
77. Find the number of ways in which 5 boys and 5 girls be seated in a row so that all the girls sit together and all the boys sit together.
a) 2!×5!×5! b) 2!×10! c) 2!×5! d) 10!
78. How many different words can be formed of the letters of the word COMBINE so that vowel always remains together.
a) 120 b) 720 c) 144 d) 5040
79. In how many ways can 5 flags, in which 3 are red, one is white and one is blue, be arranged?
a) 5! b) 20 c) 60 d) 30
80. A committee of four has to be selected from among 6 boys and 5 girls. The committee is to include a least 1 boy and at least 1 girl. In
how many ways can we select the committee?
a) 210 b) 240 c) 310 d) 120
81. 25C22 – 24C21 =
a) 217 b) 276 c) 720 d) 120
82. Find n, if nC10 = nC12
a) 20 b) 22 c) 12 d) 23
83. Find r in term of n if 2nCr = 2nCr+2.
a) 2n b) n+1 c) n-1 d) 2n-1
84. How many lines can be drawn through 21 points on a circle?
a) 120 b) 210 c) 240 d) 124
85. Find the number of ways of selecting 9 balls from 6 red balls, 5 white balls and 5 blue balls if each selection consists of 3 balls of
each color.
a) 2200 b) 1200 c) 1000 d) 2000
86. In how many ways can a student choose a programme of 5 courses if 9 courses are available and 2 courses are compulsory for every
student.
a) 126 b) 35 c) 60 d) 120
87. A polygon has 44 diagonals. Find the number of its sides.
a) 9 b) 14 c) 11 d) 12
88. A committee of 7 members has to be formed from 9 boys and 4 girls. In how many ways can this be done when the committee
consists of at least 3 girls.
a) 504 b) 540 c) 520 d) 588
89. How many different committees of 6 members can be formed from 7 boys and 6 girls.
a) 924 b) 520 c) 240 d) 820
90. In an examination, 10 questions are set. In how many different ways can you choose 6 questions to answer if question number 1 is
compulsory.
a) 210 b) 126 c) 120 d) 226
91. There are four men and six women on the city council. If one council member is selected for a committee at random, how likely is it
that it is a man?
a) 0.4 b) 0.6 c) 0.2 d) 0.1
92. Three coins are flip together. What is the probability of just getting 2 head and 2 tails?
a) ½ b) 3/4 c) 1/4 d) 1/8
93. From a box containing slips numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5, one slip is picked randomly. What is the probability that the number on the
slip is a prime number?
a) 2/5 b) 3/5 c) ½ d) 4/5
94. A drawer contains 50 bolts and 150 nuts. Half of the bolts and half of the nuts are rusted. If one item is chosen at random, what is the
probability that it is either rusted or is a bolt?
a) ¾ b) 2/3 c) 5/8 d) 1/8
95. A die is thrown. Find the probability that the dots on the top are prime numbers or odd numbers.
a) 1/3 b) 5/6 c) ½ d) 2/3
96. A marble is drawn at random from a box containing 20 red, 10 white, 25 orange and 15 blue marbles. Find the probability that it is
red, white or blue?
a) 9/13 b) 7/13 c) 9/14 d) 7/14

Q: 97 to 99 A card is drawn from a well shuffled deck of 52 cards.

97. What is the probability that it is any of the spade or an ace?
a) 9/13 b) 1/26 c) 4/13 d) 1/52
98. Find the probability of drawing a Jack, a King, a Queen, or an ace.
a) 9/13 b) 1/26 c) 4/13 d) 1/52
99. What is the probability of drawing a card which is neither a spade nor a king.
a) 9/13 b) 1/26 c) 4/13 d) 1/52
100. A word consists of letters with 5 consonants and 4 vowels. Three letters are chosen at random. What is the probability that more
than one vowel will be selected?
a) 15/47 b) 16/47 c) 14/47 d) None of these