Classroom Contact Programme: Paper-2

Test Pattern
(1001CJA101021230012) )1001CJA101021230012)
English
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME JEE(Advanced)

UNIT TEST
(Academic Session : 2023 - 2024) 09-07-2023
JEE(Main+Advanced) : ENTHUSIAST COURSE [PHASE : TMAS]
Time : 3 Hours PAPER-2 Maximum Marks : 183
IMPORTANT NOTE : Students having 8 digits Form No. must fill two zero before their Form No.
in OMR. For example, if your Form No. is 12345678, then you have to fill 0012345678.
READ THE INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY

GENERAL :
1. This sealed booklet is your Question Paper. Do not break the seal till you are told
to do so.
2. Use the Optical Response sheet (ORS) provided separately for answering the questions.
DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS WITHOUT BEING INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE INVIGILATOR

3. Blank spaces are provided within this booklet for rough work.
4. Write your name, form number and sign in the space provided on the back cover of this
booklet.
5. After breaking the seal of the booklet, verify that the booklet contains 24 pages and
that all the 18 questions in each subject and along with the options are legible. If not,
contact the invigilator for replacement of the booklet.
6. You are allowed to take away the Question Paper at the end of the examination.
OPTICAL RESPONSE SHEET :
7. The ORS will be collected by the invigilator at the end of the examination.
8. Do not tamper with or mutilate the ORS. Do not use the ORS for rough work.
9. Write your name, form number and sign with pen in the space provided for this purpose
on the ORS. Do not write any of these details anywhere else on the ORS. Darken
the appropriate bubble under each digit of your form number.
DARKENING THE BUBBLES ON THE ORS :
10. Use a BLACK BALL POINT PEN to darken the bubbles on the ORS.
11. Darken the bubble COMPLETELY.
12. The correct way of darkening a bubble is as :

13. The ORS is machine-gradable. Ensure that the bubbles are darkened in the correct
way.
14. Darken the bubbles ONLY IF you are sure of the answer. There is NO WAY to erase
or "un-darken" a darkened bubble.
15. Take g = 10 m/s2 unless otherwise stated.
QUESTION PAPER FORMAT :
16. The question paper has three parts : Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics.
Please see the last page of this booklet for rest of the instructions
Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2024/09-07-2023/Paper-2
ALLEN®
SOME USEFUL CONSTANTS
Atomic No. : H = 1, B = 5, C = 6, N = 7, O = 8, F = 9, Al = 13, P = 15, S = 16,
Cl = 17, Br = 35, Xe = 54, Ce = 58
Atomic masses : H = 1, Li = 7, B = 11, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24,
Al = 27, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, Ca=40, Fe = 56, Br = 80, I = 127,
Xe = 131, Ba=137, Ce = 140
· Boltzmann constant k = 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1

1
· Coulomb's law constant = 9 ×10 9
4 pe0
· Universal gravitational constant G = 6.67259 × 10–11 N–m 2 kg–2
· Speed of light in vacuum c = 3 × 108 ms–1
· Stefan–Boltzmann constant s = 5.67 × 10–8 Wm–2 –K–4
· Wien's displacement law constant b = 2.89 × 10–3 m–K
· Permeability of vacuum µ0 = 4p × 10–7 NA–2
1
· Permittivity of vacuum Î0 =
m0 c2
· Planck constant h = 6.63 × 10–34 J–s
Space for Rough Work
E-2/24 1001CJA101021230012
Enthusiast Course/Phase-TMAS/09-07-2023/Paper-2
BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING
PART-1 : PHYSICS
SECTION-I (i) : (Maximum Marks: 28)
This section contains SEVEN (07) questions.
Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct
answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all ) the correct answer(s)
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen.
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and
both of which are correct.
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
For Example : If first, third and fourth are the ONLY three correct options for a question with second
option being an incorrect option; selecting only all the three correct options will result in +4 marks.
Selecting only two of the three correct options (e.g. the first and fourth options), without selecting any
incorrect option (second option in this case), will result in +2 marks. Selecting only one of the three
correct options (either first or third or fourth option), without selecting any incorrect option (second
option in this case), will result in +1 marks. Selecting any incorrect option(s) (second option in this
case), with or without selection of any correct option(s) will result in –2 marks.
1001CJA101021230012 E-3/24
1. The figure shows the variation of electrostatic potential V in volt with the distance of position of point
along x axis from origin due to continuous volume charge distribution in the region x = – 1m to x = + 1m,
the graph is parabolic (V = 15 – 5x2) and rest portion of graph is straight line. Choose the CORRECT
option(s)
( ε 0 → permittivity of free space = 8.85 × 10 –12 N –1 m –2 C2). The direction of E along positive x-axis is
→
considered as positive.
(A) This graph of potential may be due to a thick sheet of infinite dimension (– 1m ≤ x ≤ 1, – ∞ < y < ∞
and –∞ < z < ∞ ) with constant volume charge density 1.77 × 10–19 C/m2.
(B) This graph of potential may be due to a thick sheet of infinite dimension ( – 1m ≤ x ≤ 1, – ∞ < y < ∞
and – ∞ < z < ∞ ) with constant volume charge density 0.885 × 10 –10 C/m3.
(C)
(D)
E-4/24 1001CJA101021230012
2. The given two fixed rings of radius R lie in XY plane as shown in the figure. Linear charge density of
the rings A and B varies as per the relation λ = λ 0 sin θ and λ = λ 0cos θ respectively where θ is
measured from +x axis. Distance between the centre of the two rings is r >> R.
2 4
3 λ0 π R
(A) Force of interaction between the two ring is × ( ) .
4 ∈0 r
2 4
(B) Force of interaction between the two ring is 3 λ0 π R
× ( ) .
2 ∈0 r
π λ 20 R4
(C) Potential energy of interaction between the two ring is .
4 ε 0 r3
(D) Potential energy of interaction between the two ring is zero.
3. A point charge q is placed at P(0, 0, a). Then select correct alternatives.
q q q
(A) > ϕ OAB > (B) ϕ OAC =
24 ε 0 48 ε 0 48 ε 0
(C) ϕ ABC < ϕ ABO (D) ϕ OAC < ϕ OBC
4. A satellite revolves around a spherical planet in a stable elliptic orbit. Its speed at perigee is 2 km/s and
its speed at apogee is 1 km/s. Its farthest distance from the planet's centre is 6000 km. Then which of the
following statements are correct?
(A) The eccentricity of its orbit is 1/2.
(B) The line joining the planet's center to the satellite sweeps out an area of 1.8 × 1011 m2 in each minute.
(C) The planet's radius must be less than 3000 km.
(D) The gain in its potential energy when it travels from the perigee to apogee is 3/4 times its
kinetic energy at the perigee.
1001CJA101021230012 E-5/24
5. Two satellites of same mass of a planet in circular orbits have periods of revolution 32 days and 256
days. If the radius of the orbit of the first is R, then the
(A) Radius of the orbit of the second is 8R
(B) Radius of the orbit of the second is 4R
(C) Total mechanical energy of the second is greater than that of the first.
(D) Kinetic energy of the second is less than that of the first.
6. In the potentiometer arrangement shown, the driving cell D has emf ε and internal resistance r. The cell C,
whose emf is to be measured, has emf ε /2 and internal resistance 2r. The potentiometer wire is 100-cm
long. If balance is obtained at the length AJ = ℓ .
(A) ℓ = 50 cm
(B) ℓ > 50 cm
(C) Balance will be obtained only if resistance of AB is ≥ r
(D) Balance cannot be obtained
7. In the circuit shown AB is potentiometer wire of length 10 m and resistance 500 Ω . CD is a 1 m wire of
meter bridge which is balanced at CP = 20 cm. Given that when the potential difference across R1 is
applied across XY the balancing length on potentiometer is 2 m and for potential difference across R2,
the corresponding length is 8 m. Then :-
R1 1
(A) =
R2 4
(B) Potential difference across R1 is 1V
(C) Potential difference across R2is 4V
(D) EMF of the battery E = 5V
E-6/24 1001CJA101021230012
SECTION-I (ii) : (Maximum Marks: 18)
This section contains SIX (06) questions of matching type.
This section contains TWO tables (each having 3 columns and 4 rows)
Based on each table, there are THREE questions
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct
For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct option in the ORS.
For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories :
Full Marks : +3 If only the bubble corresponding to the correct option is darkened.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases
Paragraph for Questions 8 - 10

Three columns are given. Column – I shows conductor in different situation, whereas column – II and
column-III represents magnitude of electric field and modulus of potential at point ‘P’ respectively.
Column-I Column-II Column-III
Electric field & potential at ‘P’ due to charges on shell
is E & V respectively.
5Kq 15Kq
(I) (i) E= (P) V =
8R2 6R
Solid conductor of inner radius R and outer radius 2R.

Net Electric field & potential at ‘P’ is E & V
respectively.
4Kq 4Kq
(II) (ii) E= (Q) V =
9R2 6R
Electric field & potential at ‘P’ due to charges on shell

is E & V respectively.
2Kq 17Kq
(III) (iii) E = (R) V =
9R2 6R
P point lies on the axis of co-axial rings having radius R

and 3R & charges 2q & q respectively.
√ √
(IV) (iv) E = 4Kq (S) 9Kq

V =
R2 6R
1001CJA101021230012 E-7/24
8. Choose the correct option:
(A) (IV)-(i)-(Q) (B) (III)-(iv)-(P) (C) (III)-(iii)-(Q) (D) None
(A) (II)-(i)-(Q) (B) (I)-(ii)-(R) (C) (I)-(iii)-(Q) (D) None
(A) (II)-(iv)-(P) (B) (II)-(iii)-(P) (C) (II)-(iii)-(Q) (D) None
A particle is taken to a distance r(> R) from centre of the earth. R is radius of the earth. It is given
velocity V which is perpendicular to →r . With the given values of V in column I you have to match the
values of total energy of particle in column II and the resultant path of particle in column III. Here 'G' is
the universal gravitational constant and 'M' is the mass of the earth.
(Velocity) (Total Energy) (Path)
(I) GM (i) Negative (P) Elliptical
V =√
r
(II) 2GM (ii) Positive (Q) Parabolic
V =√
r
(III) 2GM (iii) Zero (R) Hyperbolic
V >√
r
(IV) GM 2GM (iv) Infinite (S) Circular
√
<V <√
r r
11. Choose the correct option :
(A) (I)-(i)-(S) (B) (II)-(iv)-(R)
(C) (III)-(ii)-(Q) (D) (IV)-(iii)-(P)
(A) (I)-(i)-(R) (B) (II)-(iii)-(Q)
(C) (III)-(ii)-(S) (D) (IV)-(iv)-(P)
(A) (III)-(ii)-(R) (B) (II)-(i)-(S)
(C) (I)-(iii)-(P) (D) (IV)-(iv)-(Q)
SECTION-II
No question will be asked in section II
E-8/24 1001CJA101021230012
SECTION-III : (Maximum Marks: 15)
This section contains FIVE (05) questions.
The answer to each question is a SINGLE DIGIT INTEGER ranging from 0 to 9, both inclusive.
For each question, enter the correct integer value of the answer in the place designated to enter the
answer.
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct answer is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
1. In the circuit shown in figure each battery is 5 V and has an internal resistance of 0.2 Ω . What is the
reading of ideal voltmeter V (in Volt )?
2. The energy required to dislodge 25% mass of a planet of mass M and radius R, so that is can form a
0.21 GM 2
satellite orbiting at a radius of 1.5 R from the centre of the planet, is given by E = . What is
x R
the nearest integer value of x? Assume that both the bodies are of spherical shape. [G – universal
1/3
4
gravitational constant. Take 41/3 = 1.6 and ( ) = 1.1]
3
3. A particle of mass m is moving in circular motion of radius r with constant speed v in influence of two
fixed particles of mass M. Plane of circular motion is perpendicular to line joining fixed particles as
GM
shown. Speed of particle is given as v = √
find value of n (a = r 3)
√
nr
1001CJA101021230012 E-9/24
4. A ring of mass m and radius 3R is rotating with constant angular speed ω around a planet of mass M and
GMm
radius R. Center of ring and planet concide with each other. Tension in the ring is given as T = .
3n π R2
GM
Find value of n ω =
( √ ) .
9R3
5. A solid sphere of radius ‘R’ is uniformly charged with charge density ρ in its volume. A spherical cavity
R
of radius is made in the sphere as shown in the figure. The electric potential at the centre of the
2
n ρ R2
sphere is . Find the value of n.
12 ∈ 0
E-10/24 1001CJA101021230012
PART-2 : CHEMISTRY
answer(s).
correct option.
1. Which of the following reaction will generate 3° alcohol?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(i) Mg /dry ether

(D) −−−−−−−−−−→
(ii) aq. NH4 Cl
1001CJA101021230012 E-11/24
2. Correct option amongst the following is/are :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
3. Spinel is an important class of oxides consisting of two types of metal ions with the oxide ions arranged
in CCP pattern. The normal spinel has one-eighth of the tetrahedral holes in the crystal structure
occupied by one type of metal ions and one-half of the octahedral holes in the crystal structure occupied
by another type of metal ions. One such type of a spinel is formed by Zn2+, Al3+ and O2– ions. The
simplest formula of this spinel can not be :
(A) ZnAl2O4 (B) Zn2AlO4
(C) Zn2Al3O4 (D) ZnAlO2
4. Which of the following plot(s) is/are correct for a sample of ideal gas in given conditions ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
E-12/24 1001CJA101021230012
5. Werner synthesized and resolved a polynuclear complex containing no carbon atom,
Tris[tetraamine-µ-dihydroxidocobalt(III)]cobalt(III) cation also called Hexol.
Select the correct statement(s) regarding given complex Hexol.
(A) Total 3 octahedral units in one complex ion.

(B) Octahedral units joined by common edges between two units.
(C) Shows optical isomerism.
(D) Total 6 bridging hydroxide ligands.
6. Consider the given set of species and select correct statements.
H2 , Li2 , B2 , C2 , N2 , O2 , F2
Condition 1 ⇒ Diamagnetic molecule
Condition 2 ⇒ Last e – present in gerade B.M.O.
Condition 3 ⇒ On e – addition stability decreases.
(A) Only three species follows all three conditions
(B) Only two species follows only two conditions
(C) Only one specie follows only one condition
(D) Only one specie that do not follow any of above condition
7. Select correct option for given options.
(i) Glycinate (gly)
(ii) Acelylacetanato (acac – )
(iii) Dipyridine (dipy)
(iv) Butylenediamine (bn)
(v) Ethylenediamine (en)
(vi) 1,10-phenthroline (o-phen)
(vii) Acetate (OAc – )
(viii) EDTA4– (Ethylenediaminetetraacetate)
(ix) Diethylene triamine (dien)
(A) Six ligands form 5 member ring with atleast 2 nitrogen atoms and metal centre
(B) One ligands form 5 member ring with two oxygen atom and metal centre
(C) Seven ligands form 5 member ring with 2 carbon atoms and metal centre
(D) Three ligands already contain 6 member ring.
1001CJA101021230012 E-13/24
Initially 'a' moles of A react with 2 moles of B in a 1 litre container according to given reactions for
different values of 'a' :
A(g) + 2B(g) → C(g) + D(g)
Has highest value of May be an elementary
(I) r = (2 × 10 –3) [A]1/2 [B]1/2 (i) (P)
half life reaction
a=1
2A(g) + B(g) → C(g) + 2D(g)
Has lowest value of Must be a complex
(II) r = (2 × 10 –3) [A]1 [B]0 (ii) (Q)
half life reaction
a=4
After equal time
A(g) + B(g) → 2C(g) + D(g) intervals remaining
–3 Reaction is complete in
(III) r = (2 × 10 ) [A] [B] (iii) (R) concentrations of B
definite time
a=2 will be in geometric
progression
After equal time
A + 3B → 2C(g) + 3D(g) intervals remaining
–3 0 2 Reaction is complete in
(IV) r = (2 × 10 ) [A] [B] (iv) (S) concentration of B
infinite time
a = (2/3) will be in harmonic
progression
8. For given reactions only correct option will be :
(A) (I) (ii) (P) (B) (II) (iii) (R) (C) (III) (i) (P) (D) (IV) (ii) (P)
9. For given reactions only incorrect option will be :
(A) (I) (iii) (Q) (B) (II) (iv) (R) (C) (III) (iv) (P) (D) (IV) (ii) (Q)
10. For (I) correct option will be :
(A) (I) (iii) (Q) (B) (I) (iv) (R) (C) (I) (i) (S) (D) (I) (ii) (Q)
E-14/24 1001CJA101021230012

(a) [Pt(NH3)4Cl2]Br2 (i) Inner orbital complex (p)Total possible isomers = 3
(b) [Co(en)(NH3)2Cl2]Cl (ii) Low spin complex (q)Total possible isomers = 6
(c) K2[Ni(CN)4] (iii)Outer orbital complex (r) Total possible isomers = 8
(d) K4[Ni(SCN)6] (iv) High spin complex (s) Total possible isomers = 10
11. Select the CORRECT combination is :
(A) a-ii-p (B) b-iv-q
(C) c-i-s (D) d-iii-s
12. Select INCORRECT combination is :
(A) a-ii-q (B) a-i-q
(C) c-ii-q (D) c-i-r
13. Select CORRECT combination in which maximum number of unpaired electrons present in complex :
(A) b-i-p (B) c-iii-q
(C) d-iii-s (D) d-iv-s
SECTION-II
1001CJA101021230012 E-15/24
answer.
1. How many reagents can be used for the given conversion.
(1) Cu, 300°C (2) KMnO4 /H ⊕ (3) PCC /CH2Cl2 (4) K2Cr2O7 /H ⊕
(5) MnO2 (6) Al(OCMe3)3/Acetone
(7) NBS (8) (i) TsCl (ii) DMSO (iii) NaHCO3
(9 (i) DIBAL-H (ii) H2O
2. How many reaction represent the correct major product :
(i) (ii)
(iii) (iv)
NaBH4
(v) −−−−→ (vi)
(vii)
(viii)
(ix)
E-16/24 1001CJA101021230012
3. A strong current of trivalent gaseous boron passed through a silicon crystal decreases the density of the crystal
due to part replacement of silicon by boron and due to interstitial vacancies created by missing Si atoms. In
one such experiment, one gram of silicon is taken and the boron atoms are found to be 1000 ppm, by mass,
when the density of the Si crystal decreases by 12%. The percentage of missing vacancies due to silicon,
which are filled up by boron atoms is (Atomic masses : Si = 30, B = 11)
[Give your answer as nearest integer]
4. In the given reaction sequence, find number of possible 5 and 6 membered Lactone(s) having different
boiling points :
5. (a) (b) (c)
(d) (e) (f)
(g) (h) (i)
(j)
X = Number of compounds giving (+) test with AgNO3 / NH4OH
Y = Number of compounds giving yellow colour with I2+ NaOH
Find X – Y = ?
1001CJA101021230012 E-17/24
PART-3 : MATHEMATICS
answer(s).
correct option.
2 2 y2
1. If esin x +y
( )
= tan + sin−1 x, then y ′ (0) can be -
4
1 1
(A) (B) −
3√ π 3√ π
1 1
(C) − (D) −
5√ π 3 √5 π
2. If cot θ + tan θ = x and sec θ – cos θ = y wherever defined the which of following is/are true ?
(A) xsin θ cos θ = 1 (B) sin2 θ = ycos θ
(C) (x2y)2/3 + (xy2)2/3 = 1 (D) (x2y)2/3 – (xy2)2/3 = 1
d2y
3. For the curve sinx + siny = 1, lim (x α ) exists then α can be
x→0 dx2
3
(A) (B) 2
2
5
(C) (D) 1
2
E-18/24 1001CJA101021230012
2 2 2
4. Let x 3 + y 3 = a 3 , (a > 0) be the equation of curve then which of the following is/are correct ?
x y
(A) Equation of tangent at (x1, y1) on the curve is + = a2/3
1/3 1/3
x1 y1
(B) Length of portion of tangent intercepted between the coordinate axes is constant.
(C) If tangent at any point on the curve meet the coordinate axes in A and B, then locus of
a2
midpoint of AB is x2 + y 2 =
4
(D) Equation of normal at (x1, y1) on the curve is xx1/3 1/3 4/3 4/3
1 − yy1 = x1 + y1
5. If the curves y = 2(x – a)2 and y = e2x touches each other, then 'a' is less than -
(A) – 1 (B) 0 (C) 1 (D) 2
n
49
6. Let Sn = ∑ tan−1 then cot( lim Sn ) is equal to
n→ ∞
k=0 49k2 + 63k + 57
(A) 0.24 (B) 0.14 (C) 24 (D) 14

7. Given that ƒ(x) is a function defined on R, satisfying ƒ(1) = 1 and for any x ∈ R,
ƒ(x + 5) ≥ ƒ(x) + 5 and ƒ(x + 1) ≤ ƒ(x) + 1. If g(x) = ƒ(x) + 5 – x, then g(2023) is greater than or equal
to -
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6
1001CJA101021230012 E-19/24
Columns I, II and III contain function, domain and range respectively.

1 − x2 −π π
(I) f(x) = cos−1 ( ) (i) ( – 7, ∞ ) – {9} (P) ( , )
1+ x2 2 2
3x − x3
(II) g(x) = tan−1 ( ) (ii) ( – ∞ , ∞ ) (Q) [0, π )
1 − 3x2
√ x+7−4 −1 1
(III) h(x) = π ( ) (iii) R − { , } (R) [ – π , π ]
x−9 √ 3 √ 3
(IV) k(x) = π ( sin √x2 + cos √x2 ) (iv) [0, ∞ ) (S) ( 0,

π
] −{
π
}
√ 2 4 8
8. Which of the following options is the only CORRECT combination ?

(A) (I) (iv) (Q) (B) (III) (i) (P)
(C) (IV) (ii) (R) (D) (II) (iii) (S)
(A) (II) (ii) (P) (B) (I) (ii) (Q)
(C) (III) (i) (R) (D) (IV) (iv) (R)
(A) (IV) (ii) (Q) (B) (I) (iv) (Q)
(C) (II) (iii) (R) (D) (III) (i) (S)
E-20/24 1001CJA101021230012

|sin x|
f (x) = sgn( ) maximum value of
(I) sin x (i) even (P)
(where sgn(.) is signum function) f(x)=1
1 7 17
f (x) = ({x} + {x + } + {x + }) value of f(x) is
(II) 2 3 3 (ii) odd (Q)
(where {.} represents fractional part function) always less than 1
2 π minimum value of
(III) f (x) = [max {∣∣ − cos−1 cos x∣∣ , |sin x|}] (iii) periodic (R)
π 2 f(x)=0
1 minimum value of
(IV) f (x) = (iv) bounded (S)
|x − 1| + |x| + |x + 1| |f(x)|=1
(A) (I) (ii,iv) (Q,S) (B) (I) (ii,iii,iv) (P,S)
(C) (II) (iii,iv) (P,R) (D) (IV) (i,iv) (P,R)
(A) (II) (ii,iii) (P,R) (B) (II) (iii,iv) (Q)
(C) (III) (iii,iv) (Q,S) (D) (III) (i,iv) (P,R)
(A) (III) (i,iii,iv) (P) (B) (III) (ii,iv) (P,Q)
(C) (IV) (i,iv) (P,R) (D) (IV) (i,iii,iv) (Q)
SECTION-II
1001CJA101021230012 E-21/24
answer.
2 d3y d2y dy
1. If y = ℓ n
( ( x + √x2 + 1)) and (x2 + 1) + (px + q) +r = sy, then value of (p + q + r + s) is
dx3 dx2 dx
2. Number of points where ƒ(x) = |(2x – 1).(3x – 3)x.(x – 1).(x – 2)| is not differentiable
x2 x3 x4 x5
3. Let ƒ(x) = x + + + + and g(x) = ƒ –1(x), then |g ″ (0)| is
2 3 4 5
4. The number of solution of equation 2sin 2x + sinx (1 – 2cos 2x) – 4 = 0 in the interval (0, π ) :
5. Let ƒ(x) = g(x). sgn(x3 + 6x2 + 11x + 6), where sgn denotes signum function & g(x) = ax3 + x2 + x + 1,
then minimum number of points of discontinuity of the function ƒ(x) is
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CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME JEE(Advanced)

Time : 3 Hours PAPER-2 Maximum Marks : 183

READ THE INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY

DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS WITHOUT BEING INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE INVIGILATOR

11. Darken the bubble COMPLETELY.

12. The correct way of darkening a bubble is as :

· Boltzmann constant k = 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1

BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING

Paragraph for Questions 8 - 10

Solid conductor of inner radius R and outer radius 2R.

Electric field & potential at ‘P’ due to charges on shell

P point lies on the axis of co-axial rings having radius R

(IV) (iv) E = 4Kq (S) 9Kq

1. Which of the following reaction will generate 3° alcohol?

(i) Mg /dry ether

(A) Total 3 octahedral units in one complex ion.

Paragraph for Questions 11 - 13

5. (a) (b) (c)

(d) (e) (f)

(g) (h) (i)

(A) 0.24 (B) 0.14 (C) 24 (D) 14

Column-I Column-II Column-III

(IV) k(x) = π ( sin √x2 + cos √x2 ) (iv) [0, ∞ ) (S) ( 0,

8. Which of the following options is the only CORRECT combination ?

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