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1- Which of the following immunity is present from our birth?

(a) Innate Immunity

(b) Active immunity

(c) Passive immunity

(d) Acquired immunity

Sol: (a) Innate Immunity

2- Neutrophils, basophil, lymphocytes, eosinophil and monocytes are examples of


________.

(a) Physical barrier

(b) Cellular barriers

(c) Cytokine barriers

(d) Physiological barriers

Sol: (b) Cellular barriers.

3- B-cells and T-cells are two types of cells involved in _______________.

(a) Innate Immunity

(b) Active immunity

(c) Passive immunity

(d) Acquired immunity

Sol: (d) Acquired immunity.

4- Which of the following cells is involved in cell-mediated immunity?

(a) T-cells
(b) B-cells

(c) Mast cells

(d) Both T and B cells

Sol: (a) T-cells.

5- Which of the following cells is involved in humoral immunity?

(a) T-cells

(b) B-cells

(c) Mast cells

(d) Both T and B cells

Sol: (b) B-cells.

6- Which of the following immunity is obtained during a lifetime?

(a) Innate immunity

(b) Active immunity

(c) Passive immunity

(d) Both (b) and (c)

Sol: (d) Both (b) and (c).

7- Skin, body hair, cilia, eyelashes, the respiratory tract and the gastrointestinal
tract are examples of ________.

(a) Physical barrier

(b) Cellular barriers

(c) Cytokine barriers


(d) Physiological barriers

Sol: (a) Physical barrier.

8- Cells Involved In Innate Immunity are_________.

(a) Phagocytes

(b) Macrophages

(c) Natural Killer Cells

(d) All of the above

Sol: (d) All of the above.

9- Which of the following immunity is called the first line of defence?

(a) Innate Immunity

(b) Active immunity

(c) Passive immunity

(d) Acquired immunity

Sol: (a) Innate Immunity.

10-In order for T cells to respond to the antigen for which they are specific, they
need to recognize which of the following?

a. B cells.

b. the antigenic epitope displayed by MHC molecules.

c. immunoglobulin.

d. cytokines.
Answer: b.

11- What is the full form of PMNL?

a) Polymorpho-nuclear leukocytes
b) Pinacocytes Mono-nuclear lymphocytes
c) Polynomial lymphocytes
d) Pinacoderm Mono-nuclear lymphocytes
Answer: a

12- In innate immunity, complement system functions through ________


a) Alternate pathway
b) Classical pathway
c) Heightened pathway
d) Anatomical pathway
Answer: a

13- Number of proteins belonging to the complementary system is _______


a) Ten
b) Sixty
c) Forty-Four
d) Thirty
Answer: d

14- Interferons are which type of barriers?


a) Physical barriers
b) Physiological barriers
c) Cellular barriers
d) Cytokine barriers
Answer: d

15- In Acquired immunity, complement system functions through___________


a) Classical pathway
b) Alternate pathway
c) Heightened pathway
d) Anatomical pathway
Answer: a

16- Complements are the proteins that are involved in the clearance of
antigens/bacteria.

- Which of the following pathway is involved in the adaptive immune response?


a) Alternative Pathway
b) Classical Pathway
c) Lectin Binding Pathway
d) All of the above

b) Classical Pathway

17- The alternative pathway is activated in response to antigens but does not require
antibody interaction. The following proteins are the component of the alternative
pathway, except?
a) C3
b) Factor B
c) Factor D
d) Properdin

a)C3

18- Which of the following component of complement proteins enhances


inflammation (anaphylatoxin)?
a) C3a
b) C5a
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above

c)Both of the above

19- Major Histocompatibility Complex is a tight cluster of linked___________


a) Carbohydrates
b) Proteins
c) Genes
d) Lipid molecules
Answer: c

20- What is the name of MHC in humans?


a) HLA
b) H2
c) Adjuvants
d) Haplotype
Answer: a

21- Which of these are non-professional antigen presenting cells?


a) Macrophages
b) Dendritic cells
c) Fibroblast
d) B lymphocytes
Answer: c

22- Name the cell which receives antigen presented by MHC molecule.
a) Nk cells
b) B-cells
c) T-cells
d) Macrophages
Answer: c

23- Name the class of MHC which is recognized by CD4 TH cell.


a) MHC cannot recognize T cells
b) MHC III
c) MHC I
d) MHC II
Answer: d

24- Which MHC molecule recognizes CD8 TC cells?


a) MHC I
b) MHC II
c) MHC III
d) HLA-C
Answer: a

25- Which of the following statement is INCORRECT about superantigens?


a) Viral or bacterial proteins
b) Endogenous by nature
c) Unique binding ability
d) Activate a large number of T-cells
Answer: b

26- Which of these immune cells are able to quickly respond post any subsequent
encounter with the same antigen?

(a) helper T cells

(b) memory cells

(c) plasma cells

(d) basophil

Answer: (b)

27- Basophils, eosinophils and Neutrophils are referred to as

(a) Platelets

(b) Astocytomas

(c) Granulocytes

(d) Buffers

Answer: (c)

28-Cytotoxic T cells destroy the target cells


(a) through injection of tumor necrosis factor

(b) by phagocytosis

(c) through insertion of perforins into the target’s membrane

(d) by releasing oxidizing agents

Answer: (c)

29- ___________ are released in the respiratory burst having the potent of cell-
killing ability

(a) histamines

(b) neutrophils

(c) free radicals

(d) platelets-derived growth factors

Answer: (c)

30- The lymphocytes which can develop immunocompetence in the thymus is

(a) B lymphocytes

(b) T lymphocytes

(c) NK cells

(d) None of these

Answer: (b)

31- An immune response when provoked by a nonself particle is known as

(a) immunoglobulin

(b) antibody
(c) antigen

(d) interferon

Answer: (c)

Jawetz 147

32-What is a characteristic of the adaptive immune response and


not of the innate response?
(A) Physical barriers
(B) Chemical barriers
(C) Clonal expansion of effector cells
(D) Inflammatory mediators
(E) Phagocytosis

33. Which genetic mechanism increases the number of different


antibody molecules during an immune response without increasing
the diversity of the pool of antigen receptor specificities?
(A) V gene segment recombination
(B) Class switching
(C) Somatic hypermutation
(D) Junctional variability due to imprecise V, D, and
J joining
(E) Gene duplication ie, multiple V, D, and J gene segments

34. What is the principal function of the class I and class II MHC
molecules?
(A) They are mediators of T-independent B-cell responses.
(B) They bind peptide antigens for presentation to antigenspecific
receptors on B cells.
(C) They help in endocytosis of antigens by phagocytic cells.
(D) They bind carbohydrate antigens directly for presentation
on T cells.
(E) They display peptide antigens for review by antigenspecific
receptors on T cells.

35- MHC class I molecules need to bind peptide antigens to fold


properly and to be expressed at the cell surface. What would
you expect to be the most common health problem in a child
with a defect in the function of the peptide transporter (TAP)
found in the endoplasmic reticulum?
(A) Chronic upper respiratory viral infections
(B) Parasitic infections
(C) Infections with encapsulated bacteria
(D) Pronounced allergies to household pets
(E) Autoimmune disease

36. Which major antibody molecule has the ability to cross the
placenta?
(A) IgG
(B) IgA
(C) IgM
(D) IgE
(E) IgD

37. A man in his twenties presents in the emergency room with


shortness of breath and fatigue. He is also very pale. Two days
earlier he was given penicillin for an infection. He had penicillin
previously without problems and stated that he had “no
allergy” to penicillin. Laboratory testing shows that antibodies
to penicillin are present in the patient’s serum and that
he is breaking down his own red blood cells. He is diagnosed
with immune hemolytic anemia. The patient has which type of
hypersensitivity reaction?
(A) Type I
(B) Type II
(C) Type III
(D) Type IV (DTH)
38. Which one of the following cell types expresses receptors for
IgE on its cell surface that stimulate the cell to mount a response
to parasites such as worms?
(A) T cells
(B) B cells
(C) Promonocytes
(D) NK cells
(E) Mast cells

39. Which immunologic test is widely used to precisely enumerate


and collect cells expressing an antigen bound by a fluorescencetagged
monoclonal antibody?
(A) ELISA
(B) Direct immunofluorescence
(C) Western blotting
(D) Fluorescence-activated cell sorting
(E) Indirect immunofluorescence

40. In any given immunoglobulin molecule, the light chains are:


(A) Identical to each other in their antigenic determinants
(B) Identical to each other
(C) Identical to each other except in their hypervariable regions
(D) Of related but different amino acid sequences
(E) Identical to each other except in their overall domain
Structure.

41. Antigen–antibody complexes are phagocytosed more effectively


in the presence of which complement component?
(A) C3a and C5a
(B) C3b
(C) C56789 complex
(D) MBL
(E) Properdin

42. NK cells express a killer immunoglobulin-like receptor, which


recognizes:
(A) MHC class I molecules
(B) MHC class II molecules
(C) Cell adhesion molecules
(D) Glycophospholipid molecules
(E) CD40 molecules

43. A cell that plays a critical role in the innate immune response
and kills virus infected cells is:
(A) T cell
(B) Neutrophil
(C) NK cell
(D) Macrophage
(E) B cell

44. A cytokine that activates cells to express MHC class II antigens


and protects cells from virus replication is:
(A) Interferon-
(B) IL-6
(C) Interferon-
(D) TNF-
(E) IL-10

45. IgE-mediated histamine release is classified as what type of


hypersensitivity reaction?
(A) Type 1
(B) Type 2
(C) Type 3
(D) Type 4
46. The interaction of a pathogen molecule with its specific TLR
directly results in which of the following?
(A) Presentation of pathogen molecule to helper T cells
(B) Cell activation and production of cytokines and chemokines
(C) IgG production
(D) Immunoglobulin class switching
(E) Phagocytosis

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