FIITJEE - JEE (Main)

PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS

BATCH: PANINI325C-1_PT2
PHASE TEST – II
Q.P. CODE: 100599
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 300

▪ Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
▪ Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

Important Instructions
Caution: Question Paper CODE as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer OMR sheet before
attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong results.

A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Sections.
3. Section-I is Physics, Section-II is Chemistry and Section-III is Mathematics.
4. Each Section is further divided into Two Parts: Part-A & B in the OMR.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be provided for rough
work.
6. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, clip boards, log tables, slide
rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic devices ext. except the Admit Card inside the examination hall
/ room.

B. Filling of OMR Sheet:

1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers on OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen for each character of your
Enrolment No. and write in ink your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.
4. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.

C. Marking Scheme for All Two Parts:

(i) Part-A (01-20) – Contains Twenty (20) multiple choice objective questions which have four (4) options each and only
one correct option. Each question carries +4 marks which will be awarded for every correct answer and -1 mark will
be deducted for every incorrect answer.

(ii) Part-B (01-05) contains five (05) Numerical based questions, the answer of which maybe positive or negative numbers or
decimals Two decimal Places (e.g. 6.25, 7.00, -0.33, -.30, 30.27, -127.30) and each question carries +4 marks for correct
answer and there will be no negative marking.

Name of the Candidate :_______________________________________________

Batch :_______________________ Date of Examination :____________________

Enrolment Number :___________________________________________________

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Ph y s ic s
PART – A
Straight Objective Type
This part contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. A thin circular ring of mass M and radius r is rotating about its axis with a constant angular
velocity . Two objects each of mass m are attached gently to the opposite ends of a
diameter of the ring. The ring will now rotate with an angular velocity of
ω(M − 2m) ωM ωM ω (M + 2m)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(M + 2m) (M + 2m) (M + m) M

2. A body at rest breaks into two pieces of equal masses. The parts will move
(A) in same direciton
(B) along different lines
(C) in opposite directions with equal speeds
(D) in opposite directions with unequal speeds

3. A 4.0m long copper rod of cross sectional area 1 cm2 is stretched by a force of 4.0  103 N.
If Young’s modulus for copper is Y = 1.2  1011 N/m2. Calculate increase in the length of rod.
(A) 1.3 mm (B) 0.33 mm
(C) 1.67 mm (D) 0.67 mm

4. A cube of side a is placed on an inclined plane of inclination . What is the maximum value
of  for which cube will not topple?
(A) 150 (B) 300
0
(C) 45 (D) 600

5. A force F is applied at the top of a ring of mass M and radius R

placed on a rough horizontal surface as shown in figure. Friction is
sufficient to prevent slipping. The frictional force acting on the ring is F

F F
(A) towards right (B) towards left
2 2
2F
(C) towards right (D) zero
3

6. Which of the following expression does not represent SHM?

(A) A cost (B) A sin2t
(C) A sint + B cost (D) A sin3t
Space For Rough Work

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7. Moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc about a diameter is I. its moment of inertia about
an axis ⊥ to its plane and passing through a point on its rim will be
(A) 5 I (B) 3 I
(C) 6 I (D) 4 I

8. One quarter section is cut from a uniform circular disc of radius R.

This section has mass M. it is made to rotate about a line
perpendicular to its plane and passing through the centre of the
original disc. Its moment of inertia about the axis of rotation is
1 1
(A) MR2 (B) MR2
2 4
1
(C) MR2 (D) 2 MR2
8

9. A shell of mass m moving with velocity v suddenly breaks into 2 pieces. The part having
mass m/4 remains stationary. The velocity of other part will be
(A) v (B) 2v
3 4
(C) v (D) v
4 3

10. The escape velocity of an object projected from the surface of a given planet depends on
(A) mass of the object (B) direction of projection
(C) mass of the planet (D) all of the above

11. A body is projected vertically upwards from the earth’s surface to reach a height 7R, where
R is the Radius and M is mass of earth. The minimum velocity required to do so is
7GM 7GM 8GM 20 GM
(A) (B) (C) (D)
8R 4R 3R 11 R

12. Two bodies of mass M1 and M2 are initially at rest and a distance R apart. They the move
directly towards one another under the influence of their mutual gravitational attraction. What
is the ratio of distance travelled by M1 to distance travelled by M2?
M M 1
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D)
M2 M1 2

13. If g is acceleration due to gravity on the earth’s surface, the gain in the potential energy of
an object of mass m raised from the surface of earth to a height equal to the radius R of the
earth is
1 1
(A) mgR (B) mgR
2 4
(C) mgR (D) 2mgR
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14. A simple pendulum is suspended from the ceiling of the lift. When the lift is at rest, its time
period is T. With what acceleration should lift be acceleration upwards in order to reduce its
time period to T/2?
(A) 9g (B) g
(C) 2g (D) 3g

m
15. A ball of mass m moving with velocity v0
collides with a wall as shown. After impact
it rebounds with a velocity v 0 / 2 . The
component of impulse acting on the ball. v0
Along the wall is x
mv 0 370
(A) ĵ 530
2 y
mv 0
(B) − ĵ v0/2
2
mv 0
(C) − ĵ
5
(D) none of these m

16. A ball falls from rest from a height h onto a floor, and rebounds to a height h/4. The
coefficient of restitution between the ball and the floor is
1
(A) 1/2 (B) 1/4 (C) (D) 3/4
2

17. A steel wire 4.0 m in length is stretched through 2.0 mm. The cross-sectional area of the
wire is 2.0 mm2. If Young's modulus of steel is 2.0  1011 N/m2 find the energy density of
wire.
(A) 104 J/m3 (B) 2.5 × 104J/m3
(C) 6.0 104 J/m3 (D) 9 104 J/m3

18. The time taken by a particle executing SHM of period T to move from the mean position to
half the maximum displacement is
(A) T/3 (B) T/4 (C) T/8 (D) T/12

19. A shell is fired from a canon with a velocity vm/s at an angle  with the horizontal direction.
At the highest point in its path it explodes into two pieces of equal mass. One of the pieces
retraces it path to the cannon and the speed (in m/s) of the other pieces immediately after
the explosion is:
(A) 3vcos (B) 2vcos
3 3
(C) v cos (D) v cos
2 2
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20. Two particles of equal mass move in a circle of radius r under the action of their mutual
gravitational attraction. If the mass of each particle is M, the speed of each particle is
GM GM GM 2GM
(A) (B) (C) (D)
r 2r 4r r

PART-B
Numerical Type

1. Two blocks of masses 5kg and 2kg are placed on a frictionless surface and connected by a
spring. An external kick gives a velocity of 7 m/s to the heavier block in the direction of
lighter one. Find velocity gained by the centre of mass (In m/s)

2. If I1 is the moment of inertia of a thin rod about an axis perpendicular to the length and
passing through its centre of mass, and I2 is the moment of inertia of a ring formed by
2
bending the rod, about its centre and perpendicular to its plane then the ratio of I1 : I2 is .
n
Find value of ‘n’.

x
3. The centre of mass of two masses m and m’ moves by a distance when mass m is
5
m'
moved by distance x and m’ is kept fixed. The ratio is
m

A force f =  i − j + k  N acts at P (2, 3, –1). The magnitude of torque of force f about Q (1, 0, 1)
  
4.
 
is nearly equal to
5. From a circular disc of radius R, a square is cut out such as radius of disc as its diagonal.
The distance of the centre of mass of the remaining part from the centre of the disc is
R
n ( 2 − 1 )

Space For Rough Work

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Chemistry
PART – A
Straight Objective Type
This part contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. 2P ( g) + 3Q ( g) ⎯⎯
→ R ( g) + 4S ( g)
The rate of decrease in the concentration of ‘Q’ is expressed as
2 d P 1 d R
(A) (B)
3 dt 3 dt
1 3 d S
(C) rd of the rate of overall reaction (D)
3 4 dt

2. 2NH3 ( g) N2 ( g) + 3H2 ( g)
The unit of equilibrium constant KP of the above reaction is:
(A) atm–1 (B) atm2
-2
(C) atm (D) atm

3. The ions furnished by NH4OH in water are

(A) H3O and NH2− (B) NH+4 and OH–
(C) NH2− and OH+ (D) H3O+ and NH4O–

4. Which of the following is a neutralization reaction?

(A) HCl + H2O ⎯⎯ → H3O+ + Cl− (B) KOH + HBr ⎯⎯
→KBr + H2O
→Na+ + OH−
(C) NaOH + H2O ⎯⎯ (D) Br2 + H2O ⎯⎯
→HBrO + HBr

5. Which of the following compound of boron is called an acid anhydride?

(A) B2H6 (B) B2O3
(C) BN (D) BF3

6. The ions that contain silicon and oxygen are called

(A) silanes (B) silicates
(C) silicones (D) silica

7. HCN ( aq) H+ ( aq) + CN− ( aq)

Which of the following can decrease the degree of dissociation() of HCN in above reaction?
(A) Addition of water (B) Addition of NaCl
(C) Addition of HCl (D) Addition of KOH
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8. Al2O3 is most soluble in

(A) water (B) NaCl solution
(C) NaOH solution (D) NaNO3 solution

9. The incorrect statement regarding silicones is

(A) they are polymers
(B) they contain carbon in addition to other elements
(C) all the atoms or groups present in it are hydrophilic
(D) they are formed through loss of water from two units of monomers

10. The rate equation of the following reaction is given below:

P ( g) + Q ( g) ⎯⎯→ Product
Rate = k P Q1/4
1/2

Choose INCORRECT statement for the reaction

3
(A) the overall order is
4
(B) the unit of rate constant is mol–1L2s-1
(C) the rate of reaction will increase by increasing the concentration of P and Q
(D) the rate of reaction will increase by increasing temperature

11. Which of the following reaction is not affected by changing pressure?

(A) 2SO3 ( g) 2SO2 ( g) + O2 ( g) (B) 2NO ( g) + O2 ( g) 2NO2 ( g)
(C) S ( s ) + O2 ( g) SO2 ( g) (D) N2O4 ( s ) 2NO2 ( g)

12. Which of the following two compounds form a buffer when mixed in 1 : 1 molar ratio?
(A) CH3COOH and NaOH (B) KOH and HCN
(C) NH4OH and CH3COOH (D) NH4OH and HCl

13. No P-V work is done in

(A) adiabatic process (B) isothermal process
(C) isochoric process (D) isobaric process

14. Which of the following is different between the inorganic benzene and organic benzene?
[At mass of B = 10]
(A) Number of atoms (B) Number of elements
(C) Molar mass (D) Number of electrons

15. The most unstable(thermally) compound of lead is

(A) Pb3O4 (B) PbO2
(C) PbI4 (D) Pb(CH3COO)2
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16. 3Fe ( s ) + 4H2O ( g) Fe3O4 ( s ) + 4H2 ( g)

What will be the equilibrium constant KP of the reaction if the number of moles of H2O and
H2 are same at equilibrium?
(A) Zero (B) One
(C) infinity (D) Unpredictable

17. Which of the following aqueous solution will have the highest pH at 25oC?
(A) Sugar (B) Common salt
(C) Vinegar (D) Lime water

18. If the entropy of the system of a reversible thermodynamic process is 50 J K–1 mol–1, what
will be the entropy of the surrounding in J K–1 mol–1 unit?
(A) -49 (B) -50
(C) more than -49 (D) more than -50

19. Which of the following factor can increase the solubility of Na2SO4 in water, for which the
heat of solution is 2.1 J mol–1?
(A) Increasing temperature (B) Adding more water
(C) Adding common salt (D) Cooling the solution

20. HBO2 is obtained by

(A) reacting B2H6 with O2 (B) heating H3BO3
(C) dehydrating Na2B4O7.10H2O (D) hydrolyzing BCl3

PART-B
Numerical Type

1. 75% of a first order reaction takes 8 minute for completion. What is the half-life period of the
reaction in minute unit?

2. What is the pH of 10–4 M solution of HCl?

3. One mole of an ideal gas was heated from 1000 K to 1010 K at constant pressure. If the
X
heat absorbed by the gas is expressed as calories. What is ‘X’?
100
 5 
CP = 2 R  C
 

4. How many 2c – 2e covalent bonds are present in diborane(B2H6) is:

5. X2 ( g) + Y2 ( g) ⎯⎯→ 2 XY
The heat of formation of XY according to above reaction is -11 kJ mol–1. Find the bond
energy of X2 in kJ mol-1 unit if that of Y2 and XY are 10 and 20 kJ mol–1 respectively?
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M a th e m a ti c s
PART – A
Straight Objective Type
This part contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. If (0, 4) and (0, 2) are respectively the vertex and focus of a parabola, then its equation is
(A) x2 + 8y = 32 (B) y2 + 8x = 32
2
(C) x - 8y = 32 (D) y2 - 8x = 32

2. If ,  are roots of equation x 2 − 2x + 4 = 0 then the value of 6 + 6 is

(A) 64 (B) 128
(C) 256 (D) None of these

3. Co-ordinates of the focus of the parabola x2 –4x –8y –4 = 0 are

(A) (0, 2) (B) (2, 1)
(C) (1, 2) (D) (-2, -1)

4. If the distance between directrix and latus rectum of a parabola is 4 units, then length of its
latus rectum is
(A) 4 units (B) 8 units
(C) 2 units (D) None of these

5. If x2 + 6x +19 = 0 and ax2 + bx + c = 0 have a common root and a, b ,c  N then minimum

value of a + b + c is equal to
(A) 9 (B) 25
(C) 19 (D) 26

6. The fourth term of an A.P is 4.Then the sum of the first 7 terms is
(A) 4 (B) 28
(C) 16 (D) 40

a2 a3
7. The sequence loga,log ,log 2 ,...... is
b b
(A) a G.P (B) an A.P
(C) an H.P (D) none of these
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8. If two arithmetic means A1, A2, two geometric means G1, G2 and two harmonic means H1, H2
A1 + A 2 H1H2
are inserted between any two numbers, then  =
H1 + H2 G1G2

(A) 2 (B) 1/2

(C) 1 (D) none of these

9. Maximum value of 5 + 4x – x2, is

(A) 5 (B) 6
(C) 9 (D) 1

10. The number of terms common to the two A.Ps 2 + 5 + 8 + 11+ ... + 98 and
3 + 8 + 13 + 18 + 23 + ...198
(A) 33 (B) 40
(C) 7 (D) none of these

11. Image of the focus in any tangent of a parabola lies on

(A) Tangent at vertex (B) Directrix of parabola
(C) Axis of parabola (D) None of these

12. If the fifth term of a G.P. is 2, then the product of its first 9 terms is
(A) 256 (B) 512
(C) 1024 (D) None of these

13. If a, b,c are positive real numbers such that a3 + b3 + c 3 = 3abc, then for the equation
ax 2 + bx + c = 0
(A) at least one root is positive (B) both roots are positive
(C) both roots are imaginary (D) none of these

14. The value of ‘a’, for which ( a2 + 4a + 3 ) x 2 + ( a2 – a – 2 ) x + a ( a + 1) = 0 is satisfied by more

than two distinct values of x, is
(A) 1 (B) 0
(C) –1 (D) none of these
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15. If the line x − 1 = 0 is the directrix of the parabola y2 − kx + 8 = 0 , then one of the values of k
is
1
(A) (B) 8
8
1
(C) 4 (D)
4

1 2 3
16. 2 2
+ 2 2
+ + .... up to n terms equals to
1 .3 3 .5 5 .7 2
2

n +1 n(n + 1)
(A) (B)
2n + 1 2(2n + 1)
2

n
(C) (D) None of these
2n − 1

13 + 23 13 + 23 + 33 13 + 23 + 33 + ..... + 153 1
17. The sum 1+ + + ...... + − (1 + 2 + 3 + ...... + 15 ) is
1+ 2 1+ 2 + 3 1 + 2 + 3 + ..... + 15 2
equal to
(A) 620 (B) 1860
(C) 1240 (D) 660

1
18. The most general solution of the equation tan  = −1, cos  = is
2
 n 7
(A) n + 7 (B) n + ( −1)
4 4
7
(C) 2n + (D) none of these
4

19. The most general solutions of the equation sec2 x = 2 (1 – tan2 x) are given by
 
(A) n + (B) n 
8 4

(C) n  (D) none of these
8
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x  x x− y
20. If  0, then tan −1   − tan −1   =
y  y x+ y
 
(A) (B)
 
  − 3
(C) (D) or
4 4 4

PART-B
Numerical Type

1. The sum of first 24 terms of an A.P a1,a2,a3,...........; if it is known that

a1 + a5 + a10 + a15 + a20 + a24 = 225 , is equal to

2. If 4log9 3 + 9log2 4 = 10logx 83 , then x is equal to

2
3. The sum of all real roots of the equation x − 2 + x − 2 − 2 = 0 is ______

4. Three non-zero numbers a, b and c are in A.P.. Increasing a by 1 or increasing c by 2 the

b
number become in G.P., then equals to
3

5. Suppose a, b, c are real roots of x 3 − x 2 − 2 = 0 , then the value of a3 + b3 + c 3 equals

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FIITJEE INTERNAL TEST

BATCH: PANINI325C-1
PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS
JEE MAIN-PHASE – II Paper Code
100599
ANSWER KEY
SECTION – I
(PHYSICS)
PART – A
1. B 2. C 3. A 4. C
5. D 6. D 7. C 8. A
9. D 10. C 11. B 12. B
13. A 14. D 15. C 16. A
17. B 18. D 19. A 20. C
PART – B
1. 5 2. 3 3. 4
4. 5.10 (range: 5.00 to 5.20) 5. 2

SECTION – II
(CHEMISTRY)
PART – A
1. D 2. B 3. B 4. B
5. B 6. B 7. C 8. C
9. C 10. B 11. C 12. C
13. C 14. B 15. C 16. B
17. D 18. B 19. A 20. B
PART – B
1. 4 2. 4 3. 0.5 4. 4
5. 8

SECTION – III
(MATHEMATICS)
PART – A
1. A 2. B 3. B 4. B
5. D 6. B 7. B 8. C
9. C 10. C 11. B 12. B
13. C 14. C 15. C 16. B
17. A 18. C 19. C 20. C
PART – B
1. 900 2. 10 3. 4 4. 4
5. 7

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