Test - 7 (Code-D)_(Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2023

All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2023

TEST - 7 (Code-D)
Test Date : 27/03/2022

ANSWERS
1. (4) 41. (1) 81. (3) 121. (4) 161. (1)
2. (3) 42. (4) 82. (4) 122. (1) 162. (1)
3. (4) 43. (3) 83. (3) 123. (1) 163. (3)
4. (3) 44. (2) 84. (4) 124. (3) 164. (2)
5. (2) 45. (2) 85. (2) 125. (3) 165. (4)
6. (3) 46. (4) 86. (1) 126. (3) 166. (4)
7. (1) 47. (3) 87. (4) 127. (1) 167. (3)
8. (2) 48. (2) 88. (3) 128. (2) 168. (2)
9. (1) 49. (3) 89. (2) 129. (4) 169. (3)
10. (4) 50. (4) 90. (3) 130. (2) 170. (3)
11. (4) 51. (2) 91. (2) 131. (1) 171. (2)
12. (2) 52. (3) 92. (1) 132. (3) 172. (4)
13. (2) 53. (1) 93. (2) 133. (4) 173. (3)
14. (3) 54. (2) 94. (3) 134. (2) 174. (4)
15. (2) 55. (1) 95. (3) 135. (3) 175. (3)
16. (2) 56. (4) 96. (2) 136. (3) 176. (2)
17. (3) 57. (4) 97. (4) 137. (1) 177. (3)
18. (1) 58. (2) 98. (2) 138. (3) 178. (3)
19. (2) 59. (3) 99. (3) 139. (4) 179. (2)
20. (4) 60. (2) 100. (2) 140. (3) 180. (3)
21. (1) 61. (4) 101. (1) 141. (2) 181. (1)
22. (3) 62. (4) 102. (3) 142. (1) 182. (2)
23. (3) 63. (3) 103. (2) 143. (3) 183. (2)
24. (3) 64. (2) 104. (3) 144. (3) 184. (2)
25. (1) 65. (1) 105. (1) 145. (4) 185. (1)
26. (1) 66. (4) 106. (4) 146. (1) 186. (3)
27. (2) 67. (4) 107. (2) 147. (3) 187. (3)
28. (1) 68. (3) 108. (4) 148. (3) 188. (3)
29. (1) 69. (2) 109. (1) 149. (2) 189. (3)
30. (4) 70. (2) 110. (3) 150. (2) 190. (4)
31. (1) 71. (1) 111. (4) 151. (1) 191. (3)
32. (3) 72. (2) 112. (2) 152. (3) 192. (2)
33. (3) 73. (3) 113. (3) 153. (3) 193. (2)
34. (3) 74. (3) 114. (2) 154. (3) 194. (1)
35. (1) 75. (4) 115. (3) 155. (4) 195. (1)
36. (3) 76. (3) 116. (3) 156. (4) 196. (4)
37. (3) 77. (4) 117. (4) 157. (3) 197. (2)
38. (2) 78. (4) 118. (2) 158. (4) 198. (3)
39. (2) 79. (4) 119. (3) 159. (4) 199. (2)
40. (3) 80. (4) 120. (2) 160. (3) 200. (4)

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2023 Test - 7 (Code-D)_(Hints & Solutions)

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

[PHYSICS]
SECTION - A v
Sol.: f0 
1. Answer (4) 4l

 PQ 5v
Hint: PQ   f2 
PQ 4l
   f0 1

Sol.: PQ  OQ  OP f2 5
  5iˆ  4 jˆ  3kˆ    2iˆ  3 jˆ  4kˆ  f2 = 5 × 40
= 200 Hz
 3iˆ  jˆ  kˆ
5. Answer (2)

PQ  2
3 1 1 2 2 Hint: Beats frequency = |f1 – f2|
1 10
 11 Sol.: f  5 ...(i)
2l 
ˆ ˆ ˆ
  3i  j  k
PQ 9
11 f 5 ...(ii)
2l 
2. Answer (3)
(i) + (ii)
RT 1
Hint & Sol.: v   10
M
2l 
3RT 1
v rms  On putting  10
M
2l 
v  100 – f = 5

v rms 3 f = 95 Hz
v  v rms 6. Answer (3)
3. Answer (4) Hint & Sol.: In stationary waves energy is
minimum at nodes and maximum at antinodes.
 v  v0  7. Answer (1)
Hint: f  f0  
 v  vs 
Hint: v   A2  x 2
 340  Sol.: vmax = A
Sol.: f1  f0  
 340  34 
A
  A2  x 2
 340  2
f2  f0  
 340  17 
A2
 A2  x 2
f1 340  17 4

f2 340  34
3 A2
x2 
19 4

18 3A
x
4. Answer (3) 2
 2n  1 v 8. Answer (2)
Hint: f  Hint:   I  and F  ma
4l

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 Test - 7 (Code-D)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2023

Sol.: 12. Answer (2)

Hint & Sol.: T – 2mg = 2ma
 T = 2ma + 2mg
2ma + 2mg  6mg
2ma  4mg
Mg – T = Ma ...(i)
 a  2g
T  R  I
13. Answer (2)
MR 2 a
T R  dF
2 R Hint: For stable equilibrium, 0
dx
Ma
T  ...(ii) Sol.: F = x2 – 5x + 6
2
(i) + (ii) Now, F = 0
3Ma  x2 – 5x + 6 = 0
Mg 
2  x = 3, 2
2g dF dF
a  2x – 5  0
3 dx dx x 2
9. Answer (1) dF
  0
Hint: W  F  d dx x 3

F x = 2 is position of stable equilibrium

Sol.: a 
m 14. Answer (3)
5 Hint: Area under acceleration time graph gives

20 change in velocity.
1 Sol.: vf  v i   adt
 m/s2
4
1
1 vf  2  84
S  u  a  2n  1 2
2
v f  16  2
1 1
   2  3  1 vf = 18 m/s
2 4
5 15. Answer (2)
 m   
8 Hint: v RC  v RG  v CG
5
Sol.: VRC   VRG   VCG 
2 2 2
W  5
8
25  20 2  10 2  VCG 2
 J
8
 VCG  10 3 m/s
10. Answer (4)
Hint & Sol.: For perfectly elastic collision, e = 1 16. Answer (2)
For inelastic collision, 0 < e < 1 Hint: On heating all the dimensions increases.
For perfectly inelastic collision, e = 0 R
Sol.: Fractional change in radius is
In explosion final kinetic energy is greater than R
initial kinetic energy.
A 2 R
11. Answer (4)  Fractional change area 
A R
Hint & Sol.: Direction of acceleration is
continuously changing and is always towards the V 3R
 Fractional change in volume 
centre for uniform circular motion. V R

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2023 Test - 7 (Code-D)_(Hints & Solutions)

17. Answer (3) 22. Answer (3)

Hint & Sol.: The heating of glass bulb due to ghA1
Hint: Force exerted on the side =
filament occurs by radiation. 2
18. Answer (1) Sol.: Force exerted on the bottom = ghA2
1 N Force exerted on sides = Average pressure × area
Hint & Sol.: P    m  (Vrms )2 gh
3 V   2rh
2
P  m (Vrms )2 gh
  2rh  gh  r 2
M is halved and vrms is doubled 2
 P will become two times  h=r
23. Answer (3)
19. Answer (2)
Hint: M = V
n  5R  T
Hint: U  nCv T  …(i) m
2 Sol.: V1 
2
Sol.: From first law of thermodynamics
m
U = Q – W V2 
4
Q
Q 2m
3 V1  V2 

Q 2Q m m 2m
U  Q   …(ii)  
3 3 2 4 
n  5R 2Q 15R Q 2 1 2
 T    …(iii) 
2 3 4 nT 4 
Using equations, 8
 
Q 3
Molar heat capacity C  …(iv)
n T 24. Answer (3)
Using equations (iii) and (iv) Hint: Energy of a satellite around earth in radius r
15R –GMm
 C is 
4 2r
20. Answer (4)
–GMm
Sol.: Ui 
6R
Hint: Q1 = mC,
–GMm
Q2 = mL Uf 
8R
Q
Sol.: Mass of ice melted  W  Uf  U i
L
–GMm GMm
mC   
 8R 6R
L
3GMm  4GMm
21. Answer (1) 
24R
Hint & Sol.:
GMm
FL 
Y  24R
AL 25. Answer (1)
YA –GM
F L …(i) Hint: V 
L R
F = kx …(ii) –GM
Sol.: V 
YA R
On comparing (i) and (ii), K  On decreasing R gravitational potential V
L
decreases.
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 Test - 7 (Code-D)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2023

26. Answer (1) 30. Answer (4)

Hint: Area under force-displacement curve gives
Hint: Wisothermal  nRT0 ln 
V2 
 work done
 V1 
Sol.: W = K [From work-energy theorem]
Sol.: Wisobaric = nRT0
1 1
W1 = nRT0 (for isobaric process) Mv 2  0  10  10   10  25
2 2
 2V 
W2  nRT0 ln   (for isothermal process) v 2  100  125
V 
v2 = 225
W2 = nRT0ln2
v = 15 m/s
W2 = W1ln2
31. Answer (1)
27. Answer (2)
Hint:  = I
R
Hint: At constant volume CV  MR 2
 1 Sol.: For solid cylinder IC 
2
7 2
Sol.: For diatomic gas     MR2
5 for solid sphere IS 
5
R IC  IS
Cv 
7 
  1 C  S
5 
  0  t
R
Cv 
2 C  S
5 32. Answer (3)
 
2  M v  M 2v 2
R  Cv Hint: v cm  1 1
5 M1  M 2
n = 0.4
28. Answer (1)
Sol.:
Hint: g  gP  R 2 cos2 
Sol.: At  = 37°, g = 0
0  gP  R2 cos2 37
 2  4iˆ  8  3iˆ
v cm 
1 gP 48

cos37 R  8iˆ  24iˆ
v cm 
5 gP 12

4 R 16iˆ 4iˆ
  m/s
29. Answer (1) 12 3
m 33. Answer (3)
Hint: T  2
k Hint: F – f = ma
m Sol.:
Sol.: T  2
k
m
2  2
k
k=m
kx = mg
x = 10 m
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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2023 Test - 7 (Code-D)_(Hints & Solutions)

F 37. Answer (3)

 f  Ma
2 dx
Hint: v 
12 – Mg = Ma dt
12 – 0.2 × 10M = M d 2
12 = 3M Sol.: v  t  3t  4 
dt
M = 4 kg v = 2t – 3
34. Answer (3) v=0
u sin   gt t = 1.5 s
Hint: tan  
u cos  38. Answer (2)
u sin53  gt Hint: L.C = 1MSD – 1 VSD
Sol.: tan37  Sol.: (N)VSD = 10 MSD
u cos53
10
4u 1VSD= MSD
 gt N
3
 5
4 3 10
u L.C  1MSD  MSD
5 N
9u 4u  10  1 cm
  gt 0.05 cm  1  
20 5  N  10
4u 9u N = 20 division
gt   39. Answer (2)
5 20
2 2 2 2
16u  9u Hint:  a  b  a sin   b cos   a  b
gt 
20 2 2 2
Sol.:  3  4  3sin t  4cos t  3  4
2

7u –5  3 sin  t  4 cos  t  5
t
20g ymin  6  5
35. Answer (1) =1
Hint: A = l × b 40. Answer (3)
A l b
 T   MT
2 
 
A l b Hint & Sol.:     1 1 
    ML T 
Sol.: A = l × b
= [LT–1]
= 40 × 30
41. Answer (1)
= 1200 cm2
Hint: Use conservation of linear momentum
A 0.2 0.1 Sol.: Mv1 = 2Mv2
 
A 40 30 v 1 = 2v 2
0.2 0.1 By conservation of linear momentum
A   1200   1200 Mv1 + Mv2 = 2Mv
40 30
A = 6 + 4 = 10 cm2 3v
v 2
SECTION - B 2
2
36. Answer (3) 1 2  3v 
2M  v   M  2 
 2 2  2 
Hint: v  and K 
k  9Mv 22

 4
Sol.: v 
k Mv 22 9
 9
50 2 2

10 Mv 22
2J
= 5 m/s 2
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 Test - 7 (Code-D)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2023

42. Answer (4) 1

k
Hint & Sol.:  = I 8
1 2 55  45  55  45 
Rotational K.E  I  k  30 
2 t  2 
L = I
10 1
work done by centripetal force is zero.   50  30
t 8
43. Answer (3)
80
v2 t
Hint: Acceleration at point P  towards the 20
R
centre = 4 min
48. Answer (2)
Sol.: Hint: Fapplied  fsmax then friction force acting on the
block will be equal to applied force.
Sol.: fsmax  sN

Since the body is having constant angular velocity 1

hence only centripetal acceleration would be there.   4  10
2
Hence angle between acceleration and velocity at
point P is 90°. = 20 N
44. Answer (2) Fapplied  fsmax
Hint & Sol.: Due to weight of the rope, the tension
f = 16 N
will increase along the rope from the lower end to
the upper end. Hence, the pulse will travel with 49. Answer (3)
T uy
increasing speed of v  Hint: tan  
 ux
45. Answer (2) Sol.: v2 = u2 + 2as (along y direction)
Hint & Sol.: Inside the water, weight = upthrust g = 10 m/s 2

 apparent weight = 0 22 = u2 –2 × 0.4 × 10

46. Answer (4) u2 = 12
T  ice point F  32 uy  2 3 m/s
Hint: 
Steam point – ice point 180
52  5 F  32 2 3
 tan  
Sol.: 6
99  5 180
 = 30°
47 F  32
 50. Answer (4)
94 180
1 F  32 t 
 Hint: The quantity   1 should be
2 180 a 
dimensionless
F = 122°F
dt
47. Answer (3) Sol.:
2at  t 2
T T T T 
Hint: 1 2  k  1 2  T0 
t  2   a should have the dimension of ‘t’ so the term
on LHS is dimensionless.
75  65  75  65 
Sol.:  k  30  The argument of sine function is
2  2  dimensionless. So the power of a should be
5 = k(40) zero to make RHS dimensionless.
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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2023 Test - 7 (Code-D)_(Hints & Solutions)

[CHEMISTRY]
SECTION - A 55. Answer (1)
51. Answer (2) 80  WAgBr  100
Hint and Sol.: The maximum limit of nitrate in Hint: % of bromine 
188  WOrganic comp
drinking water is 50 ppm. Excess of nitrate in
drinking water causes disease such as Sol.: Molar Mass of AgBr = 108 + 80 = 188 g
methemoglobinemia (‘blue baby’ syndrome).
188 g of AgBr contains 80 g of bromine
52. Answer (3)
80
Hint: Cyclic planar species which follows Huckel 0.15 g of AgBr contains  0.15 g of bromine
188
rule with complete delocalisation of  electrons in
the ring are aromatic in nature. 80  0.15  100
% of bromine 
Sol.: 188  0.2

• : Cyclic, planar, 4 electrons: anti-  31.9%  32%

aromatic 56. Answer (4)

• : Cyclic, non-planar (Tub like Hint: Hybridization depends upon number of 

structure): non-Aromatic bonds and lone pairs of electrons.
Sol.:
• : Cyclic, planar, 6 electrons:
aromatic

• : Cyclic, planar, 4 electron: anti-

aromatic
Number of sp hybridized carbon atom = 1
53. Answer (1) Number of sp2 hybridized carbon atoms = 3
Hint: Addition of water takes place according to
57. Answer (4)
Markovnikov’s addition.
Sol.: Hint: Electron donating group increases the
stability of the carbocation.
Sol.: Correct order of stability of carbocation is

54. Answer (2) 58. Answer (2)

Hint: Equilibrium constant for the reverse reaction Hint: In 13th group, down the group, the stability of
is the inverse of the equilibrium constant for the lower oxidation state increases because of inert
reaction in the forward direction. pair effect.
Sol.: Sol.: Down the group, due to poor shielding effect
• A 2 (g)  B2 (g)  2AB(g) K  KC of intervening d and f orbitals, the increased
effective nuclear charge holds ns electrons tightly
1 and thereby, restricting their participation in
• 2AB(g)  A 2 (g)  B2 (g) K 
KC bonding.
1 1 1  The relative stability of +1 oxidation state
• AB(g)  A 2 (g)  B 2 (g) K   progressively increases for heavier elements:
2 2 KC
i.e., Al < Ga < In < Tl

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 Test - 7 (Code-D)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2023

59. Answer (3) Sol.: Temporary hardness of water is due to the

Hint: In pyrosilicates, one oxygen atom is shared presence of magnesium and calcium hydrogen
carbonates.
between two SiO 44  tetrahedron.
64. Answer (2)
Sol.: Hint: Lower is the value of standard reduction
• Orthosilicates : SiO 44  potential, higher will be the reducing power of the
metal.
• Chain silicates :  SiO32 n Sol.: Correct order of reducing power of the metals
is
• Pyrosilicates : Si2O76 Cu < Fe < Al < K
65. Answer (1)
• Sheet silicates : Si2O52 n Hint and Sol.: Balance equation is
60. Answer (2) Cr2O72 (aq)  3SO32 (aq)  8H (aq)  2Cr 3 (aq)  3SO24 (aq)
Hint: All alkaline earth metal nitrates decompose  4H2O(l)
on heating to give the corresponding oxides. 66. Answer (4)
Sol.: Hint: CrO5 contains 2 peroxide bonds.
• Among alkali metal nitrates, only lithium nitrate Sol.:
on heating gives oxide whereas, other alkali
metal nitrates give corresponding nitrites.
• 4LiNO3  2Li2O + 4NO2 + O2
• 2NaNO3  2NaNO2 + O2 x + 4(–1) +1(–2) = 0
• 2Mg(NO3)2  2MgO + 4NO2 + O2 x = +6
• 2Ba(NO3)2  2BaO + 4NO2 + O2 67. Answer (4)
61. Answer (4) Hint: For endothermic reaction, increase in
Hint: In acidic medium, H2O2 oxidises PbS into temperature shifts the equilibrium in the forward
PbSO4 direction.
Sol.:
PbS(s) + 4H2O2(aq)  PbSO4(s) + 4H2O(l)
• Increasing the concentration of products, will
Sol.: shift the equilibrium in the backward direction.
• H2O2 decomposes slowly on exposure to light • Decreasing the temperature of endothermic
2H2O2(l)  2H2O(l) + O2(g) reaction, will shift the equilibrium in the
backward direction.
It is therefore, stored in wax lined glass or
plastic vessels in dark. • Addition of inert gas at constant volume, will
not change the state of equilibrium.
• Dihedral angle of H2O2 in gas phase is 111.5°
• Addition of inert gas at constant pressure, will
shift the equilibrium towards more number of
gaseous mole i.e., in forward direction.
68. Answer (3)
Hint:
• Bronsted acid –H+  Conjugate base
• Bronsted base +H+  Conjugate acid
Sol.:
62. Answer (4)
• HCO3  H  H2CO3
Hint: Volume strength of H2O2 = 11.2 × molarity
Bronsted Conjugate acid
Sol.: Volume strength of H2O2 = 11.2 × 0.5 = 5.6 V
base
63. Answer (3)
Hint: Presence of soluble salts of magnesium and • HCO3  H  CO32
calcium in the form of chlorides and sulphate in Bronsted Conjugate base
water causes permanent hardness of water. acid
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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2023 Test - 7 (Code-D)_(Hints & Solutions)

69. Answer (2) Sol.:

Hint: pOH = –log[OH–]
Sol.:
• [OH–] = 0.1 = 10–1 M
• pOH = –log(10–1)
=1
• pH + pOH = 14
• pH = 14 – 1
= 13 1
At constant temperature, P 
70. Answer (2) V
Hint: Enthalpy of combustion is the amount of heat  V3  V2  V1
released when 1 mole of the substance is
 P1 > P2 > P3
completely burnt.
74. Answer (3)
Sol.: C(s) + O2(g)  CO2(g)
Hint: Stronger is the intermolecular forces of
When 12 g of C, undergoes combustion, heat attraction, more easily the gas will be liquified.
released is 393.5 kJ
Sol.: Hydrogen bonding exist in NH3. So, it will be
When 1.2 g of C, undergoes combustion, heat most easily liquified.
released will be 39.35 kJ. 75. Answer (4)
71. Answer (1) Hint: According to Graham's Law of diffusion.
Hint: r H  (BE)Reactants  (BE)Products r1  V / t 1 M2
 
1 1 r2  V / t 2 M1
Sol.: A 2 (g)  B2 (g)  AB(g)
2 2
rx t MHe
1 1 Sol.:  He 
 f H  r H   BE A 2   BEB2  BE A B rHe tx Mx
2 2
1 4 1 4
1 1 or   
 a bc 4 Mx 16 Mx
2 2
72. Answer (2) Mx = 64 u
Hint: For irreversible process, Pext is constant  The gas could be SO2
76. Answer (3)
 w = –PextV
Hint:
According to first law of thermodynamics.
• Hybridization depends upon number of hybrid
 • U = q + w orbitals.
Sol.: Work done = –105(10–2 – 10–4) • Number of hybrid orbitals = number of bonds
= –105(9.9 × 10–3) + number of lone pairs of electrons on central
atom.
= –9.9 × 102 J
Sol.:
= –990 J
Structure Number of Hybridization
According to first law of thermodynamics hybrid orbitals of Xe
U = q + w
XeOF4 5+1=6 sp3d2
 U = 0 (isothermal process)
  q = –w
= –(–990 J)
= 990 J XeF6 6+1=7 sp3d3
73. Answer (3)
1
Hint: At constant temperature, P 
V
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 Test - 7 (Code-D)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2023

77. Answer (4) Sol.:

Hint: Structure
• Species which contains unpaired electrons are • PCl2F3 net  0
paramagnetic in nature.
• Species which contains no unpaired electrons
are diamagnetic in nature.

1
• B.O.  Nb  Na  • SO2 net  0
2
Sol.:
Molecular orbital configurations
• PCl3 net  0
• H2(2e ) : 1s
– 2

B.O. = 1, (Diamagnetic)

• H2 (3e ) : 1s 2 * 1s1

• PCl3F2 net = 0
1
B.O.  , Paramagnetic 
2

2 px2
• N2 (14e ) : 1s 2  * 1s 2 2s 2  * 2s 2  2
2pz2 (All bond dipoles
 2 py cancel out each other)
B.O. = 3, (Diamagnetic) 79. Answer (4)
 2 px2   * 2 p1x Hint: Volume of n mole of a gas at (STP) =
• N2 (15e  ) : 1s 2  * 1s 2 2s 2  * 2s 2  2 pz2 
2 n × 22.4 L
 2 py   * 2 py
Sol.:
B.O. = 2.5, (Paramagnetic)
7
C2H6 (g)  O2 (g)  2CO 2  3H2 O(l)
2 px2  * 2 p1x 2
• O2 (16e ) : 1s 2  * 1s 2 2s 2  * 2s 2 2 pz2  
2
2 py
1
 * 2 py 7
1 mol mol
2
B.O. = 2, (Paramagnetic) 4.5 7
mol  0.15 mol
 2 px2   * 2 p1x 30 2
• O 2 (15e  ) : 1s 2  * 1s 2 2s 2  * 2s 2 2 pz2  
2 0.15 mol 0.525 mol
 2 py   * 2 py
 Volume of O2 required at STP = 0.525 × 22.4
B.O. = 2.5, (Paramagnetic)
= 11.76 L
2px2
• C2 (12e ) : 1s 2 * 1s 22s 2 * 2s 2  80. Answer (4)
2
2py
Hint: The electron gain enthalpy of O and F (i.e.,
B.O. = 2, (Diamagnetic) second period element) is less negative than those
of the succeeding elements as when electron adds
 2 px
2 to n = 2 quantum level, it suffers significant
• C 2 (13e  ) : 1s 2  * 1s 2  2s 2  * 2s 2   2 p1z electronic repulsion from the other electrons.
2
 2 py
Sol.:
B.O. = 2.5, (paramagnetic) • Down the group, in the Modern Periodic Table,
78. Answer (4) the metallic character increases.
• On moving left to right in periodic table, the
Hint: Species for which net = 0, are non-polar electronegativity increases.
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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2023 Test - 7 (Code-D)_(Hints & Solutions)

• Generally, on moving left to right, IE increases 84. Answer (4)

but IE of N is more than that of O because of Hint: Number of atoms = Number of moles ×
the stable electronic configuration of N. Avogadro’s Number × Atomicity
Element egH (kJ mol–1) Sol.:
• 2 mol of H2 = 2 × 2 NA atoms = 4 NA atoms
O –141
22
S –200 • 22 g of CO2 = mol of CO2 = 0.5 × 3 NA
44
Se –195 atoms = 1.5 NA atoms
44.8
Te –190 • 44.8 L of O2 at STP = mole of O2 = 2 × 2
22.4
81. Answer (3) NA atoms = 4 NA atoms
Hint and Sol.: 27
• 27 ml of H2O =27 g of H2O = mol = 1.5 × 3
Atomic Number IUPAC official Name 18
NA atoms = 4.5 NA atoms
101 Mendelevium
85. Answer (2)
107 Bohrium Hint: Empirical formula is the simplest whole
102 Nobelium number ratio of atoms of the various elements
present in the molecule of the compound.
106 Seaborgium Sol.:
105 Dubnium Element Percentage Atomic Number of moles Simple ratio
Mass
82. Answer (4) C 26.67 12 26.67 2.22
 2.22 1
Hint: For any value of l, the value of ml ranges 12 2.22
from –l to + l.
H 2.22 1 2.22 2.22
Sol.:  2.22 1
1 2.22
• Energy of the orbitals in the same subshell O 71.11 16 71.11 4.44
decreases with increase in the atomic number  4.44 2
16 2.22
(Zeff.)
 E2s(H) > E2s(Li) > E2s (Na) > E2s (K)  Empirical formula of the compound is CHO2
• For hydrogen atom, the energy of the orbital
depends only upon the principal quantum SECTION - B
number 86. Answer (1)
 E3s = E3p = E3d Hint: The common components of photochemical
smog are ozone, nitric oxide, acrolein,
So, total 9 degenerate orbitals in the third energy
formaldehyde and peroxyacetyl nitrate (PAN)
level.
Sol.: Both ozone and PAN act as powerful eye
• For any value of l, maximum possible value of
irritants.
ml is 2l + 1.
87. Answer (4)
83. Answer (3)
Hint: In the presence of peroxide, free radical
Hint: Number of angular nodes = l mechanism takes place.
Number of radial nodes = n – l – 1 Sol.: Mechanism: Free radical addition reaction.
Sol.:
• For 5d, angular nodes = 2 (i)
radial nodes = 5 – 2 – 1 = 2
• For 5p, angular node = 1
radial nodes = 5 – 1 – 1 = 3
• For 4p, angular node = 1
radial nodes = 4 – 1 – 1 = 2
• For 4d, angular nodes = 2  
Homolysis
radial node = 4 – 2 – 1 = 1 (ii) C6 H5  H  Br   C6H6  Br

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 Test - 7 (Code-D)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2023

(iii) Sol.:
• Because of small size of Be, its halides are
(iv) 
Homolysis
 essentially covalent in nature and are soluble
CH3  CH CH2Br  H  Br   CH3  CH2  CH2Br  Br
in organic solvent.
(Major)

88. Answer (3) • In solid state, BeCl2 has a chain structure.

Hint: Acidic potassium permanganate oxidises
alkenes to ketones and/or acids depending upon
the nature of the alkene.
Sol.:
92. Answer (1)
Hint: Among alkaline earth metals, as the atomic
number of the metal increases, the basic character
of their hydroxides also increases.
Sol.: Correct order of basic character of hydroxides
89. Answer (2) is
Hint: Two or more compounds having the same Ba(OH)2 > Sr(OH)2 > Ca(OH)2 > Mg(OH)2
molecular formula but different functional groups
are called functional group isomers. 93. Answer (2)
Sol.: Hint: In a disproportionation reaction, an element
in one oxidation state is simultaneously oxidised
and reduced
• CH3CH2CH2CH3 and : Chain
isomers Sol.:

• and : Functional
group isomers

• and : Disproportionation reaction

Position isomers
94. Answer (3)
• CH3CH2CH2OCH3 and CH3CH2OCH2CH3 :
Metamers Hint: A salt of strong acid and weak base
90. Answer (3) undergoes cationic hydrolysis only.
Hint: On heating, orthoboric acid above 370 K Sol.:
forms metaboric acid, HBO2 which on further • CH3COONH4 : Salt of weak acid and weak
heating yields boric oxide, B2O3. base.
 
H3BO3   HBO2   B2 O3 It undergoes both cationic and
anionic hydrolysis.
Sol.:
• CH3COONa : Salt of weak acid and strong
• Borax dissolves in water to give an alkaline
base
solution.
It undergoes only anionic
Na2B4O7 + 7H2O  2NaOH + 4H3BO3 hydrolysis
Orthoboric acid
• NH4Cl : Salt of strong acid and weak
• Boric acid can be prepared by acidifying base
an aqueous solution of borax
It undergoes cationic hydrolysis
Na2B4O7 + 2HCl + 5H2O  2NaCl + 4B(OH)3 only
91. Answer (2) • NaCl : Salt of strong acid and strong
base
Hint: Smaller the cations, more will be the covalent
character in ionic compound. It does not undergo hydrolysis

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2023 Test - 7 (Code-D)_(Hints & Solutions)

95. Answer (3) • MgO : Basic

Hint: An intensive property is a property whose • As2O3 : Amphoteric
value does not depends on the quantity or size of
matter present in the system. • CO2 : Acidic

Sol.: 99. Answer (3)

• Density is an intensive property 1  1 1 

Hint:  RH Z 2  2  2 
 n
 1 n 2 
• Heat capacity, Internal energy and volume are
extensive properties. Sol.: For first line of Paschen series, n1 = 3 and n2
96. Answer (2) =4
Hint: van der Waals equation for n mole of a real 1  1 1 
gas is   RH 2 2    ...(i)
1  3 
2
 4 2 
 an 2 
 P  2   V  nb   nRT For second line of Balmer series, n1 = 2 and n2 = 4
 V 
1  1 1 
  RH 2 2    ...(ii)
an2 2  2
2
 4 2 
Sol.: At high pressure, P  P
V2
Dividing (ii) by (i)
So, van der Waals equation for 1 mol gas
2   4  2 
2 2
becomes,
RH  2   2 2

P(V – b) = RT 1
  2  4  
or, PV – Pb = RT 2 2   4   3 
2 2 
RH  2   2 2

Dividing by RT  3   4  
PV Pb RT 12  144 27
  1  
RT RT RT 64  7 7
Pb  PV  100. Answer (2)
Z  1   Z
RT  RT 
Hint:
97. Answer (4)
 Number of equivalents of metal = Number of
Hint: sp hybridized molecule is linear in shape equivalents of oxygen.
Sol.: Mass of metal Mass of oxygen
 
I3 Linear Equivalent weight Equivalent weight
of metal of oxygen

Sol.:
• Mass of metal oxide = a g
CO2 O=C=O Linear
• Mass of oxygen = b g
C2H2 H C  C H Linear
 Mass of metal = (a – b) g
H2S Bent Mass of metal Mass of oxygen
Now, 
Equivalent weight Equivalent weight
of metal of oxygen
98. Answer (2)
ab b
Hint: Alkali and Alkaline earth metal oxides are  ( Equivalent mass of oxygen = 8 g)
EM 8
generally basic in nature.
Sol.: 8 a  b 
EM 
• N2O : Neutral b

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 Test - 7 (Code-D)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2023

[BOTANY]
SECTION - A Sol.: Lysosome and Golgi apparatus are single
101. Answer (1) membrane bound cell organelles.
Sol.: In C3 plant during photorespiration the The chloroplast and mitochondria are double
RuBP binds to oxygen to form one membrane bound structures.
molecule of phosphoglycerate (3-carbon) and 108. Answer (4)
phosphoglycolate (2-carbon).
Hint: All tissues inner to the endodermis constitute
102. Answer (3) stele.
Hint: Members of Rhodophyceae show oogamy Sol.: Stele comprises of pericycle, vascular
and accompanied by post fertilisation development. bundles and pith.
Sol.: Gracilaria, Gelidium and Porphyra are 109. Answer (1)
members of Rhodophyceae.
Hint: Cruciform corolla is found in family
103. Answer (2)
Brassicaceae.
Hint: The arrangement of ovules within the ovary is
Sol.: Floral formula for members of Brassicaceae
known as placentation. Parietal placentation is
found in mustard and Argemone. is
Sol.: 110. Answer (3)
  Axile placentation - Lemon. Hint: They are pathogenic in both plants and
  Basal placentation - Marigold. animals.
  Free central placentation - Primrose. Sol.: The Mycoplasma completely lacks cell wall. It
104. Answer (3) is smallest living cell known so far and can survive
without oxygen.
Hint: Lower the taxa more common are the
characteristics that the members within the taxon 111. Answer (4)
share. Hint: This reaction is one of the steps in
Sol.: When we move from kingdom to the species nitrification.
the number of common characteristics will Sol.: Ammonia is first oxidised to nitrite by the
increase. bacteria Nitrosomonas and Nitrococcus.
105. Answer (1) Denitrification is carried out by bacteria
Hint: During final stage of prophase I, the Pseudomonas and Thiobacillus.
chromosomes become fully condensed. 112. Answer (2)
Sol.: Final stage of prophase-I is diakinesis. During Hint: Water moves from its higher water potential
this stage, meiotic spindle is assembled for to lower water potential. Pure water has maximum
separation of homologous chromosomes.  w.
106. Answer (4) Sol.: By mixing salt into the water, water potential
Hint: This element is an activator of RuBisCO and decreases.
PEPcase. Therefore, water will move from higher water
Sol.: When concentration of Mg2+ reduces below potential i.e., from container A to lower water
critical level both ribosomal subunits get separated. potential i.e., container B.
By raising the concentration of Mg2+ ion in the 113. Answer (3)
matrix, the two ribosome sub units become
Sol.: Psilotum-Psilopsida.
associated with each other.
Selaginella-Lycopsida.
107. Answer (2)
Hint: Ribosomes are not surrounded by any Equisetum-Sphenopsida.
membrane. Dryopteris-Pteropsida.

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2023
114. Answer (2)
Hint: In vexillary aestivation, largest posterior petal
overlaps lateral petals.
Sol.: In bean and pea flower, vexillary or
papilionaceous aestivation is found.
 China rose and cotton have twisted
aestivation.
 Calotropis has valvate aestivation.
115. Answer (3)
Hint: Pneumatophores are respiratory roots.
Sol.: In Rhizophora or plants growing in swampy
areas, many roots come out of the ground and
grow vertically upwards. Such roots are called
pneumatophores that help to get oxygen for
respiration.
116. Answer (3)
Hint: This hormone is also known as stress
hormone.
Sol.: Abscisic acid can be used as anti transpirant
and induce dormancy of buds, seeds and storage
organ.
117. Answer (4)
Hint: The complex is called cytochrome c oxidase
complex.
Sol.: In ETS, complex IV or cytochrome c oxidase
complex contains cytochrome a and a3 and two
copper centres.
118. Answer (2)
Hint: For complete oxidation of each glucose
molecule, 2 turns of TCA cycle are required.
Sol.: From 1 glucose molecule
Glycolysis yields – 2 ATP (Net gain)
TCA yields – 2 ATP
 From two molecules of glucose
4 × 2 = 8 ATP is the net gain.
119. Answer (3)
Hint: The given figure is of Golgi apparatus, a
densely stained reticular structure near the
nucleus.
Sol.: Golgi apparatus was first observed by
Camillo Golgi.
 These structures principally perform the
function of packaging of materials.
 It is the important site for the formation of
glycoproteins and glycolipids.
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Test - 7 (Code-D)_(Hints & Solutions)
120. Answer (2)
Hint: During S phase, DNA synthesis or replication
takes place.
Sol.: There is no increase in chromosome number,
if the cell had diploid or 2n number of chromosome
at G1 phase, even after S phase the number of
chromosome remains the same i.e., 2n.
121. Answer (4)
Hint: Characteristic features which are exclusively
present in all living organisms are defining
features.
Sol.: Cellular organisation, consciousness and
metabolism are regarded as defining features of all
living organisms.
122. Answer (1)
Hint: Dikaryophase is observed in members of
ascomycetes and basidiomycetes.
Sol.: Agaricus is a member of basidiomycetes
shows dikaryophase. Members of Deuteromycetes
reproduce only by asexual spores.
Basidiospores are exogenously produced on
basidium.
Deuteromycetes help in mineral cycling.
123. Answer (1)
Hint: Phycomycetes have aseptate and coenocytic
mycelium.
Sol.: In phycomycetes asexual spores, i.e.,
sporangiospores are produced endogenously in
sporangium. These spores are mitospores.
124. Answer (3)
Hint: An activator of alcohol dehydrogenase is also
required for synthesis of auxin.
Sol.: Zinc is an essential element which is an
activator of enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase. It
activates various enzymes and also needed in the
synthesis of auxin.
125. Answer (3)
Hint: In a cross section of old wood, the greater
part of it is darker region called heartwood and
peripheral region is light in colour called sapwood.
Sol.: Sapwood differs from heartwood as former is
involved in conduction of water and minerals from
the root to leaf.
126. Answer (3)
Hint:Stomata regulate the process of
transpiration.
 Test - 7 (Code-D)_(Hints & Solutions)
Sol.: Palisade parenchyma are adaxially placed
which is made up of elongated cells arranged
vertically and parallel to each other.
Spongy parenchyma are loosely arranged oval or
round cells situated below the palisade cells.
Bulliform cells are large, empty, colourless cells on
adaxial epidermis in grasses.
127. Answer (1)
Sol.: Trypanosoma is flagellated protozoan.
128. Answer (2)
Hint: Euglenoids have pigments identical to those
present in higher plants.
Sol.: Euglenoids are photosynthetic in the
presence of sunlight and when they are deprived of
sunlight they behave like heterotrophs by predating
on other smaller organisms.
129. Answer (4)
Hint: PS I involves in both cyclic and non-cyclic
photophosphorylation.
Sol.:
 PS I lies on the outer surface of the thylakoid.
  PS I is found in both grana and stroma
lamellae. It participates in both cyclic as well as
non-cyclic flow of electrons.
  PS I is not associated with splitting of water,
only PS II is associated with splitting of water
and release of O2.
130. Answer (2)
Hint: Uphill transport of molecules requires energy.
Sol.: In facilitated diffusion, transfer of molecules
occur from their high concentration to low
concentration which do not require energy (ATP).
131. Answer (1)
Hint: Plastoquinone is small, lipid soluble molecule
that can easily move in thylakoid membrane.
Sol.: Excited electrons from photosystem II are
picked up by primary electron acceptor pheophytin,
then it is transferred to cytochrome b6f complex via
plastoquinone and then transferred to PS I via
plastocyanin.
132. Answer (3)
Hint: In bryophytes, both gametophyte and
sporophyte phases are multicellular.
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All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2023
Sol.: Bryophyte show haplo-diplontic life cycle
pattern.
133. Answer (4)
Hint: Ploidy is the number of sets of chromosomes
in a cell of an organism.
Sol.: Pollen grains and cells of embryo sac have
only one set of chromosomes inside the nucleus.
So they are haploid.
 Zygote-diploid
 Endosperm-mostly triploid in angiosperms
 Seeds-diploid
134. Answer (2)
Hint: This region is few millimetres above the root
cap.
Sol.: The cells of the region of meristem are very
small, thin walled with dense protoplasm and divide
repeatedly.
135. Answer (3)
Hint: Aloe belongs to a monocot family.
Sol.: Aloe belongs to family Liliaceae.
SECTION - B
136. Answer (3)
Sol.: In fungi, asexual reproduction is by spore
called conidia, sporangiospores or zoospores.
Sexual reproduction takes place by oospores,
ascospores and basidiospores
137. Answer (1)
Sol.: An embryo sac has one egg cell, two
synergids, three antipodal cells and one central
cell.
138. Answer (3)
Hint: Members of Basidiomycetes produce
basidiospores exogenously on the basidium.
Sol.:
 Ustilago, is a member of basidiomycetes in
which basidiospores are produced
exogenously on the basidium.
 Aspergillus, Claviceps and Neurospora are
members of Ascomycetes produce ascospores
endogenously in sac like asci.
 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2023
139. Answer (4)
Hint: Two molecules of ATP are used up in the
activation phase of glycolysis.
Sol.: The net gain of ATP in the process of
glycolysis from one molecule of glucose is two.
140. Answer (3)
Hint: In photosynthesis, ATP synthesis is linked to
the development of proton gradient across a
membrane.
Sol.: Splitting of water molecules takes place in the
inner side of the thylakoid membrane. The protons
or hydrogen ions that are produced by the splitting
of water accumulate within the lumen of the
thylakoids.
141. Answer (2)
Hint: When condensation of chromosomes is
completed, they can be observed under
microscope.
Sol.: At metaphase stage of M phase, morphology
of chromosome is most easily studied.
142. Answer (1)
Hint: The pattern of arrangement of leaves on the
stem or branch is called phyllotaxy.
Sol.: In Alstonia, more than two leaves arise at a
node and form a whorl. It is called whorled
phyllotaxy.
143. Answer (3)
Hint: Plant body of liverwort is thalloid.
Sol.: In Marchantia, thallus is dorsiventral and
closely appressed to the substratum.
Funaria, Polytrichum and Sphagnum are mossess.
144. Answer (3)
Sol.: Key is taxonomical aid used for identification
of plants and animal and they are generally
analytical in nature.
145. Answer (4)
Hint: The large forms of brown algae possess air
bladder for providing buoyancy.
Sol.: Fucus has air bladder which provides
buoyancy.
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146. Answer (1)
Hint: In racemose inflorescence, the main axis
continues to grow and flower are borne laterally.
Sol.:
 In cymose type of inflorescence flowers are
borne in a basipetal order.
  Flower Cassia can be divided into two similar
halves only in one particular vertical plane. It
has zygomorphic symmetry.
  Flowers of Guava, Cucumber and ray floret of
sunflower have inferior ovary.
147. Answer (3)
Hint: Potato spindle tuber disease is caused by an
infectious agent that was discovered by T.O.
Diener.
Sol.: T.O. Diener discovered a new infectious
agent viroid that was smaller than viruses and
caused potato spindle tuber disease.
148. Answer (3)
Hint: Xylem and phloem fibres are infact
sclerenchymatous.
Sol.: Tracheids, vessels and xylem fibres are dead
elements of xylem. Xylem parenchyma cells are
living cells.
Sieve tube element, companion cells and phloem
parenchyma are living elements.
Phloem fibres/bast fibres are dead cells.
149. Answer (2)
Hint: Plant absorbs water from the root hairs and it
is transported to leaves of plants through xylem.
Sol.: The correct sequence of tissue in the
pathway of movement of water in the root is
Epidermis  Cortex  Endodermis  Pericycle 
Xylem.
150. Answer (2)
Hint: During incomplete oxidation of glucose, the
reducing agent NADH + H+ is reoxidised to NAD+.
Sol.: During fermentation, the incomplete oxidation
of glucose is achieved under anaerobic condition
and NADH + H+ is reoxidised to NAD+.
 Test - 7 (Code-D)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2023

[ZOOLOGY]
SECTION - A Sol.: Vomit centre is located in medulla oblongata.
151. Answer (1) Hippocampus along with other structures like
Hint: Inhibits the production of lymphocytes in the amygdala form limbic system. Hypothalamus
lymphoid tissues contains a number of centres which control body
temperature, eating, drinking, etc.
Sol.: Cortisol produces anti-inflammatory reactions
and suppresses the immune response. Cortisol 158. Answer (4)
also suppresses the synthesis of antibodies by Hint: Km increases when inhibitor resembles with
inhibiting the production of lymphocytes in the substrate
lymphoid tissues and is therefore also called an
immunosuppressor. Sol.: In competitive inhibition, the value of Km
increases as it takes a higher concentration of the
152. Answer (3)
1
Hint: Thymosins play a major role in differentiation substrate to reach the of Vmax.
2
of T-lymphocytes
Sol.: After puberty, the thymus starts to shrink, 159. Answer (4)
thereby producing less thymosins. B cells produce Hint: It is amphipathic in nature
antigen specific antibodies and T cells can Sol.: The given figure is of lecithin, a phospholipid
recognise processed pathogenic antigens even in commonly found in cell membrane.
older persons, but due to degenerating thymus,
production of thymosins is decreased which are 160. Answer (3)
essential for T lymphocytes differentiation and Hint: It is located in pelvic region
production of antibodies by plasma cells.
Sol.: Cervical vertebrae – 7
153. Answer (3)
Thoracic vertebrae – 12
Hint: Other options are part of female reproductive
tract Lumbar vertebrae – 5
Sol.: The two lobes of thyroid gland are connected Sacrum – 1 (formed by fusion of 5
by a thin flap of connective tissue called isthmus. bones)
Ampulla, fimbriae and infundibulum are regions of Coccyx – 1 (formed by fusion of 4
fallopian tube present in female reproductive tract. bones)
154. Answer (3)
161. Answer (1)
Hint: Neurohypophysis does not produce any
hormone Hint: In gliding joint, the articulating ends of both
the bones can easily glide over each other
Sol.: Pituitary gland produces GH, PRL, TSH,
ACTH, LH, FSH and MSH. Posterior pituitary do Sol.:
not produce any hormone, rather stores and Joint Examples
releases oxytocin and vasopressin (ADH) which
are produced by hypothalamus. Hinge joint – Elbow joint and knee joint
155. Answer (4) Pivot joint – Joint between radius and ulna
just below the elbow
Hint: They are mainly involved in protein synthesis
Sol.: Ribosomes are involved in protein synthesis Gliding joint – Between the carpals
and RER in post-translational modifications. Saddle joint – Between carpal and metacarpal
156. Answer (4) of thumb side
Hint: Association areas are neither clearly sensory Ellipsoid joint – Joint between radius and carpal
nor motor in function 162. Answer (1)
Sol.: Association areas are responsible for
intersensory associations, memory and Hint: Disorder caused by decreased level of
communication. In Parkinson’s disease, there is estrogen is an age-related disorder
decrease in level of dopamine. Sol.
157. Answer (3) Tetany – Rapid spasm in muscles due
Hint: Respiratory rhythm centre is also present in to low calcium ions in body
the same region fluid.

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2023 Test - 7 (Code-D)_(Hints & Solutions)

Myasthenia gravis – Autoimmune disorder Sol.: Angiotensinogen is synthesised in liver and

affecting neuromuscular released in blood.
junction leading to fatigue,
weakening and paralysis of
skeletal muscle.
Osteoporosis – Age-related disorder
characterised by decreased
bone mass and increased 167. Answer (3)
chances of fractures. Hint: It is eliminated out of the body by sweat
Decreased levels of glands
estrogen is a common
cause. Sol.: Sebaceous glands eliminate certain
substances like sterols, hydrocarbons and waxes
Osteoarthritis – Degenerative joint disease
through sebum. Sweat glands also help in
characterised by the
elimination of certain substances in the form of
degeneration of articular
sweat which contains NaCl, small amounts of urea,
cartilage and proliferation of
lactic acid etc.
new bones.
Arthritis – Inflammation of joints, 168. Answer (2)
characterised by pain, Hint: Also known as macula adherens
swelling, redness and heat.
Sol.: Tight junctions help to stop substances from
163. Answer (3) leaking across a tissue. Gap junctions connect the
cytoplasm of adjoining cells for rapid transfer of
Hint: High amount of calcium ions will help in ions, small molecules and sometimes bigger
faster rate of contraction molecules.
Sol.: Red muscle fibres have more myoglobin and 169. Answer (3)
plenty of mitochondria. They have slow rate of
contraction for long periods. White muscle fibres Hint: Aldosterone causes reabsorption of Na+ and
have less amount of myoglobin and mitochondria. water from the distal parts of the tubule
They carry out anaerobic oxidation for energy Sol.: Ascending limb of Henle’s loop allows
production and have a fast rate of contraction for transport of electrolytes actively or passively and is
short periods. impermeable to water. PCT helps in maintaining
the pH and ionic balance of the body fluids by
164. Answer (2)
selective secretion of hydrogen ions, ammonia and
Hint: It is also present in ducts of glands potassium ions into filtrate and by reabsorption of
Sol.: Squamous epithelium: Found in the walls of HCO3 from it.
blood vessels and air sacs of lungs. 170. Answer (3)
Ciliated epithelium: Found in the inner surface of Hint: Terrestrial molluscs live in crisis of water
bronchioles and fallopian tubes.
Sol.:
Columnar epithelium: Found in lining of stomach Ammonotelic – e.g., many bony fishes, aquatic
and intestine. amphibians and aquatic insects.
165. Answer (4) Ureotelic – e.g., mammals, terrestrial
Hint: It is a type of specialised connective tissue amphibians and marine fishes.
Uricotelic – e.g., reptiles, birds, land snails
Sol.: Dense regular connective tissue like tendon
and insects.
and ligament, areolar tissue (a type of loose
connective tissue) and cartilage (a type of 171. Answer (2)
specialised connective tissue), all have cells that Hint: Thrombus means clot
secrete fibres of structural proteins called collagen
or elastin. Sol.: Heart failure: It is the state of heart when it is
not pumping blood effectively enough to meet the
166. Answer (4) needs of the body.
Hint: Largest gland of the body situated in the Coronary thrombosis: Occurs due to formation of
abdominal cavity clot in coronary artery.

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 Test - 7 (Code-D)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2023

Heart attack: When the heart muscle is suddenly Thrombokinase

Prothrombin   Thrombin
2
damaged by an inadequate blood supply. Ca

Heart murmur: Due to defective or damaged heart Thrombin

Fibrinogen  2 Fibrin
valves, the improper closure leads to leakage of Ca
blood which produces an abnormal sound referred
to as heart murmur. Fibrins form a network of threads which traps dead
and damaged formed elements of blood to form the
172. Answer (4) blood clot.
Hint: Individual with blood group ‘O’ is an universal 176. Answer (2)
donor
Hint: Their percentage is more than that of
Sol.: eosinophils
Blood group Donor’s blood Sol.: Monocytes – 6–8 percent
group Basophils – 0.5–1 percent
A O, A Eosinophils – 2–3 percent
B O, B Lymphocytes – 20–25 percent
177. Answer (3)
O O
Hint: It includes expiratory reserve volume and
AB O, A, B and AB residual volume
Sol.:
173. Answer (3)
Hint: Ophiura belongs to same phylum Tidal Volume (TV) = 500 mL
Sol.: Obelia is a cnidarian which exhibits Inspiratory Reserve = 2500–3000 mL
alternation of generation (metagenesis). Volume (IRV)
Saccoglossus is a hemichordate having proboscis Expiratory Reserve = 1000–1100 mL
gland as an excretory organ. Volume (ERV)
Asterias (Star fish) is an echinoderm having
Residual Volume (RV) = 1100–1200 mL
indirect development with free-swimming larva.
Hippocampus (Sea horse) belongs to class Inspiratory Capacity = TV + IRV
Osteichthyes, in which air bladder is present that (IC)
regulates buoyancy. = 3000–3500 mL
174. Answer (4)
Functional residual = ERV + RV = 2100 –
Hint: Human beings have closed circulatory Capacity (FRC) 2300 mL
system
Vital Capacity (VC) = ERV + TV + IRV
Sol.: Open circulatory system: The blood pumped
by the heart passes through large vessels into = 4000 – 4600 mL
open spaces or body cavities called sinuses. It is
present in arthropods and molluscs. 178. Answer (3)

Closed circulatory system: The blood pumped by Hint: Abdominal muscles help in forceful expiration
the heart is always circulated through a closed Sol.:
network of blood vessels. It is present in most
annelids and most chordates. During – Diaphragm and external
inspiration intercostal muscles
175. Answer (3) contract.
Hint: In these network of threads, dead and
During normal – Diaphragm and external
damaged formed elements of blood are trapped
expiration intercostal muscles relax.
Sol.: During an injury, platelets get activated and
alongwith tissue at the site of injury release certain During forceful – Internal intercostal muscles
factors, which via a cascade process helps in the expiration and abdominal muscles
formation of enzyme complex i.e., thrombokinase. contract.

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2023 Test - 7 (Code-D)_(Hints & Solutions)

179. Answer (2) Thecodont – Each tooth is embedded in a

Hint: It can alter the pH of blood socket of jaw bone.
Sol.: High concentration of enzyme carbonic Homodont – All teeth are similar.
anhydrase is present in RBCs and minute Heterodont – Teeth are of different types
quantities are also present in plasma. At the tissue 185. Answer (1)
level, CO2 diffuses into blood (RBCs and plasma)
Hint: Member of phylum Aschelminthes
and forms HCO3 and H+. At the alveolar site
Sol.: Members of phylum Aschelminthes are
where pCO2 is low, the reaction proceeds in the
pseudocoelomates and have bilateral symmetry
opposite direction leading to formation of CO2 and
e.g., Wuchereria. Hirudinaria, Limulus and Fasciola
H2O.
belongs to phylum Annelida, Arthropoda and
180. Answer (3) Platyhelminthes respectively.
Hint: Ascidia belongs to this sub-phylum SECTION - B
Sol.: Amphioxus (Branchiostoma) is a member of 186. Answer (3)
sub-phylum Cephalochordata. Ascidia, Salpa and
Hint: Haem is an organic compound
Doliolum are members of sub-phylum Urochordata.
181. Answer (1) Sol.: Prosthetic groups and co-enzymes, both are
organic compounds. Haem is a prosthetic group
Hint: Nucleic acids are digested by enzymes in for enzyme peroxidase and catalase, and it is a
pancreatic juice part of the active site of the enzyme.
Sol.: Lactase, sucrase, lipases, dipeptidases and 187. Answer (3)
nucleosidases are present in succus entericus.
Hint: Nerve impulse travels from one neuron to
Chymotrypsinogen and nucleases are present in other via electrical or chemical synapses
pancreatic juice.
Sol.: Myelin sheath protects the axons of a neuron
Chymotrypsin helps in digestion of proteins, and acts as an insulating layer. Only the axon
peptones and proteoses into dipeptides, whereas terminals (synaptic knobs) can release
nucleases help in digestion of nucleic acids into neurotransmitters which travel via synaptic cleft
nucleotides. and reach post-synaptic membrane (dendrite of the
182. Answer (2) next neuron) to transmit nerve impulses.
Hint: Acts as good antioxidant 188. Answer (3)
Sol.: The deficiency of vitamin K causes faulty Hint: Electrical current can flow directly from one
blood clotting and deficiency of vitamin E neuron to other through electrical synapses
(Tocopherol) may cause reproductive failure.
Sol.: At electrical synapses, the pre-synaptic and
183. Answer (2) post-synaptic membranes are in very close
Hint: Invertase is also known as sucrase. proximity and transmission of impulse across
Sucrase/invertase electrical synapse is very similar to impulse
Sol.: Sucrose   Glucose  Fructose conduction along a single axon.
Lactase
Lactose   Glucose + Galactose 189. Answer (3)
Maltase
Maltose  Glucose + Glucose Hint: Ootheca
Trypsin/Chymotrypsin Sol.: Malpighian tubules, urecose glands,
Proteins   Dipeptides
Carboxypeptidase nephrocytes and fat body are associated with
184. Answer (2) excretion in cockroach. Mushroom shaped gland is
a part of male reproductive system and collaterial
Hint: Human beings have different types of teeth glands are a part of female reproductive system in
Sol.: cockroach.
Monophyodont – Teeth which appear only 190. Answer (4)
once in the lifetime. Hint: They are secreted directly into the fluid
Diphyodont – Teeth which appear two times bathing the structure
in the lifetime. Sol.: Exocrine glands secrete saliva, mucus,
Acrodont – Teeth are superficially earwax, milk, digestive enzymes etc., but not
attached to the jaw bone, hormones. Hormones are secreted by endocrine
e.g., in fishes. glands directly into the fluid bathing the glands.

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191. Answer (3) recognise changes in CO2 and H+ concentration

Hint: It has ATP binding sites and send signals to the respiratory rhythm centre
for remedial actions.
Sol.: Tropomyosin is a part of thin filament. At rest,
it covers the myosin binding site on actin filament 197. Answer (2)
and hence prevents the formation of cross bridges. Hint: It is present at the end of oesophagus
Many meromyosin constitute one thick filament. Sol.:
Each meromyosin has 2 parts: a globular head with Pyloric sphincter – Controls the passage of
a short arm (heavy meromyosin) and a tail (light chyme into duodenum.
meromyosin). The globular head is an active
ATPase enzyme and has binding sites for ATP and Sphincter of Oddi – Controls the opening of
active sites for actin. hepatopancreatic duct into
duodenum.
192. Answer (2)
Sphincter of Boyden – Controls the opening of
Hint: They are phagocytic cells common bile duct into
Sol.: Macrophages and leucocytes in blood exhibit pancreatic duct.
amoeboid movement, effected by pseudopodia, 198. Answer (3)
formed by the streaming of protoplasm. Hint: Bioluminescence is well marked in
Cytoskeletal elements like microfilaments are also ctenophores
involved in amoeboid movement.
Sol.:
Sperm cells show flagellar movement. The inner Taenia (Tapeworm) – Belongs to phylum
lining of bronchioles and fallopian tubes are lined Platyhelminthes.
by ciliated epithelium.
Ascaris – Belongs to phylum
193. Answer (2) Aschelminthes.
Hint: Blood is present in urine Echinus – Belongs to phylum
Sol.: Haematuria: Presence of blood in urine Echinodermata.
Pyuria: Presence of pus in urine 199. Answer (2)
Hint: Conn’s syndrome is characterised by high
Cystitis: Inflammation of urinary bladder
plasma Na+ and low plasma K+
194. Answer (1)
Sol.: Conn’s syndrome: Caused by excessive
Hint: Peripatus is a primitive arthropod secretion of aldosterone from an adrenal cortical
Sol.: Peripatus is a connecting link between tumour. It is characterised by high plasma Na+, low
annelids and arthropods. Tadpole of frog is plasma K+, rise in blood volume and high B.P.
ammonotelic, whereas adult frog is ureotelic. Myxedema: Caused by deficiency of thyroid
Limulus (King crab) is a living fossil. hormones in adults. Its symptoms include puffy
appearance, decrease in alertness and
195. Answer (1)
intelligence, low metabolic rate, slow heart rate.
Hint: Ventricular repolarisation Gynaecomastia: It is the development of breasts in
Sol.: P-wave represents atrial depolarisation. males, and is usually due to perturbation of
estrogen to androgen ratio.
QRS complex represents depolarisation of the
ventricles. Precocious puberty: Early maturation of ovaries
and testes with production of ova before the age of
T-wave represents the repolarisation of ventricles.
9 years in girls, and production of sperms before
The end of the T-wave marks the end of systole.
the age of 10 years in boys.
196. Answer (4) 200. Answer (4)
Hint: Other respiratory regulatory centres give Hint: Erythropoiesis means formation of RBCs
signal to the specialised centre for remedial actions
Sol.: Progesterone does not stimulate RBC
Sol.: Oxygen does not play a significant role in production. Aldosterone acts on renal tubules and
regulation of respiratory rhythm. Receptors stimulates reabsorption of Na+ and water and
associated with aortic arch and carotid artery can secretion of K+ and phosphate ions.



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