Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS PO-M T-X I V / SB I PO PRELI M S M T- 1

I B PS PO-M T-X I V / SB I PO PRELI M S M ODEL TEST- 1

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (1-6): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions

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given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them while
answering some of the questions.
The word euthanasia is of Greek origin and literally means “a good death.”
The American Heritage Dictionary defines it as “the act of killing a person painlessly
for reasons of mercy.” Such killing can be done through active means, such as
administering a lethal injection, or by passive means, such as withholding medical
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care or food and water. In recent years in the United States, there have been
numerous cases of active euthanasia in the news. They usually involve the
_______(A)_________killing of ill or incapacitated persons by relatives or friends

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who plead that they can no longer bear to see their loved ones suffer. Although
such killings are a crime, the perpetrators are often dealt with leniently by our
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legal system, and the media usually portrays them as compassionate heroes who
take personal risks to save another from unbearable suffering. The seeming
acceptance of active forms of euthanasia is alarming, but we face a bigger, more
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insidious threat from passive forms of euthanasia. Every year, in hospitals and
nursing homes around the country, there are growing numbers of documented
deaths caused by caregivers withholding life sustaining care, including food and
water, from vulnerable patients who cannot speak for themselves.
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While it is omitting (B) to kill someone directly, for example with a gun or
knife, in many cases the law has put its stamp of approval (C) on causing death
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by illegal (D) needed care. Further, many states have “living will” laws designed
to protect those who withhold treatment, and there have been numerous court
rulings which have approved of patients being denied care and even starved and
dehydrated to death. Because such deaths occur quietly within the confines of
hospitals and nursing homes, they can be kept hidden from the public.
Most euthanasia victims are old or very ill, so their deaths might be attributed
to a cause other than the denial of care that really killed them. Further, it is
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often relatives of the patient who request that care be withheld. In one court
case, the court held that decisions to withhold life sustaining care may be made
not only by close family members but also by a number of third parties, and that
such decisions need not be reviewed by the judicial system if there is no
disagreement between decision makers and medical staff.
1. According to the passage, the author finds starvation and dehydration induced
euthanasia is to be “more insidious” because
1) euthanasia is legally considered to be a criminal act
2) the public’s attitude toward euthanasia is becoming more positive
3) it often involves those who cannot protest
4) the patient has asked to die with dignity
5) its perpetrators are viewed as kindly caregivers
2. The author states that death by withholding care is
1) largely confined to hospitals 2) often requested by relatives
3) largely confined to the terminally ill
4) approved by living wills 5) difficult to prove if prosecuted

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Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS PO-M T-X I V / SB I PO PRELI M S M T- 1

3. Which of the following words should fill the blank given in (A) to make it contextually
correct and meaningful?
1) careless 2) heedless 3) deliberate 4) ignorant 5) inattentive
4. Choose the word which is Similar to the word ‘lethal’ printed in bold in the
passage.
1) nonfatal 2) deadly 3) harmless 4) safe 5) beneficial
5. In the passage three words highlighted in bold (B, C & D). Select the option that
gives the correct set of words as a replacement to the bold words.
1) CBD 2) CDB 3) BCD 4) DCB 5) DBC
6. Choose the word which is Opposite to the word ‘insidious’ printed in bold in the

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passage.
1) treacherous 2) guileful 3) subtle 4) deceitful 5) harmless
Directions (7-11): Rearrange the following five sentences (A), (B), (C), and (D) in
the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions
given below.
7.
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A) of Style Illustrated into historical context
B) essays by White and fellow New Yorker
C) A must-have for art lovers and the editorially exact alike,
D) contributor Roger Angell put The Elements

8.
1) CDBA 2) CADB

E 3) CBDA
A) increase in spending on television
4) CBAD 5) CDAB
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B) advertising in judicial races
C) Mirroring the increases in direct campaign
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D) contributions, the last decade has also seen a dramatic

1)BDAC 2) BACD 3) CDAB 4) ACBD 5) DCBA
9. A) off the coast of East Antarctica as crew members
B) It also sheds light on the drama that has unfolded
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C) the sea ice that trapped it for two weeks
D) attempted to free the Russian ship Akademik Shokalskiy from
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1) BADC 2) BDCA 3) BADC 4) BACD 5) DCBA

10. A) 71 votes needed under state rules to pass
B) the legislation with 60 votes, instead of the
C) That amendment allowed the House to pass
D) the bill as originally written
1) CABD 2) CBAD 3) CDBA 4) ABCD 5) ACBD
11. A) the volcano at length come to its
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B) policy of King Cotton work its legitimate results, and
C) head and defy all compression
D) Perhaps not for a century hence will the
1) DBAC 2) DACB 3) DCAB 4) DBCA 5) DABC
Directions (12-16): Which phrase should replace the phrase given in bold in the
sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is
given, mark ‘No correction required’ as your answer.
12. By high school, Sallie is lending her parents money to fix the furnace when it
gave out.
1) is lending of 2) was lending 3) has lending
4) is lending for 5) No correction required
13. According to the Department of Homeland Security, those efforts included
attempts to meddle with the electoral process in 21 states.
1) these effort included 2) those efforts includes 3) these effort includes
4) those effort includes 5) No correction required

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Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS PO-M T-X I V / SB I PO PRELI M S M T- 1

14. The agencies would identify occupations where employees could have learn skills
from non-traditional sources.
1) could have learned 2) could learned 3) can learned
4) could have learn 5) No correction required
15. Putting some weight behind the stereotype, they found that 14 percent were
strip to help pay their way through school.
1) was strip to 2) were striped about 3) were strips for
4) were stripping to 5) No correction required
16. Half of all the plastic that is ever existed was made in just the last 13 years, and

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production is still accelerating.
1) has ever existed 2) have ever existed 3) have ever existing
4) has ever exists 5) No correction required
Directions (17-21): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has
been numbered. These numbers are given below the passage and against each,
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five options are given. Find out the appropriate word which fits the blank
appropriately to make grammatically and contextually correct sentences.
Poetry is the language (17) the imagination and the passions. It relates to

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whatever gives immediate pleasure or pain to the human mind. It
home to the bosoms and businesses of men; for nothing but what comes home to
(18)
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them (19) the most general and intelligible shape can be a subject for poetry.
Poetry (20) the universal language which the heart holds with nature and
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itself. He who has a contempt for poetry cannot have much respect for himself, or
for anything else. Wherever there is a sense of beauty, or power, or harmony, as
in the (21) of a wave of the sea, in the growth of a flower, there is poetry in its
birth.
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17. 1) for 2) about 3) of 4) with 5) by
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18. 1) go 2) come 3) coming 4) going 5) comes

19. 1) of 2) in 3) on 4) under 5) about
20. 1) is 2) have 3) having 4) are 5) were
21. 1) stillness 2) motion 3) reposed 4) dawdling 5) inertia
Directions (22-23): In this question, words (A), (B), (C), and (D) are given in bold.
If two of these words are interchanged, the sentence will be meaningful and
grammatically correct. Identify the pair of words, if interchanged which will make
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the sentence meaningful and grammatically correct. That pair is your answer. If
all the words are appropriate then mark ‘All Correct’ as your answer.
22. With the US approaching (A) a once-unthinkable coronavirus death toll of 4,00,000
people, Joe Biden on the eve (B) of his inauguration as president is assuming the
role of mourner-in chief and projecting (C) an air of command of the issue that
has vexed (D) the Trump administration for the past year.
1) AB 2) BC 3) CA 4) DA 5) DB.
23. While there was no indication (A) of changes in their well-known positions at the
informal meeting of the TRIPS Council held Tuesday, some meetings (B)engaged
in advancing the discussion and extensively exchanged views on this issue after
the series of 30 members (C) held since the proposal was initially submitted (D)
on October 2 last year.
1) CB 2) AB 3) CD 4) DB 5) AC

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Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS PO-M T-X I V / SB I PO PRELI M S M T- 1

Directions (24-25): In the following questions two columns are given containing
three sentences/phrases each. In first column, sentences/phrases are A, B and
C and in the second column the sentences/Phrases are D, E, and F. A sentence/
phrase from the first column may or may not connect with another sentence/
phrase from the second column to make a grammatically and contextually correct
sentence. Each question has five options which display the sequence(s) in which
the sentences/phrases can be joined to form a grammatically and contextually
correct sentence.
24. Column I
A. New studies of the makeup of worlds orbiting two different stars

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B. The planets are packed in so close to their stars that most are
C. Resonance chains are fragile arrangements and
Column II
D. engaged in a delicate orbital dance called a resonance chain.
E. show a wide range of planetary possibilities.
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F. knocking a planet even slightly out of its orbit can destroy them.
1) B-D, A-E and C-F 2) AE and B-F 3) AE and B-F 4) B-D 5) None of these
25. Column I
A. At very short time scales, matter can act very differently from

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B. Understanding of how superheated water behaves will be valuable for
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C. Powerful X-ray lasers are promising for probing
Column II
D. how it behaves in everyday life.
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E. predicting how water samples will act under similar conditions.

F. atmospheric aerosols shape clouds which can help cool the planet.
1) A-E 2) A-F, C-E and B-D 3) AE and B-F
4) A-D and B-E 5) None of these
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Directions (26-30): In each sentence below, four words which are represented as
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(A), (B), (C), (D) have been printed in bold type, one of which may be either
inappropriate in the context to the sentence or wrongly spelt. The corresponding
alphabet of that word is the answer. If all the four words are appropriate and also
correctly-spelt, mark 5) i.e. ‘All correct’ as the answer.
26. An adapt (A) / will know by the ring of the pot (B) / on striking it with his
knuckles (C) / whether water is wanted or not, according (D) / as it rings loud
and clear or dull and heavy. All correct. (E)
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
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27. The black jurors (A)/ who voted to aqcuit (B)/ Simpson reflected the attitudes
(C)/ of their communities (D)/ and brought their life experiences into the
courtroom. All correct (E)
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
28. The rock-hewn (A)/ tombs of Etruria scarcely (B)/ come under the categeory
(C)/ of catacombs, in the usual sense, being rather independent family burial-
places, grouped together in a necropolis (D)/. All correct (E)
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
29. The grades (A) / must not be too great for break (B) / control nor for the hauling
3) / back of the empty (D) / cars. All correct. (E)
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
30. At the same time he endevored (A)/ to acquire (B)/ a knowledge of Hebrew (C)/
, in order to be able to read the Old Testament (D)/ in the original. All correct (E)
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E

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Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS PO-M T-X I V / SB I PO PRELI M S M T- 1

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
Direction(31-36) : Refer to the pie chart and table to answer the given question :
Distribution of total number of gold coins
(both 25 gm and 50 gm) sold by 8 stores in the year 2014 :
Total number: 56,000

A STORES Respective ratio of

H number of 25 gm
7% B
19% gold coins sold and
12%

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number of 50 gm
gold coins sold
G C A 11 : 9
10% 9% B 5:3
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F D 3:7
D E 5:1
8%
14% F 9:5
E G 3:4
21%

E H 17 : 11
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31. Number of gold coins (both 25 gm and 50 gm) sold by store D is by what percent
more than the number of gold coins (both 25 gm and 50 gm) sold by store B ?
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1 1 3 1 2
1) 17 2) 17 3) 15 4) 14 5) 16
3 4 4 3 3
32. What is the average number of 50 gm gold coins sold by stores A, B, D and H
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together ?
1) 3488 2) 3542 3) 3346 4) 3396 5) 3412
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33. Total number of 25 gm gold coins sold by stores F and G together is approximately
what percent less than the number of 25 gm gold coins sold by store E ?
1) 55 2) 46 3) 42 4) 52 5) 39
34. Number of gold coins (both 25 gm and 50 gm) sold by store G increased by a
certain percent from 2014 to 2015 and by 20% from 2015 to 2016. If in 2016
number of gold coins (both 25 gm and 50 gm) sold by store G was 7056. how many
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gold coins (both 25 gm and 50 gm) were sold by it in 2005 ?
1) 6140 2) 5720 3) 5960 4) 5800 5) 5880
35. Number of 50 gm gold coins sold by store A constitutes what percent of the number
of 25 gm gold coins sold by store E ?
1) 27 2) 24 3) 18 4) 22 5) 15
36. A sales person in store H gets Rs.18 as commission for selling a 25 gm gold coin
and Rs. 26 as commission for selling a 50 gm gold coin. One such sales person in
store H sold 15% of the number of 25 gm gold coins sold by the store and 20% of
the number of 50 gm gold coins sold by the store. What was the difference between
the commission earned by her from selling 25 gm gold coins and the commission
earned by her for selling 50 gm gold coins ?
1) Rs.4768 2) Rs 4294 3) Rs.5124 4) Rs.4940 5) Rs.3982

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Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS PO-M T-X I V / SB I PO PRELI M S M T- 1

37. The average weight of boys in a class is 45 kg and the average weight of girls in
the same class is 36 kg. If the average weight of the whole class is 42.25 kg.,
number of girls constitutes what percent of the total number of students in the
class ?
5 1 6 2 4
1) 30 2) 33 3) 37 4) 29 5) 28
9 9 7 7 9
38. A rectangular plot, 36m long and 28m wide, has two concrete crossroads (of same
width) running in the middle of the plot (one parallel to length and the other
parallel to breadth). The rest of the plot is used as a lawn. If the area of the lawn

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is 825 sq m. What is the width of the roads ?
1) 4m 2) 2m 3) 3m 4) 3.5m 5) 2.5m
39. Equal sum of money were invested in scheme A and scheme B for two years.
Scheme A offers simple interest and scheme B offers compound interest
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(compounded annually) and the rate of interest (p.c.p.a.) for both the schemes
are same. The interest accrued from scheme A after two years is Rs. 1920 and
from scheme B is Rs. 2112. Had the rate of interest (p.c.p.a.) of scheme A been
4% more, what would have been the interest accrued from that scheme after 2
years ?

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d
1) Rs. 2252 2) Rs. 2336 3) Rs. 2480 4) Rs. 2304 5) Rs. 2284
40. The respective ratio between present ages of P and Q is 8 : 5. The respective ratio
between P’s age 4 years ago and Q’s age 4 years hence is 4 : 3. What is the
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respective ratio between P’s age 7 years hence and Q’s age 7 years ago ?
1) 18 : 11 2) 11 : 6 3) 11 : 7 4) 9 : 5 5) 9 : 4
41. A shopkeeper purchased 84 identical shirts @ Rs. 240/- each He spent Rs. 3200/
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- on transport and packing and fixed a marked price of Rs. 420/- for each shirt.
However, he decided to give discount of 15% on the marked price of each shirt. If
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he could sell all the shirts, what is the approximate percent profit earned by him ?
1) 24 2) 28 3) 39 4) 35 5) 21
42. In a stream, running at 4 kmph. a motorboat goes 18 km upstream and returns
back to the starting point in 144 minutes. What is the speed of the motorboat in
still water ? (in kmph)
1) 20 2) 16 3) 18 4) 24 5) 12
43. A project manager estimated that he would complete the project in time if he
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hires 36 people for 40 days. At the end of 32 days he realised that only 4 th of
the work is complete. How many more men does he need to hire to complete the
work in time ?
1) 12 2) 8 3) 14 4) 18 5) 16
44. The distance between point A and B is 592 km. At 11 am a car starts from point A
(towards point B) at 36 kmph and at 1 pm another car starts from point B (towards
point A) at 44kmph. At what time will they meet ?
1) 7 pm 2) 6.30 pm 3) 7.30 pm 4) 8.30 pm 5) 8 pm
45. A and B started a business togetner by investing Rs.24,000 and Rs.28,000
respectively. Both of them invested for equal period of time. After 4 months C
joined them by investing a certain amount, if they earned an annual profit of Rs
19,950 out of which C’s share is Rs. 7600. What was C’s investment ?
1) Rs. 52,000 2) Rs. 42,000 3) Rs. 48,000 4) Rs. 40,000 5) Rs. 44,000

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Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS PO-M T-X I V / SB I PO PRELI M S M T- 1

Direction(46-50) : Study the table to answer the given question.

YEAR Annual Salary of an employee in

different department of Company
'X' (in lacs)

Finance HR Marketing Production Procurement

2016 2.96 2.58 2.40 2 1.82
2017 3.20 2.82 2.60 2.48 2

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2018 3.44 3.34 2.92 2.55 2.20
2019 3.69 3.50 3.42 2.78 2.40
2020 4 3.80 3.64 3 2.64
2021 4.24 4.50 4 3.42 2.80

46.
ha
What is the respective ratio between the sum of the annual salary of an employee
who worked in Finance Department and an employee who worked in HR
department in the year 2020 and the sum of the annual salary of an employee

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who worked in Marketing department and an employee who worked in Production
department in the year 2019 ?
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1) 38 : 35 2) 39 : 34 3) 38 : 31 4) 39 : 31 5) 39 : 28
47. What is the percentage increase in the annual salary of an employee who worked
in Finance Department from 2016 to 2021 ?
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9 9 9 9 9
1) 46 2) 42 3) 45 4) 43 5) 44
37 37 37 37 37
48. If in the year 2017, there are 20 employees in HR Department. 24 employees in
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Procurement Department and 30 employees in Marketing Department, what is
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the total expenditure of Company X in the annual salaries of the employees for
these 3 departments together ? (in Rs. Lacs)
1) 182.4 2) 220 3) 194.6 4) 240.2 5) 176.2
49. If in the year 2022, the annual salary of an employee who worked in Marketing
Department is 28% more than the annual salary of an employee who worked in
the same department in the year 2021. The annual salary of an employee who
worked in Procurement Department is 17% more than the annual salary of an
employee who worked in the same department in the year 2021 and the annual
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salary of an employee who worked in Finance Department is 32% more than the
annual salary of an employee who worked in the same department in the year
2021. what is the difference between the annual salary of the employees who
worked in these three departments in 2022 together and the annual salary of the
employees who worked in these three departments in 2021 together ?
1) Rs. 2,65,780 2) Rs. 2,85,430 3) Rs. 2,45,340 4) Rs. 2,95,280 5) Rs. 2,75,980
50. What is the average annual salary of an employee who worked in Production
department for all the given years together ? (inRs.)
1) 2,60,800 2) 2,30,600 3) 2,50,400 4) 2,70,500 5) 2,40,200
Direction(51-55) : What approximate value will come in place of the question
mark (?) in the given question ? (You are not expected to calculate exact value)
51. 589.64 + 4800.02  (20.02 x 59.99) = ?
1) 580 2) 549 3) 531 4) 593 5) 567
52. 25.052 + 14.992 - (3005.25 - 43.32)  ? = 701.9
1) 35 2) 20 3) 25 4) 15 5) 55

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Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS PO-M T-X I V / SB I PO PRELI M S M T- 1

53. (19.899% of 4220.222) + (20.002% of 4960.322) = ?

1) 1856 2) 1844 3) 1828 4) 1810 5) 1836
2
54. 495.006  16.05 + 65.01 x 9.99 = ?
1) 6533 2) 6503 3) 6585 4) 6545 5) 6553
5 8 13
55. of of of 985  ?
9 11 36
1) 152 2) 124 3) 136 4) 144 5) 115
Direction(56-60) : In this question two equations numbered I & II are given. You
have to solve both the equations and select the appropriate answer:

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56. I. 24x2 + 11x + 1 = 0
II. 6y2 + 19y + 15 = 0
1) X  Y 2) X < Y
3) Relationship between x and y cannot be established.
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4) X > Y 5) X  Y
2
57. I. x – 5x – 84 = 0
II. y2 – 9y – 52 = 0
1) Relationship between x and y cannot be established.
2) X < Y

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3) X  Y 4) X > Y 5) X  Y
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58. I. 24x2 – 29 x – 4 = 0
II. 16y2 + 26y + 3 = 0
1) X > Y 2) X  Y 3) X < Y
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4) Relationship between x and y cannot be established 5) X  Y

2
59. I. 14x + 29x +12 = 0
II. 14y2 + 15y + 4 = 0
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1) Relationship between x and y cannot be established.
2) X  Y 3) X < Y 4) X  Y 5) X > Y
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60. I. 12x – 7x + 1 = 0
II. 4y2 – 8y + 3 = 0
1) Relationship between x and Y cannot be established.
2) X  Y 3) X < Y 4) X>Y 5) X  Y
Direction(61-65) : Study the following information carefully to answer the question.
The findings of a survey of private hospitals are as follows :
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1. A total of 1200 patients admitted were considered for the survey.
2. Out of which 45% were suffering from cardiac diseases. 30% were suffering
from kidney problems and remaining were admitted due to various common issues.
3. Out of those suffering from cardiac diseases, 20% had no issues in meeting the
expenditure out of which one - third were rich and remaining had an Insurance policy.
4. Of the remaining 80%, suffering from cardiac diseases three - fourth could
manage half the expenditure on their own and remaining was met through the
monetary help received from some of the trusts. Rest of the patients suffering
from cardiac diseases required complete monetary help from the trusts.
5. Out of those suffering from kidney problems, 25% had no issues in meeting the
expenditure out of which one - third were rich and remaining had an Insurance policy.
6. Of the remaining 75% suffering from kidney problems 40% could manage half
the expenditure on their own and remaining was met through the monetary help
received from some of the trusts. Rest of the patients suffering from kidney
problems required complete monetary help from the trusts.

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Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS PO-M T-X I V / SB I PO PRELI M S M T- 1

7. Out of those suffering from various common issues. 44% could bear the
expenditure out of which two - third are insured and remaining are rich while
rest of the patients could manage by getting partial help from the hospitals’
trusts by getting the treatment at concessional rates.
61. Out of the total number of patients who are able to meet the total expenses, what
percent are insured ?
2 1 2
1) 65 2) 62 3) 61 4) 63 5) 66
3 3 3
62. What percent of total number of patients suffering from cardiac diseases need

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help from trusts to meet half the expenditure ?
1) 48 2) 45 3) 56 4) 60 5) 54
63. Total how many patients are able to meet full expenses being rich ?
1) 136 2) 148 3) 124 4) 110 5) 132
64. How many patients suffering from kidney problems need full monetary help ?
1) 115 2) 108 3) 142 4) 162 5) 148
65.
ha
What is the ratio between patients suffering from cardiac diseases requiring
50% help and the patients suffering from kidney problems requiring either half
or full help respectively ?
1) 7 : 5 2) 5 : 4

E 3) 6 : 5
REASONING
4) 7 : 6 5) 5 : 3
d
Direction: (66-70) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
Certain number of persons are sitting around a circular table facing towards
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the centre. G sits third to the left of T, who is an immediate right of N. R does not
sit immediate to P. Only two persons sit between R and G. Only two persons sit
between N and P (either left or right). The number of persons sit between P and T
is one less than the number of persons sit between S and R. S sits fifth to the
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right of P. R sits second to the left of V.
66. What is the position of S with respect to the V?
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1) Fourth to the left 2) Sixth to the right 3) Fifth to the left

4) Sixth to the left 5) Fifth to the right
67. How many persons are sitting in a circle?
1) 17 2) 13 3) 18 4) 16 5) 12
68. How many persons are sitting between P and G, when counted from left of P?
1) Seven 2) Four 3) Five 4) Eight 5) Six
69. Who sits third to the right of V?
1) G 2) N 3) R 4) S 5) P
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70. Which of the following statement is TRUE?
1) G is immediate left of V. 2) Only three persons sit between R and N.
3) T and N are immediate neighbours.
4) V sits fourth to the right of T. 5) All are true
Direction: (71-73) In these question three statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II have been given. You have to take the three given statements
to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and
then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given
statements disregarding commonly known facts.
71. Statements: Only a few Colours are Yellow
All Yellows are Flowers
No Tree is yellow
Conclusions: I. All Colours are yellows.
II. Some Trees can be Flowers.
1) Both conclusions I and II follow 2) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
3) Only conclusion II follows
4) Only conclusion I follows 5) Either conclusion I or II follows

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Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS PO-M T-X I V / SB I PO PRELI M S M T- 1

72. Statements: All Bananas are Mangoes

No Mango is Guava
Only a few Guavas are Grapes
Conclusions: I. All Grapes are Mangoes is a possibility.
II. Some Bananas are not Grapes.
1) Either conclusion I or II follows 2) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
3) Only conclusion I follows
4) Both conclusions I and II follow 5) Only conclusion II follows
73. Statements: Some Toys are Games Only a few Toys are Tables
All Games are Ground
Conclusions: I. Some Grounds are Toys.

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II. All Tables are Toys is a possibility.
1) Both conclusions I and II follow 2) Only conclusion I follows
3) Only conclusion II follows
4) Neither conclusion I nor II follows 5) Either conclusion I or II follows
74. If it is possible to make a meaningful word from the third, fifth, seventh and tenth
ha
letters of the word ‘MOISTURIZER’, then the second letter of the word thus
formed is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is
‘X’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘Z’.
1) E 2) X 3) T 4) I 5) Z

E
Direction: (75-79) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
d
Ten persons – A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J live in five different floors from
one to five. Ground floor is numbered as one and top floor is numbered as five.
Each of the floor has 2 flats in it as flat-1 and flat-2. Flat-1 of floor-2 is immediately
above flat-1 of floor-1 and immediately below flat-1 of floor-3 and so on. In the
ee

same way flat-2 of floor-2 is immediately above flat-2 of floor-1 and immediately
below flat-2 of floor-3 and so on. Flat-1 is in West of flat-2.
H lives on an odd numbered floor but not an odd number flat. A is living in
C
West of J. I does not live on the third floor. A does not live immediately to G. D
and F are living in the same flat. B lives in the South-West of E. Only two floors
Sr

are between H and G and both do not live in the same flat. G and E do not live on
the same floor. D lives in the North-East of G.
75. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the
above arrangement and hence from a group. Find out the one that does not
belong to that group.
1) G 2) B 3) I 4) J 5) A
76. C lives on which flat and floor ?
1) Flat 2 – Floor 1 2) Flat 1 – Floor 3 3) Flat 2 – Floor 5
C
4) Flat 2 – Floor 3 5) Flat 1 – Floor 5
77. Who lives on flat 2 of floor 4?
1) F 2) B 3) I 4) J 5) D
78. Which of the following statement is TRUE?
1) G lives South-West of J. 2) F and B are on the same Floor.
3) C lives North of H. 4) D lives North-East of B. 5) All are true
79. Who among the following live North of E?
1) F 2) H 3) D 4) I 5) Both 1 and 3
Direction: (80-82) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
Nine members G, H, I, J, K, L, M, N and O live in a family. There are three
married couples. Each couple has a child. K is the daughter-in-law of M, who is
grandmother of O. N is the mother of J but not to O. K is the wife of N’s only
sibling. G is brother-in-law of I, who has two children. I is not married to K and N.
L is not father of O.
80. How is G related to N?
1) Aunt 2) Niece 3) Daughter-in-law 4) Uncle 5) Brother

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Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS PO-M T-X I V / SB I PO PRELI M S M T- 1

81. How is J related to L?

1) Daughter 2) Father 3) Cannot be determined 4) Son 5) Nephew
82. How is H related to I?
1) Daughter 2) Father 3) Son 4) Son-in-law 5) Mother
83. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SCRUTINY’, each of which
has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward
directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series?
1) Two 2) One 3) Four 4) Three 5) More than four
Direction: (84-88) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.

r’s
Eight chairs are arranged in a line and only seven persons – P, Q, R, S, T, U
and V are sitting in a straight line and one of the chairs is vacant. All of them
face North. T sits at one of the extreme ends of the line. S sits immediately before
V. At least two persons are sitting between S and Q. Neither R nor Q sits at an
extreme end. Only two persons are sitting between T and V. More than three
ha
persons are sitting between R and U. Five persons are sitting between T and
Vacant.
84. Who amongst the following persons are immediate to the persons, who are sitting
at extreme ends of the line?

85.
1) T, U

E
2) Vacant, P 3) R, V
What is the position of R with respect to S?
4) R, Vacant 5) Q, R
d
1) Second to the left 2) Immediate left 3) Third to the right
4) Third to the left 5) Second to the right
86. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the
ee

above arrangement and hence from a group. Find out the one that does not
belong to that group.
1) Q – V 2) T – S 3) P – S 4) R – Q 5) R – V
C
87. Which of the following statement is TRUE?
1) P sits on one of the extreme ends of the line.
Sr

2) S and R do not sit immediate to each other.

3) Only two persons are sitting between U and V.
4) U does not sit at extreme ends. 5) All are true
88. Who sits third to the right of V?
1) U 2) No one 3) T 4) S 5) Q
Direction: (89-91) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
C
In a certain code language,
“paint your house yellow” is written as “pa kv wo su”
“gate of yellow colour” is written as “wo fm nk cu”
“house of your choice” is written as “su pa cu ri”
“gate with yellow paint” is written as “gy wo nk kv”.
(Note:All the codes are two letter codes only)
89. In the given code language, what does the code “fm” stand for?
1) choice 2) house 3) colour 4) with 5) your
90. What is the code for “yellow” in the given code language?
1) su 2) wo 3) gy 4) cu 5) kv
91. What may be the possible code for “choice of games” in the given code language?
1) cu pa nk 2) ri cu kv 3) cu fm gy 4) ri as cu 5) su cu ri
92. In the given number ‘72815643’, if ‘1’ is subtracted from all the even digits and
‘2’ is added to all the odd digits, then how many digits will appear more than
once?
1) Three 2) Two 3) One 4) Four 5) More than four

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Sreedhar’s CCE I B PS PO-M T-X I V / SB I PO PRELI M S M T- 1

Direction: (93-97) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
Six persons – P, Q, R, S, T and U were born in different years – 1973, 1979,
1985, 1992, 1999 and 2006. Each one was born in a different state viz. Karnataka,
Tamil Nadu, Punjab, Kerala, Madhya Pradesh and Andhra Pradesh. All the
information is not necessarily in the same order.
S was born after leap year. R was born immediately after the one who was
born in Punjab. Two persons were born between T and the one who was born in
Madhya Pradesh. The one who was born in Madhya Pradesh is immediately before
the one who was born in Karnataka. S does not born in Karnataka. The age

r’s
difference between S and P is 14 years. R was born in Tamil Nadu. Q was born
immediately before the one who was born in Andhra Pradesh. T was elder than R.
Only three persons were born between S and the one who was born in Punjab.
93. How many persons were born between Q and R?
1) Two 2) Three 3) None 4) One 5) More than three
94. T born in which of the following state?
1) Tamil Nadu 2) Punjab
ha 3) Karnataka 4) Kerala 5) Andhra Pradesh
95. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the
above arrangement and hence from a group. Find out the one that does not
belong to that group.
1) Q – Madhya Pradesh

E 2) T – Punjab 3) P – Karnataka
d
4) U – Tamil Nadu 5) R – Andhra Pradesh
96. Which of the following statement is NOT TRUE?
1) Q was born in Karnataka. 2) P is elder than S.
ee

3) R was born in odd numbered year.

4) Only one person was born between P and U. 5) P was born in Punjab
97. Who was born in Punjab?
1) R 2) Q 3) U 4) S 5) P
C
Direction: (98-100) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
Sr

Eight persons – A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are in different weights. G is

heavier than A and D but lighter than B. E is heavier than B but lighter than C. D
is not the lightest person. There are two persons lighter than F but heavier than
H. At least four persons are lighter than B.H is heavier than G.
98. How many persons are lighter than H?
1) Two 2) One 3) Three 4) None 5) More than three
99. Which among the following is the second heaviest person?
1) E 2) C 3) G 4) B 5) F
C
100. How many persons are between D and C?
1) Six 2) Five 3) Four 4) Two 5) Three

KEY
1.3 2.2 3.3 4.2 5.4 6.5 7.3 8.3 9.1 10.2 SCAN QR FOR
11.1 12.2 13.5 14.1 15.4 16.1 17.3 18.5 19.2 20.1 OUR RESULTS
21.2 22.3 23.1 24.1 25.4 26.1 27.2 28.3 29.2 30.1
31.5 32.1 33.2 34.5 35.3 36.2 37.1 38.3 39.4 40.5
41.2 42.2 43.1 44.3 45.3 46.4 47.4 48.1 49.4 50.4
51.4 52.2 53.2 54.1 55.4 56.4 57.1 58.5 59.1 60.3
61.5 62.4 63.4 64.4 65.3 66.3 67.4 68.2 69.2 70.3
71.3 72.2 73.1 74.2 75.4 76.2 77.1 78.4 79.5 80.4
81.3 82.3 83.3 84.4 85.2 86.4 87.3 88.2 89.3 90.2
91.4 92.1 93.4 94.4 95.5 96.5 97.3 98.3 99.5 100.2

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