Science Grade 11

Competency: The learners should be able to describe the distribution of active volcanoes, earthquake epicenters, and
major mountain belts. (S10ES-Ia-j-36.1)

1. Which of the following BEST describes the waves of energy that the seismic waves produce?
a. Break the material that they pass through.
b. Plastically distort the material that they pass through.
c. Elastically distort the material that they pass through.
d. Permanently distort the material that they pass through.

Correct Answer : C
Rationalization: The phrase "elastically distort the material that they pass through" accurately describes seismic waves
because seismic waves propagate by causing temporary deformations or distortions in the material they travel through, but
without permanently altering its structure.

Competency: The learners should be able to describe the different types of plate boundaries. (S10ES-Ia-j-36.2)

2. What type of convergent plate boundary triggers the formation of active volcanoes as magma rises beneath the surface?
a. oceanic-oceanic boundary
b. oceanic-continental colliding boundary
c. continental-continental colliding boundary
d. subduction boundary

Correct Answer : B
Rationalization: When one oceanic plate collides with a continental plate, it often results in the formation of a subduction
zone. In this context, the type of convergent plate boundary that commonly triggers the formation of active volcanoes as
magma rises beneath the surface is the subduction zone where an oceanic plate is being forced beneath another plate.

Competency: The learners should be able to compare the relative wavelengths of different forms of electromagnetic
waves. (S10ES-IIa-b-47)

3. What similarities exist between mechanical and electromagnetic wave?

a. Mechanical waves can only travel through a vacuum, but electromagnetic waves can travel
through a solid, liquid, or gas.
b. Mechanical waves can travel through a solid, liquid, or gas, but electromagnetic waves can only
travel through a solid.
c. Mechanical waves can travel through a solid, liquid, or gas, but electromagnetic waves can only
travel through a gas.
d. Mechanical waves can only travel through a solid, liquid, or gas, but electromagnetic waves can
travel through a vacuum.

Correct Answer : D
Rationalization: Both types of waves propagate energy through a medium, although the nature of the medium differs.
Mechanical waves, such as sound waves and seismic waves, require a material medium (solid, liquid, or gas) for
propagation, whereas electromagnetic waves can propagate through vacuum as well as through various materials.

Competency: The learners should be able to compare the relative wavelengths of different forms of electromagnetic
waves. (S10ES-IIa-b-47)

4. Which among the following statements BEST describes the microwaves?

a. Microwaves have more energy than radio waves.
b. It is the only EM wave that is visible through the naked eye.
c. It is an EM wave with a relatively short wavelength and high frequency.
d. It is classified as radio waves, but they have low frequencies than other radio waves.

Correct Answer: A
Rationalization: Microwaves are a form of electromagnetic radiation with wavelengths longer than those of visible light
but shorter than those of radio waves. They occupy the electromagnetic spectrum between infrared radiation and radio
waves.

Competency: The learners should be able to predict a qualitative characteristic of images formed by curved mirrors and
lenses. (S10FE-IIg-50)

5. If the image of an object is seen in a plane mirror, which of the following does the distance from the mirror to the image
will depend on?
a. The wavelength of light used for viewing.
b. The distance from the object to the mirror.
c. The time it took for light to strike and reflect in the mirror.
d. The distance of both the observer and the object to the mirror.

Correct Answer: B

Rationalization: The distance between the object and the plane mirror determines the distance of the image from the
mirror. In general, the image formed by a plane mirror is located at the same distance behind the mirror as the object is in
front of it. This is known as the "law of reflection" and is a fundamental principle in optics.

Competency: The learners should be able to predict a qualitative characteristic of images formed by curved mirrors and
lenses. (S10FE-IIg-50)

6. Which of the following refers to an image formed when the light rays do not actually pass through the image location,
and would not appear on paper or film placed at that location?
a. real image c. source image
b. virtual image d. original image

Correct Answer: B

Rationalization: When light rays do not actually converge at the image location, and the image formed is not a real
image, it is called a virtual image. Virtual images cannot be projected onto a screen or captured on paper or film because
they do not result from the convergence of light rays.

Competency: The learners should be able to predict a qualitative characteristic of images formed by curved mirrors and
lenses. (S10FE-IIg-50)

7. Which of the following differentiates a converging mirror from a diverging mirror?

a. Diverging mirror is used to focus light while a converging mirror is not used to focus light.
b. Converging mirror bulges towards the light source while in a diverging mirror, the reflecting surface is recessed
inward.
c. Converging mirror reflects light inward to one focal point. It is used to focus light while the diverging mirror
reflects light outwards.
d. Diverging mirror reflects light inward to one focal point. It is used to focus light while the converging mirror
reflects light outwards.

Correct Answer: C

Rationalization: Converging Mirror: Converging mirrors have a real focal point located on the side opposite the object.
It is the point where parallel incident rays converge after reflection.
Diverging Mirror: Diverging mirrors have a virtual focal point located on the same side as the object. It is the point from
which the reflected rays appear to diverge after reflection.

Competency: The learners should be able to describe the parts of the reproductive system and their functions. (S10LT-
IIIa-33)

8. What is the primary function of the human male reproductive system?

a. It provides a site for fertilization. c. It protects and nourish the embryo.
b. It produces and transport gametes. d. It prevents urine from leaving the body.

Correct Answer: B

Rationalization: The primary function of the human male reproductive system is to produce and deliver sperm, the male
reproductive cells, for fertilization of the female egg during sexual intercourse. This system is responsible for the
production, storage, and transportation of sperm, as well as the secretion of hormones necessary for male sexual
development and function.

Competency: The learners should be able to describe the parts of the reproductive system and their functions. (S10LT-
IIIa-33)
9. Which of the following BEST describes the formation of the zygote?
a. The enzymes released by the sperm cell breaks down the outer layers of the ovum.
b. The sperm cell reaches the ovaries then penetrates the egg cell, destroying the follicles.
c. Fertilization takes place in the fallopian tube which allows the zygote to form and develop.
d. The acrosome enters the ovum, and the nuclei of the ovum and the sperm fuses together.

Correct Answer: D

Rationalization: The formation of the zygote occurs through the process of fertilization, which is the union of a sperm
cell and an egg cell (also known as an ovum or oocyte). Overall, the formation of the zygote marks the beginning of
embryonic development and represents the initial stage of a new individual's life. The zygote contains the full complement
of genetic information required for the development and growth of the organism.

Competency: The learners should be able to explain the role of hormones involved in the female and male reproductive
systems. (S10LT-IIIb-34)

10. What is the role of Luteinizing Hormone during the menstrual cycle?
a. It stimulates the growth of endometrium lining.
b. It inhibits the development of another follicle by inhibiting FSH.
c. It causes ovulation and the ruptured follicle to develop into corpus luteum.
d. It stimulates the development of follicles, which in turn leads to estrogen secretion, which in turn inhibits FSH.

Correct Answer: C

Rationalization: LH surge is responsible for triggering ovulation, the release of a mature egg from the ovarian follicle.
Around mid-cycle, typically between days 12 and 16 of a 28-day cycle, a surge in LH secretion occurs. This surge causes
the mature follicle to rupture, releasing the egg into the fallopian tube, where it can potentially be fertilized by sperm.

Competency: The learners should be able to explain the role of hormones involved in the female and male reproductive
systems. (S10LT-IIIb-34)

11. What is the role of FSH during the menstrual cycle?

a. It stimulates the growth of the endometrium lining.
b. It inhibits the development of another follicle by inhibiting FSH.
c. It causes ovulation and ruptured follicle to develop into a corpus luteum.
d. It stimulates the development of follicles which in turn leads to estrogen secretion.

Correct Answer: C

Rationalization: Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) plays a crucial role in regulating the menstrual cycle, particularly
during the follicular phase. The menstrual cycle is divided into several phases, including the follicular phase, ovulation,
and the luteal phase. FSH is secreted by the anterior pituitary gland, and its levels fluctuate throughout the menstrual cycle
under the influence of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis.

Competency: The learners should be able to describe how the nervous system coordinates and regulates these feedback
mechanisms to maintain homeostasis. (S10LT-IIIc-36)

12. Which of the following refers to the process where the zygote becomes a small ball of cells (blastocyst) that attaches
itself to the uterine wall?
a. Conception c. Fertilization
b. Implantation d. Pregnancy

Correct Answer: B

Rationalization: Implantation occurs when the blastocyst attaches itself to the uterine wall (endometrium). This process
typically occurs around 6-10 days after fertilization. The trophoblast cells of the blastocyst adhere to the uterine lining,
and eventually, the blastocyst burrows into the endometrium, establishing a connection between the developing embryo
and the mother's blood supply.

Competency: The learners should be able to describe how the nervous system coordinates and regulates these feedback
mechanisms to maintain homeostasis. (S10LT-IIIc-36)

13. Which of the following BEST describes the function of the motor neurons? The motor neurons __.
a. receive initial stimuli from receptors
b. read impulses sent by the sensory neurons
c. transmit impulses from the brain and spinal cord to the effector cell or organ
d. keep the body working properly despite the constant changes that takes place around it
Correct Answer: C

Rationalization: Motor neurons play a critical role in coordinating and controlling movement, maintaining posture and
balance, mediating reflex responses, regulating autonomic functions, and controlling glandular secretions. Dysfunction or
damage to motor neurons can lead to various neurological disorders, such as paralysis, muscle weakness, and impaired
coordination.

Competency: The learners should be able to recognize the major categories of biomolecules such as carbohydrates, lipids,
proteins, and nucleic acid. (S10MT-IVc-d-22)

14. Why do some people suffer from diarrhea when they consume dairy products?
a. Undigested lactose is utilized by microorganisms that cause diarrhea.
b. Undigested lactose in dairy products irritates the intestinal tract that causes diarrhea.
c. Undigested lactose prevents water absorption by the intestines, which leads to diarrhea.
d. Undigested lactose from dairy products attracts water in the intestines that leads to diarrhea.

Correct Answer: C

Rationalization: Some people experience diarrhea after consuming dairy products due to a condition called lactose
intolerance. Lactose intolerance is the inability to digest lactose, which is the sugar found in milk and dairy products, due
to insufficient levels of lactase, the enzyme that breaks down lactose in the small intestine.

Competency: The learners should be able to recognize the major categories of biomolecules such as carbohydrates, lipids,
proteins, and nucleic acid. (S10MT-IVc-d-22)

15. Why are plant oils liquid at room temperature?

a. The cyclic structure of the fatty acids in plant oils prevents solidification.
b. The cis-double bonds prevent the efficient packing of fatty acid molecules.
c. The trans-double bonds prevent the efficient packing of fatty acid molecules.
d. The saturated fatty acids in plant oils require lower temperature to freeze.

Correct Answer: C

Rationalization: The presence of unsaturated fatty acids with double bonds in plant oils prevents them from solidifying at
room temperature, making them remain in a liquid state. This property is advantageous for various culinary and industrial
applications, such as cooking oils, salad dressings, and cosmetics.