SBI Circle Based Officer (CBO) 2022 Previous Year Paper

SBI Circle Based Officer (CBO) 2022 Previous Year Paper
Previous Year Paper

SBI Circle Based Officer
Question No. 1
Which of the following sectors do not fall under Priority sector lending for RRBs?
Options :
1. MSME
2. Education
3. Renewable Energy
4. Social infrastructure
5. Export Credit
Answer : Export Credit
Solution :
The categories for PSL for RRBs include:
· Agriculture
· MSME
· Housing
· Education
· Renewable energy
· Social infrastructure
· Others
Export credit falls under PSL for commercial banks but not RRBs.
Question No. 2
What is /are the main aim(s) of financial inclusion?
Options :
1. To maintain a certain quantity of liquid assets with themselves at any

point of time of their total time and demand liabilities
2. To control money supply in the economy.
3. To provide basic banking services to all section of society in urban areas
or rural areas at affordable cost
4. Only A and B
5. A and C
Answer : To provide basic banking services to all section of society in urban

areas or rural areas at affordable cost
Solution :
Financial inclusion is described as the method of offering banking and financial

solutions and services to every individual in the society without any form of
discrimination. It primarily aims to include everybody in the society by giving
them basic financial services without looking at a person’s income or savings.
Financial inclusion chiefly focuses on providing reliable financial solutions to
the economically underprivileged sections of the society without having any unfair
treatment. It intends to provide financial solutions without any signs of
inequality. It is also committed to being transparent while offering financial
assistance without any hidden transactions or costs.
Question No. 3
Under ‘Priority Sector Lending Certificates’ (PSLC) scheme of RBI, when a

deficient bank buys PSLC, the loan as well as liability in case of loan default
would be borne by the ____
Options :
1. Certificate Buyer
2. Certificate Seller
3. MFI
4. NBFC
5. RBI
Answer : Certificate Seller
Solution :
The idea of issuing priority sector lending certificates was first mooted in the
Report of the Dr. Raghu Ram Rajan led Committee on Financial Sector Reforms – A
Hundred Small Steps.
The Committee proposed the PSLC scheme to allow a more efficient implementation of
the priority sector lending mandate (with similar schemes extending to possible
financial service mandates also)
As per the rules:

· Any registered lender (including microfinance institutions,

cooperative banks, banking correspondents, etc.) who has made loans to eligible
categories would get ‘Priority Sector Lending Certificates’ (PSLC) for the
amount of these loans. A market would then be opened up for these
certificates, where deficient banks can buy certificates to compensate for their
shortfall in lending.
· Importantly, the loans would still be on the books of the original

lender, and the deficient bank would only be buying a right to undershoot its
priority sector-lending requirement by the amount of the certificate.
Priority Sector means those sectors which the GoI and RBI consider as important
for the development of the basic needs of the country and are to be given priority
over other sectors. The banks are mandated to encourage the growth of such sectors
with adequate and timely credit.
Priority Sector includes the following categories:
I. Agriculture
II. Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
III. Export Credit
IV. Education
V. Housing
VI. Social Infrastructure
VII. Renewable Energy
VIII. Others
Question No. 4
Which of the following is not one of the Core Sectors in the Indian Economy?
Options :
1. Electricity
2. Steels
3. IT & ITES
4. Natural Gas
5. Fertilizers
Answer : IT & ITES

Solution :
The eight-core sectors of the Indian economy are
Electricity
Steel
Refinery products
Crude oil
Coal
Cement
Natural gas
Fertilizers
Question No. 5
Which of the following entity facilitates the guarantee under the Emergency Credit
Line Guarantee Scheme (ECLGS)?
Options :
1. RBI
2. SIDBI
3. NABARD
4. NCGTC
5. Ministry of MSME
Answer : NCGTC
Solution :
The Union Cabinet approved the Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme in May 2020
and allowed additional funding of up to Rs.3 lakh crores to different sectors,
especially Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSME) and MUDRA borrowers. As per
this scheme, 100% guarantee coverage is to be provided by National Credit
Guarantee Trustee Company Limited (NCGTC) to the Member Lending Institutions
(MLI), Banks, Financial Institutions, and Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFC)
Question No. 6
Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFC) are classified into _________ categories.
Options :
1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5
5. 6
Answer : 4
Solution :
A Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) is a company registered under the Companies

Act, 1956 engaged in the business of loans and advances, acquisition of
shares/stocks/bonds/debentures/securities issued by Government or local authority
or other marketable securities of a like nature, leasing, hire-purchase, insurance
business, chit business but does not include any institution whose principal
business is that of agriculture activity, industrial activity, purchase or sale of
any goods (other than securities) or providing any services and
sale/purchase/construction of immovable property.
NBFCs will be classified into four categories – base, middle, upper and top
layers. The regulatory structure for NBFCs comprises four layers based on their
size, activity, and perceived riskiness. The segregation is based on the
liabilities and assets an NBFC has and the kind of activities it has been engaged
in.
Question No. 7
In case of banks, CRAR is calculated as which among the following?
Options :
1. Tier 1 Capital/ Risk-Weighted Assets

2. Tier 1 Capital + Tier 2 Capital/ Risk-Weighted Assets
3. Tier 1 Capital/ Total Assets
4. Tier 1 Capital + Tier 2 Capital/ Total Assets
5. None of the above
Answer : Tier 1 Capital + Tier 2 Capital/ Risk-Weighted Assets
Solution :
CRAR is the Capital to Risk weighted Assets Ratio. It is also known as CAR
(Capital Adequacy Ratio). It is the ratio of a bank's capital to its risk. CRAR is
decided by central banks and bank regulators to prevent commercial banks from
taking excess leverage and becoming insolvent in the process.
It is calculated as Total capital/ risk weighted assets where total capital is the
sum of Tier I and Tier II capital.
Question No. 8
Which of the following term is not related to the banking industry?
Options :
1. RADAR
2. MCLR
3. NPA
4. CD
5. REPO
Answer : RADAR
Solution :
MCLR: The Reserve Bank of India has brought a new methodology of setting lending
rate by commercial banks under the name Marginal Cost of Funds based Lending Rate
(MCLR).
NPA: A Non-performing asset (NPA) is defined as a credit facility in respect of

which the interest and/or installment of Bond finance principle have remained
'past due' for a specified period of time.
CD: A certificate of deposit (CD) is a time deposit, a financial product commonly

sold in the by banks, thrift institutions, and credit unions. CDs are similar to
savings accounts in that they are insured "money in the bank" and thus virtually
risk-free
REPO: A repurchase agreement (repo) is a form of short-term borrowing for dealers

in government securities.
Question No. 9
What is the minimum limit for investment in the Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme?
Options :
1. 5gm
2. 10gm
3. 1 gm
4. 11gm
5. 2 gm
Answer : 1 gm
Solution :
SGBs are government securities denominated in grams of gold. They are substitutes
for holding physical gold. Investors have to pay the issue price in cash and the
bonds will be redeemed in cash on maturity. The Bond is issued by Reserve Bank on
behalf of Government of India. The Bonds are issued in denominations of one gram
of gold and in multiples thereof. Minimum investment in the Bond shall be one gram
with a maximum buying limit of 500 grams per person per fiscal year (April –
March).
Question No. 10
As per the current FDI policy, the foreign shareholding in private sector banks is
allowed up to?
Options :
1. 65%
2. 70%
3. 72%
4. 74%
Answer : 74%
Solution :
As per the current FDI policy, the foreign shareholding in private sector
banks is allowed up to a ceiling of 74 per cent of the paid-up voting equity
capital.
The aggregate non-resident shareholding from FDI, NRIs and FIIs in the new
private sector banks shall not exceed 49 per cent of the paid-up voting
equity capital for the first 5 years from the date of licensing of the bank.
Question No. 11
“Special Drawing Rights” is associated with which of the following institution ?

Options :
1. World Bank
2. WTO
3. United Nation
4. IMF
5. ADB
Answer : IMF
Solution :
Question No. 12
Which of the following statement about Indian Depository Receipt is correct?
Options :
1. Issue of investment papers by IMF to members country

2. Issue of investment papers by Alternate Investment Funds outside India
3. Issue of depository receipt outside India against underlying equity shares
of company incorporated in India.
4. Issue of depository receipt in India against underlying equity shares of
company incorporated outside India.
5. Issue of investment papers by International stock market to India
Answer : Issue of depository receipt in India against underlying equity shares of

company incorporated outside India.
Solution :
Indian Depository Receipt (IDR) is a financial instrument denominated in Indian

Rupees in the form of a depository receipt. The IDR is a specific Indian version
of the similar global depository receipts (GDR)
It is created by a Domestic Depository (custodian of securities registered with

the SEBI) against the underlying equity of issuing company to enable foreign
companies to raise funds from the Indian securities markets. The foreign company
IDRs will deposit shares to an Indian depository. The depository would issue
receipts to Indian investors against these shares. The benefit of the underlying
shares (like bonus, dividends etc.) would accrue to the depository receipt holders
in India.
Question No. 13
Where can a person buy Sovereign Gold Bonds?
I. Scheduled Commercial banks
II. Small Finance Banks
III. Stock Holding Corporation of India Limited
IV. BSE
Options :
1. I & II
2. II & III
3. III & IV
4. I, III, IV
5. I, II, & III
Answer : I, III, IV
Solution :
The Bonds will be sold through Scheduled Commercial banks (except Small Finance
Banks and Payment Banks), Stock Holding Corporation of India Limited (SHCIL),
designated post offices. It will also be sold through recognised stock exchanges
viz., National Stock Exchange of India Limited and Bombay Stock Exchange Limited.
Question No. 14
Under PMLVMY, what is the annual turnover limit for small businesses ?
Options :
1. 50 Lac
2. 75 Lac
3. 1 Cr
4. 1.5 Cr
5. 2 Cr
Answer : 1.5 Cr
Solution :
Laghu Vyapari Mandhan Yojna
• To provide pension to small/micro buisnesman • Who is eligible ? 1. 18-40 2.

Annual turnover not exceeding 1.5 Cr 3. Should not be a member of
NPS/ESIC/EPFO/SYM/Income tax payer • 3000 after 60 • 50% premium contribution by
laghu vyapari • Pension fund will be administered by LIC
Question No. 15
National Pension Scheme is administered by ______
Options :
1. PFRDA
2. EPFO
3. RBI
4. SEBI
5. IRDA
Answer : PFRDA
Solution :
NPS is administered and regulated by Pension Fund Regulatory and Development

Authority (PFRDA).
It is a voluntary, defined contribution retirement savings scheme designed to

enable the subscribers to make optimum decisions regarding their future through
systematic savings during their working life
Question No. 16
In “FIPB”, what does P stands for?
Options :
1. Profit
2. Promotion
3. Price
4. Pay
5. Plan
Answer : Promotion
Solution :
Foreign Investment Promotion Board(FIPB) is India's government agency exists to

control and co-ordinate foreign direct investment .
Question No. 17
Financial Instruments such as Call Money, Collateral Loans, Bills of exchange, T-

Bills, CoD forms an integral part of?
Options :
1. Capital Market
2. Money Market
3. Counter markets
4. Transaction market
5. Global market
Answer : Money Market
Solution :
Money Market Instruments are simply the instruments or tools which can help one
operate in the money market. These instruments serve a dual purpose of not only
allowing borrowers meet their short-term requirements but also provide easy
liquidity to lenders. Some of the common money market instruments include Banker’s
Acceptance, Treasury Bills, Repurchase Agreements, Certificate of Deposits (CoD)
and Commercial Papers.
Money market instruments allow governments, financial organizations and businesses

to finance their short-term cash requirements. Some of the notable characteristics
of money market instruments are as follows.
· Liquidity – Money market instruments are highly liquid because they are
fixed-income securities which carry short maturity periods of a year or less.
· Safety – Issuers of money market instruments have strong credit ratings,

which automatically mean that the money instruments issued by them will also be
safe.
· Discount Pricing – Another important characteristic feature of money

market instruments is that they are issued at a discount on their face value.
Question No. 18
A Commercial Paper (CP) is an unsecured money market instrument issued in the form
of a promissory note, what is the minimum and maximum maturity period for its
issuance?
Options :
1. 1 day to 6 months
2. 1 day to one year
3. 3 days to 6 months
4. 5 days to one year
5. 7 days to one year
Answer : 7 days to one year
Solution :
Commercial Paper (CP) is an unsecured money market instrument issued in the form
of a promissory note. CP can be issued for maturities between a minimum of 7 days
and a maximum of up to one year from the date of issue. However, the maturity date
of the CP should not go beyond the date up to which the credit rating of the
issuer is valid.
Question No. 19
The Tier II capital of a bank is also referred to as the _______
Options :
1. Core capital
2. Cyclical capital
3. Additional equity capital
4. Supplementary capital
5. Buffer capital
Answer : Supplementary capital
Solution :
The regulatory capital of a bank is divided into two components – Tier I and Tier
II. Tier I items are deemed to be of the highest quality because they are fully
available to cover losses; hence it is also termed as core capital. It consists
of share capital and disclosed reserves and any other capital of permanent nature
like innovative perpetual debt and perpetual non-cumulative preference shares.
Tier II capital’s loss absorption capacity is lower than that of Tier I capital.
It is therefore also known as supplementary capital. It consists of certain
reserves and certain types of subordinated debt.
Question No. 20
From the following financial institutions in India which entitie/s can apply for
voluntary transition to small finance Banks
Options :
1. NBFCs
2. Micro Finance Companies
3. Local Area Banks
4. Urban Co-operative Banks (UCBs)
5. All of above
Answer : All of above
Solution :
NBFC, MFIs, LAB and UCBs can convert into SFBs by following regulatory and minimum
constraints defined by RBI.
2018, In line with the recommendations of R. Gandhi panel (2010): RBI allowed
voluntary transition of UCBs into SFBs.
· Eligibility & Regulations:
ü UCBs with a minimum net worth of ₹50 crore and a CRAR (credit to risk-weighted
assets ratio) of 9 % and above are eligible for the voluntary transition.
ü Upon commencement of business, the converted entity must have
§ A minimum net worth of ₹100 crore and the promoters should hold at least 26 %
of the paid-up equity capital.
§ Need to maintain a CRAR of 15% on a continuous basis .
§ Required to comply with all SFB guidelines such as ensuring that 75 % of

adjusted net bank credit (ANBC) goes towards priority sector lending (PSL) and 50
% of the loan portfolio constitutes loans up to ₹25 lakh.
ü Pros and Cons when UCB’s voluntary convert into Small Finance Banks.
Question No. 21
Which of the following is not and enabler for Financial Inclusion?
Options :
1. Opening of no-frills accounts

2. Opening of branches in unbanked rural centres
3. Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana
4. Relaxation on know-your-customer (KYC) norms
Answer : None of the above
Solution :
RBI defines Financial Inclusion as “process of ensuring access to appropriate

financial products and services needed by all sections of the society in general
and vulnerable groups such as weaker sections and low income groups in
particular.”
Since all of the above will ease access to financial products, they are part of
financial inclusion.
Question No. 22
What is meant by a Bridge Loan?
Options :
1. An infrastructure loan
2. Gap funding loan
3. Unsecured long term loan
4. A loan in form of a grant
Answer : Gap funding loan
Solution :
Bridge loan is a type of gap financing arrangement wherein the borrower can get
access to short-term loans for meeting short-term liquidity requirements. Bridge
loans help in bridging the gap between short-term cash requirements and long-term
loans. These loans are normally extended for a period of 12 months. These loans
are provided at exorbitant rate of interest and are normally backed by an asset
collateral like equity, debentures etc.
Question No. 23
FTSE is stock market index of _______?
Options :
1. Britain
2. America
3. France
4. Germany
5. None of these
Answer : Britain
Solution :
FTSE100 - The Financial Times Stock Exchange 100 Index, also called the
FTSE 100 Index, FTSE 100, FTSE, or, informally, the "Footsie", is a
share index of the 100 companies listed on the London Stock Exchange, UK
(Great Britain)
Question No. 24
In which year was The Banking Regulation Act passed in India?
Options :
1. 1947
2. 1935
3. 1949
4. 1965
5. 1955
Answer : 1949
Solution :
The Banking Regulation Act, 1949 is legislation in India that regulates all
banking firms in India. Initially, the law was applicable only to banking
companies. But, in 1965 it was amended to make it applicable to co-operative
banks and to introduce other changes.
Banking Regulation Act, 1949
This act regulates all banking firms in India i.e. it provides a framework using
which commercial banking in India is supervised and regulated.
Ø Primary Agricultural Credit Society and Cooperative land mortgage banks are not
included under this act.
Ø The Act gives RBI, power to license banks, have regulation over shareholding
and voting rights of shareholders.
Ø It also grants RBI to supervise appointment of the boards and management and
regulate the operations of banks.
Ø It also lays down instructions for audits to be conducted by RBI, control

moratorium, mergers and liquidation, issue directives in the interests of public
good and on banking policy, and impose penalties.
Ø Cooperative Banks were included in this Act under the 1965 amendment.
Question No. 25
Which of the following is not a purpose of banking supervision?
Options :
1. Ensuring safety of public deposit

2. Stability of Financial System
3. Fiscal discipline
4. Soundness of the banking system
Answer : Fiscal discipline
Solution :
Fiscal Discipline refers to a state of an ideal balance between revenues and

expenditure of government, in an economy. If the fiscal discipline is not
maintained, then the government expenditure exceeds government receipts.
Fiscal discipline is as such the responsibility of the government and is not a

part of the banking supervision.
Question No. 26
BASEL-III introduced ________ to mitigate liquidity mismatches in the long term

for banks.
Options :
1. Net Stable Funding Ratio

2. Capital conservation buffer

3. Countercyclical buffer
4. Liquidity Coverage Ratio
5. CET-1
Answer : Net Stable Funding Ratio
Solution :
NSFR is defined as the ratio, for a bank, of its “available amount of stable
funding” divided by its “required amount of stable funding” to mitigate liquidity
mismatches in the longer term.
As per BASEL III Norms ,
Liquidity requirements: Basel III introduced two required liquidity ratios:
· Liquidity Coverage Ratio (LCR) ensures that sufficient levels of high-

quality liquid assets are available for one-month (short term) survival in a
severe stress scenario. Liquidity Coverage Ratio (LCR) is designed to ensure that
a bank maintains an adequate level of unencumbered, high-quality assets that can
be converted into cash to meet its liquidity needs for a 30-day time horizon under
an acute liquidity stress scenario.
· Net Stable Funding Ratio (NSFR) promotes resilience over long-term time
horizons by creating more incentives for financial institutions to fund their
activities with more stable sources of funding on an ongoing structural basis.
NSFR cannot be lower than 100%. The NSFR was designed to address liquidity
mismatch
Question No. 27
Which of the following is NOT a Credit Information company?
Options :
1. CIBIL
2. Experian CICIPL
3. Equifax CISPL
4. Infomerics
5. CRIF High Mark CISPL
Answer : Infomerics
Solution :
Presently, four CICs, viz. Credit Information Bureau (India) Limited, Equifax
Credit Information Services Private Limited, Experian Credit Information Company
of India Private Limited and CRIF High Mark Credit Information Services Private
Limited have been granted Certificate of Registration by RBI.
Infomerics Valuation and Rating Pvt. Ltd is the seventh credit rating agency (CRA)
in India that is accredited as a full-service CRA by RBI in June 2017. The other
six domestic CRA are CARE Ratings, CRISIL, ICRA, IndiaRatings, Brickwork Ratings
and Acuite Ratings (initially SMERA).
Question No. 28
Which of the followings is the maturity period of Term Money?
Options :
1. 10 Days-1 year
2. 15 Days-1 year
3. 16 Days-1 year
4. 20 Days-1 year
5. 30 Days-1 year
Answer : 15 Days-1 year
Solution :
The deposits with maturity period beyond 14 days are referred as the term money.
Term Money refers to borrowing/lending of funds for period between 15 days and
one year. The entry restrictions are the same as that of Call/Notice Money.
However, lending beyond 14 days is not allowed. No collateral is required to cover
these transactions.
If money is borrowed or lend for period between 2 days and 14 days it is known as
Notice Money .
Question No. 29
If a cheque is presented for payment after the period of three months, which of
the following names is given to that cheque?
Options :
1. Post Dated Cheque

2. Order Cheque
3. Stale Cheque
4. Anti Dated Cheque
5. Cross Cheque
Answer : Stale Cheque
Solution :
Cheques are a type of bill of exchange and were developed as a way to make
payments without the need to carry large amounts of money. It is a document that
orders a bank to pay a specific amount of money from a person’s account to the
person in whose name the cheque has been issued. The amount is transferred only to
the person to whom a cheque is addressed.
Cheques are valid for 3 months from the mentioned date. If a cheque is presented
for payment after this period of three months, it is then called stale cheque. A
stale cheque is not honoured by any bank.
Question No. 30
Under which of the following sections of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 the
Banking Ombudsman Scheme was introduced?
Options :
1. Section 23 A
2. Section 45 A
3. Section 35 B
4. Section 35 A
Answer : Section 35 A
Solution :
An Ombudsman is an official appointed by the Government or any organization to

work in the interests of the public by investigating and addressing their
complaints made against the Government, organization, or officials.
The Banking Ombudsman Scheme is introduced under Section 35 A of the Banking

Regulation Act, 1949 by RBI with effect from 1995. The presently operating Banking
Ombudsman Scheme was introduced in 2006. The Scheme covers all Scheduled
Commercial Banks, Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled Primary Co-operative Banks.
Award by Banking Ombudsman:

If an agreement within one month does not settle a complaint, the Banking
Ombudsman proceeds further to pass an Award. The amount to be paid by the bank to
the complainant by way of compensation for any loss suffered by the complainant is
limited to the amount arising directly out of the act or omission of the bank or ₹
20 lakhs.
The Banking Ombudsman may award compensation not exceeding ₹ 1 lakh to the
complainant for mental agony and harassment. The Banking Ombudsman, while passing
such award, will consider the loss of the complainant’s time, expenses incurred by
the complainant, harassment and mental anguish suffered by the complainant.
Question No. 31
NPA is a major problem of banking sector in India. Which of the following acts was
framed specially to deal with Non Performing Assets issue?
Options :
1. Banking Regulation Act 1949

2. Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999
3. Industrial Dispute Act, 1947
4. SARFAESI Act 2002
Answer : SARFAESI Act 2002
Solution :
The Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of

Security Interest Act, 2002 is a legislation that allows banks and other financial
organizations to recover bad loans effectively. The act can be utilized to tackle
the problem of Non-Performing Assets (NPAs) through different procedures.
Basically, the SARFAESI Act empowers financial institutions to ‘seize and desist’.
They should give a notice to the defaulting borrower asking to repay the amount
within 60 days. If the debtor doesn’t comply, the bank can resort to one of the
three following measures:
1. Take the possession of the loan security.

2. Sell or lease or assign the right over the security.
3. Manage the asset or appoint someone to manage the same.
Question No. 32
Consider the following statements with reference to Central Bank Digital Currency
(CBDC):
I. The digital fiat currency or CBDC can be transacted using wallets backed by
blockchain.
II. It is different from decentralized virtual currencies and crypto assets.
III. According to the RBI, “CBDC is the legal tender issued by a public sector
bank in a digital form.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
Options :
1. I only
2. II only
3. III only
4. I and II only
Answer : III only
Solution :
Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) digital rupee — the Central Bank Digital Currency
(CBDC) — may be introduced in phases beginning with wholesale businesses in the
current financial year.
In her Budget speech on February 1, Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman had said
that the central bank would launch the CBDC in the financial year 2022-23.
According to the RBI, “CBDC is the legal tender issued by a central bank in a
digital form. It is the same as a fiat currency and is exchangeable one-to-one
with the fiat currency. Only its form is different”.
The digital fiat currency or CBDC can be transacted using wallets backed by
blockchain.
Though the concept of CBDCs was directly inspired by Bitcoin, it is different from
decentralised virtual currencies and crypto assets, which are not issued by the
state and lack the ‘legal tender’ status.
Question No. 33
The interest yield for a bank is

Options :
1. Interest earned/average advances

2. Interest income/average investments
3. Interest paid/average deposits
4. Net interest income/average advances
5. Net interest income/average assets
Answer : Interest earned/average advances
Solution :
Some important terms for a bank are:
1) Interest yield = interest earned/average advances
2) Cost of deposits = interest paid on deposits/average deposits
3) Net interest income (NII) = interest earned – interest paid
4) Net Interest Margin = NII/average total assets
Question No. 34
Under BASEL III Norms- Capital adequacy ratio (CAR), for a bank, the Retained
earnings forms a part of
Options :
1. Recapitalized capital
2. Tier I capital
3. Additional tier I capital
4. Tier II capital
5. Long term debt
Answer : Tier I capital
Solution :
The Capital Adequacy Ratio, also known as capital-to-risk weighted assets ratio
(CRAR), serves as a useful measure in protecting the depositors and promotes the
stability and efficiency of financial systems all over the world.
It is divided into two types of capital: (1) Tier I Capital and (2) Tier II
Capital.
Tier I Capital consists mainly of shareholders’ equity and retained earnings.

Since this capital is fully available to cover the core losses, it is also called
Core Capital. For this reason this is considered as the highest quality capital.
Tier II Capital consists of:
• Revaluation reserves
• Undisclosed reserves
• Hybrid instruments
• Subordinate debt
Tier II capital’s loss absorption capacity is lower than that of Tier I capital.
It is also known as supplementary capital.
Under Basel III, the minimum total capital ratio is 8%, (6% for the tier 1 capital
ratio and 2% tier 2 capital ratio). As per RBI, the minimum total capital ratio is
9%, (7% for the tier 1 capital ratio and 2% tier 2 capital ratio).
Question No. 35
Which of the following is used to refer to a bond which has BB credit rating?
Options :
1. Unsecured bond
2. Speculative bond
3. Sunk cost bond
4. Base Bonds
5. Investment bond
Answer : Speculative bond
Solution :
The bonds with credit ratings of BBB and above are referred to as Investment grade
bonds as they are expected to be safer. The bonds with ratings of BB and below are
referred to as speculative grade bonds with risk of default associated with them.
Question No. 36
Which of the following is/are features of call money market?
A. It is overnight market
B. Participants include scheduled commercial banks only
C. The borrowing and lending in call market is uncollateralised
Options :
1. Only A
2. Only B
3. Only C
4. A and B
5. A and C
Answer : A and C
Solution :
Call money market is a market for uncollateralized lending and borrowing of funds.
This market is predominantly overnight and is open for participation only to
scheduled commercial banks and the primary dealers.
Question No. 37
What does ‘on-tap licensing’ provided by the Reserve Bank of India mean?
Options :
1. The RBI window for granting banking licences will be open only on specific
dates.
2. The RBI window for granting banking licences will open only when a
proposal arises.
3. The RBI window for granting banking licences will be open throughout the
year.
4. The RBI window for granting banking licences will open only from March-
July.
Answer : The RBI window for granting banking licences will be open throughout the
year.
Solution :
Question No. 38
For Domestic Scheduled Banks, what is the minimum target for Priority sector
lending
Options :
1. 40% of Adjusted Net Bank Credit

2. 40% of Net Bank Credit
3. 40% of Total NDTL
4. 40% of total liabilities
5. 40% of Capital Base
Answer : 40% of Adjusted Net Bank Credit
Solution :
40 % of Adjusted Net Bank Credit is to be given as priority sector lending.
Question No. 39
Expand FEDAI
Options :
1. Foreign exchange Development Authority of India

2. Foreign exchange Dealers’ Association of India
3. Foreign Exchange Due Dilligence Association of india
4. Foreign exchange Development Association of India
5. None of the above.
Answer : Foreign exchange Dealers’ Association of India
Solution :
Question No. 40
Participatory notes (PNs) are associated with which one of the following?
Options :
1. Consolidated Fund of India

2. Foreign institutional investors
3. United Nations Development programme
4. Kyoto Protocol
5. Climate Change
Answer : Foreign institutional investors
Solution :
P-notes are issued by registered foreign portfolio investors (FPIs) to overseas

investors who wish to be part of the Indian stock market without registering
themselves directly.
Direction:
In these questions, two sentences are given with blanks in them and you have to
choose an appropriate word from the given options that can fill both the sentences
making them grammatically and meaningfully complete.
Question No. 41
I. _________ inconvenient the position, it was now necessary to attack in order to

cut a way through for themselves.
II. Her enjoyment of music, ________, is very genuine, for she has a tactile
recognition of sound when the waves of air beat against her.
Options :
1. Despite
2. However
3. Therefore
4. Anyhow
5. None of these
Answer : However
Solution :
Sentence 1 needs a word to show contrast while sentence 2 needs a word that has a
meaning 'regardless of how'. Only "however" is the word which can be used to show
both these meaning. Hence Option 2 is correct.
Direction:
Question No. 42
I. The lack of theological development suggests the resurrection ________are very

early.
II. In the age of child abuse, Aids, abortion and IVF the abduction
__________would voice new concerns.
Options :
1. History
2. Account
3. Statement
4. Narratives
5. None of these
Answer : Narratives
Solution :
In sentence 1, “are” is present after the blank which means the word should be
plural. So, either it is “narratives” or “none of these”. Narratives mean a spoken
or written account of connected events; a story. It will fit in both the blank
correctly. Hence, option 4 is the answer.
Direction:
Question No. 43
I. I knew it, it was the odour that _________precedes a thunderstorm, and a

nameless fear clutched at my heart.
II. In spite of the massive benefits civilization offers to every person in every
station of life, a crazy few will ________see it very differently.
Options :
1. Always
2. Usual
3. Regularly
4. Typically
5. All of the above
Answer : Always
Solution :
Option 2 is grammatically incorrect for both the sentences. Option 3 and 4 are
contextually incorrect for the sentences. Only option left is option 1 which is
contextually as well as grammatically correct for these sentences. Hence, the
correct option is 1.
Direction:
Question No. 44
I. The spirit of Vedic worship is pervaded by a devout belief in the efficacy of

________ and sacrificial offering.
II. A passage difficult of interpretation, but apparently meant to be equivalent

to the Eastern Epiklesis or __________ of the Holy Ghost.
Options :
1. Imploration
2. Quotation
3. Subpoena
4. Commendation
5. Invocation
Answer : Invocation
Solution :
Imploration means an act of begging someone to do something. Quotation is a formal

statement setting out the estimated cost for a particular job or service. Subpoena
means a writ ordering a person to attend a court. Commendation means formal or
official praise. Invocation is a form of words such as ‘In the name of the Father’
introducing a prayer, sermon, etc.
According to the meaning, invocation is contextually correct and meaningful.
Direction:
Question No. 45
I. Thus the ancient kingdom was divided into three separate states with
________aims and interests, a condition of things which, with frequent
rearrangements, continued for more than 150 years.
II. Historians have expressed _________views regarding the early relations of the
craftsmen and their fraternities to the gild merchant.
Options :
1. Separate
2. Antithetical
3. Divergent
4. Conflicting
5. None of these
Answer : Divergent
Solution :
‘Divergent’ is the best word which makes both the sentences meaningful and
coherent.
Option 1 will not fit in statement 2. Option 3 and 4 cannot be used either.
Direction:
Directions: In each of the questions, two sentences are given which are divided
into four parts (A), (B), (C) and (D). Both the sentences may have errors in one
of the four parts or may not have any error at all. You have to find out the parts
containing error and mark that alternative as the answer.
Question No. 46
I. The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) put a cap on the (A)/ number of
visitors when they (B)/ reopened the monuments to the public in July (C)/ after
closing due to the COVID-19 pandemic in March (D).
II. The ASI also ordered the restarting of (A)/ sale pf physical tickets, which
had also been stopped (B)/ to prevent COVID-19 transmission, at monuments where
(C)/ their were problems with the network and QR code for online sale (D).
Options :
1. I- A, II- B
2. I- B, II- D
3. I- C, II- A
4. I- D, II- C
5. No error
Answer : I- B, II- D
Solution :
I- The ASI should be considered as a collective noun, hence, it is singular. So,

in B, ‘they’ should be replaced by ‘it’. So, the fragment would be ‘visitors when
it reopened’.
II- Use of ‘their’ is wrong. ‘there’ is the correct usage. We are talking about a
place, not about people. So, ‘where there were problems’ is correct.
Direction:
Question No. 47
I. Amid the deadlock between the Centre and the protesting farmers, (A)/ Prime
Minister Narendra Modi on Saturday urging people (B)/ to read and share widely, an
e-booklet issued by the government, (C)/ highlighting how the recent agro-reforms
help farmers (D).
II. The government have issued (A)/ an e-booklet in English and Hindi (B)/
highlighting the success stories of farmers (C)/ who have benefitted from the
reforms enacted in September (D).
Options :
1. I- A, II- B
2. I- B, II- A
3. I- C, II- D
4. I- D, II- C
5. No error
Answer : I- B, II- A
Solution :
I- Since the Prime Minister has already asked the people to read and share the e-
book, past tense of the verb should be used for that action. So, ‘urging’ is
wrong. ‘urged people to read’ is correct.
II- Since government is a collective noun, it has to be considered as singular and

the verb used should be singular as well. So, ‘The government has issued’ is
correct.
Direction:
Question No. 48
I. John le Carre, the spy-turned novelist whose (A)/ elegant and intricate
narratives defined (B)/ the Cold War espionage thriller and brought acclaim to
(C)/ a genre critics have once ignored, has died (D).
II. Le Carre’s literary agency, Curtis Brown, said (A)/ on Sunday that he died
(B)/ in Cornwall, Southwest England on Saturday after a short illness, (C)/ and
that it was not relate to COVID-19 (D).
Options :
1. I- A, II- A
2. I- B, II- B
3. I- C, II- C
4. I- D, II- D
5. No error
Answer : I- D, II- D
Solution :
I- Since ‘genre’ is singular, the verb after it should be singular as well. Thus,
‘a genre critics has once ignored’ is correct.
II- Since the sentence is in past tense, the verb should also be in past tense.
Hence, ‘not related to’ is correct.
Direction:
Question No. 49
I. Agricultural reforms had been on (A)/ the government’s agenda for the last
few decades, (B)/ with policy experts stressing the need for shift people from
agricultural work (C)/ to provide cheap labour in manufacturing and service
sectors (D).
II. In the several rounds of talks with the government in Delhi, (A)/ when the
farmers are insisting on a total roll-back, (B)/ and not on deliberation or
amendments, (C)/ they know what them are saying (D).
Options :
1. I- A, II- B
2. I- B, II- C
3. I- C, II- D
4. I- D, II- A
5. No error
Answer : I- C, II- D
Solution :
I- ‘need to shift’ is the correct usage. ‘need for shifting’ can also be used.
II- In D, ‘they know what they are saying’ is the correct usage.
Direction:
Question No. 50
I. Though the boom in edtech (A)/ has enabled access to a larger population,
(B)/ they continue to propagate a narrow view of (C)/ what our school-graduating
students deserves (D).
II. Our education institutions must move away to (A)/ a disproportionate focus
on knowledge acquisition (B)/ to preparing students for problem solving critical
and analytical thinking (C)/ drawing insights from data and synthesising
perspectives (D).
Options :
1. I- A, II- B
2. I- B, II- A
3. I- C, II- D
4. I-D, II- A
5. No error
Answer : I-D, II- A
Solution :
I- Since ‘students’ is plural, the verb after it should be plural as well.

‘students deserve’ is correct.
II- ‘move away from’ is correct. ‘Moving away from something to another’ is the
right usage.
Direction:
In each of the questions, a sentence is divided into five parts A, B, C, D and E
in which two of the parts have some grammatical or contextual errors in them. You
have to identify which pair among the given alternatives represents the parts that
contain those errors. If none of the parts has any error, then mark option 5,
i.e., ‘No error’ as your answer.
Question No. 51
While moping in private players to partner with the government (A)/in producing
CPS and extracting alkaloids from it is likely to required amendments (B)/to the
Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985, the Department has decided
(C)/to appoint a consultant to help frame (D)/the bidding parameters and
concession agreements for the same (E).
Options :
1. A&B
2. B&C
3. C&D
4. A&D
5. No error
Answer : A&B
Solution :
A- The phrase ‘moping in’ is incorrect and does not give a meaning. The correct
phrase should be ‘roping in’, which means ‘to persuading someone to do something
for you’.
B- In this fragment, the word ‘required’ is wrong, as it is not according to the

tense of the sentence. The word ‘require’ is correct.
While roping in private players to partner with the government in producing CPS
and extracting alkaloids from it is likely to require amendments to the Narcotic
Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985, the Department has decided to appoint
a consultant to help frame the bidding parameters and concession agreements for
the same.
Direction:
Question No. 52
Afghan President will be put forward (A)/a three-phase peace roadmap for
Afghanistan (B)/during a proposed meeting in Turkey, (C)/sought an agreement with
the Taliban (D)/and a ceasefire before elections (E).
Options :
1. A&D
2. B&C
3. C&E
4. A&E
5. No error
Answer : A&D
Solution :
A- Since the Afghan President is putting forward a roadmap, the phrase ‘will be
put forward’ is incorrect. The correct phrase is ‘will put forward’.
D- The word ‘sought’ does not comply with the tense. The correct form of the word
‘seek’ here would be ‘seeking’.
Afghan President will put forward a three-phase peace roadmap for Afghanistan
during a proposed meeting in Turkey, seeking an agreement with the Taliban and a
ceasefire before elections.
Direction:
Question No. 53
It was highlighted that all efforts (A)/are underway to secured (B)/adequate

quantities of vaccines to meet (C)/rising domestic requirements as well as (D)/to
meet the genuine needs of another countries (E).
Options :
1. A&B
2. C&D
3. B&E
4. C&E
5. No error
Answer : B&E
Solution :
B- The word ‘secured’ does not comply with the tense. So, the word ‘secure’ is
correct.
E- The phrase ‘genuine needs of another countries’ is incorrect. The correct

phrase is ‘genuine needs of other countries’.
It was highlighted that all efforts are underway to secure adequate quantities of
vaccines to meet rising domestic requirements as well as to meet the genuine needs
of other countries.
Direction:
Each question consists of three sentences and some sentences are grammatically
incorrect or inappropriate. Read each sentence to find out the error in the
sentence (s) and select the option that indicates the grammatically incorrect and
inappropriate sentence (s). Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.
Question No. 54
I. The civic body, which had to fill potholes on nearly 14,000 km of road by
September 30, has been granted a reprieve.
II. The loads from the hot mix plant was insufficient to fill potholes on interior
roads.
III. As a solution, the minister said that local contractors could be asked to
fill potholes.
Options :
1. Only II
2. I and III
3. I and II
4. I, II and III
5. All sentences are correct.
Answer : Only II
Solution :
II-here, since ‘the loads’ is the subject, ‘was’ should be changed to ‘were’.
The loads from the hot mix plant were insufficient to fill potholes on interior
roads.
Direction:
Question No. 55
I. A new cluster with 60 COVID-19 positive cases have been detected near the
Electronics City.
II. Of the 60 students who have tested positive, one student, who had high fever,
has been admitted to hospital.
III. The school, who had reopened on September 5, will now remain closed till
October 20.
Options :
1. Only I
2. I and III
3. I, II and III
4. II and III
Answer : I and III
Solution :
I- here, since ‘a new cluster’ is the subject, ‘has been reported’ is correct,
A new cluster with 60 COVID-19 positive cases has been detected near the
Electronics City.
III- here, instead of ‘who’, ‘which’ is correct.
The school, which had reopened on September 5, will now remain closed till October
20.
Direction:
Question No. 56
I. Groundnut acreage dropped almost 4%, resulting in an estimated production of

82.5 lakh tonnes.
II. The production of coarse cereals is pegged to drop to 3.4 crore tonnes from
comparison to 3.6 crore last year.
III.Cash crops are like to see record production, with an estimate of 41.9 crore
tonnes in the case of sugarcane.
Options :
1. Only II
2. II and III
3. I and III
4. I, II and III
Answer : II and III
Solution :
II- here, the preposition ‘from’ is incorrect. Instead, ‘in’ should be used.
The production of coarse cereals is pegged to drop to 3.4 crore tonnes in

comparison to 3.6 crore last year.
III- here, ‘like’ is incorrect. The adverb ‘likely’ is correct here.
Cash crops are likely to see record production, with an estimate of 41.9 crore
tonnes in the case of sugarcane.
Direction:
Question No. 57
I. A report noted that the company had provided tools to develop games for a
potential Switch 4K gaming console.
II. The Japanese company had introduced a new Switch model in July.
III.Nintendo emphasised that it don’t intend to launch any other model immediately
Options :
1. Only I
2. II and III
3. I and III
4. Only III
Answer : Only III
Solution :
III- here, since Nintendo is singular, ‘don’t’ should be changes to ‘doesn’t’.
Nintendo emphasised that it doesn’t intend to launch any other model immediately.
Direction:
Question No. 58
I. The 6-centimetre Clearly White egg-like case with a matte finish can fit into
your pocket.
II. There is a discreet USB-C port at the bottom to easy charging.
III.The case has a single light on the front to indicated the different modes of
charging and pairing.
Options :
1. Only II
2. I and II
3. II and III
4. I, II and III
Answer : II and III
Solution :
II- here, ‘to easy charging’ is incorrect. The preposition ‘for’ should be used
instead of ‘to’.
There is a discreet USB-C port at the bottom for easy charging.
III- here, ‘to indicated’ is incorrect. ‘indicate’ is correct.
The case has a single light on the front to indicate the different modes of
charging and pairing.
Direction:
Question No. 59
I. Apple Inc's customers will have to wait for a few more weeks to lay their hands
on the new iPhone 13.
II. Supply chain delays and strong demand lead to one of the longest waiting time
for the phone.
III. Apple was not immediately available to comment by the delays in delivery
times.
Options :
1. Only I
2. II and III
3. I, II and III
4. I and II
Answer : II and III
Solution :
II- here, after ‘one of the’, ‘times’ is correct, not ‘time’.
Supply chain delays and strong demand lead to one of the longest waiting times for
the phone.
III- here, ‘comment by’ is incorrect. The preposition ‘on’ is correct here.
Apple was not immediately available to commenton the delays in delivery times.
Direction:
In the following sentence, a part of the sentence is highlighted in bold. Below
it, some options are suggested which may improve the highlighted part of the
sentence, to make it meaningful and grammatically correct. Choose which of the
following option(s) can successfully replace the highlighted part to make the
sentence meaningful and grammatically correct. If the sentence is grammatically
correct and requires no improvement, choose option 5), i.e. No improvement
required.
Question No. 60
In the advent of the digital era and the use of smart technology, remote
monitoring can be leveraged in the management of chronic conditions to post-
operative care to complete recovery.
A. With the advent of
B. To the advent of
C. With the advent off
Options :
1. Both A & B
2. Both B & C
3. Only C
4. Only A
5. No improvement required
Answer : Only A
Solution :
With the advent of the digital era and the use of smart technology, remote
monitoring can be leveraged in the management of chronic conditions to post-
operative care to complete recovery.
The noun advent which means ‘beginning or arrival of something’ should be preceded
by the preposition ‘with’ to make the sentence grammatically & contextually
correct.
Direction:
required.
Question No. 61
The opposition to farm laws could have been avoided has the Government preferred a
Standing Committee scrutiny over pushing the law unceremoniously with a voice vote
in the Upper House.
A. has the Government prefer
B. had the Government preferred
C. if the Government preferred
Options :
1. All A, B & C
2. Both A & B
3. Both B & C
4. Only B
Answer : Both B & C
Solution :
The opposition to farm laws could have been avoided had / if the Government
preferred a Standing Committee scrutiny over pushing the law unceremoniously with
a voice vote in the Upper House.
Both ‘had’ & ‘if’ make the sentence meaningful. As the sentence mentions about a
possibility that could have happened in the ‘past’, therefore ‘had’ or ‘if’ will
be used.
Direction:

required.
Question No. 62
The provisional estimate of GDP for the second quarter of the fiscal has confirmed
that the economy is in recession for the first time since Independence.
A. was in recession for
B. is in recession on
C. is on recession for
Options :
1. Both B & C
2. Both A & C
3. Only A
4. Only B
Answer : No improvement required
Solution :
The sentence is correct as it is.
Direction:
Read the following passage and answer the questions below. Certain words are
highlighted to help you in answering questions.
In recent years, the world has witnessed a remarkable surge in technological

innovation, particularly in the field of robotics. Robots, once relegated to the
realm of science fiction, have transcended their fictional origins and become
integral to various facets of our lives. These advancements are not just limited
to the realm of automation but extend to a broader spectrum of applications,
revolutionizing industries, healthcare, and our daily routines.
One of the most notable advancements in robotics is the development of humanoid

robots. These robots, designed to mimic the physical attributes and movements of
humans, hold immense promise in fields such as healthcare and caregiving. They are
being deployed in hospitals to assist with patient care, offering a helping hand
to nurses and doctors. These robots can perform tasks like delivering medication,
monitoring vital signs, and even providing companionship to patients, thus
relieving healthcare professionals of some of their burdens and ensuring better
patient outcomes.
In manufacturing, robots have evolved beyond the traditional robotic arms on

factory floors. Collaborative robots, or "cobots," work alongside humans,
enhancing efficiency and safety. They are equipped with advanced sensors and
machine learning algorithms, enabling them to adapt to different tasks and even
learn from human colleagues. This synergy between human workers and robots is
redefining how industries approach automation, resulting in higher productivity
and job satisfaction.
Autonomous robots, equipped with artificial intelligence and machine learning

capabilities, are making strides in various fields. From self-driving cars that
promise safer and more efficient transportation to drones that monitor and
maintain infrastructure, these robots are poised to reshape our world. In
agriculture, robotic systems are helping farmers increase crop yields and reduce
waste through precision farming techniques, while in logistics, they're
streamlining supply chains and ensuring timely deliveries.
Advancements in robotics are not without challenges, though. Ethical

considerations, data privacy, and the potential impact on employment are critical
issues that need careful attention. Striking the right balance between harnessing
the benefits of robotic technology and addressing these concerns will be essential
as we move forward.
In conclusion, the rapid advancements in robotics are ushering in a new era of

possibilities. With the continued development of humanoid robots, collaborative
robots, and autonomous systems, we can anticipate a future where robots are not
just tools but active partners in various aspects of our lives, offering
innovative solutions to complex challenges and shaping the way we live and work.
It is an exciting time, and our ability to harness these advancements responsibly
will determine the extent of their positive impact on society.
Question No. 63
What is one of the primary advantages of using humanoid robots in healthcare, as

mentioned in the passage?
Options :
1. They can perform highly complex medical procedures.

2. They are less expensive than traditional medical equipment.
3. They can provide companionship to patients.
4. They require constant supervision from healthcare professionals.
5. They are currently only used in manufacturing.
Answer : They can provide companionship to patients.
Solution :
The passage mentions that humanoid robots in healthcare can perform tasks like
delivering medication, monitoring vital signs, and even providing companionship to
patients. This companionship can be particularly valuable in situations where
patients may be lonely or in need of emotional support.
Direction:


patient outcomes.



as we move forward.

Question No. 64
What is true about the humanoid robots as per the passage?
i.Humanoid robots have not been trusted enough to act as care providers.
ii.Humanoid robots have limited physical movements that cannot compete with
human’s movements.
iii.Humanoid robots have been proved to be complex, though, ingenious when

involved in healthcare service.
iv.Humanoid robots have the prospect to replace the human healthcare professionals
in near future.
v.Humanoid robots can perform certain tasks like delivering medication, monitoring
vital signs, and even providing companionship to patients in healthcare sector.
Options :
1. Only I, ii & iii

2. Only i & ii
3. Only iii
4. Only v
5. All are true
Answer : Only v
Solution :
i.The passage states an opposite fact that the robots are so advanced that their
use has been incorporated in healthcare sector.
ii.The following statement from the passage contradicts the second statement in
the question: “These robots, designed to mimic the physical attributes and
movements of humans….”
iii.The following statement from the passage contradicts the third statement in
the question: ‘and even providing companionship to patients, thus relieving
healthcare professionals of some of their burdens and ensuring better patient
outcomes.’ It says that the use of robots have made lessened the burden of care
provider and not make the work complex.
iv.Nowhere is it talked about that the robots can replace all the health
professionals. The passage, however says that the robots can be helping companions
to healthcare professionals.
v.It is correct as it is mentioned clearly in the passage: “These robots can

perform tasks like delivering medication, monitoring vital signs, and even
providing companionship to patients.”
Direction:


patient outcomes.



as we move forward.

Question No. 65
What role does collaborative robots, or "cobots," play in industries, according to

the passage?
Options :
1. They replace human workers entirely, leading to job loss.

2. They work independently without any need for human interaction.
3. They enhance efficiency and safety by working alongside humans.
4. They are primarily used in agriculture for crop harvesting.
5. They are not equipped with advanced sensors or machine learning
algorithms.
Answer : They enhance efficiency and safety by working alongside humans.
Solution :
The passage states that collaborative robots, or "cobots," work alongside humans,
machine learning algorithms, making them adaptable to different tasks and capable
of learning from human colleagues.
Direction:


patient outcomes.



as we move forward.

Question No. 66
What are some of the challenges associated with advancements in robotics, as

mentioned in the passage?
Options :
1. The high cost of robotic technology and maintenance.

2. Ethical considerations, data privacy, and potential job displacement.
3. The limited capabilities of humanoid robots in healthcare.
4. The lack of interest and investment from industries.
5. The use of autonomous robots in the manufacturing sector.
Answer : Ethical considerations, data privacy, and potential job displacement.
Solution :
The passage mentions challenges such as ethical considerations, data privacy

concerns, and the potential impact on employment as critical issues associated
with advancements in robotics. These challenges need careful attention as the
technology continues to evolve and become more integrated into various aspects of
society.
Direction:


patient outcomes.



as we move forward.

Question No. 67
“In manufacturing sector the use of Robots has been proved to be beneficial
because the human resource is equipped with new skills and innovative ways to
work, which the workers learn from the robots .” According to the passage, this
statement is:
Options :
1. Definitely False
2. Definitely True
3. Probably False
4. Probably True
5. Cannot be determined
Answer : Definitely False
Solution :
The following sentence says that the robots learn from or adapt to the human way
of working while the statement in the question says something opposite: “They are
equipped with advanced sensors and machine learning algorithms, enabling them to
adapt to different tasks and even learn from human colleagues.”
Direction:


patient outcomes.




as we move forward.

Question No. 68
Which one among the following is false according to the passage?
i.Autonomous robots are equipped with artificial intelligence and machine learning
capabilities.
ii.Autonomous robots provide a safer transportation.
iii.Autonomous Robots are not yet advanced to catch human resource pace; hence,
delay in deliveries in logistics.
iv.Autonomous Robots have the power to change our world.
v.Autonomous Robots have been a helping hand to farmers in agriculture.
Options :
1. Only I, ii & iii

2. Only i & ii
3. Only iii
4. Only v
5. All are true
Answer : Only iii
Solution :
Rest statements are true except iii. Since the following sentence states a
contradiction to what the statement in the question mentions: “…in logistics,
they're streamlining supply chains and ensuring timely deliveries.”
Direction:


patient outcomes.



as we move forward.

Question No. 69
Which of the following word is similar in meaning to ‘synergy’ as used in the

passage?
Options :
1. Discord
2. Conflict
3. Harmony
4. Disharmony
5. Dissension
Answer : Harmony
Solution :
Synergy is defined as ‘the interaction or cooperation of two or more

organizations, substances, or other agents to produce a combined effect greater
than the sum of their separate effects.’ Harmony means a balance or a state of
being in agreement or concord.
Direction:


patient outcomes.



as we move forward.

Question No. 70
Which of the following word is similar in meaning to ‘strides’ as used in the

passage?
Options :
1. Stagnation
2. Progress
3. Advancement
4. Progression
5. Gains
Answer : Stagnation
Solution :
‘Stride’ is defined as a step or stage in progress towards an aim while

‘Stagnation’ is defined as the state of not flowing or moving.
Direction:
Study the following information to queue the given questions:
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of word and numbers
arranges them following a particular logic at each step. The following is an
illustration of the input and various steps to obtain the output.
Input: toy 92 cream 45 attire 38 careless 57 popular 19
Step I: 19 92 cream 45 attire 38 careless 57 popular toy
Step II: 92 19 45 attire 38 careless 57 popular toy cream
Step III: 45 92 19 38 careless 57 popular toy cream attire
Step IV: 38 45 92 19 careless 57 toy cream attire popular
Step V: 57 38 45 92 19 toy cream attire popular careless
Step V is the final output.
Find the final output and various steps for the following input.
Input: street 46 trap 49 hot 29 grinder 68 intelligent 56
Question No. 71
What is the position of "intelligent" in step IV?
Options :
1. Immediate left of 56
2. Immediate right of trap
3. Second to the left of 56
4. Third to the right of 46
5. None of these
Answer : Third to the right of 46
Solution :
Words arrangement: Words are rearranged as per ascending order of number of

letters. Words are arranged at extreme right end. Numbers arrangement: The numbers
are changed as per ascending order of the product of digits. Numbers are arranged
at extreme left end.
Input : street 46 trap 49 hot 29 grinder 68 intelligent 56
Step I : 29 street 46 trap 49 grinder 68 intelligent 56 hot
Step II: 46 29 street 49 grinder 68 intelligent 56 hot trap
Step III: 56 46 29 49 grinder 68 intelligent hot trap street
Step IV: 49 56 46 29 68 intelligent hot trap street grinder
Step V: 68 49 56 46 29 hot trap street grinder intelligent
Direction:
Question No. 72
Which of the following is third to the left of '56' in step II?
Options :
1. 68
2. grinder
3. 49
4. street
5. None of these
Answer : grinder
Solution :

Direction:

Question No. 73
What is the difference between the second element from right end in step I and
second element from left end in step II?
Options :
1. 22
2. 29
3. 27
4. 25
5. Can't be determined
Answer : 27
Solution :

Direction:

Question No. 74
Which of the following words is towards the left of "hot" in step IV?
Options :
1. intelligent
2. grinder
3. trap
4. All of these
5. None of these
Answer : intelligent
Solution :

Direction:

Question No. 75
Which of the following comes exactly between 56 and trap in the final output?
Options :
1. hot
2. 29
3. 46 and 29
4. hot and 29
5. All of these
Answer : 29
Solution :

Direction:
Read the information given below and answer the questions that follow:
In a family of six persons T, U, V, W, X and Y, there are two married couples. W

is grandmother of T and mother of U. V is wife of U and mother of Y. Y is the
grand-daughter of X.
Question No. 76
How is V related to T?
Options :
1. Daughter
2. Grandmother
3. Mother
5. None of these
Answer : Mother
Solution :
Direction:

Question No. 77
How many male members are there in the family?
Options :
1. Two
2. Three
3. Four
5. None of these
Answer : Cannot be determined
Solution :
Direction:

Question No. 78
Which of the following is true?
Options :
1. T is brother of Y
2. T is sister of Y
3. W is grandmother of T
4. W is mother of Y
5. None of these
Answer : W is grandmother of T
Solution :
Direction:

Question No. 79
Who among the following is one of the couples?
Options :
1. VW
2. WX
3. XU
5. None of these
Answer : WX
Solution :
Direction:
Study the following information carefully and answer the following questions.
In a certain code,
“slumped initial trading against” is coded as “E&14 A&5 U&1 E&19”
“currency importers demand previous” is coded as “A$18 U*14 O%21 A%3”
“rebound witnessed previous exchange” is coded as “A%7 O&14 A$5 O%21”
“global strong volatility weighed” is coded as “U*26 I*13 E!7 A&22”
Question No. 80
What will be the code for “number tweets”?
Options :
1. I!23 U$25
2. O%12 E&9
3. A*22 A*7
4. I$13 U*7
5. None of these
Answer : A*22 A*7

Solution :
Explanation:
Letter: Previous vowel of the last vowel
Symbol – Total number of letters
6 = *, 7 = &, 8 = %, 9 = $, 10 = !
Number: place value of reverse of second last letter in the English alphabet
series
Direction:
In a certain code,
Question No. 81
What can be the possible code for “succeeded seemingly failed”?
Options :
1. I!27 O%24 U*16

2. E%11 U&6 I&14
3. A$22 E$15 A*22
4. CND
5. None of these
Answer : A$22 E$15 A*22
Solution :
Explanation:

6 = *, 7 = &, 8 = %, 9 = $, 10 = !
series
Direction:
In a certain code,
Question No. 82
What may be the code for the word “information”?
Options :
1. U#34
2. E$23
3. O%11
4. I@12
5. None of these
Answer : I@12
Solution :
Explanation:
6 = *, 7 = &, 8 = %, 9 = $, 10 = !
series
Direction:
In a certain code,
Question No. 83
What will be the possible word for the given code “A$22”?
Options :
1. other
2. single
3. defeat
4. countries
5. None of these
Answer : countries
Solution :
Explanation:
6 = *, 7 = &, 8 = %, 9 = $, 10 = !
series
Direction:
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions below-:
Point A is 26m West of point B. Point C is 52m north of point A. Point D is 39m
east of point C and point M is 13m south of point C. point N is 39m north of
point B.
Question No. 84
What is the shortest distance between point M and point N?
Options :
1. 12m
2. 26m
3. 39m
4. 52m
5. 25m
Answer : 26m
Solution :
Shortest distance between point M and point N = AB = MN = 26 m.
Direction:
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions below-:
Point A is 26m West of point B. Point C is 52m north of point A. Point D is 39m
east of point C and point M is 13m south of point C. point N is 39m north of
point B.
Question No. 85
In which direction point A with respect to point D?
Options :
1. South east
2. South
3. North east
4. East
5. None of these
Answer : None of these
Solution :
Question No. 86
Documents converted to .......... can be published to the Web.
Options :
1. .doc file
2. http
3. machine language
4. HTML
5. None of these
Answer : HTML
Solution :
Question No. 87
Holding the mouse button down while moving an object or text is known as __
Options :
1. Moving
2. Dragging
3. Dropping
4. Highlighting
5. None of these
Answer : Dragging
Solution :
Question No. 88
What is object of UPS?
Options :
1. Using for storage

2. To increase the speed of a computer
3. Provides backup power
4. All of these
5. None of these
Answer : Provides backup power
Solution :
Question No. 89
POST stands for ...........
Options :
1. Power on Self Test

2. Program on Self Test

3. Power on System Test
4. Program on System Test
5. Power Off System Test
Answer : Power on Self Test
Solution :
Question No. 90
Which of the following can input graphical images and pictures for a computer?
Options :
1. Plotter
2. Scanner
3. Mouse
4. Printer
5. Keyboard
Answer : Scanner
Solution :
Question No. 91
Consider the following statements with reference to ‘Trade Infrastructure for

Export Scheme (TIES)’:
I. The Trade Infrastructure for Export Scheme was launched by the Ministry of
Heavy Industries.
II. The Central Government helps with infrastructure creation by providing Grant-
in-aid.
III. Grants-in-aid are given by the Union Ministry to State Governments.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
Options :
1. I only
2. II only
3. III only
4. I and II only
5. II and III only
Answer : II only
Solution :
Statement I is not correct -: In 2017, the Ministry of Commerce and Industry

launched the Trade Infrastructure for Export Scheme (TIES).
Its objective is to assist Central and State Government agencies in the creation
of appropriate infrastructure for the growth of exports.
Statement II is correct -: The Central Government assistance for infrastructure

creation will be in the form of grant-in-aid.
Statement III is not correct -: Grants-in-aid are given by the Union Government
to State Governments and/or Panchayati Raj Institutions.
Question No. 92
Which of the following is/are not correct about the electoral bond scheme:
I. Earlier, no foreign company could donate to any political party under the
Companies Act.
II. A firm could only donate a maximum of 10% of its average 3-year net profit as
political donations.
III. Companies had to disclose details of their political donations in their

annual statement of accounts.
Which of the above statement is/are not correct?
Options :
1. I only
2. II only
3. III only
4. I and II only
5. II and III only
Answer : II only
Solution :
Restrictions that were done away with after the introduction of the electoral bond
scheme:
Statement I is correct -: Earlier, no foreign company could donate to any

political party under the Companies Act
Statement II is not correct -: A firm could donate a maximum of 7.5 per cent of
its average 3 year net profit as political donations according to Section 182 of
the Companies Act
Statement III is correct -: As per the the Act, companies had to disclose details
of their political donations in their annual statement of accounts. The government
moved an amendment in the Finance Bill to ensure that this proviso would not be
applicable to companies in case of electoral bonds.
Question No. 93
Which of the following refers to the top grouping within the G20 that consists of
the current, previous and the incoming presidencies?
Options :
1. Sherpa
2. Troika
3. Triplet
4. Trident
Answer : Troika
Solution :
It refers to the top grouping within the G20 that consists of the current,
previous and the incoming presidencies — Indonesia, Italy and India.
Question No. 94
As per the Regional Rural Banks (Amendment) Bill, 2014, the authorised capital of
the RRBs has been raised from Rs 5 cr to
Options :
1. Rs 50 cr
2. Rs 100 cr
3. Rs 500 cr
4. Rs 1,000 cr
5. Rs 2,000 cr
Answer : Rs 2,000 cr
Solution :
This amendment bill increases the authorised capital of each Regional Rural Bank
(RRB) from Rs 5 crore to Rs 2000 crore divided into Rs 200 crore of fully paid
share of Rs 10 each.
Question No. 95
According to the new RBI’s norms, the KYC is required to be done once in every
___years for high-risk customers?
Options :
1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5
5. 6
Answer : 2
Solution :
KYC is required to be done once in every two years for high risk customers, once
in every eight years for medium risk customers and once in every ten years.
Question No. 96
Consider the following statements regarding “Central Bank Digital Currency

(CBDC)”:
I. Being a digital fiat currency, it cannot be transacted using wallets backed by

blockchain.
II. Nigeria has been the first economy to launch its nationwide CBDC.
III. CBDCs are legal tenders issued and backed by a central bank.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options :
1. I only
2. II only
3. III only
4. I and II only
5. II and III only
Answer : III only
Solution :
It is the same as a fiat currency and is exchangeable one-to-one with the fiat
currency.
Statement I is not correct - The digital fiat currency or CBDC can be transacted
using wallets backed by blockchain.
Bahamas has been the first economy to launch its nationwide CBDC — Sand Dollar.
Statement II is not correct - China became the world's first major economy to
pilot a digital currency e-CNY in April 2020. Nigeria is another country to have
rolled out eNaira in 2020.
Statement III is correct - CBDCs are a digital form of a paper currency and unlike
cryptocurrencies that operate in a regulatory vacuum, these are legal tenders
issued and backed by a central bank.
Question No. 97
Recently Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) has signed a MoU with which
state/UT’s organisation to boost e-commerce adoption?
Options :
1. Ladakh
2. Jammu and Kashmir
3. Lakshadweep
4. Andaman and Nicobar Island
Answer : Jammu and Kashmir
Solution :
Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) has signed a memorandum of understanding
(MoU) with the Jammu and Kashmir Trade Promotion Organization (JKTPO) to boost e-
commerce adoption in the union territory.
Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) is a freely accessible government-backed

platform that aims to democratise e-commerce by moving it from a platform-centric
model to an open network for buying and selling of goods and services.
Question No. 98
Recently who among the following person had recently appointed as the fourth whole
time member for the term of three years by market regulator SEBI?
Options :
1. Ananth Narayan Gopalkrishnan

2. SK Mohanty
3. Ashwani Bhatia
4. Ananta Barua
Answer : Ananth Narayan Gopalkrishnan
Solution :
Whole Time Member-A whole-time director refers to a director who has been in
employment of the company on a fulltime basis and is also entitled to receive
remuneration.
SEBI has appointed Ananth Narayan Gopalkrishnan, Associate Professor, SP Jain

Institute of Management & Research as the 4th whole time member. He has been
appointed for the initial period of 3 years.
He will join SEBI’s other three Whole Time Members namely SK Mohanty, Ashwani
Bhatia and Ananta Barua.
SEBI Headquarters: Mumbai
Chairman: Madhabi Puri Buch
Question No. 99
Central government launch Swachh Vayu Sarvekshan as part of National Clean Air
Programme (NCAP), It may help to reduce air pollution up to 40 per cent by _____
Options :
1. 2025-26
2. 2026-27
3. 2027-28
4. 2028-29
5. 2029-30
Answer : 2025-26
Solution :
In a bid to reduce air pollution, the Central government will launch Swachh Vayu
Sarvekshan that promotes ranking of 131 cities in the country for implementing
City Action Plans prepared as part of National Clean Air Programme (NCAP).
The exercise may help reduce air pollution up to 40 per cent by 2025-26.
Question No. 100
Which of the following term is used in banking and finance to describe businesses
that have a significant economic impact on the global economy and whose failure
could result in worldwide financial crises?
Options :
1. Very Big to Fail

2. To High to Fail
3. Many Big to Fail
4. Too Big to Fail
Answer : Too Big to Fail
Solution :
Too Big to Fail (TBTF) is a term used in banking and finance to describe
businesses that have a significant economic impact on the global economy and whose
failure could result in worldwide financial crises.
Question No. 101
All fraud cases of value below ₹ 10,000/- involving bank officials, should be
referred to the ___ of the bank?
Options :
1. Board
2. Auditor
3. Central Head
4. Regional head
5. RBI
Answer : Regional head

Solution :
All fraud cases of value below ₹ 10,000/- involving bank officials, should be
referred to the Regional Head of the bank, who would scrutinize each case and
direct the bank branch concerned on whether it should be reported to the local
police station for further legal action.
Question No. 102
The Software FET-ERS V 6.2 has been developed by the Department of Statistical
Analysis & Computer Services (DESACS) RBI to expedite the compilation of _____.
Options :
1. Compilation of balance of payments

2. Monetary Policy
3. Fiscal Policy
4. Banking and Financial statistics
Answer : Compilation of balance of payments
Solution :
Reserve Bank of India introduced an electronic reporting system for foreign

exchange transactions in October 1997.
At present FET-ERS V 5.0 is in use and the latest version of the package (i.e.FET-
ERS V 6.2) is being introduced.
The purpose and country details of sale and purchase transactions are required for
compilation of balance of payments.
Question No. 103
According to the Indo-Nepal Remittance Facility Scheme, what is the maximum number
of remittances in a year?
Options :
1. 9
2. 10
3. 11
4. 12
5. 15
Answer : 12
Solution :
The Scheme leverages the National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT) ecosystem
available in the country for origination of such remittances and entails a ceiling
of ₹50,000 per remittance with a maximum of 12 remittances in a year. The
beneficiary receives funds in Nepalese Rupees through credit to her / his bank
account maintained with the subsidiary of State Bank of India (SBI) in Nepal,
i.e., Nepal SBI Bank Limited (NSBL) or through an agency arrangement.
Question No. 104
How many Indian institutes and universities made it to the QS Sustainable Ranking
2023 list?
Options :
1. 10
2. 12
3. 15
4. 16
5. 18
Answer : 15
Solution :
Fifteen Indian institutes and universities made it to the QS Sustainable Rankings

2023, led by IIT Bombay, IIT Delhi, and Jawaharlal Nehru University (JNU).
Question No. 105
Which of the following country is not the part of G20 ‘Troika’?
Options :
1. Indonesia
2. Italy
3. China
4. India
Answer : China
Solution :
It refers to the top grouping within the G20 that consists of the current,
previous and the incoming presidencies — Indonesia, Italy and India.
Question No. 106
In which of the following edition of IMF Balance of Payments Manual, the scope of
the collection of data on foreign exchange transactions has to be widened?
Options :
1. 1st
2. 2nd
3. 3rd
4. 4th
5. 5th
Answer : 4th
Solution :
To meet the requirement of a compilation of BoP Statistics as per the guidelines

under IMF Balance of Payments Manual, 1993 (5th edition) (BPM5), the scope of the
collection of data on foreign exchange transactions has to be widened.
Question No. 107
United Nations projects that global population will reach 9.7 billion people in
_____.
Options :
1. 2030
2. 2040
3. 2050
4. 2060
5. 2070
Answer : 2050
Solution :
The United Nations projects that global population will reach 9.7 billion people
in 2050, and population growth almost coming to an end at 10.4 billion in 2100.
Question No. 108
Who is the CEO of multinational conglomerate holding company Softbank Group?
Options :
1. Masayoshi Son
2. Seo Jung-jin
3. Kwon Hyuk-bin
4. Hong Ra-hee
5. Chung Mong-koo
Answer : Masayoshi Son
Solution :
Question No. 109
Bank ATM card holders are now eligible for free transactions (inclusive of
financial and non-financial transactions) from other bank ATMs viz. three
transactions in metro centres and ____ transactions in non-metro centres.
Options :
1. Three
2. Four
3. Five
4. Six
5. Ten
Answer : Five
Solution :
Bank ATM card holders are now eligible for free transactions (inclusive of
financial and non-financial transactions) from other bank ATMs viz. three
transactions in metro centres and five transactions in non-metro centres.
Question No. 110
In which of the following scheme the person can avail a working capital loan of up
to Rs. 10,000, which is repayable in monthly instalments within a year?
Options :
1. PM Ujjwala Yojna
2. PM SYM
3. PM KISAN
4. PM SVANidhi
5. PMAY
Answer : PM SVANidhi
Solution :
The vendors can avail a working capital loan of up to Rs. 10,000, which is
repayable in monthly instalments within a year. The loans would be without
collateral.
Question No. 111
IBFC full form
Options :
1. Indian Business and Financial Corporation

2. International Business and Financial Centre
3. International Banking and Financial Centra
4. Indian Banking and Finance Centre
Answer : International Business and Financial Centre
Solution :
International Business and Financial Centre (Malaysia) IBFC.
Question No. 112
Which social media platform announced to will offer a feature on its platform by
the end of the year through which users will be able to discover catalogues of
various retailers/ sellers and place orders for direct delivery?
Options :
1. Facebook
2. Instagram
3. Whatsapp
4. LinkedIn
Answer : Whatsapp
Solution :
End-to-end online shopping-Whatsapp will offer a feature on its platform by the

end of the year through which users will be able to discover catalogues of various
retailers/ sellers and place orders for direct delivery. Users will be able to
visit a business icon on Whatsapp through which companies like Boat, Netmeds, etc
will be reachable. They will be able to explore their catalogue and place orders.
WhatsApp Headquarters : Calfornia,US
CEO: Will Cathcart
Question No. 113
Recently RBI hikes collateral free loans to SHGs under DAY-NRLM to Rs ______.
Options :
1. 10 Lakh
2. 15 Lakh
3. 20 Lakh
4. 25 Lakh
5. 30 Lakh
Answer : 20 Lakh
Solution :
The enhancement of collateral-free loans to self-help groups (SHGs) from Rs 10

lakh to Rs 20 lakh under Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana - National Rural Livelihoods
Mission (DAY-NRLM).
Question No. 114
Consider the following statements about “Competition Commission of India (CCI)”:
I. The commission is a quasi-judicial body.
II. CCI consists of a chairperson and 6 members appointed by the Central

Government.
III. The Chairperson and other Members shall be temporary Members.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Options :
1. I only
2. II only
3. III only
4. I and II only
5. II and III only
Answer : III only
Solution :
The Competition Commission of India (CCI) was established in March 2009 by the
Government of India under the Competition Act, 2002 for the administration,
implementation, and enforcement of the Act.
Statement I is correct - A quasi-judicial body is “an organ of Government other

than a Court or Legislature, which affects the rights of private parties either
through adjudication or rulemaking.
Statement II is correct - The Commission consists of one Chairperson and six

Members who shall be appointed by the Central Government.
Statement II is not correct - The Chairperson and other Members shall be whole-
time Members.
Question No. 115
Consider the following:
I. Financial Inclusion Index
II. Wholesale Price Index
III. Consumer Price Index
Which of the indexes given above is/are issued by the Reserve Bank of India?
Options :
1. I only
2. I and II only
3. I and III only
4. I, II and III
Answer : I only
Solution :
The Financial Inclusion Index is a comprehensive index incorporating details of

banking, investments, insurance, postal as well as the pension sector in
consultation with the government and respective sectoral regulators.
It is issued by the Reserve Bank of India.
WPI tracks inflation at the producer level and CPI captures changes in prices
levels at the consumer level.
WPI does not capture changes in the prices of services, which CPI does.
It is issued by the Office of Economic Advisor under the Ministry of Commerce and
Industry.
Question No. 116
Which of the following firm has launched India’s first real estate digital escrow
service to facilitate quick, efficient, and secure financial transactions between
homebuyers, sellers, and agents?
Options :
1. 99 Acres
2. Oyo
3. Olx
4. Square Yards
Answer : Square Yards
Solution :
Square Yards has launched India’s first real estate digital escrow service to
facilitate quick, efficient, and secure financial transactions between homebuyers,
sellers, and agents.
With this real estate escrow service, homebuyers/tenants can now make token
amounts, security payments, and rental deposits, completely online in digital
escrow accounts.
Square Yards Headquarters: Gurugram
CEO: Tanuj Shori

Question No. 117
RBI will issue a penalty of Rs. _____ per ATM/WLAs for banks for CAsh-out for more
than 10 hours in a month.
Options :
1. 5,000
2. 8,000
3. 9,000
4. 10,000
5. 15,000
Answer : 10,000
Solution :
Question No. 118
Any Indian Citizen, resident or non-resident, between the age of 60- 65 years can
also join NPS and continue upto the age of ___ years in NPS?
Options :
1. 60
2. 65
3. 70
4. 75
5. 78
Answer : 70
Solution :
Any Indian Citizen, resident or non-resident, between the age of 60- 65 years can
also join NPS and continue upto the age of 70 years in NPS. With this increase of
joining age, the subscribers who are willing to join NPS at the later stage of
life will be able to avail the benefits of NPS.
Question No. 119
Which of the following is the highest lending arm of the World Bank?
Options :
1. International Development Association

2. International Bank of Reconstruction and Development
3. International Finance Corporation
4. Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency
Answer : International Bank of Reconstruction and Development
Solution :
The World Bank Group has four Boards of Executive Directors representing the four
institutions of the World Bank Group: International Bank for Reconstruction and
Development (IBRD), International Development Agency (IDA), International Finance
Corporation (IFC) and Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA).
Question No. 120
Consider the following statements:
I. The weightage of food in Consumer Price Index (CPI) is higher than that in
Wholesale Price Index (WPI).
II. The WPI does not capture changes in the prices of services, which CPI does.
III. Reserve Bank of India has now adopted WPI as its key measure of inflation and
to decide on changing the key policy rates.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options :
1. I only
2. II only
3. III only
4. I and II only
5. II and III only
Answer : I and II only
Solution :
Reason for Divergence between WPI and CPI? (Published: Monthly basis)
Statement I is correct: In CPI Food group has higher weight of food and beverages
which accounts 45.86 per cent (with food at 39.06 per cent, prepared meals at 5.55
per cent and non-alcoholic beverages at 1.26 per cent) as compared to the combined
weight of 24.4 per cent (Food articles and Manufactured Food products) in WPI
basket.
CPI basket consists of services like housing, education, medical care, recreation
etc. which are not part of WPI basket.
Statement II is correct: CPI covers goods and services items while WPI covers
goods only.
Statement III is not correct: Reserve Bank of India has adopted CPI (NOT WPI) as
its key measure of inflation and to decide on changing the key policy rates.
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SBI Circle Based Officer (CBO) 2022 Previous Year Paper

Previous Year Paper

Answer : Export Credit

The categories for PSL for RRBs include:

What is /are the main aim(s) of financial inclusion?

1. To maintain a certain quantity of liquid assets with themselves at any

Answer : To provide basic banking services to all section of society in urban

Financial inclusion is described as the method of offering banking and financial

Under ‘Priority Sector Lending Certificates’ (PSLC) scheme of RBI, when a

Answer : Certificate Seller

As per the rules:

· Any registered lender (including microfinance institutions,

· Importantly, the loans would still be on the books of the original

Priority Sector includes the following categories:

II. Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises

III. Export Credit

VI. Social Infrastructure

VII. Renewable Energy

Answer : IT & ITES

The eight-core sectors of the Indian economy are

Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFC) are classified into _________ categories.

A Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) is a company registered under the Companies

In case of banks, CRAR is calculated as which among the following?

1. Tier 1 Capital/ Risk-Weighted Assets

Answer : Tier 1 Capital + Tier 2 Capital/ Risk-Weighted Assets

Which of the following term is not related to the banking industry?

NPA: A Non-performing asset (NPA) is defined as a credit facility in respect of

CD: A certificate of deposit (CD) is a time deposit, a financial product commonly

REPO: A repurchase agreement (repo) is a form of short-term borrowing for dealers

“Special Drawing Rights” is associated with which of the following institution ?

Which of the following statement about Indian Depository Receipt is correct?

1. Issue of investment papers by IMF to members country

Answer : Issue of depository receipt in India against underlying equity shares of

Indian Depository Receipt (IDR) is a financial instrument denominated in Indian

It is created by a Domestic Depository (custodian of securities registered with

Where can a person buy Sovereign Gold Bonds?

I. Scheduled Commercial banks

II. Small Finance Banks

III. Stock Holding Corporation of India Limited

Laghu Vyapari Mandhan Yojna

• To provide pension to small/micro buisnesman • Who is eligible ? 1. 18-40 2.

laghu vyapari • Pension fund will be administered by LIC

National Pension Scheme is administered by ______

NPS is administered and regulated by Pension Fund Regulatory and Development

It is a voluntary, defined contribution retirement savings scheme designed to

In “FIPB”, what does P stands for?

Foreign Investment Promotion Board(FIPB) is India's government agency exists to

Financial Instruments such as Call Money, Collateral Loans, Bills of exchange, T-

Answer : Money Market

Money market instruments allow governments, financial organizations and businesses

· Safety – Issuers of money market instruments have strong credit ratings,

· Discount Pricing – Another important characteristic feature of money

Answer : 7 days to one year

The Tier II capital of a bank is also referred to as the _______

Answer : Supplementary capital

Answer : All of above

· Eligibility & Regulations:

ü Upon commencement of business, the converted entity must have

§ Need to maintain a CRAR of 15% on a continuous basis .

§ Required to comply with all SFB guidelines such as ensuring that 75 % of

Which of the following is not and enabler for Financial Inclusion?

1. Opening of no-frills accounts

Answer : None of the above