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Test Booklet

Series Written Test Paper, 2022 Test Booklet No.


Paper No.
A LAW OFFICER
13
Name of Applicant ............................................................ Answer Sheet No. ....................................

Application No. : SVSU/2020/Estt/NT/ ......................... Signature of Applicant : ............................

Date of Examination: 28 / 01 / 2022 Signature of the Invigilator(s)


1. ..................................................
Time of Examination : .......................................
2. ..................................................

Duration : 2 Hours] [Maximum Marks : 100


IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
(i) The question paper is in the form of Test-Booklet containing 100 (Hundred) questions. All questions
are compulsory. Each question carries four answers marked (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only
one is correct.
(ii) On receipt of the Test-Booklet (Question Paper), the candidate should immediately check it and
ensure that it contains all the pages, i.e., 100 questions (70 in Part-A + 30 in Part–B). Discrepancy,
if any, should be reported by the candidate to the invigilator immediately after receiving the Test-
Booklet.
(iii) A separate Answer-Sheet is provided with the Test-Booklet/Question Paper. On this sheet there are
100 rows (70 in Part-A + 30 in Part–B) containing four circles each. One row pertains to one question.
(iv) The candidate should write his/her Application number at the places provided on the cover page of
the Test-Booklet/Question Paper and on the Answer-Sheet and NOWHERE ELSE.
(v) No second Test-Booklet/Question Paper and Answer-Sheet will be given to a candidate. The candidates
are advised to be careful in handling it and writing the answer on the Answer-Sheet.
(vi) For every correct answer of the question One (1) mark will be awarded. For every unattempted
question, Zero (0) mark shall be awarded. There is no Negative Marking.
(vii) Marking shall be done only on the basis of answers responded on the Answer-Sheet.
(viii) To mark the answer on the Answer-Sheet, candidate should darken the appropriate circle in the row
of each question with Blue or Black pen.
(ix) For each question only one circle should be darkened as a mark of the answer adopted by the
candidate. If more than one circle for the question are found darkened or with one black circle any
other circle carries any mark, the question will be treated as cancelled.
(x) The candidates should not remove any paper from the Test-Booklet/Question Paper. Attempting to
remove any paper shall be liable to be punished for use of unfair means.
(xi) Rough work may be done on the blank space provided in the Test-Booklet/Question Paper only.
(xii) Mobile phones (even in Switch-off mode) and such other communication/programmable devices are
not allowed inside the examination hall.
(xiii) No candidate shall be permitted to leave the examination hall before the expiry of the time.

DO NOT OPEN THIS QUESTION BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO.


1 [P.T.O.
13 / 1
2
PART–A

1. In which of the following case, the supreme 4. In which of the following cases, the supreme
court has held that right to peaceful protest court has held that the Government
is a fundamental right guaranteed in this Employees can also file Public Interest
constitution and this right is subject to Investigation since the right to Judicial
reasonable restriction in the interest of Remedies is a Constitutional right available
sovereignty and integrity of India as well to all citizens of India?
as public order : (A) Vijay Shankar Pandey vs. Union of
(A) Anita Thakur vs. Government of India
J and K (B) T.S.R. Subramanian vs. Union of India
(B) Hardik Patel vs. State of Gujarat (C) Manohar Lal Sharma vs. Union of
India
(C) Priya Pillai vs. Union of India
(D) Common Cause vs. Union of India
(D) None of the above

5. In which of the following cases the Supreme


2. Which of the following Judges upheld Court held that 'the quality of nation's
the 99th constitution Amendment relating civilization can be largely measured by the
to National Judicial Appointments methods it uses in the enforcement of law'?
Commission :
(A) A.R. Antulay vs. R.S. Nayak
(A) Justice A. K. Giyal (B) Joginder Kumar vs. State of UP
(B) Justice Chelameswar (C) Sheela Barse vs. State of Maharastra
(C) Justice Kurian Joseph (D) ADM Jabalpur Case
(D) Justice M. Lokur

6. The provision for granting anticipatory bail


3. Against which of the following former are not applicable to the offences under
Supreme Court judges, parliament passed a which of the following Act
resolution condemning his comment above (A) The Domestic Violence Act
Mahatma Gandhi? (B) The Scheduled Castes and Scheduled
(A) Markandey Katju Tribes (Prevention of atrocities) Act
(B) A.K. Ganguly (C) The Prevention of Food Adulteration
Act
(C) K.G. Balakrishnan
(D) NDPS Act
(D) A.K. Goyal

3 [P.T.O.
13 / 2
7. Failure to comply with the directions issued 11. In which of the following section of
by Supreme Court in Arnesh Kumar vs. Indian Contract Act Frustration of Contract
State of Bihar regarding the arrest of persons is provided?
shall render the Police Officers liable for : (A) Section 73
(A) Departmental action (B) Section 17
(B) Contempt of Court (C) Section 56
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Section 30

(D) Fine
12. In which of the following cases it was held
that a contract through Telephone is
8. A Decree passed without Jurisdiction is : considered concluded at the place where
(A) Regular acceptance is heard?
(B) Improper (A) Bhagwan Das vs. Girdharilal
(C) Curable (B) Carlil vs. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co.
(C) Laxman vs. Gouri Dutt
(D) Nonest
(D) Satya Brata Ghosh vs. Mugneeram

9. In which of the following cases Supreme


13. A contract of life insurance, the performance
Court held that material date for deciding
of which depends upon a future event falls
'Sufficient Cause' for non- appearance is the
under category of ;
date of passing the Ex-parte decree and not
(A) Contract of Indemnity
his previous or past defaults ?
(B) Contract of Guarantee
(A) G.P. Srivastava vs. R.K. Raizada
(C) Contingent Contract
(B) Pirgonda Patil vs. Kalgonda Patil
(D) Special type of Contract.
(C) Rajesh Kumar vs. K.K. Modi
(D) None of the above 14. In which of the following cases the Supreme
Court upheld that dishonest intention is an
10. Can a Judge pronounce a Judgment written essence under Section 13 of The Prevention
but not pronounced by his predecessor ? of Corruption Act, 1988 :
(A) C.K. Jaffer Sharief vs. State
(A) Yes
(B) Madhukar Bhaskarrao vs. State of
(B) No
Maharashtra
(C) Yes, but with permission of High Court (C) Keshav Dutt vs. State of Haryana
(D) None of the above (D) None of the above

4
15. In which of the following cases a seven 19. Which of the following is not a statutory
judge's bench laid down 'Triple Test' to authority of the university?
consider scope of Industry? (A) Court
(A) State of Bombay vs. Bombay Hospital (B) Executive council
Majdoor Sabha (C) Academic council
(B) Banglore Water Supply vs. A. Rajappa (D) Admission committee
(C) Management of Safdarjung vs.
Kuldeep Singh 20. Who is appointing authority to appoint a
professor in a University?
(D) None of the above
(A) Vice- chancellor
(B) Haryana Public Service Commission
16. In which section of Factories Act, 1948 (C) Executive Council of university on
'Hazardous process' is defined? recommendation of selection
(A) Section2(c)(a) committee
(B) Section2(bb) (D) Search committee
(C) Section 2(cb)
(D) Section 2(e) 21. Which is the final authority for approval of
university budget?
17. In which section of The Patent Act, 1970 (A) Executive council
'Non-Patentable Inventions' are given : (B) Finance committee
(C) State Government
(A) Section 3
(D) University court
(B) Section 2
(C) Section 5
22. Which of the following is not a capital
(D) Section 4 expenditure as per financial rules?
(A) Construction of buildings
18. What is the term of Copy Right in case (B) Purchase of equipments
of Sound Recording under The Copy Right (C) Purchase of furnitures
Act : (D) Payment of electricity charges
(A) 60 years from publication of sound
recording 23. As per J.C. Bose University of Science &
(B) 50 years from publication of sound Technology, YMCA , Faridabad, the vice
recording chancellor shall cease to hold office on
(C) 70 years from publication of sound attaining the age of:
recording (A) 60 years
(D) 40 years from publication of sound (B) 65 years
recording (C) 68 years
(D) 70 years

5 [P.T.O.
24. A instigate B to cause Grievous Hurt to Z. 28. In which of the following cases the Supreme
B, does so but Z dies in consequence. Here Court has directed to upload copy of FIR
if A knew that the grievous hurt abetted within 24 hours of lodging?
was likely to cause death. For which of the (A) D.K.Basu vs. State of Bihar
following offences A is liable?
(B) Youth Bar Association of India vs.
(A) A is not liable for punishment of
Union of India
murder
(C) Thakur Ram vs. State of Bihar
(B) A is liable for punishment of murder
(D) Gyan Singh vs. State of Punjab
(C) A is liable for grievous hurt
(D) None of the above
29. Section 165 of Indian Evidence Act gives
25. Which of the following is a leading case power to put questions to the witness by :
on 'grave and sudden Provocation' Exception (A) Prosecutor
1 to Section 300 IPC? (B) Defense Counsel
(A) Jagrup Singh vs. State of Haryana
(C) Judge
(B) K.M. Nanawati vs. State of
(D) By both Prosecutor and Defense
Maharashtra
Counsel
(C) Daserath vs. State of Bihar
(D) Ujagar Singh vs. Emperor
30. 'Right to life' does not include 'right to die'.
26. Who said "Directive Principles of State It has been held in case of :
Policy are the conscience of the constitution (A) P Rathinam vs Union of India
which embody the Social Philosophy of the (B) Bandhua Mukti Morcha vs Union of
Constitution"? India
(A) Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru (C) A.K. Gopalan vs State of Madras
(B) A.V. Dicey
(D) Gian Kaur vs State of Punjab
(C) B.R. Ambedkar
(D) K.C. Wheare
31. Government doctors cannot be prosecuted
27. In which of the following cases it was held for corruption for engaging in private
by Supreme Court held that an amendment practice. This was held by the Supreme
under Article 368 was law within the Court in
meaning of Article 13? (A) Kanwaljit Singh Kakkar vs State of
(A) Golaknath vs. State of Punjab Punjab
(B) Sajjan Singh vs. State of Rajasthan
(C) Shankari Prasad Singh vs. Union of (B) Dr. Nupur Talwar vs CBI
India (C) Hameeda Sarfaraj vs M S Kashekar
(D) Keshavanandan Bharti case
(D) None of the above
6
32. Which one of the following statement is 36. Under section 51 of the Registration Act
correct? which of the following books is the 'Register'
The 'alibi' under section 11 of the Indian of non-testamentary documents relating to
Evidence Act, 1872 is decided on the basis immovable property
of preponderance of : (A) Book 1
(A) Probability (B) Book 2
(B) Probability beyond all reasonable (C) Book 3
doubt (D) Book 4
(C) Possibility beyond all reasonable doubt
(D) Improbability as well as beyond all 37. 'Harbouring an offender is an offence
reasonable doubt punishable under section 212 of the Indian
Penal Code. The word 'Harbour' is defined
33. The period of 90 days or 60 days, for the in ……… of the Indian Penal Code
purpose of compulsory bail under section (A) Section 51A
167(2) of the Code of Criminal Procedure, (B) Section 52A
has to be computed from the (C) Section 53A
(A) Date of remand (D) Section 54A
(B) Date of arrest by the police
(C) Date of FIR 38. In which of the following cases, the
(D) None of the above Supreme Court held that the 'Hicklin' test of
obscenity has been uniformly applicable in
34. Which section of the Indian Penal Code has India?
been declared unconstitutional and violative (A) Ranjit Udeshi vs State of Maharashtra
of Article 14 and 21 of the Constitution of (B) Samaresh Bose vs. Amal Mitra
India? (C) Bobby Art International and others vs
(A) Section 314 Om Pal Singh Hoon
(B) Section 301 (D) None of the above
(C) Section 303
(D) Section 306 39. In which of the following cases did the
Supreme Court hold that 'a criminal trial is
35. In which of the following cases a not an enquiry into the conduct of an accused
Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court for any purpose other than to determine
held that lottery tickets are not goods? whether he is guilty of the offence charged'?
(A) Sunrise Associates vs. NCT Delhi (A) Palwinder Kaur vs. State of Punjab
(B) Vikas Sales Corporation vs CCT New (B) Anantha Chintaman Lagu vs. State of
Delhi Bombay
(C) Sugar Mills vs CST (C) Guddu vs. State of MP
(D) State of MP vs Orient Paper Mills (D) None of the above

7 [P.T.O.
40. The accused is in police custody; during the 44. The period of limitation for any suit for
absence of the police officer, the accused which no period of limitation is provided
makes a confession to a third person. Such elsewhere in the Schedule of the Limitation
confession is…….. Act,1963 is?
(A) Admissible (A) One year
(B) Not Admissible (B) Three years
(C) Not relevant
(C) Thirty years
(D) None of the above
(D) Twelve years

41. 'A breach of condition may be treated as a


breach of warranty and not vice versa'. The 45. 'Immovable property' has been defined
statement is in………
(A) True (A) The Transfer of Property Act, 1882
(B) False
(B) The Registration Act, 1908
(C) Depends
(C) The General Clause Act, 1897
(D) None of the above
(D) All of the above

42. Which of the following sections of the


Limitation Act, 1963 deals with the effect 46. In which of the following cases, the
of acknowledgement in writing? Supreme Court upheld the constitutional
(A) 17 validity of the Right to Information
(B) 18 Act, 2005?
(C) 19 (A) Namit Sharma vs. Union of India
(D) 20 (B) CBSE vs. Aditya
(C) ICAI vs. Shaunk Satya
43. In which of the following cases has the
(D) None of the above
Constitution bench of the Supreme Court of
India held that when a debt becomes time
barred, it does not become extinguished but 47. Which of the following is covered by the
ony become unenforceable in a court of law? Right to Information Act, 2005?
(A) Siathalavi vs. State (A) Supreme Court
(B) Balakrishnan vs. Krishnamurthy
(B) High Courts
(C) Bombay Dying and Manufacturing
(C) Both (A) and (B)
Company Ltd vs. State of Bombay
(D) None of the above (D) Neither (A) nor (B)

8
48. Information seeker requested the Public 52. First Education Policy in India was
Information Officer to cullout information introduced by Govt. of India in the year
from some document(s) and give such
(A) 1949
extracted information to him. Is the PIO
bound to give the information as requested? (B) 1968
(A) Yes (C) 1986
(B) No
(D) 1992
(C) Depends
(D) None of the above
53. As National Education Policy 2020, the
49. Does an examinee's right to information affiliating system i.e. Colleges affiliated to
under the Right to Information Act, 2005 State Universities shall be dismantled by the
include a right to inspect his evaluated year
answer books in a public examination or (A) 2025
taking certified copies thereof?
(A) Yes (B) 2030
(B) No (C) 2035
(C) Depends (D) 2040
(D) None of the above

50. The FIR can be quashed in the exercise of 54. As per Clause 12.3 of the Haryana
inherent powers by Vishwakarma University Act 2016, the
(A) The Magistrate's Court Search Committee for recommending a panel
(B) The Court of Session for the post of Vice Chancellor shall have

(C) The High Court (A) One nominee of the Chancellor and
(D) Either (A) or (B) or (C) two nominees of the Executive
Council.
51. Which Section of UGC Act, 1956 provides (B) Two Nominees of the Chancellor and
of establishment of a Deemed to be one nominee of the Executive Council.
University by Ministry of Education Govt.
(C) One nominee of the Chancellor, one
of India
nominee of the Executive Council and
(A) Section 2f
one nominee of Department of Higher
(B) Section 3 Education.
(C) Section 12B
(D) None of the above.
(D) Section 22

9 [P.T.O.
55. Under which clause of the Haryana 59. Which authority/ officer of the University
Vishwakarma University Act 2016, the under the Haryana Vishwakarma University
Chancellor has the power to remove the Vice Act 2016 has the power to recommend the
Chancellor from office on the advice of State constitution of University Teaching
Government Department
(A) Clause 12(1) (A) Vice Chancellor
(B) Dean of the Faculty
(B) Clause 12(3)
(C) Skill Council
(C) Clause 12(9) (D) Academic Council
(D) Clause 13(1)
60. Which Statute under the Haryana
56. Which authority of the University under Vishwakarma University Act 2016 provides
Clause 25(1) under the Haryana for appointment of a Professor through
Vishwakarma University Act 2016, has the invitation from a person of high academic
power to make, amend, repeal or add distinction and profession attainment
Ordinance (A) Statute 21
(B) Statute 25
(A) Academic Council
(C) Statute 29
(B) Skill Council (D) There is no such provision in Statutes
(C) Executive Council
(D) Vice Chancellor 61. As per National Education Policy 2020,
which of the following in not proposed to
57. Which authority of the University under the be the entry qualification for admission in
PhD program leads to Doctoral Degree.
Haryana Vishwakarma University Act 2016
(A) Bachelor Degree of 4 years with
has the right to consider Annual report
Research
(A) Executive Council
(B) Master Degree
(B) Planning Board (C) M. Phil Degree
(C) Court (D) Integrated 5 Years Bachelor/ Master
(D) Academic Council Degree

62. As per National Education Policy 2020, by


58. As per the Haryana Vishwakarma University
2025 how many learners through school and
Act 2016, who will be ex-officio Secretary
higher education system shall have the
of the Faculties of the University
exposure to vocational education
(A) Dean of the Faculty (A) 25%
(B) Registrar (B) 33%
(C) Nominee of the Vice Chancellor (C) 40%
(D) None of the above (D) 50%

10
63. Under National Education Policy 2020, 67. Which of the following category of Higher
which new body is proposed to be Education Institutions havs not so far been
established to promote research and ranked under National Institution Ranking
innovation in Higher Education Institution Framework (NIRF)
(A) National Research Promotion Board (A) Medicine
(B) Dental
(B) National Research Fund
(C) Nursing
(C) Indian Research & Innovation (D) Pharmacy
Authority
(D) National Research Foundation 68. What is the Weightage of Combined Metric
for Publications under Research and
64. What recommendations has been made Professional Practice Parameter out of 100
under National Education Policy 2020 for under Overall Category for NIRF 2021
legal education for state institutions in term (A) 30
of medium of instructions (B) 35
(C) 40
(A) Language of the State
(D) 15
(B) English
(C) Both English & Language of the State 69. As per UGC Regulation on Minimum
(D) None of the above Qualification for Appointment of Teachers
and other Academic Staff in Universities and
Colleges and Measures for the Maintenance
65. Through which Amendment Act, Higher
of Standards in Higher Education, 2018,
Education was moved to Concurrent List
What is minimum requirement of experience
from the State List
from Assistant Professor to Associate
(A) 42nd Amendment Act Professor
(B) 44th Amendment Act (A) 5 Years
(C) 7th Amendment Act (B) 6 Years
(C) 7 Years
(D) None of the above
(D) 8 Years

66. Which of the following agency is not among 70. As per Apprenticeship Act, 1961, What is
the national coordinators of SWAYAM the minimum age limit for designated trades
(A) NPTEL related to hazardous industries
(B) NCTE (A) 14 Years
(B) 16 Years
(C) CEC
(C) 18 Years
(D) IGNOU (D) 21 Years

11 [P.T.O.
PART–B

(Question 71-75). Fill in the blank with most 75. There is no cure ______ common cold.
appropriate word out of the choices given. (A) For
(B) To
71. The work is ________ much for anyone to
do single handed. (C) Of

(A) so (D) In
(B) very
(C) too
76. The antonym of the word 'Cheerful' is-
(D) a lot
(A) winsome

72. Politics ______ with him, the business of (B) exullent


his life. (C) morbid
(A) were
(D) livid
(B) was
(C) are
(D) have been 77. The synonym of the word 'Dole' is-
(A) Amass
73. _________ a child in the way he should
(B) Dispute
go; and when he is old he will not depart
from it. (C) Allocate
(A) Train up (D) Forfeit
(B) Train
(C) Teach
78. "Louis Comfort Tiffany produced art glass,
(D) Educate upon
of such exquisite exceptionally high quality,
that he has achieved cult status." Replace
74. Tropical rainforests, choked in fog and the underlined words with the most
continuously ___________ bye mists and appropriate word out of the options.
downpours, are l least _______ by fire.
(A) Crumminess
(A) Rejuvenate, impact
(B) Approach, influence (B) Ordinariness

(C) Drenched, affected (C) Carelessness


(D) Influence, rejuvenate (D) Perfection

12
79. Which is the most correct Hindi translation 82. USB stands for
of the given sentence?
(A) Universal Serial Bus
"The corrected copy is put up for signature" (B) United System Bus

(A) (C) Universal System Bus


(D) United Serial Bus
(B)

(C)
83. Who is the first Indian woman to win two
(D) medals in Paralympics Games?
(A) Avani Lekhara
(B) Ekta Byan
80. The idiom 'Once over' means-
(C) Bhuvina Patel
(A) To do something quickly
(D) Kashish Lakra
(B) To do something elaborately

(C) To do something perforce 84. As of January 2022, what is the rate of


interest applicable for Sukanya Samriddhi
(D) To do something for others
Yojana?

(A) 7.1%
81. Arrange the four parts to form a meaningful (B) 7.5%
sentence.
(C) 7.6%
like mine even to some with tin ear
(D) 7.4%
P Q R
the singing sounded melodious
S 85. After retirement a judge can undertake
(A) PQRS private practice of law-

(A) In the same court


(B) RQPS
(B) only in Lower court
(C) SPQR
(C) Wherever he or she wishes
(D) SQPR
(D) Another court of same level or Higher
Court

13 [P.T.O.
86. Where is the Silicon Valley located? 90. Which of the following arrangement is
right ascending order as per the size of
(A) West Central California
continents
(B) Eastern Asia (A) Australia, North America, Europe,
(C) Central Europe Africa

(B) Australia, Europe, North America, Asia


(D) New York State
(C) Australia, Africa, Europe, Asia
(D) Australia, Africa, North America, Asia
87. Indian Constitution is regarded as-

(A) Federal
91. Haryana Shares borders with-
(B) Parliamentary
(A) Four states
(C) Unitary
(B) Three State and one union territory
(D) Federal in form and unitary in Spirit (C) Four states and one union territories
(D) Three states and two Union territories
88. Who among the following have never been
Chief Minister of Haryana?
92. Which one of the following is not a writ?
(A) Bhagwat Dayal Sharma (A) Habeas Corpus
(B) Banarsi Das Gupta (B) Mandamus
(C) Bansi Lal (C) Certiorari

(D) Kaptan Singh Solanki (D) Severability

89. Which of the following is an extra 93. Which one of the following countries has
constitutional body? the maximum time difference from
Greenwich Mean Time?
(A) Language Commission
(A) India
(B) Election Commission
(B) Nepal
(C) Planning Commission (C) Bhutan
(D) Finance commission (D) Sri Lanka

14
94. Which one of the following countries is not 98. Recently which of the following has been
a permanent member of G7? declared as National Startup Day for India?
(A) India (A) 16th January
(B) France (B) 16th February
(C) Germany (C) 14th January
(D) Japan (D) 14th April

95. If in '634537672', 1 is added to all even (Question 99-100). Fill in the blank with most
numbers and 1 is subtracted from all odd appropriate word out of the choices given.
numbers, what is sum of the digits, fifth
from the left and forth from the right end?
(A) 8 99. Fifteen minutes______ allowed to each
(B) 11 speaker.

(C) 10 (A) are


(D) None of these
(B) is

(C) have been


96. The idiom 'To level with' means
(A) To be honest (D) have

(B) To be on a plane
(C) To cheat someone 100. He had got _________ to the top when the
(D) To take revenge rope broke.

(A) almost
97. S&P Global Ratings has retained the Gross
Domestic Product (GDP) growth forecast (B) very much
of India unchanged at 9.5 percent for the (C) dearly
financial year 2021- 22 (FY22). What is it
for the year ending FY23? (D) but

(A) 5.7 percent


(B) 7.8 percent
(C) 9.7 percent
(D) 9.5 percent

15 [P.T.O.
ROUGH WORK

16
13 LAW OFFICER
Sr. no. Answer Sr. no. Answer Sr. no. Answer Sr. no. Answer
1 A 26 D 51 B 76 D
2 B 27 A 52 B 77 C
3 A 28 B 53 C 78 D
4 A 29 C 54 B 79 B
5 B 30 D 55 C 80 A
6 B 31 A 56 C 81 C
7 C 32 A 57 C 82 A
8 D 33 C 58 B 83 A
9 A 34 C 59 C 84 C
10 A 35 A 60 C 85 B
11 C 36 A 61 C 86 A
12 A 37 A 62 D 87 D
13 C 38 A 63 D 88 D
14 A 39 B 64 C 89 C
15 B 40 A 65 A 90 A
16 C 41 A 66 B 91 B
17 A 42 B 67 C 92 D
18 A 43 C 68 B 93 C
19 D 44 B 69 D 94 A
20 C 45 D 70 C 95 A
21 D 46 A 71 C 96 A
22 D 47 C 72 B 97 B
23 C 48 B 73 A 98 A
24 B 49 A 74 C 99 B
25 B 50 C 75 A 100 A

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