Hi Everyone,

let's dive into our discussion:

 What happens if we graph both and on the same set of axes, using the x-
axis for the input to both and ?

When you graph a function and its inverse on the same set of axes, the graphs are
symmetric with respect to the line y = x. The point of intersection is always on this line, and
the graphs essentially swap x and y coordinates. The graph of appears on one side, and its
reflection across y = x represents .

 My inverse function example:

1. The graph for Function: \( f(x)=x^2-4\) {-4 < x < 0} is in Red

2. The graph for the inverse which is: \( f(x) = - \sqrt{x+4} \) {-4 < x < 10} is in Blue
3. The axis of symmetry is in Green
  Is it true that ? why?

Since \( f(x) = x+1 \) & \( f^2 \circ f = f \circ f \), it makes:

o \( f^2 = (x+1)+1 \)
o \( f^2=x+2 \)

Following:

o \( f^2 \circ f = (x+1)+2 \)

o \( f^2 \circ f = (x+3) \)
As also we can asume:

o \( f \circ f^2 = (x+2)+1 \)

o \( f \circ f^2 = x+3 \)

Since it is true that \( x+3 = x+3 \), \( f^2 \circ f = f \circ f^2 \).
<LINE>

 Is the set { l } infinite? Why?

The domain of \( g \circ f \) is dependent to the range of \( f(x) \): (\( -\inft, \inft \)) and that \
( g \circ f \) = \( f \circ g \) and \( g: R \rightarrow R \) is the reason that the domain \( f \circ g
\) mus also be (\( -\inft, \inft \)) which is infinite.