TEST 1

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions.
Colors are one of the most exciting experiences in life. I love them, and they are just as important to me as emotions
are. Have you ever wondered how the two are so intimately related?
Color directly affects your emotions. Color both reflects the current state of your emotions, and is something that you
can use to improve or change your emotions. The color that you choose to wear either reflects your current state of being, or
reflects the color or emotion that you need.
The colors that you wear affect you much more than they affect the people around you. Of course they also affect
anyone who comes in contract with you, but you are the one saturated with the color all day ! I even choose items around me
based on their color. In the morning, I choose my clothes based on the color or emotion that I need for the day. So you can
consciously use color to control the emotions that you are exposed to, which can help you to feel better.
Color, sound, and emotions are all vibrations. Emotions are literally energy in motion; they are meant to move and
flow. This is the reason that real feelings are the fastest way to get your energy in motion. Also, flowing energy is exactly
what creates healthy cells in your body. So, the fastest way to be healthy is to be open to your real feelings. Alternately, the
fastest way to create disease is to inhibit your emotions.
Question 55: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Colors can help you become healthy. B. Colorful clothes can change your mood
C. Emotions and colors are closely related to each other D. Colors are one of the most exciting.
Question 56: Which of the following can be affected by color?
A. Your need for thrills B. Your appetite C. Your friend's feelings D. Your mood
Question 57: Who is more influenced by colors you wear?
A. Anyone B. Your family C. The people around you are more influenced D. You are more influenced
Question 58: According to the passage, what do color, sound, and emotion all have in common?
A. They are all forms of motion B. None is correct
C. They all affect the cells of the body D. They are all related to health
Question 59: According to this passage, what creates disease?
A. Wearing the color black B. Ignoring your emotions
C. Being open to your emotions D. Exposing yourself to bright colors
Question 60: The term "intimately" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
A. simply B. clearly C. closely D. obviously
Question 61: The term "they" in paragraph 3 refers to
A. none of these B. colors C. people D. emotions
Question 62: Why does the author mention that color and emotions are both vibrations?
A. Because vibrations make you healthy B. Because they both affect how we feel.
C. To prove the relationship between emotions and color.
D. To show how color can affect energy levels in the body.
Question 63: The phrase "saturated with" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to
A. covered with B. lacking in C. bored with D. in need of
Question 64: What is the purpose of the passage?
A. to give an objective account of how colors affect emotions
B. to persuade the reader that colors can influence emotions and give a person more energy
C. to show that colors are important for a healthy life
D. to prove the relationship between color and emotion
TEST 2

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of
the blanks.
The first question we might ask is: What can you learn in college that will help you in being an employee? The
schools teach a (1)____ many things of value to the future accountant, doctor or electrician. Do they also teach anything of
value to the future employee? Yes, they teach the one thing that it is perhaps most valuable for the future employee to know.
But very few students bother (2)____ it. This basic is the skill ability to organize and express ideas in writing and in speaking.
This means that your success as an employee will depend on your ability to communicate with people and to (3)____ your
own thoughts and ideas to them so they will (4)____ understand what you are driving at and be persuaded.
Of course, skill in expression is not enough (5)____ itself. You must have something to say in the first place. The
effectiveness of your job depends (6)____ your ability to make other people understand your work as they do on the quality of
the work itself.
Expressing one's thoughts is one skill that the school can (7)____ teach. The foundations for skill in expression have
to be (8)____ early: an interest in and an ear (9)____ language; experience in organizing ideas and data, in brushing aside the
irrelevant, and above all the habit of verbal expression. If you do not lay these foundations (10)____ your school years, you
may never have an opportunity again.
Question 1: A. lots B. large C. far D. great
Question 2: A. learn B. with learning C. learning D. to learn

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Question 3: A. give out B. present C. interpret D. transfer
Question 4: A. as well B. either C. not D. both
Question 5: A. in B. on C. for D. by
Question 6: A. much on B. most on C. on most D. on much
Question 7: A. hardly B. quite C. truly D. really
Question 8: A. lay B. laid C. lain D. lied
Question 9: A. if B. in C. for D. by
Question 10: A. when B. of C. during D. for

TEST 3

In the past people suffered (55) _____ a disease called scurvy. Their gums bled, their skin became rough, their wounds
did not (56) _____ and their muscles wasted away. The (57) _____ of these symptoms was a lack of vitamin C; peopleate
preserved meats and foods and could not get fresh vegetables and fruits.
The best (58) _____ of vitamin C are oranges, lemons, grapefruit, cantaloupes, strawberries, and fresh vegetables. These
fruits must be fresh because vitamin C is destroyed by heat, storage, or exposure (59) _____ air.
Although today more people (60) _____ vitamin C pills than any other supplement, some people still have scurvy,
(61)_____ some of the elderly, alcoholics, and the chronically ill.
Research shows that vitamin C reduces the (62) ____ of colds and can help prevent cancer. There is also evidence that
vitamin C prevents heart disease, (63) ____ wound healing, helps prevent gum disease, and helps protect us from pollutants
such as cigarette smoke. Some recent research also shows that vitamin C has a positive effect on some mental (64)_____ and
increases life span.
55. A. from B. with C. by D. at
56. A. close B. recover C. heal D. get well
57. A. reason B. cause C. origin D. signs
58. A. store B. resources C. provider D. sources
59. A. to B. towards C. in D. by
60. A. consume B. drink C. take D. have
61. A. containing B. including C. consisting D. like
62. A. severity B. seriousness C. gravity D. importance
63. A. hastens B. hurries up C. quickens D. speeds
64. A. chaos B. confusions C. disorders D. disturbances
TEST4

Choosing a career may be one of the hardest jobs you ever have, and it must be done with care. View a career as an
opportunity to do something you love, not simply as a way to earn a living. Investing the time and effort to thoroughly explore
your options can mean the difference between finding a stimulating and rewarding career and move from job to unsatisfying
job in an attempt to find the right one. Work influences virtually every aspect of your life, from your choice of friends to
where you live. Here are just a few of the factors to consider.
Deciding what matters most to you is essential to making the right decision. You may want to begin by assessing
your likes, dislikes, strengths, and weaknesses. Think about the classes, hobbies, and surroundings that you find most
appealing. Ask yourself questions, such as “Would you like to travel ? Do you want to work with children ? Are you more
suited to solitary or cooperative work ?” There are no right or wrong answers ; only you know what is important to you.
Determine which job features you require, which ones you would prefer, and which ones you cannot accept. Then rank them
in order of importance to you.
The setting of the job is one factor to take into account. You may not want to sit at a desk all day. If not, there are
diversity occupation – building inspector, supervisor, real estate agent – that involve a great deal of time away from the office.
Geographical location may be a concern, and employment in some fields in concentrated in certain regions. Advertising job
can generally be found only in large cities. On the other hand, many industries such as hospitality, law education, and retail
sales are found in all regions of the country.
If a high salary is important to you, do not judge a career by its starting wages. Many jobs, such as insurance sales,
offers relatively low starting salaries; however, pay substantially increases along with your experience, additional training,
promotions and commission.
Don’t rule out any occupation without learning more about it. Some industries evoke positive or negative
associations. The traveling life of a flight attendant appears glamorous, while that of a plumber does not. Remember that many
jobs are not what they appear to be at first, and may have merits or demerits that are less obvious. Flight attendants must work
long, grueling hours without sleeps, whereas plumbers can be as highly paid as some doctors. Another point to consider is that
as you mature, you will likely develop new interests and skills that may point the way to new opportunities. The choice you
make today need not be your final one.
41. The author states that “There are no right or wrong answers” in order to ____.
A. emphasize that each person’s answers will be different.
B. show that answering the questions is a long and difficult process.
C. indicate that the answers are not really important. D. indicate that each person’s answers may change over time.
42. The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to____.
A. questions B. answers C. features D. jobs
43. The word “assessing” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by____.

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 A. discovering B. considering C. measuring D. disposing
44. According to paragraph 3, which of the following fields is NOT suitable for a person who does not want to live in a big
city? A. plumbing B. law C. retail sales D. advertising
45. The word “evoke” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to____.
A. agree on B. bring to mind C. be related to D. differ from
46. The word “that” in paragraph 4 refers to____.
A. occupation B. the traveling life C. a flight attendant D. commission
47. It can be inferred from the paragraph 3 that____.
A. jobs in insurance sales are generally not well-paid.
B. insurance sales people can earn high salary later in their career.
C. people should constantly work toward the next promotion.
D. a starting salary should be an important consideration in choosing a career.
48. In paragraph 5, the author suggests that____.
A. you may want to change careers at some time in the future.
B. as you get older, your career will probably less fulfilling.
C. you will be at your job for a lifetime, so choose carefully.
D. you will probably jobless at some time in the future.
49. Why does the author mention “long, grueling hours without sleeps” in paragraph 4?
A. To emphasize the difficulty of working as a plumber.
B. To contrast the reality of a flight attendant’s job with most people’s perception.
C. To show that people must work hard for the career they have chosen.
D. To discourage readers from choosing a career as a flight attendant.
50. According to the passage, which of the following is true?
A. To make a lot of money, you should not take a job with a low starting salary.
B. To make lots of money, you should rule out all factory jobs.
C. If you want an easy and glamorous lifestyle, you should consider becoming flight attendant
D. Your initial view of certain careers may not be accurate
TEST 5

A recent study shows that an unequal share of household chores is still the norm in many households, dispite the fact that
many more women now have jobs. In a survey of 1,256 people ages between 18 and 65, men said they contributed an average
of 37% of the total housework, while the women estinated their share to be nearly double that, at 70%. This ratio was not
affected by whether the woman was working or not.
When they were asked what they thought was a fair division of labor, women with jobs felt that housework should be
shared equally between male and female partners. Women who did not work outside the home wrer satisfied to perform 80% -
the majority of the household work – if their husbands did remaider. Reseach has shown that, if levels increase beyond these
percentages, women become unhappy and anxious, and feel they are unimportant.
After marriage, a woman is reported to increase her household workload by 14 hours per week, but for men the amount is
just 90 minutes. So the division of labor becomes unbalanced, as a man’s share increases much less than the woman’s. It is the
inequality and loss of repect, not the actual number of hours, which leads to axiety and depression. The reseach describes
housework as thankless and unfulfilling. Activities included in the study were cooking, cleaning, shopping, doing laundry,
washing up and childcare. Women who have jobs report that they feel overworked by these chores in addition to their
professional duties. In contrast, full-time homemakers frequently anticipate going back to work when the children grow up.
Distress for this group is cuased by losing the teamwork in the marriage.
In cases where men perform most of the housework, results were similar. The men also became depressed by the
imbalance of labor. The research showed that the least distressed people are those who have equal share, implying that men
could perform significantly more chores and even benefit from this. The research concludes “ Everybody benefits from
sharing the housework. Even for women keeping house, a share division of labor is important. If you decide to stay at home to
raise the children, you don’t want to become the servant of the house”
(Adapted from LouisHarrision & Caroline Cushen, 2013)
Question 30: The word remaider.in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______ .
A. what is done B. what is fulfilled C. what is left D. what is share
Question 31: Athough women think men should share the housework, those who don’t have paid job agree to share ______
of the chores.
A. 14% B. 37% C. 70% D. 80%
Question 32: After getting married, ______ .
A. women kave a bigger house B. men do more housework
C. men do less housework D. women do twice as much housework
Question 33: Working women ______ .
A. want their partners to do an equal share B. are anxious and depressed
C. do 80% of the household D. would prefer not to have a job
Question 34: Women who do not have a job become depressed ______ .
A. if they have to do more than half of the housework B. because they have no respect
C. when their husbands do not hepl them D. if their husbands do 29% of the chores
Question 35: The word norm in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______ .
A. changing thing B. strange thing C. usual thing D. unequal thing
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Question 36:According to the passage, a good relationship is the one in which ______ .
A. men do more housework than women B. women and men divide the housework equally
C. women do 80% of the housework D. women do 14 hours of housework
Question 37:Objects of the survey were ______ .
A. people of a wide range of ages B. married people
C. working people D. unemploy people
Question 38: The word estinated in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______ .
A. wanted B. divided C. hoped D. guessed
Question 39: What is the most suitable heading for the passage?
A. Difficulties of working women B. Unequal housework division
C. Reason for women to be distress D. How to be happy couples

TEST 6

Most forms of property are concrete and tangible, such as houses, cars, furniture or anything else that is included in one’s
possessions. Other forms of property can be intangible, and copyright deals with intangible forms of property. Copyright is a
legal protection extended to authors of creative works, for example, books, magazine articles, maps, films, plays, television
shows, software, paintings, photographs, music, choreography in dance and all other forms of intellectual or artistic property.
Although the purpose of artistic property is usually public use and enjoyment, copyright establishes the ownership of the
creator. When a person buys a copyrighted magazine, it belongs to this individual as a tangible object. However, the authors
of the magazine articles own the research and the writing that went into creating the articles. The right to make and sell or give
away copies of books or articles belongs to the authors, publishers, or other individuals or organizations that hold the
copyright. To copy an entire book or a part of it, permission must be received from the copyright owner, who will most likely
expect to be paid.
Copyright law distinguishes between different types of intellectual property. Music may be played by anyone after it is
published. However, if it is performed for profit, the performers need to pay a fee, called a royalty. A similar principle applies
to performances of songs and plays. On the other hand, names, ideas, and book titles are excepted. Ideas do not become
copyrighted property until they are published in a book, a painting or a musical work. Almost all artistic work created before
the 20th century is not copyrighted because it was created before the copyright law was passed.
The two common ways of infringing upon the copyright are plagiarism and piracy. Plagiarizing the work of another
person means passing it off as one’s own. The word plagiarism is derived from the Latin plagiarus, which means “abductor”.
Piracy may be an act of one person, but, in many cases, it is a joint effort of several people who reproduce copyrighted
material and sell it for profit without paying royalties to the creator. Technological innovations have made piracy easy and
anyone can duplicate a motion picture on videotape, a computer program, or a book. Video cassette recorders can be used by
practically anyone to copy movies and television programs, and copying software has become almost as easy as copying a
book. Large companies zealously monitor their copyrights for slogans, advertisements, and brand names, protected by a
trademark.
Question 40: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Legal ownership of creative work B. Examples of copyright piracy
C. Legal rights of property owners D. Copying creating work for profit
Question 41:The word “extended” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______
A. guaranteed B. explicated C. exposed D. granted
Question 42: It can be inferred from the passage that copyright law is intended to protect
A. computer software and videos from being copied B. paintings and photographs from theft
C. the user’s ability to enjoy an artistic work D. the creator’s ability to profit from thework
Question 43: The word “principle” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______
A. cardinal role B. formidable force C. crucial point D. fundamental rule
Question 44: Which of the following properties is NOT mentioned as protected by copyright?
A. paintings and maps B. printed medium
C. scientific discoveries D. music and plays
Question 45: It can be inferred from the passage that it is legal if _______
A. two drawings, created by two different artists, have the same images
B. two books, written by two different authors, have the same titles
C. two songs, written by two different composers, have the same melody
D. two plays, created by two different playwrights, have the same plot and characters
Question 46: With which of the following statements is the author most likely to agree?
A. Plays written in the 16th century cannot be performed in theaters without permission
B. Singers can publicly sing only the songs for which they wrote the music and the lyrics
C. Teachers are not allowed to make copies of published materials for use by their students
D. It is illegal to make photographs when sightseeing or traveling
Question 47: The phrase “infringing upon” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______
A. abhorring B. impinging upon C. inducting for D. violating
Question 48: The purpose of copyright law is most comparable with the purpose of which of the following?
A. A law against smoking B. A law against theft

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 C. A household rule D. A school policy
Question 49: According to the passage, copyright law is _______
A. routinely ignored B. zealously enforced
C. meticulously observed D. frequently debated

TEST 7

Stories about how people somehow know when they are being watched have been going around for years. However, few
(50)______ have been made to investigate the phenomenon scientifically. Now, with the completion of the largest ever study
of the so-called staring effect, there is impressive evidence that this is a recognizable and (51)______ sixth sense. The study
involved hundreds of children. For the experiments, they sat with their eyes covered and with their backs to other children,
who were told to either stare at them or look away. The results consistently showed that the children who could not see were
able to (52)______ when they were being stared at. In a total of 18,000 trials (53)______ worldwide, the children (54)______
sensed when they were being watched almost 70% of the time. The experiment was repeated with the (55)______ precaution
of putting the children who were being watched outside the room, (56)______ from the starers by the windows. This was done
just in case there was some (57)______ going on, with the children telling each other whether they were looking or not. This
prevented the possibility of sounds being (58)______ between the children. The results, though less impressive, were more or
less the same. Dr. Sheldrake, the biologist who designed the study, believes that the results are (59)______ enough to find out
through further experiments precisely how the staring effect might actually come about.
Question 50:A. attempts B. tests C. tries D. aims
Question 51: A. received B. genuine C. accepted D. sure
Question 52: A. tell B. reveal C. notice D. find
Question 53: A. worked over B. carried out C. worked through D. carried on
Question 54: A. perfectly B. exactly C. correctly D. thoroughly
Question 55: A. added B. attached C. connected D. increased
Question 56: A. split B. divided C. parted D. separated
Question 57: A. lying B. pretending C. cheating D. deceiving
Question 58: A. transmitted B. transported C. delivered D. distributed
Question 59: A. concluding B. satisfying C. persuading D. convincing

TEST 8

It is now extremely popular to take a gap year between school and university or university and work, and to spend it
travelling. There are plenty of reasons to recommend it - travel (27)......the mind,you’re only young once, life isn't a rehearsal
and so on. And if you don't do it, you may always regret that you didn't take the (28)....... In the end, there's only one response:
well, why not?
The idea may have its (29).....from the 18 th century. Grand Tour once undertaken by the young, rich and noble, but it the
middle classes who have (30)....it into something that 200,000 British youngsters do every year. (31)......has never been so
easy and cheap, with more places open to tourists than ever. Also, the gap year is now (32)......by many employers and
universities.
The States, the Far East and Australia were among the original (33).......and although these remain in the (34)........five, young
explorers are now going (35)....... farther. The most far-flung comers of the world are (36).......in popularity year by year.

Question 27: A. thickens B. enlarges C. broadens D. stiffens

Question 28: A. chance B. occasion C. moment D. luck
Question 29: A originals B. roots C. sources D. causes
Question 30: A. took B. made C. turned D. transferred
Question 31: A Excursion B Tour C. Travel D. Voyage
Question 32: A. admitted B. accepted C. received D. stood
Question 33: A destinations B endings C. landings D. terminals
Question 34: A. high B peak C. uppermost D top
Question 35: A. merely B way C. extra D. more
Question 36: A expanding B. spreading C. growing D. enlarging

TEST 9

Chess must be of the oldest games in the world An Arab traveller in India in the year 900 wrote that it was played “long,
long ago”. Chess was probably invented in India, and it has been played everywhere from Japan to Europe since 1400. The
name “chess” is interesting. When one player is attacking the other's King, he says, inEnglish,“Check", when the King has
been caught and cannot move anywhere he says “Check mate”. These words come from Persian. “Shah mat” means "the king
is dead”, that is when the game is over and one player has won.
Such an old game changes very slowly. The rules have not always been the same as they are now. For example, at one time
the queen could only move one square at a time. Now she is the strongest piece or the board. It would be interesting to know

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why this has happened! Chess takes time and thought, but it is a game for all kinds of people. You don’t have to be a
champion in order to enjoy it. It is not always played by two people sitting at the same table. The first time the Americans beat
the Russians was in a match played by radio. Some of the chess masters are able to play many people at the same time. The
record was when one man played 400 games! It is said that some people play chess by post. This must make chess the slowest
game in the world.

Question45: Which of the following is known to be true?

A. Chess is an old Indian traveling game.
B. Chess is the oldest game in the world.
C. Chess was played in Japan and Europe before 1400.
D. Chess was played in India long before 900.
Question46: One player has won the game when............
A. he attacks the other player's King
B. he says some Persian words
C. the other player's King cannot move anywhere
D. he says “check” to the other player
Question47: According to the old rules of the game............
A. the queen was the attacker all the time
B. the King had to be attacked at the time
C. the queen could move no more than one square at a time
D. the king could not move anywhere
Question48: Which of the following will you hear when one player has won the game?
A. “Shah mat” B. "check” C. "the King is dead” D. "check mate”
Question49: Which of the following is NOT correct?
A. All kinds of people can play chess.
B. Only two people can play chess sitting at the same table.
C. Some people write each other playing chess.
D. The Russians lost the game played by radio.
TEST 10

A useful definition of an air pollutant is a compound added directly or indirectly by humans to the atmosphere in such
quantities as to affect humans, animals, vegetation, or materials adversely. Air pollution requires a very
flexible definition that permits continuous change. When the first air pollution laws were established in England in the
fourteenth century, air pollutants were limited to compounds that could be seen or smelled - a far cry from the extensive list of
harmful substances known today. As technology has developed and knowledge of the health aspects of various chemicals has
increased, the list of air pollutants has lengthened. In the future, even water vapor might be considered an air pollutant under
certain conditions.
Many of the more important are pollutants, such as sulfur dioxides, carbon monoxide, and nitrogen oxides, are found in
nature. As the Earth developed, the concentration of these pollutants was altered by various chemical reactions; they became
components in biogeochemical cycles. These serve as an air purification scheme by allowing the compounds to move from the
air to the water or soil. On a global basis, nature is output of these compounds dwarfs resulting from human activities.
However, human production usually occurs in a localized area, such as a city.
In this localized region, human output may be dominant and may temporarily overload the natural purification scheme of the
cycles. The result is an increased concentration of noxious chemicals in the air. The concentrations at which the adverse
effects appear will be greater than the concentrations that the pollutants would have in the absence of human activities. The
actual concentrations need not be large for a substance to be a pollutant; in fact the numerical value tells us little until we
know how much of an increase this represents over the concentration that would occur naturally in the area. For example,
sulfur dioxide has detectable health effects at 0.08 parts per million (ppm), which is about 400 times its natural level. Carbon
monoxide, however, has a natural level of 0.1 ppm and is not usually a pollutant until its level reaches about 15 ppm.

Question53: What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. The economic impact of air pollution B. What constitutes and air pollutants.
C. How much harm air pollutants can cause. D. The effects of compounds added to the atmosphere.
Question54: The word ‘adversely’ in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to:
A. negatively B. quickly C. admittedly D. considerably
Question55: It can be inferred from the first paragraph that...........
A. water vapor is an air pollutant in localized areas.
B. most air pollutants today can be seen or smelled.
C. the definition of air pollution will continue to change.
D. a substance becomes an air pollutant only in cities.
Question56: The word ‘altered’ in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to...........
A. eliminated B. caused C. alternated D. modified
Question57: Natural pollutants can play an important role in controlling air pollution for which of the following reasons?
A. They function as part of a purification process.
B. They occur in greater quantities than other pollutants.
C. They are less harmful to living beings than are other pollutants.
D. They have existed since the Earth developed.

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Question58: According to the passage, which of the following is true about human generated air pollution in localized
regions?
A. It can be dwarfed by nature’s output of pollutants in the localized region.
B. It can overwhelm the natural system that removes pollutants.
C. It will damage areas outside of the localized regions.
D. It will react harmfully with naturally occurring pollutants.
Question59: The word ‘noxious’ in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to...........
A. harmful B. noticeable C. extensive D. weak
Question60: According to the passage, the numerical value of the concentration level of a substance is only useful if...........
A. the other substances in the area are known. B. it is in a localized area.
C. the naturally occurring level is also known. D. it can be calculated quickly.
Question61: The word “detectable” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to ..........
A. beneficial B. special C. measurable D. separable
Question62: Which of the following is best supported by the passage?
A. To effectively control pollution, local government should regularly review their air pollution laws.
B. One of the most important steps in preserving natural lands is to better enforce air pollution laws.
C. Scientists should be consulted in order to establish uniform limits for all air pollutants.
D. Human activities have been effective in reducing air pollution.
TEST 11

Have you ever asked yourself what you are working for? If you have ever had the time to consider this taboo
question, or put it to others in moments of weakness or confidentiality, you (41) ____ well have heard some or all of the
(42)____. It's the money, of course, some say with a smile, as if explaining something to a child. Or it's the satisfaction of a
task well-done, the sense of achievement behind the clinching of an important (43) ____. I worked as a bus conductor once,
and I can't say I (44) ___ the same as I staggered along the swaying gangway trying to (45) ______ out tickets without falling
over to someone's lap. It's the company of other people perhaps, but if that is the (46) ______, what about farmers? Is it the
conversation in the farmyard that keeps them captivated by the job? Work is power and sense of status say those (47) ______
have either attained these elusive goals, or feel aggrieved that nobody has yet recognized their leadership qualities. Or we can
blame it all on someone else, the family or the taxman, I suspect, and I say this under my breath, that most of us work rather as
Mr. Micawber lived, hoping for something to (48) ______ up. We'll win the pools, and tell the boss what we really think.
We'll scrape together the (49)_____ and open that little shop we have always dreamed of, or go round the world, or spend
more time in the garden. One day, we'll get that (50) ______ we deserve, but until then at least we have something to do. And
we are so busy doing it that we won't have time to wonder why.
41. A. mightB. can C. will D. should
42. A. below B. rest C. following D. latter
43. A. deal B. position C. job D. engagement
44. A. enjoyed B. wished C. hoped D. felt
45. A. make B. turn C. issue D. give
46. A. one B. case C. question D. problem
47. A. people B. must C. who D. may
48. A. move B. turn C. ease D. end
49 A. resources B. opportunities C. riches D. money
50 A. ambition B. station C. vocation D. promotion
TEST 12

VII.TEXT 1. According to airline industry statistics, almost 90 percent of airline accidents are survivable or partially
survivable. But passengers can increase their chances of survival by learning and following certain tips. Experts say that you
should read and listen to safety instructions before takeoff and ask questions if you have uncertainties. You should fasten your
seat belt low on your hips and as tightly as possible. Of course,, you should also know how the release mechanism of your belt
operates. During takeoff and landings you are advised to keep your feet flat on the floor. Before takeoff you should locate the
nearest exit and an alterative exit and count the rows of seat between you and the exits so that you can find them in the dark if
necessary
In the even that you are forewarned of the possible accident, you should put your hands on your ankles and keep your
head down until the plane come to complete stop. If smoke is present in the cabin, you should keep your head low and cover
your face with napkins, towels, or clothing. If possible, wet these for added protection against smoke inhalation. To evacuate
as quickly as possible, follow crew command and do not take personal belongings with you. Do not jump on escape slides
before they are fully inflated and when you jump, do so with your arms and legs extended in front of you. When you get to
the ground, you should move away from the plane as quickly as possible, and never smoke near the wreckage
51. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. airline industry accident statistics
B. procedures for evacuating aircraft
C. guidelines for increasing aircraft passengers survival.
D. safety instructions in air travel
52. Travelers are urged by experts to read and listen to safety instructions ?
A. in an emergency B. before locating the exits
C. if smoke is in the cabin D. before take off
53.According to the passage,airline travelers should keep their feet flat on the floor……

7
 A. throughout the flight B. during takeoff and landings
C. especially during landings D. only if an accident is possible
54. According to the passage, which exits should an airline passenger locate before take off …..
A. the ones that can be found in the dark
B. the two closest to the passenger’s seat
C. the nearest one
D. the ones with counted rows of seats between them
55. It can be inferred from the passage that people are more likely to survive fires in aircrafts if they ------------
A. keep their heads low B. wear a safety belt
C. don’t smoke in or near a plane D. read airline safety statistics
56. Airline passenger are to do all of the following EXCEPT
A. locate the nearest exist C. fasten their seat belt before takeoff
B. ask questions about safety D. carry personal belongings in an emergency
57. The word “evacuate” in the second paragraph is closes in meaning to_______.
A. evadeB. abscond C. vacate D. forestall
58. The word “inflated” in the second paragraph is closes in meaning to_______.
A. lifted B. extended C. expanded D. assembled
59. What does the paragraph following the passage most probably discuss?
A. How to recover your luggage
B. Where to go to continue your trip
C. When to return to the aircraft
D. How to proceed once you are away from the aircraft
Text 2: In the very distant geological past all animals were aquatic. The very first vertebrates, or animals with backbones, of
which we have any fossil record, lived in the water. These vertebrates, the fish, were adapted to underwater living. Their
streamlined bodies were covered with scales to reduce surface friction: they had muscular tails so that they could swim swiftly
in such a dense medium as water; and they were endowed with gills for breathing underwater.
Descendants of fish-type ancestors crossed the seashore barrier and accommodated themselves to life on land. As
amphibians, they possessed limbs instead of fins and lungs instead of gills. But they never became completely free of the
bonds that tied them to the water; even today many amphibians return to the water to lay their eggs.
Millions of years after the first clumsy amphibians crawled over the land, newer types of land dwellers appeared; these
animals gave rise to the present-day reptiles and mammals. They were more completely converted for land dwelling, with
bodies and biological activities far different from those of fish. With these special adaptations, mammals have been able to
colonize the woods and meadows, the deserts and high mountains, often far removed from the sea.
60. Of the animals with backbones, the first to appear were
A. mammals B. fish C. amphibians D. birds
61. In converting to land life, animals acquired
A. eyes B. lungs C. tails D. warm blood
62 .The word “descendants” in line 6 is closest in meaning to
A. descenders B. offspring C. grandchildren D. ancestors
63. The passage suggests that the first amphibians used their limbs to
A. swim B. crawl C. jump D. run
64 .The adaptation process described in the article was accomplished
A. over millions of years
B. through biological changes
C. by the receding of the seas
D. over millions of years and through biological changes

TEST 13

To many people, smoking is not just a pleasure, it is an (11) -----------. They need it, depend on it and can’t stop it. If
they haven’t smoked for some hours, they feel a (12) ---------- for a cigarette. They often (13) ----------- which means they light
another cigarette immediately after they have (14) ---------- out the one before.
Smoking is often considered (15) ------------, since many people don’t like the (16) -------- of cigarettes or the sight of
the smoker’s (17) ----------- fingers or ashtray full of cigarette – ends. Above all, smoking is harmful to health and in many
countries a (18) ---------- is printed on every (19) ---------- of cigarettes. Scientists have proved that there is a link between
smoking and a disease which can be (20) -------------, cancer.
11. A attraction B addition C addiction D admiration
12. A likeness B craving C like D desire
13. A over-smoke B self-smoke C chain-smoke D non-smoke
14. A thought B made C put D given
15. A militant B antisocial C illegal D anti-pollutant
16. A odour B smell C taste D flavour
17. A stained B dirty C dusty D spotted
18. A saying B signal C sign D warning
19. A pack B packing C packet D backpack
20. A fatal B hard C immoral D perilous

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 TEST 14

The planet Earth is 4,600 million years old. It is difficult for us to think about such an enormous length of time because it
has little meaning for us. We can, however, simplify the idea to make it more understandable. We can compare the planet
Earth to a person of forty six years of age.
Nothing is known about the first seven years of this person’s life. Very little information exists about the middle period
either. It was only at the age of forty – two that the Earth began to flower. Dinosaurs and great reptiles did not appear until
one year ago, when the planet was forty five. Mammals only arrived eight months ago. In the middle of last week, man –
like apes became ape – like men and began to communicate with each other. Last weekend, the Ice Age covered the Earth.
Modern man has only been around for four hours. During the last hour man discovered agriculture. The industrial
Revolution and the rise of large cities began just six seconds ago. During the short time, modern man has made a rubbish
tip of the Earth. In one minute, he has increased his numbers to terrible proportions, and has caused the death of hundreds
of species of animals. He has robbed and destroyed the planet in his search for fuels. Now he stands, like a violent, spoilt
child, delighted at the speed of his rise to power, on the edge of the final mass destruction and of killing all the life which
exists in the solar system.
21. The passage tells us that
A. A great deal is known about how the Earth was created.
B. life on Earth began relatively recently.
C. more is kown about the first part of the Earth’s life than the middle part.
D. scientists are well–informed about the middle part of the Earth’s life.
22. We are informed by the author that
A. the dinosaurs appeared during the middle period B. mammals and great reptiles both appeared at the same time
A. there were more than forty – five kinds of great reptiles D. ape -like man appeared before the last Ice Age.
23. The author is mainly interested in
A. the time when man first evolved from apes. C. the effects of farming.
B. what has happened since the Industrial Revolution D. the period before the last Ice Earth

TEST 15

Statesmen define a family as “a group of individuals having a common dwelling and related by blood, adoption or
marriage, (20) includes common-law relationships.” Most people are born into one of these groups and
(21) live their lives as a family in such a group. Although the definition of a family may not change, (22)
relationship of people to each other within the family group changes as society changes. More and more wives are
(23) paying jobs, and, as a result, the roles of husband, wife and children are changing. Today, men expect to (24)
for pay for about 40 years of their lives, and, in today’s marriages (25) which both spouses have paying
jobs, women can expect to work for about 30 to 35 years of their lives. This mean that man must learn to do their share of
family tasks such as caring for the children and daily (26)____ chores. Children, too, especially
adolescents, have to (27) with the members oftheir family in sharing household tasks. The widespread acceptance
of contraception has meant that having (28) is as matter of choice, not an automatic result of marriage.
Marriage itself has become a choice. As alternatives (29) common-law relationships and single-parent families have
become socially acceptable, women will become more independent.
1. A. which B. That C. what D. it
2. A. must B. need C. would D. will
3. A. a B. any C. some D. the
4. A. taking B. making C. keeping D. performing
5. A. live B. work C. hope D. ask
6. A. in B. for C. with D. to
7. A. home B. family C. house D. household
8. A. carry B. deal C. cooperate D. combine
9. A. time B. families C. happiness D. children
10. A. similar to B. like C. such as D. or else

TEST 16

Psychologists have debated a long time about whether a child’s upbringing can give it the ability to do outstandingly well.
Some think that it is impossible to develop genius and say that it is simply something a person is born with. Others,
however, argue that the potential for great achievement can be develop. The truth lies somewhere between these two
extremes.
It seems very obvious that being born with the right qualities from gifted parents will increase a child’s ability to do
well. However, this ability will be fully realized only with the right upbringing and opportunities. As one psychologist says,
“To have a fast car, you need both a good engine and fuel.”
Scientists have recently assessed intelligence, achievement, and ability in 50 sets of identical twins that were separated
shortly birth and brought up by different parents. They found that achievement was based on intelligence, and later
influenced by the child’s environment.

9
 One case involving very intelligent twins was quoted. One of the twins received a normal upbringing, and performed
well. The other twin, however, was brought up by extremely supportive parents and given every possible opportunity to
develop its abilities. That twin, though starting out with the same degree of intelligence as the other, performed even better.
This case reflects the general principle of intelligence and ability. The more favorable the environment, the more a
child’s intelligence and ability are developed. However, there is no link between intelligence and socioeconomic level of a
child’s family. In other words, it does not matter how poor or how rich a family is, as this does not affect the intelligence.
Gifted people can not be created by supportive parents, but they can be developed by them. One professor of music
said that outstanding musicians usually started two or three years earlier than ordinary performers, often because their
parents had recognized their ability. These musicians then needed at least ten years’ hard work and training in order to reach
the level they were capable of attaining.
People who want to have very gifted children are given the following advice:
- Marry an intelligent person.
- Allow children to follow their own interests rather than the interests of the parents.
- Start a child’s education early but avoid pushing the child too hard.
- Encourage children to play; for example, playing with musical instrument is essential for a child who wants to
become an outstanding musician.
11. When scientists studied intelligence and ability in twins, they found that ______.
A. different twins generally have different levels of ability
B. ability depends mainly on intelligence and achievement
C. intelligence and development are irrelevant to ability
D. ability depends both on intelligence and environment
12. Scientists chose twins for their study because ______.
A. they have the same genetic background, usually with similar intelligence
B. they are born into the same family, hence the same upbringing
C. they have the same economic background and hence the same opportunities
D. each twin has the same environment as his/ her twin
13. How were great musicians different from ordinary musicians in their development?
A. They practice playing their instruments for many years
B. They were exceptionally intelligent and artistic
C. They concentrated on music to the exclusion of other areas
D. Their ability was realized at an early stage and then nurtured
14. The writer advises that gifted children should be allowed to follow ______.
A. only their interests in computer games B. only their interests in musical instruments
C. their own interests D. their parents’ interests
15. When encouraging their gifted children, parents should avoid ______.
A. letting them play their own way B. starting their education at an early age
C. pushing their children too hard D. permitting them to follow their own interests
16. The remark: “To have a fast car, you need both a good engine and fuel.” in the passage means that in order to become a
genius, ______.
A. you need to have good health and good nourishment
B. you need intelligence and you need to develop it
C. you should try to move quickly and efficiently.
D. you must nourish your brain and train your muscles hard
17. The word “favorable” in the passage mostly mean ______.
A. “of high quality or an acceptable standard”
B. “under the control or in the power of somebody else”
C. “good for someone and making him/ her likely to be successful”
D. “helping somebody to be more intelligent compared to the other people”
18. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT ______.
A. a child’s intelligence is influenced by that of his/ her parents
B. studying different twins is useful scientific procedure
C. educational development depends completely on economic well-being
D. to become successful, a child need both native intelligence and development
19. The upbringing of highly intelligent children requires ______.
A. parental support and encouragement B. an expensive education
C. wealthy and loving parents D. good musical instruments
20. The word “others” used in the first paragraph refers to ______.
A. other people B. other scientists C. other geniuses D. other children

TEST 17

Health is something we tend to (20) ___ when we have it. When our body is doing well, we are hardly (21) ____ of it. But
illness can come, even (22) _____ we are young. In fact, childhood has been a very susceptible time. Many diseases attack
children in particular, and people know very little (23) ______ to cure them once they struck. The result was that many
children died. About a century ago, (24) _________, scientists found out about germs, and then everything changed. The (25)
_____ of many diseases was found, and cures were developed. As this medical discovery spread, the world became (26)
______ safer for children. The result is that (27) _________ a hundred years ago, the average man lived for 35 years,

10
nowadays, in many areas of the world, people can (28) ______ to live for 75 years. And what do we expect by the year 2020 ?
Undoubtedly, medical science will continue to (29) ______. Some people will be able to avoid medical problems that are
unavoidable today.
1. A. forget B. ignore C. give up D. throw away
2. A. awake B. keen C. aware D. concerned
3. A. if B. so C. when D. while
4. A. how B. what C. which D. when
5. A. therefore B. however C. although D. moreover
6. A. reason B. origin C. source D. cause
7. A. more B. much C. very D. quite
8. A. where B. when C. why D. whereas
9. A. desire B. hope C. want D. expect
10. A. speed up B. advance C. accelerate D. run

TEST 18

Telecommuting is some form of computer communication between employees’ homes and offices. For employees
whose job involve sitting at a terminal or word processor entering data or typing reports, the location of the computer is of no
consequence. If the machine can communicate over telephone lines, when the work is completed, employees can dial the
office computer and transmit the material to their employers. A recent survey in USA Today estimates that there are
approximately 8,7 million telecommuters. But although the numbers are rising annually, the trend does not appear to be as
significant as predicted when Business Week published “The Portable Executive” as its cover story a few years ago. Why
hasn’t telecommuting become more popular ?
Clearly, change simply takes time. But in addition, there has been active resistance on the part of many managers.
These executives claim that supervising the telecommuters in a large work force scattered across the country would be too
difficult, or, at least, systems for managing them are not yet developed, thereby complicating the manager’s responsibilities.
It is also true that employees who are given the option of telecommuting are reluctant to accept the opportunity. Most
people feel that they need regular interaction with a group, and many are concerned that they will not have the same
consideration for advancement if they are not more visible in the office setting. Some people feel that even when a space in
their homes is set aside as a work area, they never really get away from the office.
1. With which of the following topics is the passage primarily concerned ?
A. The advantages of telecommuting. B. A definition of telecommuting.
C. An overview of telecommuting. D. The failure of telecommuting.
2. How many Americans are involved in telecommuting ?
A. More than predicted in Business Week. B. More than 8 million.
C. Fewer than estimated in USA Today. D. Fewer than last year.
3. The phrase “of no consequence” in the first paragragh means
A. of no use B. of no good C. unimportant D. irrelevant
4. The author mentions all of the following as concerns of telecommuting, EXCEPT
A. the opportunities for advancement. B. the different system of supervision.
C. the lack of interaction with a group. D. The work place is in the home.
5. The word “ executives “ in the second paragragh refers to
A. telecommuters B. managers C. employees D. most people
6. The word “ them” in the second paragragh refers to
A. systems B. telecommuters C. executives D. responsibilities
7. The reason why telecommuting has not become popular is that the employees
A. need regular interaction with their families.
B. are worried about the promotion if they are not seen at the office.
C. feel that a work area in their home is away from the office.
D. are ignorant of telecommuting.
8. It can be inferred from the passage that the author is
A. a telecommuter B. the manager C. a statistician D. a reporter
9. The word “reluctant” in the last paragraph can best be replaced by
A. opposite B. willing C. hesitate D. typical
10. When Business Weekpublished “ The Portable Executive”, it implied that
A. systems for managing telecommuters were not effective.
B. there was resistance on the part of many managers about telecommuting.
C. the trend for telecommuting was optimistic.
D. most telecommuters were satisfied with their work.

TEST 19

Since the world became industrialized, the number of animal species that have either become extinct or have neared
extinction has increased. Bengal tigers, for instance, which once roamed the jungles in vast numbers, now number only about
2,300. By the year 2025, their population is estimated to be down to zero.
What is alarming about the case of the Bengal tiger is that this extinction will have been caused almost entirely by
poachers who, according to some sources, are not always interested in material gain but in personal gratification. This is an

11
example of the callousness that is contributing to the problem of extinction. Animals such as the Bengal tiger, as well as other
endangered species, are valuable parts of the world’s ecosystem. International laws protecting these animals must be enacted
to ensure their survival – and the survival of our planet.
Countries around the world have begun to deal with the problem in various ways. Some countries, in an effort to
circumvent the problem, have allocated large amounts of land to animals reserves. They then charge admission prices to help
defray the costs of maintaining the parks, and they often must also depend on world organizations for support. This money
enables them to invest in equipment and patrols to protect the animals. Another response to the increase in animal extinction is
an international boycott of products made from endangered species. This has had some effect, but by itself it will not prevent
animals from being hunted and killed.
11. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. Endangered species B. Problems with industrialization
C. The Bengal tiger D. International boycotts
12. The word “poachers” could be best replaced by which of the following?
A. Concerned scientists B. Enterprising researchers
C. Illegal hunters D. Trained hunters
13. The word “callousness” could be best replaced by which of the following?
A. incompetence B. indirectness C. insensitivity D. independence
14. The previous passage is divided into two paragraphs in order to contrast:
A. A comparison and a contrast B. A problem and a solution
C. A statement and an illustration D. Specific and general information
15. What does the word “this” refer to in the passage?
A. Bengal tiger B. Interest in material gain
C. Killing animals for personal satisfaction D. The decrease in the Bengal tiger population
16. Where in the passage does the author discuss a cause of extinction?
A. “Since the world ….down to zero” B. “What is alarming…..personal gratification”
C. “Countries around ….for support” D. “This money …..endangered species”
17. Which of the following could best replace the word “allocated”?
A. set aside B. combined C. taken D. organized
18. The word “defray” is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. make a payment on B. raise C. lower D. make an investment toward
19. What does the term “international boycott”refer to?
A. A global increase in animal survival B. A refusal to buy animal products worldwide
C.Defraying the cost of maintaining national parks D.Buying and selling of animal products overseas
20. Which of the following best describes the author’s attitude?
A. indifferent B. forgiving C. concerned D. surprised

TEST 20

We find that bright children are rarely held back by mixed-ability teaching. On the contrary, both their knowledge and
experience are enriched. We feel that there are many disadvantages in streaming pupils. It does not take into account the fact
that children develop at different rates. It can have a bad effect on both the bright and the not-so-bright child. After all, it can
be quite discouraging to be at the bottom of the top grade!
Besides, it is rather unreal to grade people just according to their intellectual ability. This is only one aspect of their total
personality. We are concerned to develop the abilities of all our pupils to the full, not just their academic ability. We also
value personal qualities and social skills, and we find that mixed-ability teaching contributes to all these aspects of learning.
In our classrooms, we work in various ways. The pupils often work in groups: this gives them the opportunity to learn to co-
operate, to share, and to develop leadership skills. They also learn how to cope with personal problems as well as learning
how to think, to make decisions, to analyze and evaluate, and to communicate effectively. The pupils learn from each other as
well as from the teachers. Sometimes the pupils work in pairs; sometimes they work on individual tasks and assignments, and
they can do this at their own speed. They also have some formal class teaching when this is appropriate. We encourage our
pupils to use the library, and we teach them the skills they need in order to do this effectively. An advanced pupil can do
advanced work; it does not matter what age the child is. We expect our pupils to do their best, not their least, and we give
them every encouragement to attain this goal.
Question 51: In the passage, the author’s attitude towards “mixed-ability teaching” is ______.
A. objective B. questioning C. approving D. critical
Question 52: The words “held back” in 1st paragraph means “______”.
A. forced to study in lower classes B. prevented from advancing
C. made to lag behind in study D. made to remain in the same classes
Question 53: The author argues that a teacher’s chief concern should be the development of the pupils’ ______.
A. learning ability and communicative skills
B. intellectual abilities
C. personal and social skills
D. total personality
Question 54: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Group work provides the pupils with the opportunity to learn to be capable organizers.
B. Pupils also learn to develop their reasoning ability.
C. Group work gives pupils the opportunity to learn to work together with others.

12
D. Pupils also learn how to participate in teaching activities.
Question 55: The author’s purpose of writing this passage is to ______.
A. recommend pair work and group work classroom activities
B. argue for teaching bright and not-so-bright pupils in the same class
C. offer advice on the proper use of the school library
D. emphasize the importance of appropriate formal classroom teaching
Question 56: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT TRUE?
A. Pupils cannot develop in the best way if they are streamed into classes of different
intellectual abilities.
B. There is no fixed method in teaching pupils to develop themselves to the full.
C. It’s not good for a bright child to find out that he performs worst in a mixed-ability class.
D. Development of pupils as individuals is not the aim of group work.
Question 57: According to the passage, which of the following is an advantage of mixed-ability teaching?
A. Formal class teaching is the important way to give the pupils essential skills such as those to be used in the library.
B. A pupil can be at the bottom of a class.
C. Pupils can be hindered from an all-round development.
D. Pupils as individuals always have the opportunities to work on their own.
Question 58: Which of the following statements can best summaries the main idea of the passage?
A. Children, in general, develop at different rates.
B. Bright children do benefit from mixed-class teaching.
C. Various ways of teaching should be encouraged in class.
D. The aim of education is to find out how to teach the bright and not-so-bright pupils.
Question 59: According to the passage, “streaming pupils” _____.
A. is quite discouraging
B. aims at enriching both their knowledge and experience
C. is the act of putting pupils into classes according to their academic abilities
D. will help the pupils learn best
Question 60: According to the author, mixed-ability teaching is more preferable because ______.
A. it doesn’t have disadvantages as in streaming pupils
B. it aims at developing the children’s total personality
C. children can learn to work with each other to solve personal problems
D. formal class teaching is appropriate
TEST 21

The forest from which Man takes his timber is the tallest and most impressive plant community on Earth. In terms of Man’s
brief life, it appears permanent and unchanging, save for the season growth and fall of the leaves, but to the forester, it
represents the climax of a long succession of events. No wooded landscape we see today has been forest for all time. Plants
have minimum requirements of temperature and moisture and, in ages past, virtually every part of Earth’s surface has, at some
time, been either too dry or too cool for plants to survive. However, as soon as climatic conditions change in favour of plant
life, a fascinating sequence of changes, called a primary succession, occurs first to colonize the barren land and the lichen
surviving on bare rock. Slowly, the acids produced by these organisms crack the rock’s surface, plants debris accumulate and
mosses establish shallow root-holes. Ferns may allow and, with short grasses and shrubs, gradually form a covering of plant
life. Roots broke even deeper into the developing soil and eventually large shrubs give way to the first trees. These grow
rapidly, cutting off sunlight from the smaller plants, and soon establish complete domination – closing their ranks and forming
a climax community which may endure for thousands of years. Yet even this community is not everlasting. Fire may destroy it
outright and settlers may cut it down to gain land for pasture or cultivations. If the land is then abandoned, a secondary
succession will take over, developing much faster on the more hospitable soil. Shrubs and trees are among the early invaders,
their seeds carried by the wind, by birds and lodged in the coat of mammals. For as long as it stands and strives, the forest is a
vast machine storing energy and the many elements essential for life.
Question 61: Why do we tend to think the forest as permanent?
A. Because our lives are comparatively short.
B. Because it is an essential part of our life.
C. Because the trees are so tall.
D. Because it is renewed each season.
Question 62: What has sometimes caused plants to die out in the past?
A. Interference from the foresters.
B. The absence of wooded land.
C. The introduction of new types of plants.
D. Variations in climate.
Question 63: In a “primary succession”, what makes it possible for mosses to take root?
A. The type of rock. B. The amount of moisture.
C. The effect of lichens. D. The amount of sunlight.
Question 64: What conditions are needed for shrubs to become established?
A. More soil must accumulate.
B. Ferns must take root.
C. The ground must be covered with grass.
D. Smaller plants must die now.

13
 TEST 22

The United Nations Children's Fund, or UNICEF, was (35) _____ by the United Nations General Assembly on December 11,
1946, to provide emergency Food and (36) _____ to children in 'countries that had been devastated by World War II. In 1953,
UNICEF became a permanent part of the United Nations System and its name was shortened from the (37) _____ United
Nations International Children's Emergency Fund but it has continued to be known by the popular acronym based on this old
name. (38) _____ in New York City, UNICEF provides long-term humanitarian and developmental assistance to' children and
mother in developing countries. UNICEF is currently focused (39) _____ five primary priorities: Child Survival and
Development, Basic Education and Gender Equality, including girl's education, Child protection from (40) _____,
exploitation, and abuse, HIV/AIDS and children, and Policy advocacy and partnerships for children's rights. Related areas of
UNICEF action include early childhood development, adolescence development and participation; life skills based education
and child rights all over the world.

A (41) _____ funded agency, UNICEF relies on contributions from governments and private (42) _____. Its programs
emphasize developing community-level services to promote the health and well-being of children. Recently, UNICEF has
begun partnerships with world-class athletes and teams to promote the organization's work and to (43) _____ funds. UNICEF
greeting cards are sold worldwide to support efforts on behalf of children creating a better world where children are happy,
healthy and live in dignity. UNICEF selects suitable paintings for reproduction from contemporary artists. Total income to
UNICEF for 2006 was $2,781,000,000.

UNICEF was (44) _____ the Nobel Peace Prize in 1965 and Prince ofAsturias Award ofConcord in 2006. UNICEF is present
in 190 countries and territories around the world.

Question 35: A. taken off B. set up C. paid on D. pushed back

Question 36: A. instrument B. projects C. work D. healthcare

Question 37: A. original B. ancestor C. old D. relatives

Question 38: A. Managed B. Led C. Headquartered D. Committed

Question 39: A. at B. with C. on D. in

Question 40: A. violence B. fun C. excitement D. entertainment

Question 41: A. volunteer B. volunteered C. voluntary D. voluntarily

Question 42: A. persons B. patients C. donors D. victims

Question 43: A. rise B. raise C. lift D. heighten

Question 44: A. complimented B. awarded C. won D. taken

TEST 23

The countryside of Britain is well known for its beauty and many contrasts: its bare mountains and moorland, its lakes, rivers
and woods, and its long, often wild coastline. Many of the most beautiful areas are national parks and are protected from
development. When British people think of the countryside they think of farmland, as well as open spaces. They imagine cows
or sheep in green fieldsenclosed by hedges or stone walls, and fields of wheat and barley. Most farmland is privately owned
but is crossed by a network of public footpaths.

Many people associate the countryside with peace and relaxation. They spend their free time walking or cycling there, or go to
the country for a picnic or a pub lunch. In summer people go to fruit farms and pick strawberries and other fruit. Only a few
people who live in the country work on farms. Many commute to work in towns. Many others dream of living in the country,
where they believe they would have a better and healthier lifestyle.

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The countryside faces many threats. Some are associated with modern farming practices, and the use of chemicals harmful to
plants and wildlife. Land is also needed for new houses. The green belt, an area of land around many cities, is under
increasing pressure. Plans to build new roads are strongly opposed by organizations trying to protect the countryside.
Protesters set up camps to prevent, or at least delay, the building work.

America has many areas of wild and beautiful scenery, and there are many areas, especially in the West in states like Montana
and Wyoming, where few people live. In the New England states, such as Vermont and New Hampshire, it is common to see
small farms surrounded by hills and green areas. In Ohio, Indiana, Illinois and other Midwestern states, fields of corn or
wheat reach to the horizon and there are many miles between towns.

Only about 20% of Americans live outside cities and towns. Life may be difficult for people who live in the country. Services
like hospitals and schools may be further away and going shopping can mean driving long distances. Some people even have
to drive from their homes to the main road where their mail is left in a box. In spite of the disadvantages, many people who
live in the country say that they like the safe, clean, attractive environment. But their children often move to a town or city as
soon as they can.

As in Britain, Americans like to go out to the country at weekends. Some people go on camping or fishing trips, others go
hiking in national parks.

Question 45: We can see from the passage that in the countryside ofBritain _______

A. it is difficult to travel from one farm to another

B. only a few farms are publicly owned

C. none of the areas faces the sea

D. most beautiful areas are not well preserved

Question 46: The word “enclosed” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______

A. surrounded B. embraced C. blocked D. rotated

Question 47: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as an activity of relaxation in the countryside ofBritain?

A. Riding a bicycle B. Going for a walk C. Going swimming D. Picking fruit

Question 48: What does the word “they” in paragraph 2 refer to?

A. Those who dream of living in the country B. Those who go to the country for a picnic

C. Those who commute to work in towns D. Those who go to fruit farms in summer

Question 49: Which of the following threatens the countryside inBritain?

A. Protests against the building work B. Plants and wildlife

C. Modern farming practices D. The green belt around cities

Question 50: The phrase “associated with” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______

A. separated from B. supported by C. related to D. referred to

Question 51: According to the passage, all of the following are true EXCEPT _______

A. the green belt is under pressure because of the need for land

B. the use of chemicals harms the environment of the countryside

C. camps are set up by protesters to stop the construction work

D. all organizations strongly oppose plans for road construction

Question 52: The phrase “reach to the horizon” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______

A. are varied B. are endless C. are horizontal D. are limited

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Question 53: According to the passage, some Americans choose to live in the country because ______

A. their children enjoy country life

B. hospitals, schools and shops are conveniently located there

C. they enjoy the safe, clean, attractive environment there

D. life there may be easier for them

Question 54: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?

A. Both British and American people are thinking of moving to the countryside.

B. Towns in some Midwestern states in theUS are separated by long distances.

C. Many British people think of the country as a place of peace and relaxation.

D. The majority of American people live in cities and towns.

TEST 24
Long before they can actually speak, babies pay special attention to the speech they hear around them. Within the first month
of their lives, babies' responses to the sound of the human voice will be different from their responses to other sorts of
auditory stimuli. They will stop crying when they hear a person talking, but not if they hear a bell or the sound of a rattle. At
first, the sounds that an infant notices might be only those words that receive the heaviest emphasis and that often occur at the
ends of utterances. By the time they are six or seven weeks old, babies can detect the difference between syllables pronounced
with rising and falling inflections. Very soon, these differences in adult stress and intonation can influence babies' emotional
states and behavior. Long before they develop actual language comprehension, babies can sense when an adult is playful or
angry, attempting to initiate or terminate new behavior, and so on, merely on the basis of cues such as the rate, volume, and
melody of adult speech.

Adults make it as easy as they can for babies to pick up a language by exaggerating such cues. One researcher observed babies
and their mothers in six diverse cultures and found that, in all six languages, the mothers used simplified syntax, short
utterances and nonsense sounds, and transformed certain sounds into baby talk. Other investigators have noted that when
mothers talk to babies who are only a few months old, they exaggerate the pitch, loudness, and intensity of their
words. They also exaggerate their facial expressions, hold vowels longer, and emphasize certain words.

More significant for language development than their response to general intonation is observation that tiny babies can make
relatively fine distinctions between speech sounds. In other words, babies enter the world with the ability to make precisely
those perceptual discriminations that are necessary if they are to acquire aural language.

Babies obviously derive pleasure from sound input, too: even as young as nine months they will listen to songs or stories,
although the words themselves are beyond their understanding. For babies, language is a sensory-motor delight rather than the
route to prosaic meaning that it often is for adults.

Question 55: Which of the following can be inferred about the findings described in paragraph 2?

A. The mothers observed by the researchers were consciously teaching their babies to speak.

B. Babies ignore facial expressions in comprehending aural language.

C. Mothers from different cultures speak to their babies in similar ways.

D. Babies who are exposed to more than one language can speak earlier than babies exposed to a single language.

Question 56: According to the author, why do babies listen to songs and stories, even though they cannot understand them?

A. They can remember them easily. B. They focus on the meaning of their parents' word.

C. They understand the rhythm. D. They enjoy the sound.

Question 57: The passage mentions all of the followings as the ways adults modify their speech when talking to
babies EXCEPT ______________.
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A. speaking more loudly than normal B. speaking with shorter sentences

C. giving all words equal emphasis D. using meaningless sounds

Question 58: The word "diverse" is closest in meaning to ______________.

A. stimulating B. divided C. different D. surrounding

Question 59: The word "They" refers to ______________.

A. mothers B. investigators C. words D. babies

Question 60: Why does the author mention "a bell and a rattle"?

A. To give examples of typical toys that babies do not like

B. To explain how babies distinguish between different nonhuman sounds

C. To contrast the reactions of babies to human and nonhuman sounds

D. To give examples of sounds that will cause a baby to cry

Question 61: What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. The response of babies to sounds other than the human voice

B. How babies differentiate between the sound of the human voice and other sounds

C. The differences between a baby's and an adult's ability to comprehend language

D. How babies perceive and respond to the human voice in their earliest stages of language development

Question 62: The word "emphasize" is closest in meaning to ______________.

A. leave out B. explain C. repeat D. stress

Question 63: What point does the author make to illustrate that babies are born with the ability to acquire language?

A. Babies notice even minor differences between speech sounds.

B. Babies exaggerate their own sounds and expressions.

C. Babies begin to understand words in songs.

D. Babies are more sensitive to sounds than are adults.

Question 64: The word "noted" is closest in meaning to______________.

A. requested B. disagreed C. observed D. theorized

TEST 25

We are using up the world’s petroleum. We use (11)........ in our cars and to heat our building in winter.Farmers use
petrochemicals to (12)......... the soil rich. They use them to kill insects (13)......eat plants. These chemicals go (14)......... rivers
and lakes and kill the fish there. Thousands of pollutants also go into the air and pollute it. Winds carry this (15)....................
air to other countries and other continents.
Poor farmers use the same land over and (16)............ The land needs a rest so it will be better next year. However, the farmers
must have food this year. Poor people cut down forests (17)......... firewood. In some areas when the trees are gone, the land
(18).......... desert. Poor people can’t save the environment for the (19)..........
This is not a problem for one country or one area of the world. It is a problem for all- humans. The people and the nations of
the world must work together to (20).........................the world’s resources.
11. A. it B. them C. that D. those
12. A. work B. change C. make D. let
13. A. what B. who C. whom D. which
14. A. out B. for C. at D. into
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15. A. pollute B. polluting C. polluted D. pollution
16. A. over B. again C. repeatedly D. repeating
17. A. of B. for C. with D. at
18. A. gets B. changes C. turns D. becomes
19. A. future B. time being C. times D. period
20. A. recycle B. preserve C. keep D. reuse

TEST 26

Throughout the United States, the number of places where people are allowed to smoke has gradually become smaller and
smaller. First, it was banned on trains, buses and planes, then in public places such as theatres and airports. Now you can’t
smoke in any workplace. Nonsmokers are definitely winning the battle. “Why should we breathe their smoke ?”, they say. If
they are lucky, smokers can still find some bars and restaurants where they can light up a cigarette, but it may soon be banned
there , too. Anti-smoking groups even think that smoking ought to be banned in people’s homes. Under new plans you won’t
be able to smoke where there are more than ten visitors in a week, or where there are children. In 1996, nicotine was classed
as drug, like cocaine or heroin. In the country that gave tobacco to the world, smoking might one day be illegal.

21.Now you can smoke ___________ but in the future you can’t.

A. on trains B. in theatres C. on planes D. in bars

22. “ Why should we breathe their smoke?” The word “their” in this sentence means:

A. smokers’ B. other people’s C. nonsmokers’ D. visitors’

23. Which of the following sentences is true according to the passage?

A. The number of smokers has become smaller

B. You can smoke in some bars and restaurants

C. You can smoke in your office

D. There are more places for people who want to smoke

24. “ Nonsmokers are winning the battle” means:

A There are more nonsmokers. B. There are more smokers

C. There are fewer places where people can smoke

D. There are more places where people can smoke.

25. In the future, smoking in ____________ may soon be banned.

A. bars and restaurants. B. the country that gave tobacco to the world.

C. large family’s homes D. all of these places.

TEST 27

When you apply for a job, one of the most important things is job interview. In order to make a good impression during a job
interview, you need to prepare yourself for the interview carefully. Punctuation is very necessary. You should arrive in plenty
of time so that you have a little of time to relax and keep calm before the interview. You should be well—dressed. Do not
wear a skirt which is too short or jeans. You also need to plan what you are going to say. You have to answer a lot of
questions about your education and experience. You may be asked many things about yourself and especially about the reason
why you decide to apply for the job. You can ask the interviewer about the salary you expect, the position you are applying
and the duties you have to do in the job. You also must try to find out as much as possible about the company you want to
work for.

26. When you apply for a job ____________

A. job interview is not important. B. don't make any good impression.

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C. preparation is not necessary. D. interview is important for you to prepare.

27. What about punctuation?

A. Being late is all right. B. You should arrive early enough to relax.

C. Punctuation is not important. D. If you are late the interviewer will wait.

28. What about clothes?

A. You can wear whatever you like. B. You should be well dressed.

C. Jeans are suggested. D. short skirt makes you more attractive.

29. You may be asked about_____________

A. your study B. the reason why you are interested in the job C. your experience D. All are correct

30. You can ask the interviewer about______________

A. the salary, position and duties B. the salary, position and his age

C. the salary and the interviewer's education D. the salary, the interviewer's family and his duties
TEST 28

Dinosaurs were reptiles that lived during a period of earth’s history called the Mesozoic Era, which is known as the Age of
Reptiles. The first dinosaurs appeared more than 200 million years ago. For many millions of years, they dominated the land
with their huge size and strength. Then about 65 million years ago, they died out rather suddenly, never to reemerge. The word
dinosaur comes from two Greek words meaning “terrible lizard”. Dinosaurs were not lizards, but their appearance could be
truly terrifying. The biggest ones weighed more than ten times as much as a mature elephant and nearly equaled the size of
most modern—day whales. The famous kinds of dinosaurs, including the brontosaur and tyrannosaurus rex, reached 80 to 90
feet in length. Not all dinosaurs were giants, however, some were actually no larger than a chicken. Scientists still do not
know what caused dinosaur to disappear. One theory involves a change in the earth’s climate. It is believed that temperature
dropped significantly towards the end of the Cretaceous Period. Too large to hibernate and not having fur or feathers for
protection, it is possible that the climate became too chilly for dinosaurs. In contrast, other species having protection, such as
the mammals and birds, were able to survive.

31. What is the best title for this passage?

A. The History of Earth B. Earth’s Largest Reptiles.

C. The Metabolism of Dinosaurs D. The Domination of the Land.

32. It can be inferred from the passage that the Age of Reptiles lasted about

A. 135 million years B. 200 million years C. 80 million years D. 65 million years

33. The author uses the phrase “never to reemerge” to indicate that the dinosaurs

A. went into hiding B. became extinct. C. lost their way D. never died out.

34. According to the passage, what is true about the size of dinosaurs?

A. It was rather uniform B. It guaranteed their survival

C. It made them the largest creatures ever on earth. D. It varied quite greatly.

35. Which of the following can be inferred about mammals and birds.

A. They preceded the dinosaurs. B. They could not survive the chilly temperatures

C. Most have either fur or feathers over their bodies. D. They were too large to hibernate.
TEST 29

Beatrix Potter was a story writer whose books about animals have been translated into many languages and read by
both children and adults. (36)________ being an author, she was also regarded as a very successful farmer. Born in London in

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1866, Beatrix was (37) ________ for at home by various servants. Every year she (38) _______ the days to her annual holiday
in the countryside. She would (39) _______ to her London home small animals which she (40) ________ and drew. As she
grew up, she entertained other children with drawings and stories about these animals. In 1901, she printed a book at her own
(41) _______ called ‘The Tale of Peter Rabbit’. So many (42) _______ were sold that she bought a farm, where over the next
eight years she wrote many other stories. They all sold very well and readers liked their detailed color drawings.
With her growing (43) _______ , Beatrix started buying more farmland, animals and property. After her marriage, at the
age of 47, Beatrix stopped writing, (44) _______ that she had run out of (45) _______ . She became a farmer and spent the
rest of her life working with her sheep and awarding prizes at sheep fairs.

Question 36: A. Apart B. Besides C. Otherwise D. Except

Question 37: A. cared B. minded C. attended D. looked
Question 38: A. imagined B. counted C. considered D. numbered
Question 39: A. get B. keep C. take D. give
Question 40: A. remarked B. noticed C. saw D. observed
Question 41: A. earning B. spending C. expense D. charge
Question 42: A. prints B. images C. copies D. pages
Question 43: A. pay B. income C. wages D. receipt
Question 44: A. saying B. talking C. speaking D. telling
Question 45: A. views B. ideas C. opinions D. beliefs

TEST 30

Every drop of water in the ocean, even in the deepest parts, responds to the forces that create the tides. No
other force that affects the sea is so strong. Compared with the tides, the waves created by the wind are surface
movements felt no more than a hundred fathoms below the surface. The currents also seldom involve more than the
upper several hundred fathoms despite their impressive sweep.
The tides are a response of the waters of the ocean to the pull of the Moon and the more distant Sun. In theory,
there is a gravitational attraction between the water and even the outermost star of the universe. In reality, however,
the pull of remote stars is so slight as to be obliterated by the control of the Moon and, to a lesser extent, the Sun.
Just as the Moon rises later each day by fifty minutes, on the average, so, in most places, the time of high tide is
correspondingly later each day. And as the Moon waxes and wanes in its monthly cycle, so the height of the tide varies.
The tidal movements are strongest when the Moon is a sliver in the sky, and when it is full. These are the highest flood
tides and the lowest ebb tides of the lunar month and are called the spring tides. At these times the Sun, Moon, and
Earth are nearly in line and the pull of the two heavenly bodies is added together to bring the water high on the
beaches, to send its surf upward against the sea cliffs, and to draw a high tide into the harbors. Twice each month, at
the quarters of the Moon, when the Sun, Moon and Earth lie at the apexes of a triangular configuration and the pull of
the Sun and Moon are opposed, the moderate tidal movements called neap tides occur. Then the difference between
high and low water is less than at any other time during the month.

Question 35. What is the main point of the first paragraph?

A. The waves created by ocean currents are very large.
B. Despite the strength of the wind, it only moves surface water.
C. Deep ocean water is seldom affected by forces that move water.
D. The tides are the most powerful force to affect the movement of ocean water.
Question 36. The word "felt" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to____________.
A. based B. dropped C. detected D. explored
Question 37. The words "In reality" in the second paragraph are closest in meaning to____________.
A. surprisingly B. actuallyC. characteristically D. similarly
Question 38. It can be inferred from the passage that the most important factor in determining how much
gravitational effect one object in space has on the tides is____________.
A. size B. distance C. temperature D. density
Question 39. The word "correspondingly" in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to__________.
A. unpredictably B. interestingly C. similarly D. unusually
Question 40. What is the cause of spring tides?
A. Seasonal changes in the weather
B. The gravitational pull of the Sun and the Moon when nearly in line with the Earth
C. The Earth's movement around the Sun
D. The triangular arrangement of the Earth, Sun, and Moon
Question 41. The word "configuration" in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to____________.
A. unit B. center C. surface D. arrangement
Question 42. Neap tides occur when____________.
A. the Sun counteracts the Moon's gravitational attraction
B. the Moon is full

20
 C. the Moon is farthest from the Sun
D. waves created by the wind combine with the Moon's gravitational attraction
Question 43. According to the passage, all of the following statements about tides are true EXCEPT ____________.
A. The time of high tide is later each day
B. Tides have a greater effect on the sea than waves do
C. The strongest tides occur at the quarters of the Moon
D. Neap tides are more moderate than spring tides
Question 44. Where in the passage does the author mention movements of ocean water other than those caused by
tides?
A. Lines 2-5 B. Lines 10-11 C. Lines 12-13 D. Lines 17-20

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