Test Pattern

(1001CJA101021230011) )1001CJA101021230011)
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME JEE(Main)
UNIT TEST
(Academic Session : 2023 - 2024) 09-07-2023
JEE(Main+Advanced) : ENTHUSIAST COURSE [PHASE : TMAS]
Time : 3 Hours PAPER-1 Maximum Marks : 300
IMPORTANT NOTE : Students having 8 digits Form No. must fill two zero before their Form No.
in OMR. For example, if your Form No. is 12345678, then you have to fill 0012345678.

READ THE INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY

Important Instructions :
1. Immediately fill in the form number on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball Point
Pen. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
2. The candidates should not write their Form Number anywhere else (except in the specified

DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS WITHOUT BEING INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE INVIGILATOR

space) on the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
3. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions.
4. There are three parts in the question paper 1,2,3 consisting of Physics, Chemistry and
Mathematics having 30 questions in each subject and each subject having Two sections.
(i) Section-I contains 20 multiple choice questions with only one correct option.
Marking scheme : +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
(ii) Section-II contains 10 Numerical Value Type questions. Attempt any 5 questions.
First 5 attempted questions will be considered for marking.
Marking scheme : +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
5. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writting particulars/marking responses on Side–1 and
Side–2 of the Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
6. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, mobile
phone any electronic device etc, except the Identity Card inside the examination hall/room.
7. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the invigilator on
duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidate are allowed to take away this Test Booklet
with them.
9. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.
10. Take g = 10 m/s2 unless otherwise stated.

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Form Number : in figures
: in words
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 PART-1 : PHYSICS

SECTION-I : (Maximum Marks: 80) 3. Four charges are arranged at the corners of a square
This section contains 20 questions. Each question has 4 ABCD, as shown. The net force on positive charge
options for correct answer. Multiple-Choice Questions kept at the centre of the square is
(MCQs) Only one option is correct. For each question,
marks will be awarded as follows:
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is selected.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the option is selected.
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected.
(A) zero
1. Electric field at point P is given by E→ = E0→r . The
total flux through the given cylinder of radius R (B) along diagonal AC
and height h is :- (C) along diagonal BD
(D) perpendicular to the side AB
4. The density of charge at point P on the
conductor is σ . The resultant electric field near
P (just outside) will be :-

(A) E0 π R2h (B) 2E0 π R2h

(C) 3E0 π R2h (D) 4E0 π R2h
2. Statement-1 : Work done by electric field on
moving a positive charge on an equipotential
surface is always zero.
and
Statement-2 : Electric lines of forces are kQ1 ^ kQ2 ^
(A) (−j ) + (−i )
2
perpendicular to equipotential surface. r1 r22
(A) Statement – 1 is True, Statement – 2 is True ; kQ1 ^ kQ2 ^ σ ^
(B) (−j ) + (−i ) + (i )
Statement – 2 is a correct explanation for 2
r1 2
r2 ∈ 0
Statement – 1.
σ
(B) Statement – 1 is True, Statement – 2 is True ; (C) ∈ ^i
0
Statement – 2 is not a correct explanation for
Statement – 1. kQ1 ^ kQ2 ^ σ ^
(D) (j ) + (i ) + (−i )
2
r1 2
r2 ∈ 0
(C) Statement – 1 is True, Statement – 2 is False.
(D) Statement – 1 is False, Statement – 2 is True.
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5. Find out electric flux passing from a closed 7. In the circuit shown in the figure, if the potential at
Gaussian surface as shown in figure : point A is taken to be – 2V, the potential at point B
is :-

(A) – 3V (B) – 7V
(C) – 4V (D) None
q1 + q5 − q6
(A) 8. Net resistance between X and Y is –
ε0
q1 + q5 + q6
(B)
ε0
q1 + q2 + q3 + q4 + q5 + q6
(C)
ε0
q1 + q2 − q3 + q4 + q5 − q6
(D)
ε0
6. Two point charges Q1 and Q2 lie along a line at a
distance a from each other. Figure shows the
potential variation along line of charges then which (A) 5 Ω (B) 10 Ω (C) 15 Ω (D) 60 Ω
of the following statement is incorrect?
9. In the given bridge the value of X for which the
potential difference between the point B and D will
be zero is:

(A) Electric field is zero at point 3

(B) Q1 is positive and Q2 is negative
(C) Q1 is negative and Q2 is positive
(A) 5 Ω (B) 10 Ω
(D) |Q1| > |Q2|
(C) 15 Ω (D) 20 Ω
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10. A given resistance is connected with a battery of emf
170 volt exactly with negligible internal resistance.
Find the value of current flowing through resistor :-
13. The earth is moving on an elliptical path, whose one
focus sun is situated as shown in figure. If AS = rmin
and SB = rmax, the sun and earth system obey the
Kepler’s law, the square of time-period is directly
proportional to

(A) 1 mA ± 5% (B) 17 mA ± 5%
(C) 2 mA ± 10% (D) 15 mA ± 10%
11. A potentiometer has a resistance wire of 10 m
length and resistance 10 Ω as shown in figure. A
circuit is setup as shown. For null deflection in
galvanometer length AP is : (A) (rmin)3 (B) (rmax)3
3 3
rmin + rmax rmin rmax
(C) ( ) (D) ( )
2 rmin + rmax
14. When a satellite in a circular orbit around the earth
enters the atmospheric region, it encounters small
air resistance to its motion. Then

(A) 2m (B) 4.5 m (A) It kinetic energy increases

(C) 6.5 m (D) None of these (B) It kinetic energy decreases
12. For a wheatstone bridge shown; R1 > R2 and R3 = R4. (C) Its angular momentum about the earth
The direction of current in wire AB is: increases
(D) Its period of revolution around the earth
increases
15. Two spherical stars each of mass m with their centres
at distance D revolve under mutual gravitational
attraction about the point midway between their
centres. The period of revolution will be :-

(A) π D3 (B) 2 π D3
(A) From A to B √ √

2GM
GM
(B) No current flows in AB
(C) From B to A (C) 2 π √
2D3 (D) π √
GM
(D) Data is not sufficient GM D3

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16. A satellite is revolving round the earth in an orbit of 20. Two identical metal balls with charge +2Q and – Q
radius r with time period T. If the satellite is revolving are separated by some distance, and exert a force F
round the earth in an orbit of radius r + Δ r ( Δ r << r) on each other. They are joined by a long
with time period T + Δ T then :- conducting wire, which is then removed. The force
between them will now be
(A) Δ T 3 Δr (B) Δ T 2 Δr
= =
T 2 r T 3 r (A) F (B) F/2 (C) F/4 (D) F/8
ΔT Δr ΔT Δr
(C) = (D) =− SECTION-II : (Maximum Marks: 20)
T r T r
17. A planet revolves around the sun in an elliptical orbit. This section contains 10 questions Candidates have to
The linear speed of the planet will be maximum at attempt any 5 questions out of 10. If more than 5
questions are attempted, then only first 5 attempted
questions will be evaluated.
The answer to each question is a Numerical Value.
For each question, enter the correct integer value (In case
of non-integer value, the answer should be rounded off to
(A) D (B) B (C) A (D) C the nearest Integer).
18. Charge distribution on a ring in x-y plane is shown Answer to each question will be evaluated according to
in the figure. Then electric potential at O is : the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is entered.
Zero Marks : 0 If the question is unanswered.
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong answer is entered.
1. An electric field is given by E→ = 5i^ − (7y + 8) ^j − 3k^
(S.I. unit) crosses gaussian cube having side length
2m as shown in the figure. Then the net charge
enclosed in the cube in – x ∈ 0 (S.I. unit) then find x.

Q Q 3Q
(A) (B) Zero (C) (D)
4 π ∈ 0r 2 π ∈ 0r 4 π ∈ 0r
19. The equation of an equipotential line in an electric
field is y = 2x, then the electric field strength
vector at (1, 2) may be :
(A) 4i^ + 3j^ (B) 4i^ + 8j^
^ ^ ^ ^
(C) 8i + 4j (D) −8i + 4j

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2. Four +q charges are fixed on corner of square of 7. The gravitational field in a region is given
side a. A fifth charge +Q is brought by external by E→ = (3i^ − 4j^) N/kg. Find out the work done
agent slowly from infinity and placed at centre of (in joule) in displacing a particle by 1 m,
√ α kQq along the line 4y = 3x + 9 :
square. Work done by external agent is
a
1 8. Consider the potentiometer circuit arranged as in
(where k = ). Fill α .
4π ∈0 the figure. The potentiometer wire is 600 cm long.
3. Two charges +q1 and – q2 are placed at A and B Resistance of wire AB is 15r.
respectively. A line of force emanates from q1 at an At what distance (in cm) from Point A should the
angle α with the line AB. If it terminates at – q2 at jockey touch the wire to get zero deflection in the
q1 α galvanometer?
an angle P sin – 1 [√ sin ]. Find the value of P
q2 2

4. An infinitely long wire with linear charge density

λ 1 and a segment of length ℓ with charge density
λ 2 lie in a plane at right angle to each other and
seperated by a distance r0 as shown in figure. The
force with which these two interact is λ 1 λ 2 ℓ nx.
4π ε0
If ℓ = 2r0, then find the value of x.

9. The current in a wire varies with time according to

5. Find out the electric flux (S.I. unit) through an area
10 m2 lying in XY plane due to an electric field
→ = 2i^ − 10j^ + 5k^ (S.I. unit).
E
the equation I = 4 + 2t where I is in ampere and t is
in sec. Calculate the quantity of charge (in columb)
which has passed through a cross-section of the
wire during the time t = 2 sec. to t = 6 sec.
10. In the circuit shown in the adjoining figure, the
reading of ideal ammeter A is :

6. The density of core of a planet is ρ 1 and that of the

outer shell is ρ 2. The radii of the core and outer
shell of the planet are R and 2R respectively. If
acceleration due to gravity at the surface is half as
ρ
at a depth R then find 1 .
ρ2

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 PART-2 : CHEMISTRY

SECTION-I : (Maximum Marks: 80) 3. Match the molecules under list (1) with shapes
This section contains 20 questions. Each question has 4 under list (2) select the correct answers from the
options for correct answer. Multiple-Choice Questions sets (A), (B),(C) and (D) -
(MCQs) Only one option is correct. For each question,
marks will be awarded as follows: List (1) molecule List (2) shape
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is selected. (P) PCl5 (i) Linear
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the option is selected.
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected. (Q) XeF2 (ii) Triangular planar

1. Select the most appropriate option about ligand (R) SO3 (iii) Trigonal bipyramidal
considering below given reactions : (tu = thiourea) (S) PH3 (iv) Trigonal pyramidal
Reaction-1
(v) Tetrahedral
(A) P - (iv), Q - (i), R - (ii), S - (iii)
Reaction-2 (B) P - (iii), Q - (i), R - (ii), S - (v)
(C) P - (iii), Q - (i), R - (v), S - (iv)

(A) In reaction-1 product, thiosulphate act as (D) P - (iii), Q - (i), R - (ii), S - (iv)
bidentate ligand. 4. Column-I Column-II (Hybridisation,
(B) In reaction-2 product, thiosulphate act as
bidentate ligand. (Complex ion) No. of unpaired electrons)
(C) In reaction-1 product, tu act as bidentate ligand. (P) [Cr(H2O)6]3+ (1) sp3, 3
(D) In reaction-2 product, tu act as bidentate ligand. (Q) [Co(C ℓ )4]2 – (2) sp3d2, 5
2. Correct statement is : (R) [Ni(NH3)6]2+ (3) d2sp3, 3
(i) In 13th group stability of lower oxidation state
increases down the group (S) [MnF6]4 – (4) dsp3, 3
(ii) Pentavalent bismuth act as reducing agent
(iii) Pb4+ is good oxidising agent because Pb4+ (5) sp3d2, 2
have tendency to gain electron and convert into (A) P→3 , Q→1 , R→5 , S→2
more stable Pb2+ due to inert pair effect.
(iv) BiF3 exist where as BiF5 not exist. (B) P→3 , Q→5 , R→1 , S→2
(A) (i), (iv) (B) (i), (iii) (C) P→1 , Q→3 , R→5 , S→2
(C) (ii), (iii) (D) (ii), (iv) (D) P→3 , Q→1 , R→2 , S→5
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5. List-I List-II 8. A piston can freely move inside a horizontal
(Complex) (Property) cylinder closed from both ends. Initially, the piston
(P) [Ni(CO)4] (1) Paramagnetic separates the inside space of the cylinder into two
(Q) [Cu(NH3)4]SO4 (2) Diamagnetic equal parts each of volume V0, in which an ideal
gas is contained under the same pressure P0 and at
(R) K3[Co(CN)6] (3) Square planar
the same temperature. What work has to be
(S) [Mn(H2O)6]Cl2 (4) High spin performed in order to increase isothermally the
(5) Low spin volume of one part of gas h times compared to that
Select the most appropriate match :- of the other by slowly moving the piston ?
(A) P→3 , Q→1 , R→4 , S→4 (A) P0V0 ln η
(B) P→1 , Q→2 , R→5 , S→5 2
(B) P0V0 ln ( η + 1)
(C) P→2 , Q→1 , R→5 , S→4 4η
2
(D) P→2 , Q→3 , R→1 , S→5 (C) P0V0 ln ( η − 1)
4η
6. Select the correct statement(s) about [Fe(CN)6]3 – :-
(D) 2P0V0 ln η
(A) Total seven linkage isomers possible
9. At 35°C, the vapour pressure of CS2 is 512 mm Hg
(B) Optical isomerism not possible in any possible
and that of acetone CH3COCH3, is 344 mm Hg. A
linkage isomer.
solution of CS2 and acetone, in which the mole
(C) Total possible isomers = 10 fraction of CS2 is 0.25 has a total vapour pressure
(D) All of above are correct of 600 mm Hg. Which the following statement
7. which of the following overlaps is incorrect about solution of acetone and CS2 is true ?
(assuming Z-axis is internuclear axis)? (A) A mixture of 100 ml of acetone and 100 ml of
(i) 2py + 2py → π -Bond formation CS2 has a total volume of 200 ml.
(ii) 2px + 2px → σ -Bond formation
(iii) 3dxy + 3dxy → π -Bond formation (B) When acetone and CS2 are mixed at 35°C,
heat is released to surroundings.
(iv) 2s + 2py → π -Bond formation
(v) 3dxy + 3dxy → δ -Bond formation (C) When acetone and CS2 are mixed at 35°C,
(vi) 2pz + 2pz → σ -Bond formation heat is absorbed from surroundings.
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) (B) (iii), (vi) (D) Raoult's law is obeyed by both CS2 and
acetone for the solution in which the mole
(C) (ii), (v) (D) (ii), (iii), (iv)
fraction of CS2 is 0.25.
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10. For the given reaction :
2A(s) + B(g) ⇌ C(g) + 2D(s) + E(s), in cylinder
piston system the extent of reaction of B was found
to be 20% at 300 K and 24% at 500 K. The rate of
backward reaction :
(A) Increases with increase in pressure and
temperature.
13. Certain amount of oxygen gas was passed over
heated carbon, causing 80% of oxygen added to be
converted into CO gas, as per reaction
2C(s) + O2(g) → 2CO (g)
If the final gaseous mixture is allowed to effuse
then ratio of rate of effusion of CO to O2 will be

(B) Increases with increase in pressure and (A) √

8 (B) √
83
decrease in temperature. 7 7

(C) Depends on temperature only and decreases (C) √

42 × 8 (D) √
22 × 8
with increases in temperature. 7 7
14. Mark the correct option assuming monobromination
(D) Depends on temperature only and increases
with increase in temperature. in all reactions (include stereo isomers wherever
possible)
11. The composition of a sample of cuprous sulphide is
found to be Cu1.92 O1.00, due to metal deficient defect. List-I List-II
The molar ratio of Cu2+ and Cu+ ions in the crystal is :
Even number of optically
(A) 4 : 5 (B) 1 : 12.5 (P) (1)
−−→
Br2 active products
hv
(C) 1 : 23 (D) 1 : 24
Odd number of total
12. Methyl acetate was hydrolyzed in HCl aqueous (Q) (2) products obtained after
Br2
solution at 298K, samples of reaction mixture were −−→ fractional distillation
hv
withdrawn at different time intervals and titrated
with 0.12N NaOH sample whose volumes were Even number of total
(R) Br2
(3)
−−→ products
obtained as : hv

Even number of optically

(S) Br2 (4)
−−→ inactive products
hv
Half- life for the reaction below is :
⊕ (A) P→1,2,4 ; Q→2,3,4 ; R→1,3,4 ; S→1,3,4
CH3COOCH3(aq.) + H2O( ℓ ) −H−→ CH3COOH(aq.)
(B) P→1,3,4 ; Q→1,2,3 ; R→2,3,4 ; S→2,3,4
+ CH3OH(aq.)
(C) P→1,3,4 ; Q→2,3,4 ; R→2,3,4 ; S→1,3,4
(A) 12.5 minutes (B) 25 minutes
(D) P→2,3,4 ; Q→1,2,4 ; R→1,3,4 ; S→2,3,4
(C) 37.5 minutes (D) 50 minutes
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 18. The end product of following reaction is :
15. CH3 MgBr P hMgBr
−−−−−−→ −−−−−→
(1) (2)

Identify relationship between produts ?

(A) α -diketone
(A) Diastereo Isomers
(B) Enantiomers (B) α -Hydroxy acid
(C) Functional Isomers (C) 1, 2-Diol
(D) Geometrical Isomers (D) α -Hydroxy ketone
16. The correct sequence of reagents for the following 19. Identify the reactions which is not correctly
conversion is
matched with their major product?

Hg(CH3 COO)2 /H2 O Al2 O3 , Δ

(A)
(A) −−−−−−−−−−−−−→
NaBH4
−−−−→ −−−−−→
(1) (2) (3)
dil.H2 SO4
−−−−−−→
(4)

B2 H6 /T HF H2 O2 /OH Θ dil.H SO conc.H SO

(B) −−−−−−−→−−−−−−−→ −−−−2−−4→ −−−−−2−−4→
(1) (2) (3) (4) (B)
Dil.H SO Al O , Δ B2 H6 /T HF H2 O2 /OH Θ
(C) −−−−2−−4→ −−−
2 3
−−→ −−−−−−−→−−−−−−−→
(1) (2) (3) (4)

conc.H2 SO4 / Δ Hg(CH COO) /H O

(D) −Dil .H2 SO4 3
−−−−−→−−−−−−−−−→−−−−−−−−−−−−−→
2 2

(1) (2) (3)

NaBH4
−−−−→
(4) (C)
17. The structure of the starting material X is :

H3 O+
−−−→
3,4 – Dimethyl – 3 – hexanol
(D)
(A) (B)

(C) (D)

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 2. Out of the following. How many have correct IUPAC
20.
naming :
(1) [Ni(CN)4]2 – - Tetracyanonickel(II) ion
(Major product) (2) [Pt(py)4][PtCl4] - Tetrapyridineplatinum(II)
tetrachorideplatinate(II)
(3) [Ni (dmg)2] - Bis(dimethylglyoximato)nickel(II)
Identify P3 (4) K3[Fe(CN)5NO] - Potassium
pentacyanonitrosylferrate(II)
(A)
(5) [Fe(CO)5] - Pentacyanocaronylferrate(0)
(B) (6) K2[HgI4] - Potassiumtetraiodidomercurate(II)
(7) [Pt(NH3)4][CuCl4] - Tetraammineplatinum(IV)
(C) tetrachloridocuprate(II)
(8) [Cu(gly)2] - Diglycinatecopper(II)
(D) (9) K4[Fe(CN)6] - Potassium hexacyanidoferrate(II)
(10) [Pt(NH3)6]Cl4 - Hexaammineplatinum(IV)
SECTION-II : (Maximum Marks: 20) chloride.
This section contains 10 questions Candidates have to
attempt any 5 questions out of 10. If more than 5 3. Number of reactions giving either decarboxylation
or dehydration or both on heating :
questions are attempted, then only first 5 attempted
questions will be evaluated. (i)
The answer to each question is a Numerical Value.
For each question, enter the correct integer value (In case
of non-integer value, the answer should be rounded off to (ii)
the nearest Integer).
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to
(iii)
the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is entered. (iv)
Zero Marks : 0 If the question is unanswered.
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong answer is entered.
(v)
1. How many species have at least 1 lone pairs on its
central atom.
PCl4+, BrF5, TeF5 – , I(CN)2 – , ClF3, CH3+ , CO2 (vi)

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4. Vapour pressure of solution containing 6 g of a
non-volatile solute in 180 g water is 20 torr. If
1 mole of water is further added, vapour
CH3 MgBr
pressure increases by 0.02 torr. The molar mass 8. −−−−−−→
Excess
(in g/mol) of the non-volatile solute is.
5. Methane when solidified crystallizes in a structure
having cubic unit cell with edge length of 0.6 nm.
The density of solid CH4 is only slightly greater than How many moles of Grignard reagent are
the density of liquid CH4. If the density of liquid consumed in above 1 mole of given compound
CH4 is 0.5 g/cm3, the number of CH4 molecules per
9. In how many of the following cases ratio of sigma
unit cell in solid crystal of methane is : bond and pi bond is 1 : 1
6. The decomposition of A2B2 follows the rate equation (i) C2(CN)4 (ii) (CN)2 (iii) SO3 (iv) C3O2
r = K[A2B2]2. (v) CO2 (vi) S3O9 (vii) P4O6 (viii) P4O10
K
A2 B2 −→ A2 + B2 . The kinetic data of the reaction is
given below.
N2 H4 ,OH Θ
Initial conc. of A2B2 (mole/lit) 7 10. −−−−−−−→ (A)
Δ
First half life of A2B2 in sec. 1440
If the initial concentration of A2B2 were 56 m mol/lit, molecular mass of A is
Calculate the time (in sec) taken for the conversion of
A2B2 to reach 60% of initial value.
t
(Report your answer as )
1000
7. A cube shaped crystal of an alkali metal, 2 mm on an
edge, was vaporised in a 800 mL flask. The pressure
of the resulting vapour was 7.6 mm at 727° C. The
structure of the solid metal is known to be body
centred cubic. If volume of each unit cell of this
crystal is [P × 10 – 27 m3] then find value of (3P) ?
[Given : R = 0.08 L-atm mol – 1K – 1 , NA = 6 × 1023]

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 PART-3 : MATHEMATICS

SECTION-I : (Maximum Marks: 80) 6. The value of cos π cos 2 π cos 4 π cos 8 π is equal to -
5 5 5 5
This section contains 20 questions. Each question has 4
1 1 1 1
options for correct answer. Multiple-Choice Questions (A) (B) (C) − (D) −
16 4 8 16
(MCQs) Only one option is correct. For each question,
7. Number of solutions of the equation
marks will be awarded as follows:
tan θ + tan2 θ + tan3 θ = tan θ tan2 θ tan3 θ in (0, π )
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is selected.
is -
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the option is selected.
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected. (A) 5 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) zero

esin
−1
(x+h)
− esin
−1
x 8. The number of solutions of 2sin|x| = 4|cosx| in [ –π , π ] is -
1. If ƒ(x) = lim , then equation of
h→0 h (A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 6
tangent at x = 0 to the curve is given by -
(A) y = 2x + 1 (B) y = x + 3 9. The general solution of the equation
1
(C) 2x + y = 1 (D) y = x + 1 sin x − cos x = min { , x2 − 6x + 10} where n ∈ I,
√ 2
2. If y2 = 2ax, a > 0 and xy = 4 2 intersect√ is -
orthogonally, then 'a' equals to
(A) π + n π + (−1)n
π
(B) n π + (−1)n π −
π
1 3 4 6 6 4
(A) (B) 2 (C) (D) 4 π
2 2 (C) 2n π (D) 2n π +
a 2
3. Let ƒ(x)= xe – x(x + 1) is increasing in (−a, ),
10. As shown in the figure, the area of the trapezium
b
where a ∈ N, then value of (a + b) is 81
ABCD is , where a = 2b, then c is equal to -
1 2
(A) 3 (B) 1 (C) (D) 2
2
4. Range of ƒ(x) = k sinx + cosx is [ – 5, 5], then total
number of integers between the two possible value
of 'k' is -
(A) 11 (B) 10 (C) 9 (D) 5
5. If sinA + cosB = a and sinB + cosA = b, then sin(A + B)
(A) 9
is equal to - 2
(A) a2 + b 2 (B) a2 − b 2 + 2 (B) 3 √5
2 2
(C) √ 30
(C) a + b2 − 2
2
(D) a + b2 + 2
2

2 2 (D) none of these

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11. A value of c for which the Rolle's theorem holds 16. ƒ(x) = x5 + ex/3, g(x) = ƒ – 1(x) then g'(1) =
for the function ƒ(x) = 2x3 + x2 – 4x – 2 on the (A) 2 (B) 1
interval − 2, 2 is
[ √ √ ]
(C) 3 (D) None of these
3 4 2 2
(A) (B) (C) (D) −
5 5 3 3 2√x −2√x d2y 1 dy
17. y=e +e , then ( x + ) + 2 equals
12. A spherical balloon is filled with of 7500 π m3 dx2 2 dx
helium gas. If a leakage in the balloon starts at the to
rate of 100 π m3/min., then the rate (in m/min) at (A) y + 2 (B) xy + 2
which the radius of balloon will be decreasing after
y+8
30 minutes (C) (D) √ xy
4
4 2 1 1 18. Let
(A) (B) (C) (D)
9 9 9 3 ⎧ x2 e2(x−1) ; 0 ⩽ x ⩽ 1
13. Which of the following inequality is incorrect ? f(x) = ⎨
⎩
.
a sgn (x + 1) cos (2x − 2) + bx2 , 1 < x ⩽ 2
1 2 If f(x) is differentiable at x = 1, then (where sgn(x)
(A) ℓ n ( 1+ ) > for x > 0
x 2x + 1 denotes signum function of x)
π
(B) sinx < x < tanx for x ∈ ( 0, )
(A) a = – 1, b = 2 (B) a = – 3, b = – 2
2
π
(C) 2x secx + x > 3tanx for x ∈ ( 0, ) (C) a = – 3, b = 4 (D) a = – 5, b = – 4
2
(D) 2x π 19. Which of the following function is discontinuous at
sin x < for x ∈ ( 0, )
π 2 x = 0, if f(0) = 1
sin(sin2 x)
14. The function ƒ(x) = is (A) f(x) = ; (x ≠ 0)
( e|sin x| − 1) √x2
(B) f(x) = (1 + x)(sgn(x)) + x2 ; (x ≠ 0)
(A) discontinuous at x = 0
(where sgn(x) is signum function)
(B) continuous at x = 0 but not differentiable at x = 0
(C) f(x) = ( ℓ n(1 + tan2x))(cosec((ex – 1)2)); (x ≠ 0)
(C) both continuous and differentiable at x = 0
(D) differentiable but not continuous at x = 0 (D) f(x) = (1 + sin2x)cosecx; (x ≠ 0)

15. The value of 20. lim (√x2 − x + 1 − ax + 2b) = 0, then a = _____.

x→− ∞

1 (A) a = 0 (B) a = ± 2
lim ( θ 2 √ θ ⋅ sin( ) + 4 sin( θ √ θ )) θ is
θ →0+ θ
(C) a = – 1 (D) a = 1
(A) – 1 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) e
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 SECTION-II : (Maximum Marks: 20) 6. If x ∈ π , 3 π , then value of
( )
2
This section contains 10 questions Candidates have to
π x
attempt any 5 questions out of 10. If more than 5 4cos2 ( − ) + √4sin4 x + sin2 2x is equal to
4 2
questions are attempted, then only first 5 attempted
questions will be evaluated. 7. If A + B + C = π , and Σ sin 2A =λ ∏ sin
A
,
Σ sin A 2
The answer to each question is a Numerical Value. then value of λ is
For each question, enter the correct integer value (In case
of non-integer value, the answer should be rounded off to 8. 1
If f (x) + f ( 1− ) = 1 + x ∀ x ∈ R − {0, 1}, then
the nearest Integer). x
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to value of 16f(2) is
the following marking scheme:
9. For 0 < x < 1, if the solution of equation
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is entered.
3sin−1 (
2x
+ 2tan−1 (
2x
− 4cos−1 (
1 − x2
=
π
Zero Marks : 0 If the question is unanswered. 1 + x2
)
1 − x2
)
1 + x2
)
4
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong answer is entered. is 'K' then value of '100K' is (use √ 2 = 1.41)

1. If f(x) = 10x – 2x2, then 1 − cos(x2 − 6x + 8)

f(3 cosh +4 sinh −2) − 8 10. If lim = p, then value of
lim is equal to x→2 (x − 2)2
h→0 f(3eh − 5 sec h + 4) − 12
6
) is equal to
eax + ℓ n(1+4x)+b
(
x≠0 p
2. If ƒ(x) = { x3 is continuous at
L x=0
x = 0, then 12abL is equal to
3. Let f(x) = (x – 1)100 (x – 2)2(99) (x – 3)3(98) ....
f ′ (101)
(x – 100)100. If P = , then P equals
f(101) 50
4. Number of integers in the range of function
100
f(x) = is
3(x6 + 12x4 + 5x2 + 1)

5. If the solution set of inequality

√3 1
( cos x + ) (cos x − ) ⩽ 0 in [0, 2 π ] is
2 2
απ βπ γπ δπ
[ , ] ∪[ , ] , α , β , γ , δ ∈ I+, then
6 6 6 6
the value of | β – α + δ – γ | is
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