P EVI S YEAR QUES I NS

(P ORKB KOF
INDIAN POLITY
AND
GOVERNANCE
For Civil. Services Rrelims Examination
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(1100+ Topic Wise Solved Objective Questions from UPSC CSE Prelims (1991 to 2023),
CAPF & CDS EXAM (2014 to 2023} and STATE PCS Prelims Exams (1991 to 2023}}

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KING R QUEEN P [ऋषभ राजपूत ]

 PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS (PYQ) WORKBOOK OF
INDIAN POLITY AND GOVERNANCE
For Civil Services Prelims Examination

First Edition (Print): 2024

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KING R QUEEN P [ऋषभ राजपूत ]

 The PYQWORKBOOK
Dear Aspirants,

We at ForumIAS have come up with a PYQWorkbook series to provide the aspirants with a
holistic idea regarding challenges associated with the changing pattern and difficulty level
of the UPSC Prelims Exam. The PYQWorkbook includes the questions asked indifferent
objective-based exams conducted by Union Public Service Commission like UPSC CSE
Prelims Exam, CAPF Exam, and CDS Exam. It also includes the solved previous year's
questions from different State PCS Prelims Examinations to equip the aspirants with every
relevant fact and concept needed for their UPSC CSE Prelims exam preparation. These
workbooks are divided subject wise. The PYQ Workbook Series, along with ForumIAS's
Practicebooks and Full-Length Testbooks, will help in building conceptual clarity with
respect to different subjects as well as understanding the importance/relevance of each
topic.

Indian Polity and Governance is one of the pillars of UPSC CSE Prelims exam from
which there has been a significant number of questions each year which is evident from
the graph provided below:

POLITY

"S I I 14 I I
0 10- - - - _I - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - I_I - - - - - - _I_ - - - - - - - JI - - - - - - - ,12 - - - - _I - -
Z 10 I 1·0 I , I
I . 6 I I I I
5 - - - - - _I - - - - - - - - .1 - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - _I - - - - - - - - .l - - - - - - - - L - - - - .J - -
2012 2014 2016 2018 2020 2022 2023
Year

Number of Indian Polity and Governance questions asked in UPSC CSE GS -1 Prelims
from 2011 till 2023

Regarding the Indian Polity and Governance part, the focus has remained on the core topics
like Parliament, Executive, Judiciary, Fundamental Rights, DPSPs and Constitutional
Amendments etc. Though in last few years some shift has been seen:

KING R QUEEN P [ऋषभ राजपूत ]

* The Governance aspect being given more weightage like Questions on Tea board etc.
* Not just knowing the concept but a deeper understanding of the Constitution and its
provisions.
* A few laws related questions like judicial custody, parole, preventive dentation, Prevention
of Terrorism Act, 2002 and The Arms (amendment) Act, 2019 etc.
* Important judgements of Supreme Court (both in Mains as well as Prelims).
* 1-2 Political Science type questions like due process oflaw and Constitutionalism etc.

But overall, the serious aspirants have been able to score more than 70% from this section
and have been able to dear UPSC CSE Prelims based upon that. Overall conceptual clarity as
well as basic reading of newspaper articles related to this section is simply needed.

The compiled previous year UPSC Questions matched with the official answer key would
help the aspirants in aligning their preparation as per the demand of the exam.

Happy Learning and Happy Testing!!!

Yourteam@ForumIAS

KING R QUEEN P [ऋषभ राजपूत ]

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II
administration of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes. It
outlines the powers and functions of the tribal advisory councils,
safeguards for the welfare and advancement of Scheduled Tribes,
and other related provisions.
4 th pair is incorrectly matched: The Ninth Schedule of the
Constitution of India a special provision that was added to
protect certain laws from judicial scrutiny on the grounds of
violating fundamental rights. It includes laws related to land
reforms, the abolition of the zamindari system, and other
social and economic reforms.
109. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct- Equality entails the absence of
privileges or discrimination within society, and the
Preamble emphasizes equality of status and opportunity for
all citizens.
Statement 2 is correct-Through the 42nd Amendment Act
of 1976, the phrase was added to the Preamble to emphasize
the importance of maintaining the unity and integrity of
India as a sovereign, socialist, secular, and democratic
republic.
Important Tips
The Indian Constitution's Preamble is derived from the
US Constitution and is often referred to as the "identity
card" of the Constitution.
It is based on the Objective Resolution proposed by
Pandit Nehru and was amended once through the 42nd
Constitutional Amendment Act, 1972, to include the
words "Socialist, Secular and Integrity."
The Preamble is non-justiciable and does not grant
legislative power or restrict it. It is an integral part of the
Constitution and can be amended by a simple majority
under Article 368. It was added by the Constituent
Assembly after the enactment of the rest of the
Constitution.
110. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer
The Preamble of the Constitution oflndia was amended in 1976
by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act. This amendment
introduced three terms to the Preamble: Socialist, Secular,
and Integrity. The term "Fraternity" was already a part of the
original Preamble and was not introduced or amended in
1976.
111. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer
Article 11 of the Indian Constitution grants the Parliament
the authority to regulate citizenship rights, and it is under this
provision that the Citizenship (Amendment) Act (CAA) was
enacted. As Article 11 is part of Part II of the Constitution of
India, the CAA can be classified within the framework of Part II
of the constitution.
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II
Important Tip
The Citizenship Act, 1955 was amended 6 times in
1986, 1992, 2003, 2005, 2015 and 2019.
The CAA 2019 provides citizenship on the basis
of religion to six undocumented non-Muslim
communities (Hindus, Sikhs, Buddhists, Jains,
Parsis and Christians) from Pakistan, Afghanistan
and Bangladesh who entered India on or before 31st
December, 2014.
It exempts the members of the six communities from
any criminal case under the Foreigners Act, 1946 and
the Passport Act, 1920.
112. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The doctrine of independence is not to be raised to the
level of a dogma so as to enable the judiciary to function
as a kind of super-legislature or super-executive.
The judiciary is there to interpret the Constitution or
adjudicate upon the rights. Option 1 is correct.
It is the great tribunal which has to draw the line between
liberty and social control. Option 2 is correct
113. Solution: (d)
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
1. Sixth schedule to the constitution of India provides for
setting up of autonomous district council (option d is
correct)
2. The Constitution of India makes special provisions for the·
administration of the tribal dominated areas in four states
viz Assam, Meghalaya Tripura and Mizoram.
3. As per Article 244 and sixth Schedule these areas are called
"Tribal Areas
4. The Sixth Schedule envisages establishment of Autonomous
District Councils (ADC)
:
Tribal areas in the four states
Assam North Cachar Hills District
The Karbi Anglong District
The Bodoland Territorial Areas District
Meghalaya Khasi Hills District
Jaintia Hills District
The Garo Hills District
Tripura Tripura Tribal Areas District
Mizoram The Chakma District
The Mara District
114. Solution: (d)
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
The government of India act 1858 is also known as the
"act for better government of India".
It changed the designation of governor general of India
to that of viceroy of India.
II
The administration of India was taken from the East
India Company and placed directly under the British
Crown. (option l is correct)
Thus the country was kept under the direct rule of the
British and the Cabinet.
A new post called Secretary of State was added who
would be directly responsible to British cabinet and also
a part of it.
The act also ended the double government which was
started by the Pitts India act 1784.
A 15 member advisory council to the secretary of state
was formed.
This act was dominated by the principle of absolute
imperial control without any popular participation in
administration of the country. ( Option 3 is correct)
Under this act, all the powers of Crown were exercised by
Secretary of State of India and was assisted by Council of
India (Council of fifteen members).
TJnder the Pitts India .i\.ct of 1784 for the first tiiT1e,
the British Government was given supreme control
over Company's affairs and its administration in India.
(Option 2 is incorrect)
115. Solution: (d)
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Indian Councils Act of 1861 made a beginning of
representative institutions by associating Indians with
the law-making process.
It thus provided that the viceroy should nominate some
Indians as non-official members of his expanded council.
(Statement l is correct)
In 1862, Lord canning the then viceroy nominated three
Indians to his Legislative council
It empowered the viceroy to make rule and orders for the
more convenient transaction of business in the council.
It also gave recognition to the Portfolio system introduced
by Lord canning in 1859
Under this a member of the viceroy's council was made
in charge of one or more departments of the government
and was authorized to issue final orders on behalf of the
council on matters of his department(s).
The Governor-General also had the power to promulgate
ordinances without the council's concurrence during
emergencies (Statement 3 is incorrect).
The non official members of the Viceroys Executive
council did not take part in the discussions and their
role was only advisory.
The non-official members of the Executive Council were
not interested in attending the meetings of the Council,
moreover, under this Act they were not bound to attend
them either.The Indian members were not eligible to
oppose any bill and most often the bills were passed in one
sitting without discussion. (Statement 2 is incorrect)
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KING R QUEEN P [ऋषभ राजपूत ]
II
116. Solution: (d)
Exp) Option dis the correct answer
The Indian Constitution is unique in its contents and
spirit.
Though borrowed from almost every Constitution of the
world, the Constitution of India has several features that
distinguish it from the Constitutions of other countries.
Independence of Judiciary has been taken from the
Constitution of USA.
Following features have been borrowed by the British
Constitution:
Britain 1. Parliamentary System of government
2. Rule of Law
. 3. Legislative procedure
• 4. Single citizenship
5. Cabinet system
6. Prerogative writs
7. Parliamentary privileges
8. Bicameralism
United 1. Impeachment of the president
States of 2. Functions of president and vice-president
America
3. Removal of Supreme Court and High court
judges
4. Fundamental Rights
5. Judicial review
• 6. Independence of judiciary
7. The preamble of the constitution
117. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option bis the correct answer.
Ninth Schedule says that the article mentioned in this are
immune from judicial review it is for the larger good of
the society, the government cannot be challenged in the
court for his actions.
Ninth Schedule was added to the Constitution by First
Constitutional Amendment, 1951.
In a landmark ruling on 11th January 2007, the
Supreme Court ruled that all laws (including those in
the Ninth Schedule) would be open to judicial review,
if they violated the basic structure of the Constitution.
(Statement b is incorrect)
118. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option bis the correct answer.
On 26th November 1949, 3 provisions i.e .. , Elections,
citizenship and provisional Parliament came into force
and rest of the provisions only on 26th January 1950.
Fundamental Rights of the citizen came into force on
26th january 1950.
119. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
As per Artide-344(1) and 351 of Indian Constitution,
the 8th Schedule includes 22 language.
II INDIANJ!OLITY ANO GOVERNANCE
The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution consists of the
following 22 languages:
Of these languages, 14 were initially included in the
Constitution.
Sindhi language was added by the 21 st Amendment Act
of 1967.
Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali were included by the
71 st Amendment Act of 1992.
Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, and Santhali were added by the
92 nd Amendment Act of 2003 which came into force in
2004.
120. Solution: (d)
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Article 25 says that all persons are equally entitled to
freedom of Conscience and the right to freely profess,
practice and propagate religion.
The Indian Constitution embodies the positive concept
of secularism ie, all religions in our country (irrespective
of their strength) and no official status was given to
certain religions.
42nd amendment act of 1976, the Preamble to the
constitution of India asserted that India is a secular
nation.
Secularism is a belief system which rejects religion, or
the belief that religion should not be part of the affairs of
the state. (Statement 2 is incorrect)
121. Solution: (d)
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
The members of constituent assembly were chosen indirectly
by members of provincial assemblies, who in turn were
elected through Provincial Election of 1946. (Statement 1
is correct)
The constituent assembly had representative of princely
states , who were nominated by the princes. (Statement 2 is
incorrect)
The constituent assembly had representation from all parts
of India , every community, every section of the society was
represented in the assembly and hence the discussions in
the constituent assembly was influenced by public opinion
over an issue, although rational decision was taken after fair
discussions. (Statement 3 is incorrect)
To create a sense of collective participation the public was
asked to send in their views . Many of the linguistic minorities
wanted the protection of their mother tongue, religious
minorities asked for special safeguards, while dalits demanded
an end to all caste oppression and reservation of seats in
government bodies. Important issues of cultural rights and
social justice raised in these public discussions were debated
on the floor of the Assembly. (Statement 4 is correct)
122. Solution: (c)
Exp: Option c is the correct answer.
As per article 9 No person shall be a citizen of India by
virtue of article 5, or be deemed to be a citizen of India
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KING R QUEEN P [ऋषभ राजपूत ]
by virtue of article 6 or article 8, if he has voluntarily
acquired the citizenship of any foreign State.
As per article 11 The Parliament has the right to
make any provision concerning the acquisition and
termination of citizenship and any other matter relating
to citizenship.
123. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The 9th schedule was added to the constitution by the
1st amendt. to the constitution in 1951 (Statement 3 is
incorrect)
The Ninth Schedule of the Constitution contains a list of
central and state laws which cannot be challenged in
courts. (Statement 4 is incorrect)
124. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option bis the correct answer.
Democracy is a form of government in which the rulers
are elected by the people.
It is based on a free and fair election where these
currently in a power having a free chance of loosing.
In a democracy, each adult citizen have one vote and
each vote have one value and the decision making
power rests with those elected by the people.
Democracy also enhances the dignity of citizens.
Abraham Lincoln had said "Democracy is the
government of the people, by the people and for the
people".
125. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
BR Ambedkar has emerged as the epitome personality of
modern India.
He was appointed as the Chairman of the constitution
drafting committee in 1947.
He is recognised as the "Father of the Constitution of
India".
Major contributions of Ambedkar to modern India :
a) Education
b) Changing hierarchical Structures of Indian society
c) Bringing untouchables to the mainstream of Indian
society.
d) Framing an inclusive and secular Constitution.
e) Upliftment of marginalised
f) Fundamental Rights
g) Economic Contributions
126. Solution: (d)
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
In Part II of Constitution under Article 5-11, citizenship
clause has been explained.
Full civil and political rights are entitled to the citizen
of India.
II INDIAN PQUTY i\ND GOVERNANCE
Also, they are entitled to be a Member of Parliament or
State Legislature but one has to also satisfy the age limit
criterion in order to be an MP or MLA.
Citizens of India has right of suffrage for election to the
House of People (of the Union) and legislative assembly
of every state.
Important Tips
1. Citizenship is listed in the Union List.
2. The term 'Citizen' is not defined in the constitution.
3. Citizenship of India can be acquired in the following
ways:
Citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution
Citizenship by birth
Citizenship by descent
Citizenship by registration
Citizenship of naturalization
By incorporation of territory (by the Government of
Tndia)
4. Termination of the Citizenship is possible in three
ways:
Renunciation, Termination, Deprivation
127. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Somnath Lahiri was a member of the Constituent Assembly
of India and a prominent leader of the Communist Party
of India. He was a vocal critic of the British rule in India
and he believed that the Constituent Assembly was not
truly representative of the Indian people. In a speech in
the Constituent Assembly on 19 December 1946, Lahiri said
that the Constituent Assembly was "British made" and that it
was "working the British plan as the British should like it to
be worked out". He argued that the Assembly was dominated
by the Indian National Congress, which was a party that had
close ties to the British government
128. Solution: (d)
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
The preamble to the Constitution of India is a short
introductory statement that sets out the basic principles
and objectives of the Constitution. It is not enforceable in
a court of law, but it is an important source of guidance for
interpreting the Constitution. The Supreme Court has held
that the preamble can be used to interpret the Constitution
in cases where the language is ambiguous.
Important Tip
Important points about Preamble:
Key elements of Preamble:
Sovereign, socialist, secular, and democratic and
republic.
Justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity.
Unity and integrity of the nation.
llll,--------------------------------------PYQWorkbook
KING R QUEEN P [ऋषभ राजपूत ]
II
1. The Preamble is based on 'Objective Resolution' by
Nehru and was adopted and enacted by the Constituent
Assembly of India on 26th November 1949.
2. It has been amended only once through the 42nd
Amendment Act of 1976, which added the words
"Secular" and "Socialist" to the Preamble.
3. The Preamble serves as a guiding light for the
government, lawmakers, and citizens in shaping the
nation's policies and actions.
129. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option bis the correct answer.
The Constitution of India provides for the division of
powers between central and state government. The seventh
schedule provides for three list- State List, Central List, and
Concurrent List. Out of the three list, the Concurrent list
includes subjects on which both the Parliament (Central
government) and State Legislature (state governments)
can legislate independently and concurrently.
Important Tips
Few of the subjects under the Central List:
1. Defense and armed forces
2. Foreign affairs and international relations
3. Atomic energy
4. Currency, coinage, and legal tender
5. Railways
6. Airports and airways
7. Interstate trade and commerce
8. Banking and financial institutions
9. Taxes on income other than agricultural income
Few of the subjects under the State List:
1. Police and public order
2. Public health and sanitation
3. Agriculture and irrigation
4. Fisheries
5. Local government
6. Public works
7. Public entertainment
8. Land and land revenue
9. Education at the state level
Few of the subjects under the Concurrent List:
I. Criminal law and procedure
2. Marriage and divorce
3. Adoption
4. Bankruptcy and insolvency
5. Education, including technical education
6. Population control and family planning
7. Protection of wildlife and animals
8. Trusts and trusteeship
9. Price control and essential commodities
II. INDIAN POLITY AND GOVERNANCE
130. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement l is correct- Parliament can legislate a subject
under the State list in certain conditions. These conditions
include during a national emergency under Article
250, when a state makes a request under Article 252, to
implement international agreements under Article 253, and
during President's Rule under Article 356.
Statement 2 is incorrect- Parliament can legislate a subject
under the State list under certain circumstances during
National Emergency and President's rule. So, the statement
that Parliament cannot legislate a subject under the State list
under any circumstances is not correct.
Statement 3 is correct- As per Article 249 of the Constitution,
if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution supported by not less
than two-thirds of the members present and voting, stating
that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest,
Parliament can make laws on any matter enumerated in the
State list.
131. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer
Pair 1 matched correctly: Public health and sanitation are
among the subjects listed in the State List.
Pair 2 matched correctly: Citizenship, naturalization, and
aliens are among the subjects listed in the Union List.
Pair 3 matched correctly: Legal, medical, and other
professions are among the subjects listed in the Concurrent
List.
132. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer
Statement 1 is incorrect: The 'Objectives Resolution' was
actually moved by Jawaharlal Nehru on December 13, 1946,
in the Constituent Assembly of India. This resolution laid
down the fundamental principles and objectives that would
guide the framing of the Constitution.
Statement 2 is correct: Upon India's independence on 15
August 1947, the new prime minister Jawaharlal Nehru
invited Ambedkar to serve as the Dominion of India's Law
Minister; two weeks later, he was appointed Chairman of
the Drafting Committee of the Constitution for the future
Republic of India.
133. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer
The Constitution of India was framed between December
1946 and December 1949. The Constituent Assembly, which
was elected in 1946, met for the first time on December
9, 1946. The Assembly appointed a Drafting Committee in
1947, and the final draft of the Constitution was adopted
on November 26, 1949. The Constitution came into force on
January 26, 1950.
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KING R QUEEN P [ऋषभ राजपूत ]
II
134. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer
The Independence Act, 1947, was a British Act of Parliament
that partitioned British India into two independent
dominions, India and Pakistan. The Act did not lay down
a constitution for either dominion. Instead, it provided
for the establishment of constituent assemblies in each
dominion, which would be responsible for framing their
own constitutions.
135. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer
The Dhar Commission was appointed by the Government
of India in 1948 to study the feasibility of reorganizing the
states of India on a linguistic basis.
Important Tips
Dhar Commission-Recommendations
1. It advocated for state reorganization based on
administrative convenience rather than linguistic
considerations.
2. The Commission recommended the reorganization of
States on the basis of the following criteria:
Geographical contiguity
Financial self-reliance
Administrative viability
Potential for development
136. Solution: (d)
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
The Constituent Assembly of India was the body that framed
the Constitution of India. It was established under the
Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946 and consisted of 389 members,
of which 296 were elected by the provincial assemblies and
93 were nominated by the princely states
Statement 1 is correct: The Constituent Assembly was not
based on an adult franchise, as the provincial assemblies
themselves were elected on a limited franchise
Statement 2 is incorrect: It was also not a result of direct
election, as the members were elected indirectly by the
provincial assemblies or nominated by the princely states.
Statement 3 is correct: It was a multi-party body, as it
included representatives from various political parties
such as the Indian National Congress, the Muslim League,
the Communist Party of India, etc.
Statement 4is correct: It worked through severalcommittees,
such as the Drafting Committee, the Fundamental Rights
Committee, the Union Powers Committee, etc., to deal
with different aspects of the constitution-making process .
137. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
According to Granville Austin, one of the most significant
contributions of India to constitution-making was
Consensus and Accommodation. This is because he argued
II INDIAN POU'J;'Y A1'fD GOVE~NANGE
that the Indian Constitution was a product of a remarkable
process of consensus-building and accommodation among
various groups and interests in the Constituent Assembly and
outside. He highlighted how the framers of the Constitution
sought to reconcile the conflicting demands of democracy,
nationalism, social justice, federalism, secularism, minority
rights, and individual liberties in a diverse and complex
society.
Important Tips
Granville Austin (1927-2014) was an American
historian and a leading authority on the Indian
Constitution.
He wrote two influential books on the making and
working of the Indian Constitution, namely The
Indian Constitution: Cornerstone of a Nation (1966)
and Working a Democratic Constitution: The Indian
Experience (1999).
He was awarded the Padma Shri by the Government
of India in 2011 for his contribution to constit11tional
studies.
138. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
According to Article 3 of the Constitution of India, the
Parliament may by law:
Alter the boundaries of any State: The Parliament has
the power to alter the boundaries of any State in India.
This can be done through the process of reorganization
of states, which req11ires the introd11ction and passing of
a law by Parliament.
Increase the area of any State: The Parliament also has
the authority to increase the area of any existing state by
annexing or merging territories with it. This can be done
through the enactment of a law by Parliament.
Statement I is not related to Article 3, b11t to Article 253,
which empowers Parliament to make laws for implementing
treaties, agreements or conventions with foreign countries or
international organizations.
Statement 4 is not related to Article 3, but to Article 244A,
which provides for the creation of an autonomous state
comprising certain tribal areas in Assam and for the creation of
local legislature or council of ministers or both for such state.
Important Tips
Article 3 of the Constitution of India deals with the
formation of new States and alteration of areas, boundaries
or names of existing States. In this regard, the Parliament
may by law:
form a new State by separation of territory from any
State or by uniting two or more States or parts of States,
or by uniting any territory to a part of any State;
increase the area of any State;
■ IHI
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KING R QUEEN P [ऋषभ राजपूत ]
II
diminish the area of any State;
alter the boundaries of any State;
alter the name of any State.
139. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement l is correct: The Preamble of the Constitution
of India is a brief introductory statement that sets out the
guiding principles and purpose of the Constitution. It is
based on the Objective Resolution, which was moved by
Jawaharlal Nehru in the Constituent Assembly on 13
December 1946 and adopted on 22 January 1947.
Statement 2 is correct: The idea of the preamble was
borrowed from the Constitution of the USA.
Statement 3 is correct: The Preamble declares India to be a
sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic republic and secures
to all its citizens justice, liberty, equality and fraternity.
The words socialist and secular were added by the 42nd
Amendment in 1976.
Statement 4 is incorrect: While the Preamble of the
Constitution of India sets out the ideals and objectives
of the Constitution, it does not explicitly mention the
Fundamental Rights. The Fundamental Rights are enshrined
in Part III of the Constitution.
140. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement l is correct: Constitutional government is a form
of limited government. The constitution sets the boundaries
and limits of the powers of the government and prevents it
from becoming arbitrary or tyrannical. The constitution also
ens11res that the government is accountable to the people and
respects their rights and freedoms.
Statement 2 is correct: A constitutional government is one
where the constitution is the basis of public authority.
The constitution establishes the structure, functions, and
procedures of the government and defines its relationship
with the people. The constitution also lays down the
principles and values that guide the actions and decisions of
the government and its officials.
Statement 3 is incorrect: A constitutional government does
not necessarily have a monarch as the formal head of the
state. A constitutional government can have different forms of
executive leadership, such as a president, a prime minister, or
a chancellor.
Statement 4 is incorrect: A constitutional government does
not always have a universal adult franchise. A constitutional
government can have different forms of electoral systems,
such as proportional representation, first-past-the-post, or
mixed-member proportional. A universal adult franchise is
one of the possible ways of ensuring political participation
and representation in a constitutional democracy, but it is
not a necessary condition for a constitutional government.
 Article 19 - Protection of six rights related i:o freedom -
(a) of speech and expression; (b) to assemble peaceably
and without arms; (c) to form associations or unions;
(d) to move freely throughout the territory of India; (e)
to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India;
and (f) to practice any profession, or to carry on any
occupation, trade or business.
Article 29 - Protection of language, script and culture
of minorities.
Article 30 - Right of minorities to establish and
administer educational institutions.
166. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The Constitution of India includes provisions in Part IV
(Article 36-51) known as the Directive Principles of State
Policy (DPSP).
One such principle is highlighted in Article 50, which
emphasizes the importance of separating the judiciary
from the executive in the public services of the State. This
provision reflects the commitment to maintaining the
independence and impartiality of the judiciary, ensuring a
fair and just system of governance.
Important Tipss
Classification of Directive Principles of State Policy:
Socialistic Principles - Article 38, 39, 39A, 41, 42, 43,
43A, 47
Gandhian Principles- Article 40, 43, 43B, 46, 47, 48
Liberal-Intellectual Principles- Article 44, 45, 48,
48A, 49, 50, and 51.
The Constitution does not contain any classification of
Directive Principles. It is classified on the basis of their
content and direction
167. Solution: (d)
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Article 12 of the Constitution of India defines the term
'State' for the purpose of interpreting fundamental rights.
According to Article 12, the term 'State' includes not only
the Government oflndia and the Parliament oflndia but also
the Governments and Legislatures of each State.
Important Tips:
According to Article 12, 'State' includes:
Government and Parliament of India- executive and
legislative organs of the Union government.
Government and legislature of states- executive and
legislative organs of state government.
All Local Authorities- municipalities, panchayats,
district boards, improvement trusts, etc.
• All Other Authorities- statutory or non-statutory
authorities like LIC, ONGC, SAIL, etc.
A private body or an agency working as an instrument
of the State falls within the meaning of the 'State' under
Article 12.
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KING R QUEEN P [ऋषभ राजपूत ]
168. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The Constitution of India was amended by the Eighty-
sixth Amendment Act of 2002 (and not the Eighty-fifth
Amendment Act) to include Article 21A, which mandates
that every state must ensure free and compulsory education
for children aged six to fourteen. This amendment recognizes
education as a Fundamental Right protected under Part III
of the Constitution.
169. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct- The procedure for amending the
Constitution is provided in Article 368 of the Constitution of
India. According to article 368, constitution can be amended
in three ways- Simple Majority, Special Majority, Special
Majority of the Parliament and the ratification of half of the
state legislatures.
Statement 2 is correct- A bill to amend the Constitution
can be introduced in either House of Parliament. It can be
introduced as a Constitutional Amendment Bill and must go
through the prescribed legislative process before it can be
enacted into law.
Statement 3 is correct- The special procedure outlined in
Article 368 of the Constitution vests constituent powers upon
the ordinary legislation. This means that the Parliament,
while acting in its legislative capacity, has the power to amend
or modify the provisions of the Constitution provided that
Basic Structure of the Indian Constitution remains intact.
170. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
A national emergency in India can be declared based on the
grounds of war, external aggression, or armed rebellion. The
term "armed rebellion" was introduced through the 44th
amendment to the Constitution. Prior to this amendment, it
was referred to as "internal disturbance."
Important Tips:
A national emergency in India can be proclaimed
under Article 352 of the Constitution during situations
of war, external aggression, or armed rebellion that
poses a threat to the country's security and integrity.
The President of India has the authority to declare a
national emergency based on the advice of the Union
Cabinet.
Once a national emergency is proclaimed, the
central government assumes additional powers, and
the federal structure of the country undergoes a
temporary change.
Fundamental rights guaranteed by the Constitution can
be suspended or curtailed during a national emergency,
except for certain rights mentioned in Article 20 and
Article 21.
II INDIAN POLITY AND GOVERNANCE
The proclamation of a national emergency must be
approved by both houses of Parliament within one
month and is valid for six months. It can be extended
with the approval of Parliament in subsequent intervals
of six months.
171. Solution: (d)
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Freedom of speech and expression in India is not absolute and
has reasonable restrictions. Restrictions include defamation,
indecency, morality, and incitement to offense. These
limitations aim to protect reputation, maintain decency, and
prevent illegal activities. The Constitution guarantees this
fundamental right while allowing necessary limitations for
public safety.
172. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer
Articles 31 A and 3 IC are exceptions to the Fundamental
Rights enumerated in Article 14 and Article 19, as they ailow
for certain restrictions on equality and property rights in
specific contexts for the purpose of agrarian reforms and
socioeconomic welfare.
Important Tips:
Article 31A: It saves five categories of laws from being
challenged and invalidated on the ground of contravention
of the fundamental rights conferred by Article 14 and
Article 19. It includes:
Acquisiti.J;1 ,>f estates and related rights by the State;
Taking over the management of properties by the State;
Amalgamation vf corporations;
Extingu;shr.·1e11t or modification of rights of directors
or shareholders of corporations
Extinguishmcnt or moo11ication of mining leases.
It also provides the guaranteed right to compensation in
case of acquisition or requisition of the private property
by the state.
Article 31 C: It contained two provisions:
It says that no law that seeks to implement socialistic
directive principles specified in Articles 39 (b) and (c),
shall be declared void on the grounds of contravention
of the fundamental rights conferred by Article 14 or
Article 19.
Moreover, no law containing a declaration that it is for
giving effect to such policy shall be questioned in any
court on the ground that it does not give effect to such
a policy.
173. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The Constitution (86th Amendment) Act, 2002 added the
fundamental duty of providing opportunities for education
to one's child between the age of 6 and 14 years. This
amendment aimed to emphasize the importance of education
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II
and ensure that every child in India has access to quality
education during the crucial formative years of their life.
Important Tips:
Article 21 A (Fundamental Right)- The State shall
provide free and compulsory education to all children
of the age of six to fourteen years in such manner as
the State may, by law, determine.
Article 45 (Directive Principle of State Policy)- The
State shall endeavor to provide early childhood care
and education for all children until they complete the
age of six years.
Article 51 A (Fundamental Duties) - Parent or guardian to
provide opportunities for education to his child or, as the case
may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years.
174. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Article-20 of the Constitution of India protects a person
against- double jeopardy. Double jeopardy refers to the
principle that an individual cannot be prosecuted or
punished more than once for the same offense. The article
states three specific protections:
No Double Jeopardy.
No ex-post facto law.
No self-incrimination.
Important Tips:
Double Jeopardy- Double jeopardy protection is
applicable only in legal proceedings before a court or
judicial tribunal. It does not apply to proceedings before
departmental or administrative authorities since they are
not of a judicial nature.
No ex-post facto law- An ex-post-facto law refers to a
law that applies punishments or increases penalties for
actions that have already been committed in the past. In
other words, it is a law that is enforced retroactively. It is
applicable only to criminal laws.
No Self-Incrimination- It means no person accused of any
offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself.
The protection against self-incrimination extends to both
oral evidence and documentary evidence. It extends only
to criminal proceedings. However, it does not extend to
(i) compulsory production of material objects,
(ii) compulsion to give thumb impression, specimen
signature, blood specimens, and
(iii) compulsory exhibition of the body.
175. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
During the debates of the Constituent Assembly, Dr. B.R.
Ambedkar, the principal architect of the Indian Constitution,
defended Article-356 on the plea that it would be used as "a
matter of last resort." He argued that this provision would
only be invoked in exceptional circumstances when all
other remedies and alternatives have been exhausted. The
II INDIANPOLITYAND GOVERNANCE
intention behind Article-356 was to ensure the maintenance
of constitutional order and stability in the country by
providing a mechanism to address critical situations in the
states.
Important Tips:
President's Rule, also known as State Emergency, is the
suspension of the state government and the imposition
of direct central government rule in a state of India.
It is implemented under Article 356 of the Indian
Constitution when the President deems that the
state's governance cannot be carried out according to
constitutional provisions.
The decision to impose President's Rule is taken by
the President on the advice of the Governor of the
concerned state or the Union Cabinet.
The state legislative assembly is either dissolved or
kept under suspended animation during President's
Rule.
President's Rule can be imposed for a maximum period
of six months, and its extension beyond six months
requires parliamentary approval every six months.
Currently, Manipur is the only state with highest
number (i.e. 10) of President's Rule so far. Uttar
Pradesh has 9 President Rule so far, Bihar and Punjab
both has 8 President Rule as of today.
176. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Under Article-32 of the Constitution of India, individuals
have the right to move the Supreme Court for the enforcement
of their Fundamental Rights. However, there are certain
grounds on which the Supreme Court can refuse relief under
Article-32. One such ground is when it is determined that no
Fundamental Right has been infringed in the case.
177. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer
Article 15(2) of the constitution No citizen shall, on
grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex,
place of birth or any of them, be subject to any disability,
liability, restriction or condition with regard to:
Access to shops, public restaurants, hotels and palaces of
public entertainment; or
The use of wells, tanks, bathing Ghats, roads and places
of public resort maintained wholly or partly out of
State funds or dedicated to the use of the general public
(option bis correct)
Important Tips:
Referred to as the "Magna Carta" of India
Fundamental Rights have been mentioned in the Part
III of the constitution from Article 12 to 35.
They are justiciable in nature.
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Defended and guaranteed by the Supreme Court.
There are six fundamental rights recognised by the
Indian constitution:
Right to Equality (Article 14-18)
Right to Freedom (Article 19-22)
Right against Exploitation (Article 23-24)
Right to Freedom of Religion (Article 25-28)
Cultural and Educational Rights (Article 29-30)
Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32)
NOTE: Originally, there were 7 Fundamental Rights
enshrined in the constitution. However, Right to
Property was deleted as a fundamental right through the
44th Amendment Act, 1978. It was made a legal right
(Article 300A).
178. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The concept of basic structure was laid down by the Supreme
Court in the Keshvananda Bharti Case (1973).
The basic structure doctrine states that the Constitution
of India has certain basic features that cannot be altered or
destroyed through amendments by the Parliament Article
368 does not give absolute powers to the Parliament to
amend any part of the Constitution.
It can't be exercised by the people through representatives
in a constituent assembly (Statement 2 is incorrect)
It falls outside the constituent powers of the parliament.
(Statement 3 is incorrect)
179. Solution: (b)
Exp: Option b is the correct answer.
Under article 21 of the Indian constitution, women's
reproductive choice falls under the right to personal
liberty.
The right to personal liberty also includes women's
reproductive choice the same was held in the case of suchitra
srivastava and ors V.chadi. (option 3 is not correct)
Article 21 of the constitution deals with the protection of life
and personal liberty.
No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty
according to the procedure established by law. (option 1 is
correct).
180. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
According to article 28 of the Indian constitution
Freedom as to attendance at religious instruction or
religious worship in certain educational institutions.
No religion instruction shall be provided in any
educational institution wholly maintained out of State
funds.
Nothing in clause ( 1 ) shall apply to an educational
institution which is administered by the State but has
II INDIAN POLITY AND GOVERNANCE
in the Concurrent List or State List. This includes the
authority to impose taxes not specified in either list. This
provision ensures no legislative gaps and empowers the
Union Government with residuary powers.
40. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer
The Supreme Court of India holds original jurisdiction, as
per Article 131 of the Indian Constitution, to resolve fiscal
disputes between the Government of India and one or more
states, between the Government of India and any state(s)
versus other state(s), and between two or more states.
41. Solution: (c)
Exp) 0 ption c is the correct answer
The freedom of trade, commerce, and intercourse is
provided under Part XIII of the Indian Constitution
in Articles 301 to 307. Article 301 lays down the general
principles of trade and commerce whereas Article 302 to
305 enunciates the restrictions which trade is subjected
to. Article 306 has been repealed and Article 307 allows
Parliament to appoint authority for implementing Articles
301 to 304. The source for adopting these provisions was the
Australian Constitution.
42. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer
Zonal Councils are advisory councils and are made up of
the states of India that have been grouped into five zones to
foster cooperation among them. These were set up vide Part-
III of the States Reorganization Act, 1956. The Union Home
Minister is the common chairman of five zonal councils.
Each chief minister acts as a vice chairman of the council
by rotation, holding office for a period of one year at a
time.
Important Tips
The Northeastern states are not covered by any of
the Zonal Councils and their special problems are
addressed by another statutory body, the North
Eastern Council at Shillong, created by the North
.Eastern Council Act, 1971.
This council originally comprised Arunachal Pradesh,
Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland
and Tripura; later the state of Sikkim was also added
vide North Eastern Council (Amendment) Act, 2002
notified on 23 December 2002.
The union territories of Andaman and Nicobar
Islands and Lakshadweep are not members of any
of the Zonal Councils. However, they are presently
special invitees to the Southern Zonal Council.
43. Solution: (d)
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
The Constitution establishes a federal system of government,
where power is divided between the center and the states.
This allows for regional autonomy and diversity within a
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unified framework. Jawaharlal Nehru used this famous
phrase 'Unity in Diversity' in his book 'Discovery of India'.
This phrase is used even today as an expression of harmony
and unity amongst different regions and cultures. AU
institutes i.e. Inter-State Councils, National Development
Council, Finance Commission, Regional Council, Unitary
Judicial System and All India Services institutes are
considered necessary to promote 'Unity among diversity'
in the Indian Federalism.
44. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Women, Dalits, Poor and Minority groups are the biggest
stakeholders of Democracy in India. As the constitution
protects their rights and has many provisions for their
welfare and empowerment such as Fundamental rights,
Directive Principle of State Policy (DPSPs), and many
political rights. The weaker section of society needs more
external support and assistance for their empowerment
unlike the dominant section of society. So maximum
benefits of a democratic system of governance are taken by
these groups. The reason is that the democracy has emerged
as the carrier for the desire of Self Respect. Their identity
and dignity are well protected by the constitution of India
and through various parliamentary laws. Hence, both (A)
and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
45. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer
Assertion (A) is true: Article 356 deals with President's
Rule in case of constitutional breakdown in a state. Sarkaria
Commission recommended using it sparingly, maintaining
federal structure, and avoiding undue Central Government
interference in state affairs.
Reason (R) is true: The political parties in power at the
Centre have frequently misused Article 356. Since India's
independence, it has been invoked over 100 times to impose
President's Rule in various states. In most cases it was used for
political considerations rather than any genuine breakdown
of constitutional machinery in the States.
(R) is the correct explanation of (A): The reason behind
the Sarkaria Commission's recommendation to use Article
356 sparingly was precisely because it had been misused by
the political parties that came to form the Government at
the Centre.
46. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The federal system was adopted in India to safeguard and
promote the unity of the country, and accommodate regional
diversity. Such accommodation of diversities has built a
stronger nation. Most of Indian States have different ethnicity,
culture, languages, etc, but still India as nation stood firm
and robust. Federal system was designed to facilitate many
diverse parts and protect national integration because
accommodation of these diversities has built a stronger
Indian nationhood. Hence, both (A) and (R) are true, and
(R) is the correct explanation of (A).
II INDIAN POLITY AND GOVERNANCE
47. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer
The Gadgil-Mukherjee Formula, devised in 1969, allocated
central assistance to states based on population, per capita
income, and special problems. It is no longer in use, and
allocation now occurs through grant-in-aid, centrally
sponsored schemes, and tax sharing as per Finance
Commission recommendations. The Planning Commission
was replaced by NITI Aayog in 2015, leading to changes
in resource allocation mechanisms in India's fiscal federal
system.
48. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer
Under Article 246 of the Indian Constitution, which deals
with the distribution oflegislative powers between the Union
and the States, "Land Revenue" is exclusively imposed and
collected by the States under the State List (List II). The
State Governments have the authority to levy taxes on land
and agricultural income, and they exercise this power as part
of their revenue generation.
II
Clause (1) empowers the President, with the
consent of the State Governor, to entrust functions,
conditionally or unconditionally, to the State
Government or its officers concerning matters falling
under the executive power of the Union.
Clause (2) enables Parliament to make laws that
apply to a State, even if the State Legislature lacks
the authority to enact laws on that subject. It allows
the conferment of powers and imposition of duties on
the State or its officers and authorities.
Clause (3) addresses the reimbursement of any
additional administrative costs incurred by the State
due to the exercise of powers and duties conferred
upon it under this article. The Government of India
pays an agreed amount, or in case of disagreement,
an arbitrator appointed by the Chief Justice of India
determines the compensation.
52. Solution: (d)
Exp) Option dis the correct answer.

49. Solution: (c) A unitary government is one in which all the powers are
vested in the national government. The regional governments,
Exp) Option c is the correct answer
if exist, derive their authority from the national government.
Under Article 270 of the Indian Constitution, taxes on
income, excluding agricultural income, are levied and The Indian Constitution also contains a large number of
collected by the Government of India. These taxes' net unitary or non-federal features such as a strong Centre,
proceeds, except those attributed to Union territories or single Constitution, single citizenship, flexibility of
taxes on Union emoluments, are not part of the Consolidated Constitution, integrated judiciary, appointment of state
Fund of India but are assigned to States where the tax is governor by the Centre, all-India services, emergency
leviable. These proceeds are distributed among the States provisions (Constitutional crisis), President's approval on
as prescribed. state bills, no equality of state representation and so on.
50. Solution: (b) Whereas, some of federal features are, Written Constitution,
Exp) Option b is the correct answer Rigid Constitution, Supremacy of the Constitution,
Decentralization of Powers (7 th Schedule), independent
The Sarkaria Commission recommended establishing
judiciary headed by the Supreme Court (which hears cases
a Permanent Inter-State Council (Inter-Governmental
Council) to foster cooperation and resolve disputes between related center and States), Bicameralism and so on.
the central government and states, promoting federal Federal Government Unitary Government
principles, dialogues, and consensus-building for governance
1. Dual Government (that 1. Single government,
and policy implementation.
is, national government that is) the national
51. Solution: (a) and regional government which
Exp) Option a is the correct answer government) may create regional
governments
Article 257(1) states that, "The executive power of every
State shall be so exercised as not to impede or prejudice 2. Written Constitution 2. Constitution may be
the exercise of the executive power of the Union, and the written (France) or
executive power of the Union shall extend to the giving of unwritten (Britain)
such directions to a State as may appear to the Government 3. Division of powers 3. No division of powers.
of India to be necessary for that purpose". This provision between the national and All powers are vested in
enables the Central Government to intervene when necessary regional government the national government
to maintain the integrity and unity of the nation and to
4. Supremacy of the 4. Constitution may be
ensure the smooth functioning of the federal structure.
Constitution supreme (Japan) or may
Important Tips not be supreme (Britain)
Article 258 of the Constitution of India, deals with the 5. Rigid Constitution 5. Constitution may be
"Power of the Union to confer powers, etc, on States in rigid (France) or flexible
certain cases." (Britain)

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II
6. Independent judiciary 6. Judiciary may be
independent or may not
be independent
Bicameral legislature 7. Legislature may be
bicameral (Britain) or
unicameral (China)
53. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option bis the correct answer
The Northern Zonal Council is a zonal council that comprises
the states and union territories of Chandigarh, National
Capital Territory of Delhi, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh,
Jammu and Kashmir, Punjab, Rajasthan and Ladakh.
Important Tip:
Five Zonal Councils were set up vide Part-III of the States
Re-organisation Act, 1956. The present composition of
each of these Zonal Councils is as under:
The Northern Zonal Council, comprising the States
of Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Punjab, Rajasthan,
National Capital Territory of Delhi and Union Territory
of Chandigarh, Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh.
The Central Zonal Council, comprising the States of
Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh and Madhya
Pradesh;
The Eastern Zonal Council, comprising the States of
Bihar, Jbarkhand, Orissa, Sikkim and West Bengal;
The Western Zonal Council, comprising the States of
Goa, Gujarat, Maharashtra and the Union Territories
of Daman & Diu and Dadra & Nagar Haveli;
The Southern Zonal Council, comprising the States of
Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu and
the Union Territory of Puducherry.
The North Eastern States i.e. (i) Assam (ii) Amnachal
Pradesh (iii) Manipur (iv) Tripura (v) Mizoram (vi)
Meghafaya and (vii) Nagaland are not included in the
Zonal CmmciJs and their special problems are looked
after by the North Eastern Council, set up under the
North Eastern Council Act, 1972.
54. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The Indian Federation is not the result of an agreement
among the states, unlike the American Federation.
Article l describes India as a 'Union of States' which implies
two things: one, Indian Federation is not the result of an
agreement by the states; and two, no state has the right to
secede from the federation.
Important Tips
Indian Federation system is based on the Canadian
Model, where a unitary state transforms into a federation
by granting provinces autonomy to promote regional
interests.
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KING R QUEEN P [ऋषभ राजपूत ]
II
Characteristics features of Indian Federalism:
Distribution of Powers: Powers divided between
central and state governments. Schedule 7 divides
subjects between Centre and States and maintains an
extensive concurrent list over which both centre and
states have jurisdiction. Residuary power rests with
Central Government.
Dual government: India has a dual polity system with
separate governments at the central and state levels.
Written Constitution: Federal structure defined by
written constitution.
Bicameralism: The Constitution establishes a
bicameral legislature comprising the Rajya Sabha and
Lok Sabha.
Supremacy of Constitution: Constitution is supreme
law.
Independent Judiciary: Judiciary interprets and
enforces Constitution.
Rigidity of Constitution: The Constitution's
rigidity requires joint action of the Central and state
governments to amend provisions related to the federal
structure.
55. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer
The M.M. Punchhi Commission on Centre-State Relations
recommended that a bill reserved for the consideration
of the Union Executive should be disposed of within six
months. The Punchhi Commission, officially known as the
Commission on Centre-State Relations, was established in
2007 to examine and review the relationship between the
central government and state governments in India.
56. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Article-263 in Part XI of the Constitution provides for
the establishment of an lnter"State Counci for better
coordination among the states and between Centre and
States.
In 1990, the Inter-State Council was established on the
recommendation of Sarkaria Commission (1983-87)
The present composition of the Council is as follows:
(I) Prime Minister as the Chairman
(II)Chief Minister of all the States and Union Territories
(III) Administrators of Union Territories not having
Assemblies
(IV) Governor's of States under President rule
(V) Six Central Cabinet Ministers
II
Important Tips
Punchhi Commission (2007) : is related to the
Commission on Centre-State relations.
Raiamannar Commission (1969) : is related to
examine all aspects of centre and state.
Mungerilal Commission ( 1977) Identification
backward castes in Bihar.
57. Solution: (d)
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Indian federalism rather follows the principle of a "blended"
or "cooperative" federalism, where there is a significant
degree of cooperation and coordination between the Union
Government and the State Governments. The Constitution
provides for a distribution of powers between the Union
and the States (through Union and States list), but it also
allows for concurrent powers and shared responsibilities.
Important Tip
Some of the features of Indian Federalism:
1. Division of Powers: Clear division of powers between
the Union Government and State Governments.
2. Written Constitution: Indian federalism is based on a
written Constitution.
3. Supremacy of the Constitution: The Constitution is
the supreme law of the land.
4. Independent Judiciary: Presence of an independent
judiciary to interpret and protect the Constitution.
5. Dual Polity: Recognition of a dual polity consisting of
the Union Government and State Governments.
6. Rigid Constitution: The Indian Constitution requires
special procedures for amendments.
7. Distribution of Powers: Powers allocated through
Union List, State List, and Concurrent List.
8. Strong Center: The Union Government holds more
extensive powers compared to State Governments.
9. Cooperative Federalism: Emphasis on collaboration
and coordination between Union and State
Governments.
10. Independent Election Commission: An independent
body responsible for conducting elections at national
and state levels.
58. Solution: (d)
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Option I is correct- The Constitution of India is the
supreme law of the land. It lays down the fundamental
principles, rights, and duties of citizens, and establishes
the structure and functioning of the government. The
Constitution serves as the foundation and source of all laws
in India.
Option 2 is correct- Statutes, also known as legislation or
acts, are laws enacted by the Parliament of India or the
State Legislative Assemblies. These laws are formulated and
passed by the respective legislative bodies and cover various
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subjects, such as criminal law, civil law, taxation, labor
laws, and more. Statutes are an important source of law in
India.
Option 3 is correct- Customary law refers to the practices,
customs, and traditions that are followed by a specific
community or group of people. Customary laws have
legal recognition and are applicable in specific regions or
communities, particularly in matters related to personal
laws, inheritance, marriage, and other cultural practices.
Option 4 is correct- Case law, also known as judicial
precedent, refers to the decisions and interpretations made
by the courts while deciding legal disputes. The judgments
delivered by higher courts, particularly the Supreme Court
of India, create precedents that serve as a source of law.
These precedents help in interpreting laws and establishing
legal principles for future cases.
59. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
A. Pluralist democracy - (4) Capacity of groups to ensure
Governmental responsiveness. Pluralist democracy refers
to a system where power is dispersed among different
interest groups, and these groups have the ability to
influence government decisions and policies.
B. People's democracy - (3) Social equality through
common ownership of wealth. People's democracy
aims for social equality by advocating for common
ownership of wealth and resources, ensuring equitable
distribution among all members of society.
C. Developmental democracy (2) Highest and
harmonious development of individual capabilities.
Developmental democracy focuses on promoting the
holistic development of individual capabilities,
allowing individuals to reach their full potential in a
harmonious society.
D. Elitist democracy - (1) Power is always exercised by a
privileged few. Elitist democracy refers to a system where
power is concentrated in the hands of a small, privileged
group, often excluding the majority of the population
from decision-making processes.
60. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
In a presidential form of government, the President is
separate from the legislative body, which means that the
President is not a member of the legislature. The President is
the head of the executive branch and is elected independently
of the legislature. This separation of powers ensures a clear
distinction between the executive and legislative functions.
Option b is incorrect: The Presidential form of government
does separate the legislative and executive functions,
with the President being the head of the executive branch
and the legislature having its own separate powers and
responsibilities.
Option c is incorrect: The principle of collective
responsibility is usually associated with parliamentary
systems, where the executive (Prime Minister and
II INDIAN POUTY AND .GOVERNANCE
Cabinet) is collectively responsible to the legislature. In
a presidential system, the President is not bound by the
principle of collective responsibility.
Option dis incorrect: In a presidential form of government,
the tenure of the President is typically fixed and does not
depend on the legislature. The President serves a fixed term
as specified by the constitution and is not subject to removal
by the legislature, except under specific circumstances
outlined in the constitution.
61. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement a is correct: Indian federalism grants powers to
both the central government and the state governments.
Each state government has its own legislative and executive
powers to govern their respective territories.
Statement b is correct: The judiciary in India, particularly
the Supreme Court, has the authority to interpret the
constitution and determine the scope of powers and
jurisdiction of different levels of government. The judiciary
acts as a neutral arbiter in resolving disputes between the
central government and state governments.
Statement c is incorrect: States are subordinate to the
Central Government: This statement is not a feature of
Indian federalism. In Indian federalism, both the central
government and state governments are sovereign in their
respective spheres of power. While the central government
has certain powers and responsibilities that are applicable
to the entire country, state governments also possess
independent powers to govern their respective states.
Statement d is correct: Indian federalism entails a division
of fiscal powers between the central government and
state governments. While the Constitution provides for the
assignment of revenue sources to each level of government,
the distribution of fiscal resources can be subject to periodic
revisions and negotiations between the central government
and state governments.
62. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The setting up of the Inter-State Council in 1990 was
aimed at strengthening the federal provisions of the
Constitution of India. The Inter-State Council serves as
a platform for coordination and cooperation between the
Union government and the state governments. It facilitates
the discussion and resolution of issues and disputes between
the Union and states, promoting cooperative federalism.
Important Tips
The Inter-State Council is a non-permanent
constitutional body that was established by a
presidential order on 28 May 1990 based on Article
263 of the Constitution of India.
The main purpose of the Inter-State Council is to
enhance the coordination between the Centre and the
States and to discuss or investigate policies, subjects of
common interest, and disputes among States
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63. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: Residuary powers have been given
to the Union Parliament by Article 248 and Entry 97 of the
Union List. These provisions give Parliament exclusive power
to make any law with respect to any matter not enumerated
in List II or List III, including any tax not mentioned in
either of those lists.
Statement 2 is incorrect: In the matter of residuary powers,
the Constitution of India does not follow the Constitution
of Australia, but follows the Constitution of Canada. The
Constitution of Australia does not vest the residuary powers
in any level of government, but leaves them to be determined
by judicial interpretation. The Constitution of Canada, on
the other hand, vests the residuary powers in the federal
government by Section 91 of its Constitution Act, 1867.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Schedule 7 of the Constitution
of India does not provide a list of residuary powers, but
provides three lists of subjects on which Parliament and state
legislatures can make laws. These are List I (Union List), List
II (State List) and List III (Concurrent List). The residuary
powers are those that arc not covered by any of these lists.
Statement 4 is correct: Government oflndia Act, 1935 placed
residuary powers in the hands of the Governor-General.
This was done to ensure that no important subject was left
out from legislative competence and to give flexibility to deal
with unforeseen situations. The Governor-General could
legislate on any matter that was not included in any of the
seven lists provided by this Act
64. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement l is correct: The head of government is also
the head of state in the presidential system. The president
represents the nation both internally and externally, and has
the authority to appoint and dismiss cabinet members, issue
executive orders, veto legislative acts, negotiate treaties,
command the armed forces, etc.
Statement 2 is correct: Executive can veto legislative acts
in the presidential system. The president has the power to
reject or approve bills passed by the legislature, and can also
propose legislation to the legislature. However, the legislature
can override the president's veto by a supermajority vote in
some cases
65. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer
Article 300 of the Indian Constitution deals with "Suits
and proceedings." It states that the Union Government
(Government oflndia) and State Governments (Government
of a State) can sue or be sued in their respective names.
66. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The Democracy of India is based on the fact that public
enjoys the rights to choose and change the Government.
Democracy refers to a system of government where the
citizens exercise power by voting.
II
Important Tips
Key characteristics of Democracy:
1. Democracy is of two types-direct and indirect.
2. In direct democracy, the people exercise their supreme power directly as is the case in Switzerland. There are four devices
of direct democracy, namely, Referendum, Initiative, Recall and Plebiscite.
3. In indirect democracy, on the other hand, the representatives elected by the people exercise the supreme power and thus
carry on the government and make the laws.
This type of democracy, also known as representative democracy, is of two kinds-parliamentary and presidential.
The Indian Constitution provides for representative parliamentary democracy under which the executive is responsible
to the legislature for all its policies and actions.
4. The term 'democratic' is used in the Indian Preamble in the broader sense embracing not only political democracy but
also social and economic democracy. This dimension was stressed by Dr. Ambedkar in his concluding speech in the
Constituent Assembly on November 25, 1949, in the following way: "Political democracy cannot last unless there lies at
the base of it social democracy.

•••

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Important Tips
Lok Adalats have been given statutory status under
the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987.
The Lok Adalat have the same powers as are vested
in a Civil Court under the Code of Civil Procedure
(1908).
Lok Adalat have the requisite powers to specify its own
procedure for the determination of any dispute coming
before it.
Under the said Act, the award (decision) made by the
Lok Adalats is deemed to be a decree of a civil court
and is final and binding on all parties and no appeal
against such an award lies before any court of law.
64. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer
In the SP Gupta vs. President of India case, which is also
known as the First Judges' Case, the Supreme Court of
India held that the "primacy" of the CJl's (Chief Justice
of India) recommendation on judicial appointments and
transfers can be refused for "cogent reasons." The ruling
gave the Executive primacy over the Judiciary in judicial
appointments for the next 12 years.
Important Tips
I. Second Judges Case (1993):
SC introduced the Collegium system, holding that
"consultation" really meant "concurrence".
It added that it was not the CJI's individual opinion,
but an institutional opinion formed in consultation
with the two senior-most judges in the SC.
2. Third Judges Case (1998):
SC on the President's reference (Article 143) expanded
the Collegium to a five-member body, comprising the
CJI and four of his senior-most colleagues.
65. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option bis the correct answer
The Golak Nath case was a landmark judgment of the
Supreme Court of India in 1967 that dealt with the issue
of the power of Parliament to amend the Constitution.
The Court held that Parliament could not amend any of the
provisions of Part III of the Constitution, which contains the
Fundamental Rights. The Court held that these rights were
fundamental and could not be taken away by Parliament.
Important Tip
In the Golak Nath case, the Supreme Court declared
the 24th Amendment, which amended Article 31
regarding the right to property, as unconstitutional.
The Court held that an amendment under Article
368 is "law" within the meaning of Article 13 of the
Constitution and therefore, if an amendment "takes
away or abridges" a Fundamental Right conferred by
Part III, it is void.
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However, the Kesavananda Bharati case later
overturned the Golak Nath judgment, stating that
while Parliament can amend the Constitution, it
cannot destroy its basic structure.
66. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer
The case of Indra Sawhney Vs Union of India, commonly
known as the Mandal Commission case, dealt with the issue
of the "creamy layer" among the backward classes in India.
Important Tip:
The Supreme Court, in its judgment, upheld the
validity of reservations for OBCs but introduced the
concept of the "creamy layer:'
It defined the "creamy layer" as the relatively better-
off and more privileged individuals within the OBC
category who should be excluded from the benefits of
reservations.
This exclusion was based on the rationale that
reservations should reach those who genuinely
need them and uplift the most socio-economically
disadvantaged sections.
KM Nanavati v. State of Bombay was a case about the
right to equality, Madhu Limaye v. Ved Murti was a
case about the right to freedom of speech, and Sajjan
Singh v. State of Punjab was a case about the right to
property.
67. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The locus standi rule to move the court was liberalized by
the case of SP Gupta vs Union of India. This case is also
known as the Judges' Transfer Case, as it dealt with the issue
of transfer of judges from one High Court to another by the
President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India.
Important Tip
SR Bommai vs Union of India was a case that dealt
with the constitutional validity of President's rule
imposed under Article 356 in various states. The
court laid down certain safeguards and limitations on
the exercise of this power by the Centre and upheld the
federal strncture of the Constitution.
Minerva Mills vs Union of India was a case that
dealt with the constitutional validity of certain
amendments made to Article 31C and Article 368 by
the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976. The court struck down
these amendments as violative of the basic strncture
doctrine and upheld the supremacy of judicial review
and fundamental rights over directive principles.
Kesavananda Bharati vs State of Kerala was a case
that dealt with the constitutional validity of certain
amendments made to Article 31 by various land
reform acts. The court propounded the basic structure
doctrine and held that Parliament had 110 power to
amend any part of the Constitution that formed its
essential core or identity .
II INDIAN POLITY AND GOVERNANCE
68. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer
Statement 1 is correct: The condition mentioned in statement
1 implies that the writ of certiorari can only be issued against
a tribunal or an officer who has the legal authority to decide
matters that impact the rights of individuals and is obligated
to act judicially. In other words, the tribunal or officer must
have the power to make decisions that affect the rights of
individuals, and they must have a duty to act in a judicial or
quasi-judicial capacity.
Statement 2 is correct: This condition implies that the writ
of certiorari can only be issued if the tribunal or officer has
acted beyond their legal authority or jurisdiction. If they
have acted without the requisite jurisdiction, the writ can be
issued to quash their decision or order.
For the issue of a writ of certiorari in India, both conditions
mentioned in options 1 and 2 are necessary.
Important Tip
Concept of Certiorari
It literally means 'to be certified' or 'to be informed:
It is issued by a higher court to a lower court or
tribunal to either transfer a case pending with the
latter or to overturn the latter's order in a case.
It is issued due to an excess of jurisdiction, a lack of
jurisdiction, or a legal error.
As a result, unlike prohibition, which is only
preventative, certiorari is both preventive and
curative.
Previously, the writ of certiorari could only be issued
against _\•::l.'dal and quasi-judicial authorities, not
administrative ones.
Howev?r, th-c S 1preme Court ruled in 1991 that
certiorari ;:,.,. :•" ':sued even against administrative
authoritie,i ,:Jfr.:l.int individual rights.
Certiorari, like prohibition, is not available against
legislative bo<l:-~s or;: ~•vate individuals or bodies.
69. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer
In December 2014, when Justice HL Dattu was the Chief
Justice of India (CJI), the Supreme Court had issued a
notification to set up a special Bench known as the Social
Justice Bench. The Social Justice Bench was established to
exclusively hear cases related to social justice issues. It aimed
to expedite the hearing and disposal of cases pertaining to
matters such as gender inequality, child rights, disability
rights, environmental protection, and other socio-economic
concerns.
70. Solution: (d)
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
The case of "Naz Foundation vs. Government of NCT of
Delhi and others" addressed the constitutionality of Section
377 of the Indian Penal Code, which criminalized same-
sex consensual activities. The court's decision impacted
fundamental rights under Articles 21, 14, and 15 of the
Indian Constitution, including the right to life, equality, and
prohibition of discrimination.
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71. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The writ of Habeas Corpus is a legal remedy that allows
an individual to seek relief from unlawful detention or
imprisonment. The term "Habeas Corpus" is derived from
Latin, which means "you may have the body."
Important Tip
l. Article 32 of the Indian Constitution provides for
the right to constitutional remedies to protect
Fundamental Rights and it is integral to Basic Structure
doctrine.
2. Five Constitutional Writs:
Habeas Corpus: It used to ensure the release of a
person who is unlawfully detained or imprisoned
Mandamus: It issued to compel public officials or
authorities to perform their duties or functions.
Prohibition: It is used to prohibit lower courts or
tribunals from exceeding their jurisdiction or acting
contrary to law.
Certiorari: It is issued to quash the orders or
decisions of lower courts or tribunals on grounds of
jurisdictional errors or violation of natural justice.
Quo Warranto: It is used to inquire into the legality of
a person holding a public office and to challenge their
authority or credentials.
72. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer
The power to establish a common High Court is vested in
the Parliament, under Article 231 of the Constitution.
73. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Under Article-32 of the Constitution of India, individuals
have the right to move the Supreme Court for the enforcement
of their Fundamental Rights. However, there are certain
grounds on which the Supreme Court can refuse relief under
Article-32. One such ground is when it is determined that no
Fundamental Right has been infringed in the case.
74. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Under Article 131 of the Constitution of India, the Supreme
Court has original jurisdiction in matters related to disputes
between states, or between the Government of India and one
or more states, or between two or more states on one side
and the Government of India on the other.
Important Tip
1. The Supreme Court has exclusive original jurisdiction
in federal disputes, which include disputes between
the Centre and one or more states, or between
different states.
II INDIAN POLITYAND GOVERNANCE
2. This jurisdiction is limited to disputes involving
questions of law or fact that determine the existence
or extent of a legal right, excluding political questions.
3. The Supreme Court cannot entertain suits brought
by private citizens against the Centre or a state under
this jurisdiction.
4. The Supreme Court's jurisdiction does not extend
to disputes arising from pre-Constitution treaties,
agreements, or certain matters such as inter-state water
disputes, matters referred to the Finance Commission,
commercial disputes, or recovery of damages by a state
against the Centre.
5. In 1961, the Supreme Court dismissed the first suit
brought under its original jurisdiction, where West
Bengal challenged the Constitutional validity of the
Coal Bearing Areas (Acquisition and Development)
Act, 1957, passed by the Parliament.
75. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer
Both the Supreme Court and High Courts have the
authority to issue writs. While the Supreme Court primarily
issues writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights, High
Courts can issue writs not only for fundamental rights but
also for other purposes, such as the enforcement of legal
rights or statutory duties.
Important Tip
Article 32, Constitution of India 1950
1. The right to move the Supreme Court by appropriate
proceedings for the enforcement of the rights conferred
by Part III is guaranteed.
2. The Supreme Court shall have power to issue directions
or orders or writs, including writs in the nature of
habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto
and certiorari, whichever may be appropriate, for the
enforcement of any of the rights conferred by this Part.
3. Without prejudice to the powers conferred on the
Supreme Court by clauses (I) and (2), Parliament
may by law empower any other court to exercise
within the local limits of its jurisdiction all or any of
the powers exercisable by the Supreme Court under
clause (2).
The right guaranteed by this article shall not be suspended
except as otherwise provided for by this Constitution.
Similarity, Under Art 226, Constitution of India - High
Court have the power to issue writes.
The write jurisdiction of High Court is wider than that
of Supreme Court , as High Courts can issue writes with
respect to Fundamental as well as legal Rights , whereas
the supreme court can issue writes with respect to only
fundamental rights.
76. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer
A writ of Quo Warranto is a legal action that challenges
a person's right to hold a public office. It seeks to inquire
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into the authority by which the person claims to hold the
office and whether they have the legal right to do so. The
reason option (c) is not a necessary condition for issuing
a writ of quo warranto is that the eligibility or legality
of holding a substantive office is equally important to
ensure that the person holding the office has the necessary
qualifications and meets the requirements laid out by law
or the constitution.
Important Tip
1. 'Quo Warranto' means 'by what warrant'. Through
this writ, the Court calls upon a person holding a public
office to show under what authority he holds that
office. If it is found that the person is not entitled to
hold that office, he may be ousted from it. Its objective
is to prevent a person from holding an office he is
not entitled to, therefore preventing usurpation of
any public office. It cannot be issued with respect to a
private office.
2. The writ can be issued only when the following
conditions are fulfilled:
The public office is wrongfully assumed by the
private person.
The office was created by the constitution or law and
the person holding the office is not qualified to hold
the office under the constitution or law.
The term of the public office must be of a permanent
nature.
The nature of duties arising from the office must be
public.
77. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The concept of basic structure was laid down by the
Supreme Court in the Keshvananda Bharti Case (1973).
The basic structure doctrine states that the Constitution
of India has certain basic features that cannot be altered
or destroyed through amendments by the Parliament
Article 368 does not give absolute powers to the
Parliament to amend any part of the Constitution.
It can't be exercised by the people through representatives
in a constituent assembly (Statement 2 is incorrect)
It falls outside the constituent powers of the parliament.
(Statement 3 is incorrect)
78. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct.
In Bachan Singh Vs State of Punjab (1980), Supreme
Court laid down that Capital Punishment in India would
be given only in the rarest of rare cases.
It stated that the principle that the death penalty ought not
to be awarded unless the alternative of life imprisonment
is "unquestionably foreclosed".
II
Important Tip
Gopalanachari Vs State of Kera la (1980) : Person shall
be given legal aid at the expense of the state.
Dr. Upendra Baxi Vs State of Uttar Pradesh (1983) :
seeking enforcement of the constitutional rights.
Tukaram Vs State of Maharashtra (1979) : There is a
word of difference between sexual intercourse & rape.
79. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer
Daniel Latifi Vs Union of India: In this case a divorced
Muslim women is entitled to reasonable and fair
provision and maintenance from her former husband and
this should be paid within the period of iddat.
Muhammad Ahmed Khan Vs Shah Bano Begum : In
this case Supreme Court stated that divorced women had
the right to maintenance even after the period of Iddat
was over.
Mary Roy Vs State of Kerala : landmark case brought
equal rights for Syrian Christian women in India as
their male siblings on matters of inheritance.
Shankari Prasad Vs. Union of India : In this case
Constitutional validity of the first amendment act( 1951)
was challenged.
80. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
• The basic structure doctrine was given in the landmark
decision of Kesavananda Bharati v State of Kerala ( 1973 ).
The basic structure doctrine states that the Constitution
of India has certain basic features that cannot be altered
or destroyed through amendments by The Parliament.
The Supreme Court can undertake judicial review for
such amendments.
The Supreme Court declared that Article 368 did
not enable Parliament to alter the basic structure or
framework of the Constitution and Parliament could not
use its amending powers under Article 368 alter the basic
structure of the Constitution. Thus, statement 3 is correct.
ln the Golaknath case, the supreme court rnled that
Parliament couldn't curtail any of the Fundamental
rights. (this case is not related to basic structure of the
constitution). Thus, statement 4 is incorrect
81. Solution: (d)
Exp) Option dis the correct answer.
The Supreme Court is the guarantor and defender of
fundamental rights of the citizen .
In this regard, Supreme Court has original jurisdiction in
the sense that an aggrieved citizen can directly go to the
Supreme Court, not necessarily by way of appeal.
However, the writ jurisdiction of Supreme Court is not
exclusive because High Court also empowered of issue
writ jurisdiction (Hence option d is incorrect)
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82. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Golak Nath case held that constitutional amendment
passed according to article 368 is a law within the
meaning of article 13.
24th amendment act 1971 override this judgement and
declare that amendment under article 368 is not law
within the meaning of article 13.
Important Tip
Keshavanand Bharati Case is related to the basic
structure doctrine.
Minerva Mills Case is related to the interpretation of
the basic structure doctrine.
Maneka Gandhi Case is related to the Right of Personal
Liberty granted by Article 21 of the Constitution.
83. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Assertion is true- In the district, the district judge holds
the highest judicial authority, having both original and
appellate jurisdiction over both civil and criminal matters.
Part VI (Articles 233 to 237) of the Indian Constitution
deals with the District Courts.
Reason (R) is true- The district judge exercises both
judicial and administrative powers, and they also possess
supervisory authority over all subordinate courts within the
district. The High Court hears appeals against the directives
and judgments of the district judge.
84. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer
Judicial Review is governed by the principle of "Procedure
established by law" Judicial review is the power of the
judiciary to examine the constitutionality of executive orders
and legislative enactments of both the State and Central
governments. If, after this exarnination, they arc found to
be violative of the Constitution, they can be declared as
unconstitutional, illegal, and involid (null and void) by the
judiciary.
85. Solution: (d)
Exp) Option dis the correct answer
A Judge of the Supreme Court can be removed by
the President of India after an hripeachment by the
Parliament. As per Article 124(4), A Judge of the Supreme
Court can be removed from office by the President of India
only after an address by each H.ouse of Parliament supported
by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a
majority of not less than two••thirds of members present and
voting, and presented to the President in the same session
for such removal on the ground of proved misbehaviour or
incapacity.
II INDIAN POLITY AND GOVERNANCE
Important Tips
Article 124(4) and the Judges Inquiry Act 1968 determine
the procedure of removal of the judges:
A motion of impeachment addressed to the President is
to be signed by at least 100 members of the Lok Sabha
or 50 members of the Rajya Sabha and then delivered
to the Speaker of Lok Sabha or the Chairman of Rajya
Sabha.
The motion is to be investigated by a Committee of
3 judges of the Supreme Court and a distinguished
jurist.
If the Committee finds the judge guilty of misbehavior
or that he suffers from incapacity, the motion along
with the report of the committee is taken up for
consideration in the House where motion was moved.
The judge is then removed by the requisite majority,
i.e. majority of total and 2/3 of its members present
and voting.
86. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer
Option (i) is True: As per Article 127(1), if there's no
quorum of Judges available for a Supreme Court session,
the Chief Justice of India, with the President's prior consent
and consultation with the relevant High Court's Chief Justice,
may request a qualified High Court Judge to serve as an ad
hoc Judge for the required period.
Option (ii) is False: As per Article 224(1), if there's a
temporary increase in a High Court's business or anears
of work, the President may appoint qualified persons as
additional Judges for up to two years. However, additional
judges are not appointed in the Supreme Court; they are
appointed in High Courts.
87. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer
According to Article 139A of the Constitution of India the
Supreme Court has the right to transfer any case anywhere in
the territory of India. The Supreme Court can also withdraw
the case or cases pending before the High Court and dispose
of all the cases to itself.
88. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer
According to Article 124(3) of the Constitution of India,
a person can be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court
if he/she has been an advocate of a High Court or of two or
more such Courts in succession for at least 10 years.
Important Tips
According to Article 124(3) of the Constitution, a person
can be appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court if he or
she:
• A person must be a citizen of India.
• Must have served as a judge of a High Court for at
least five years or two such courts in succession.
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Alternatively, must have been an advocate of a High
Court for at least ten years or two or more such
courts in succession.
Must be a distinguished jurist in the opinion of the
president.
89. Solution: (d)
Exp) Option d is the cone ct answer
Vishaka & ors. v/s state of Rajasthan is a case which deals
with the evil of Sexual Harassment of a women at her
workplace. It is a landmark judgment case in the history of
sexual harassment which as being decide by Supreme Court.
Important Tips
In 1997, the Supreme Court in India formulated the
Vishakha guidelines to protect women from sexual
harassment at workplaces.
The Supreme court made it mandatory for all institutions
to follow the Vishaka guidelines across the country.
The guidelines suggested that the compliance mechanism
should ensure the timebound treatment of complaints.
The Vishakha guidelines gave rise to the foundation to
redress the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace
(Prevention, Prohibition, and Redressal) Act, 2013.
90. Solution: (d)
Exp) Option d is the cone ct answer
Bella Banerjee case (1953) dealt with the constitutionality
of the West Bengal Land Development and Planning Act,
1948. The Supreme Court held certain provisions of the Act
unconstitutional and void. The judgment highlighted the
importance of providing fair compensation to landowners
during the process of land acquisition for public purposes
and established the principle that the government's
declaration of public purpose should not be regarded as
conclusive, leaving room for judicial review. It did not
concern the right to travel abroad as part of personal liberty.
Important Tips
The Indira Sawhney case, also known as the Mandal
Commission case, 1992 where the Supreme Court
upheld the implementation of reservations for Other
Backward Classes (OBCs) in educational institutions
and public employment. However, the Court ruled
that the "creamy layer" within OB Cs should be excluded
from reservation benefits to ensure that the benefits
reach the truly disadvantaged sections.
In the Vishakha case of 1997, the Supreme Court
laid down guidelines to prevent sexual harassment
of women at workplaces. These guidelines were later
incorporated into the Sexual Harassment of Women
at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition, and Redressal)
Act, 2013.
II INDIAN POLITY AND GOVERNANCE
In the Maneka Gandhi case (1978), the Supreme Court
held that the right to life and personal liberty (Article
21) in the Indian Constitution is not limited to mere
animal existence but includes a meaningful life with
dignity. The Court emphasized that Articles 14, 19, and
21 are not mutually exclusive and are interconnected to
ensure fundamental rights' comprehensive protection.
91. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option bis the correct answer
The appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court can
be invoked by a certificate granted by the High Court
concerned under Article 132(1), 133(1) or 134 of the
Constitution in respect of any judgement, decree or final
order of a High Court in both civil and criminal cases,
involving substantial questions oflaw as to the interpretation
of the Constitution.
•••
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92. Solution: (d)
Exp) Option d is the correct answer
A Public Interest Litigation can be filed in the High Court
or Supreme Court. One can file a PIL under Article 226 of
the Constitution before the High Court and under Article 32
before the Supreme Court of India.
Important Tips
Public interest Litigation (PIL) means litigation filed in a
court of law, for the protection of "Public Interest", such as
Pollution, Terrorism, Road safety, Constructional hazards
etc.
Any matter where the interest of public at large is affected
can be redressed by filing a Public Interest Litigation in a
court of law.
Public interest litigation is not defined in any statute or in
any act. It has been interpreted by judges to consider the
intent of public at large.
II
114. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer
The Estimates Committee is a standing committee of the
Lok Sabha, the lower house of the Parliament of India. It
is responsible for scrutinizing the government's budgetary
proposals and suggesting ways to improve their efficiency
and economy. The committee has 30 members, all of whom
are elected members of the Lok Sabha.
115. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer
According to Article 59 of the Constitution of India,
The President shall not be a member of either House of
Parliament or of a House of the Legislature of any State, and
if a member of either House of Parliament or of a House of
the Legislature of any State be elected President, he shall
be deemed to have vacated his seat in that House on the
date on which he enters upon his office as President. Thus
any Indian citizen who is eligible to become a member of
Parliament can also be elected as the President, irrespective
of whether they are a Union Minister or not. There is no
explicit restriction on Union Ministers from being eligible
for the position of the President.
Important Tip:
Facts regarding Election of President of India
The Indian President is elected through an electoral
college system, by proportional representation by a
single transferable vote. The Elections are conducted
and overseen by the Election Commission of India.
The electoral college is based on all elected members
of Parliament (MPs), and the elected members of
State Legislative Assemblies and Union Territories
(MLAs).
Before voting, in the nomination stage, the candidate
files nomination with a signed list of 50 proposers and
50 seconders. These can be anyone from the members of
the electoral college from the State or national level. This
rule was implemented by EC in 1974. An elector cannot
propose or second the nomination of more than one
candidate.
A vote cast by each MP or MLA is not calculated as
one vote.
The fixed value of each vote by an MP of the Rajya
Sabha and the Lok Sabha is 700.
Meanwhile, the vote value of each MLA differs from
State to State based on a calculation that factors in
its population vis-a-vis the number of members in its
legislative Assembly.
116. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The President of India is elected indirectly by an electoral
college composed of the elected representatives (and not all
members) from the Parliament of India and the Legislative
Assemblies of the States, as well as the Union Territories of
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Delhi and Puducherry (excluding Jammu and Kashmir, as
specified in the 70th Constitutional Amendment Act).
117. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Article 78 of the Indian Constitution pertains to the duties
of the Prime Minister. It states that it shall be the duty of the
Prime Minister to communicate to the President all decisions
of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration
of the Union and proposals for legislation. Additionally,
the Prime Minister shall furnish such information to the
President as the President may call for. Article 78 outlines
the responsibilities of the Prime Minister in keeping the
President informed about the decisions and functioning of
the Council of Ministers.
118. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, of 2003
introduced provisions to address the size of the Council
of Ministers, prevent defections, and strengthen the anti-
defection law. One of the provisions states that the total
number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the
Central Council of Ministers, should not exceed 15% of the
total strength of the Lok Sabha.
119. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
As per Article 55(3) of the Constitution of India, the
election of the President shall be held in accordance with
the system of proportional representation by means of
single transferable vote and the voting at such election shall
be by secret ballot. This means that the voting process for
the election of the President involves the use of the single
transferable vote system, which allows voters to rank the
candidates in order of preference.
120. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer
The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) is
the apex statutory body for disaster management in India
and is headed by the Prime Minister. As the head of the
NDMA, the Prime Minister oversees the overall functioning
of the organization and provides strategic direction for
disaster management initiatives.
Important Tip
Mandate: Its primary purpose is to coordinate response to
natural or man-made disasters and for capacity-building
in disaster resiliency and crisis response. It is also the
apex body to lay down policies, plans and guidelines
for Disaster Management to ensure timely and effective
response to disasters.
Vision: To build a safer and disaster resilient India by
a holistic, proactive, technology driven and sustainable
development strategy that involves all stakeholders
and fosters a culture of prevention, preparedness and
mitigation.
II INDIAN POUTYANDGOVI~RNANCE
Divisions: NDMA-h~S-;~;ajor divisions viz. Policy &
Plans, Mitigation, Operations & Communications
& Information & Technology, Administration and
[
Finance.
····- ·-·-----~--- - ---
121. Solution: (d)
Exp) Option dis the correct answer.
Article 75 of the Constitution states that the Prime Minister
has the authority to appoint ministers, including those who
are not members of Parliament. However, non-member
ministers are required to become members of either the
Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha within 6 months in order to
continue serving as ministers.
122. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer
The Vice-President of India is eligible for re-election.
There is no restriction on the number of terms a Vice-
President can serve. The Vice-President can be re-elected
for multiple terms if the person is chosen by the Electoral
College again and meets the eligibility criteria.
123. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer
The President's resignation is governed by Article 56 of the
Indian Constitution. According to this article, the President
can resign by writing a letter to the Vice President.
124. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer
Article 176 states that at the commencement of the first
session after each general election to the Legislative Assembly
and at the commencement of the first session of each year,
the Governor shall address the Legislative Assembly or, in
the case of a State having a Legislative Council, both Houses
assembled together. This is also called as special address.
125. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer
A governor possesses executive, legislative, financial, and
judicial powers
However, he has no diplomatic, military or emergency
powers like the president
Important Tip
The Governor is the constitutional head of the State
Government.
He plays a two-fold function as the constitutional head
of the State Government and as a link between the
Centre and the state government.
The Governor of a State is appointed by the President
by warrant under his hand and seal.
Articles 153 says that three should be a Governor for
each state.
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But under the 7th Amendment Act, 1956, the same
person can be appointed as Governor of one or more
States.
Following are the powers and duties performed by
Governor in states, they are as follows:
(i) They have power to appoint Advocate General,
(ii) They can summoning, proroguing and dissolving State
Legislature,
(iii) They have power to grant pardons reprieves, respites
or remission of punishments.
126. Solution: (d)
Exp) : Option dis the correct answer
Article 213 empowers the Governor to promulgate
Ordinance, during recess of legislature.
Important Tip
Governor of an Indian state draws ordinance making
power from Article 213 of the Constitution.
The Governor can only issue ordinances when the
Legislative Assembly of a state or where there are two
houses in a state both houses are not in session.
Governor's ordinance-making power is not a
discretionary power.
This means that he can promulgate or withdraw an
ordinance only on the advice of the council of ministers
headed by the chief minister.
··----------------'
127. Solution: (d)
Exp) Option d is the correct answer
Ordinance making power of the governor is not a
discretionary power, rather it comes under legislative
power of a governor (option l is incorrect)
The governor is himself competent to withdraw the
ordinance at any time. (option 2 is incorrect)
128. Solution: (h)
Exp) Option b is the con-ect answer.
The duties of the Governor as a Constitutional Head of
the State do not become the subject matter of questions
or debate in the Parliament, is not correct , As any
matter of utmost importance can be discussed in the
parliament. (statement l is incorrect)
Parliament acts as a investigative body against all the
decisions taken by the executive Legislature Ministry and
even the duties of governor.
Important Tip
Article 153 to Article 162 of the Indian Constitution
consists of the relevant provisions related to the office
of the Governor.
The Governor is the constitutional head of the State
Government
appointed by the President by warrant under his hand
and seal.
II INDIAN POLIT): AND~OVERNANCE
Articles 153 says that three should be a Governor for
each state.
under the 7th Amendment Act, 1956, the same person
can be appointed as Governor of one or more States.
Article 157: In order to be appointed as Governor, a
person:
Must be a citizen of India;
Must have competed the age of 35 years
In addition, three are two conventions that have come
to develop with regard to appointment of the Governor.
Must not belong to the state where he is appointed
and Consult the Chief Minister of the state where
to be appointed
129. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The following Prime Ministers were defeated by a vote of
no confidence motion:
a) Morarji Desai: 1978
b) Vishwanath Pratap Singh : 1990
c) HD Deve Gowda :1997
d) Atal Bihari Vajpayee :1999
No confidence motion: (Rule 198 Lok Sabha)
• Introduced only in Lok Sabha
Supported by at least 50 members
• Debate
Not able to prove Majority Government has to resign
(Simple Majority)
130. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct- The Rajya Sabha, also known as
the Council of States, is the upper house of the Parliament
of India. Elected members of the Rajya Sabha are part
of the Electoral College and have the right to vote in the
presidential election.
Statement 2 is correct- All elected members of the
Legislative Assemblies of States are included in the
Electoral College. The Legislative Assembly of each state
in India consists of elected representatives who have the
authority to vote in the presidential election.
Statement 3 is incorrect- The Legislative Council, also
known as the Vidhan Parishad, is the upper house of
the state legislature in some states of India. However, the
members of the Legislative Councils are not part of the
Electoral College for electing the President of India.
Important Tip
Election of President of India:
The election is held in accordance with the system
of proportional representation by means of a single
transferable vote. Voting is done through Secret
ballot.
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The Electoral College for electing the President of
India consists of the following:
All elected members of the Rajya Sabha
All elected members of the Lok Sabha
All elected members of the Legislative Assemblies
of States
All elected members of the Legislative Assemblies
of Union Territories (except Jammu and Kashmir)
131. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
If any question arises regarding the disqualification of a
member of Parliament, it shall be referred to the President
for decision. However, the President's decision is not
discretionary in this matter. The President is required to
obtain the opinion of the Election Commission and act
according to that opinion. Therefore, this power does not
come under the President's discretion.
132. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct- The governor may exercise
discretionary powers, ifhe/ she is not convinced by the advice
of the Council of Ministers. For example, the Governor may
refuse to give assent to a bill passed by the state legislature if
he/she believes that the bill is unconstitutional or otherwise
harmful to the interests of the state.
Statement 2 is correct- The Constitution of India specifies
certain matters in which the Governor has discretionary
powers which includes appointing the Chief Minister of the
state, approving the appointment of ministers, dissolving
the state legislature, and giving assent to bills passed by
the state legislature
Statement 3 is correct- In cases where the Governor is
appointed as the administrator of an adjoining Union
Territory, they have the power to exercise discretionary
powers in the administration of that territory.
133. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The Attorney-General of India is the highest law officer of
the government and provides legal advice to the government.
The Attorney-General of India enjoys the right of audience
in not only the Supreme Court but also in any court
within the territory of India, including High Courts and
subordinate courts.
Important Tip
Some other facts about Attorney-General of India:
The position of Attorney General is created by Article
76 of the Indian Constitution.
The Attorney General is appointed by the President
of India and holds office during the pleasure of the
President.
II
To be eligible for the position, the person must be
qualified to be appointed as a judge of the Supreme
Court.
The remuneration of the Attorney General is
determined by the President.
The Attorney General can participate in the
proceedings of Parliament but does not have the right
to vote.
The Attorney General can be removed from office by
the President at any time.
134. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
According to Article 258(1) of the Indian Constitution,
the President of India has the power to entrust, with the
consent of the Government of a State, certain functions to
that Government or its officers in relation to any matter to
which the executive power of the Union extends.
135. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct- According to Article 123, the
President has the power to promulgate an ordinance when
either one or both houses of Parliament are not in session.
These ordinances are temporary in nature and can be issued
to address urgent matters.
Statement 2 is correct- The approval of Parliament is
necessary for an ordinance to become a law. The ordinance
must be laid before both houses of Parliament and must
be approved within six weeks from the reassembly of
Parliament. If not approved, the ordinance ceases to have
effect.
Important Tip
Ordinances can only be introduced on subjects within
the legislative competence of the Indian Parliament.
The President's ordinances have the same effect on
policies as acts passed by Parliament.
Article 213 deals with the power of the Governor to
legislate through ordinances.
The Governor's ordinances have the same effect on
policies as state acts will have.
If the Governor's ordinance legislates on matters where
the state government has no power, the ordinance
becomes null and void.
The power to promulgate ordinances by the President
and the Governor is not discretionary; it requires the
advice of the Council of Ministers, headed by the
Chief Minister in the case of the state government
and Prime Minister in the case of Union government.
136. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Rajendra Prasad was the first President of the Constituent
Assembly of India. He was elected as the President on 11
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II
December 1946 and served in that capacity until the
Constituent Assembly was dissolved on 24 January 1950.
Prasad was a prominent leader of the Indian independence
movement and a close associate of Mahatma Gandhi. He was
also the first President of India from 1950 to l 962
137. Solution: (d)
Exp) Option dis the correct answer
The Attorney-General of India, as the highest law officer
of the government under Article 76, is not exclusively
engaged as a whole-time counsel for the government. The
Attorney-General is free to engage in private legal practice
or pursue other professional responsibilities outside the
realm of official duties.
Important Tips
To avoid conflict of duty, there are a few limitations that
are posted on the Attorney General which he should
keep in mind while performing his duties:
He should not advise or hold a brief against the
Government of India
He should not advise or hold a brief in cases in
which he is called upon to advise or appear for the
Government of India
He should not defend accused persons in criminal
prosecutiom without the permission of the
Government of India
He should not accept appointment as a director in
any company or corporation without the permission
of the Government of India
138. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer
The Thakkar Commission was appointed in 1984 to
investigate the assassination of Indira Gandhi, to find
lapses by the security and medical staff, and to determine
possible involvement of foreign agencies. I
139. Solution: (d)
Exp) Option dis the correct answer
The power of pardon is a discretionary power vested in
the President, and it is independent of the judiciary. The
President has the authority to exercise this power and grant
pardon even in cases where there is a judicial mandate or
decision. The power of pardon is meant to provide relief,
mercy, or mitigation in certain cases, and it is not restricted
by the judicial mandate.
Important Tips
Under Article 72 of the Constitution, the President
shall have the power to grant pardons, reprieves,
respites or remissions of punishment or to suspend,
remit or commute the sentence of any person
convicted of any offence where the sentence is a
sentence of death.
II INDIAN POLITY AND GOVERNANCE
Limitation:
• The President cannot exercise his power of pardon
independent of the government.
In several cases, the Supreme Court has ruled that the
President has to act on the advice of the Council of
Ministers while deciding mercy pleas.
Although the President is bound by the Cabinet's
advice, Article74 (1) empowers him to return it for
reconsideration once. If the Council of Ministers
decides against any change, the President has no
option but to accept it.
140. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Under Article 355 of the Constitution of India, it is the
duty of the Union to protect every State against external
aggression and internal disturbance. This means that the
Union government is responsible for ensuring the security
and integrity of the States by defending them against any
external threats or acts of aggression.
141. Solution: (d)
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
The 2nd Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) in
India has produced Reports on various subjects aimed at
improving governance and administrative processes. The
Reports produced by the ARC are:
Ethics in Governance: The ARC has addressed the issue
of ethics in governance, emphasizing the need for ethical
conduct and integrity in public administration.
Local Governance: The ARC has focused on the issue of
local governance, recommending reforms to strengthen
decentralization and empower local bodies for effective
service delivery and citizen participation.
Combating Terrorism: The ARC has examined the
challenges posed by terrorism and made recommendations
to enhance the capacity of security agencies, improve
intelligence sharing, and strengthen counter-terrorism
measures.
The 2nd ARC did not produce a report on eradication of
corruption specifically, though it touched upon the issue
in some of its reports such as ethics in governance and
refurbishing personnel administration.
142. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
According to Article 53 of the Indian Constitution, the
President of India is the Supreme Commander of the
Indian Armed Forces. The President holds the highest rank
and authority over the military forces of India, including the
Indian Army, Indian Navy, and Indian Air Force.
The President exercises the powers and functions as the
Supreme Commander in consultation with the Council of
Ministers, headed by the Prime Minister.
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143. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: The Preamble of the Constitution
of India is a brief introductory statement that sets out the
guiding principles and purpose of the Constitution. It is
based on the Objective Resolution, which was moved by
Jawaharlal Nehru in the Constituent Assembly on 13
December 1946 and adopted on 22 January 1947.
Statement 2 is correct: The idea of the preamble was
borrowed from the Constitution of the USA.
Statement 3 is correct: The Preamble declares India to be a
sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic republic and secures
to all its citizens justice, liberty, equality and fraternity.
The words socialist and secular were added by the 42nd
Amendment in 1976.
Statement 4 is incorrect: While the Preamble of the
Constitution of India sets out the ideals and objectives
of the Constitution, it does not explicitly mention the
Fundamental Rights. The Fundamental Rights are enshrined
in Part III of the Constitution.
144. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: The President of India is elected
indirectly, which means that the citizens of India do not
directly vote for the President. Instead, the President is
elected by an electoral college.
Statement 2 is correct: The electoral college for the
Presidential elect.ion comprises all elected Members of
Parliament (MPs) from both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya
Sabha, as well as Members of Legislative Assemblies
(MLAs) from all the states and Union territories. These
members collectively vote to elect the President of India.
Statement 3 is incorrect: President of India is elected
indirectly, not through a direct vote by the citizens.
Statement 4 is correct: Members of the Legislative Council,
which is the upper house of the state legislature in certain
states, do not participate in the Presidential election. Only
Members of Parliament (MPs) and Members of Legislative
Assemblies (MLAs) have the right to vote in the Presidential
election.
145. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement I is correct: According to Article 153 of the
Constitution of India, there can be a common Governor
for two or more states. This provision allows for the
appointment of a Governor who can act as the Governor of
multiple states.
Statement 2 is correct: The Governor has the power to
grant pardons, reprieves, and remission of punishment
to persons convicted under the State Law. This power is
mentioned in Article 161 of the Constitution of India.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Governor is not appointed
by the President on the recommendation of the Chief
II INPIANPOUTY AND GOVERNANCE
Minister. The Governor is appointed by the President of
India, and the appointment is made by the President based
on the advice of the Union Council of Ministers. The Chief
Minister of the respective state does not have a role in the
appointment of the Governor.
146. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement l is correct: Constitutional government is a form
of limited government. The constitution sets the boundaries
and limits of the powers of the government and prevents it
from becoming arbitrary or tyrannical. The constitution also
ensures that the government is accountable to the people and
respects their rights and freedoms.
Statement 2 is correct: A constitutional government is one
where the constitution is the basis of public authority.
The constitution establishes the structure, functions, and
II
procedures of the government and defines its relationship
with the people. The constitution also lays down the
principles and values that guide the actions and decisions of
the government and its officials.
Statement 3 is incorrect: A constitutional government does
not necessarily have a monarch as the formal head of the
state. A constitutional government can have different forms
of executive leadership, such as a president, a prime minister,
or a chancellor.
Statement 4 is incorrect: A constitutional government does
not always have a universal adult franchise. A constitutional
government can have different forms of electoral systems,
such as proportional representation, first-past-the-post, or
mixed-member proportional. A universal adult franchise is
one of the possible ways of ensuring political participation
and representation in a constitutional democracy, but it is
not a necessary condition for a constitutional government .

••• ,.

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 - '
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UNION AND STATE LEGISLATURE
*This unit consists of questions from Union Legislature and State Legislatures.
di (JPSCCSE Ptevi<>us Years'Qu.estiorts
1. With reference to Finance Bill and Money
Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the
following statements:
1. When the Lok Sabha transmits Finance
Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or
reject the Bill.
2. When the Lok Sabha transmits Money
Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend
or reject the Bill, it can only make
recommendations
3. In the case of disagreement between the
Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is
no joint sitting for money bill, but joint
sitting becomes necessary for Finance
bill.
How many of the above, statements are
correct? [UPSC CSE Pre Pre 2023]
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
( c) All three
(d) None
2. Which of the following is/are the exclusive
power(s) of Lok Sabha?
[UPSC CSE Pre. 2022]
1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency
2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against
the Council of Ministers
3. To impeach the President of India
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
3. With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok
Sabha, consider the following statements:
[UPSC CSE Pre. 2022]
1. As per the Rules of Procedure and
Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the
election of Deputy Speaker shall be held
on such date as the Speaker may fix.
2. There is a mandatory provision that the
election of a candidate, as Deputy Speaker
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KING R QUEEN P [ऋषभ राजपूत ]
-
of Lok Sabha shall be from either the
principal opposition party or the ruling
party.
3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power
as of the Speaker when presiding over the
sitting of the House and no appeal lies
against his rulings.
4. The well-established parliamentary
practice regarding the appointment of
Deputy Speaker is that the motion is
moved hy the Speaker and duly seconded
by the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
4. With reference to anti-defection law in
India, consider the following statements:
1. The law specifies that a nominated
legislator cannot join any political party
within six months of being appointed to
the House.
2. The law does not provide any time-frame
within which the presiding officer has to
decide a defection case.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? [UPSC CSE Pre Pre 2022]
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
5. Consider the following statements:
1. A bill amending the Constitution requires
a prior recommendation of the President
of India.
2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is
presented to the President of India, it is
obligatory for the President of India to
give his/her assent.
3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must
be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the
Rajya Sabha by a special majority and
there is no provision for joint sitting.
II
196. Solution (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Insurance is a subject that comes under the Union List
(Entry 43 and 47) of the Indian Constitution. The central
government has the authority to make laws related to
insurance.
Important Tips
State List:
It contains subjects on which the state governments
have the exclusive power to make laws and regulations.
It includes matters such as public health, police, public
order, local government, agriculture, state taxes, land
and land reforms, education, and public libraries.
The State List consists of a total of 59 subjects listed
under Schedule VII of the Indian Constitution.
Union List:
The Union List contains subjects on which the central
government has exclusive authority to make laws and
regulations.
It includes matters such as defense, foreign affairs,
atomic energy, banking, currency, railways, airways,
communication, and inter-state trade and commerce.
The Union List consists of a total of 98 subjects listed
under Schedule VII of the Indian Constitution.
Concurrent List:
The Concurrent List contains subjects on which both
the central and state governments have the power to
make laws and regulations.
It includes matters such as criminal law, marriage
and divorce, bankruptcy and insolvency, adoption,
educntion, forests, trade unions, bankruptcy and
insolvency, and bankruptcy and insolvency.
The Concurrent List consists of a total of 52 subjects
listed under Schedule VII of the Indian Constitution.
197. Solution (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
According to Article 102 of the Indian Constitution, certain
conditions can lead to the disqualification of a Member of
Parliament. Option (b) Holding the office of the Chairperson
of the National Commission for Women does not come
under the office of profit.
Important Tips
Factors leading to disqualification from being elected as a
Member of Parliament (MP) in India:
Holding any office of profit under the Union or state
government, except for exempted offices.
Being declared of unsound mind by a court or being an
undischarged insolvent.
Acquiring citizenship of a foreign state voluntarily or
having allegiance to a foreign state.
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KING R QUEEN P [ऋषभ राजपूत ]
II
Additional disqualifications specified in the
Representation of People Act (1951) include
convictions for election offenses, corrupt practices,
imprisonment of two or more years, failure to
submit election expense accounts, and having an
interest in government contracts or corporations with
government shareholding.
Disqualifications also apply to individuals dismissed
from government service for corruption, convictions
for promoting enmity between groups or bribery,
and punishments related to social crimes such as
untouchability, dowry, and sati. The President's
decision, based on the Election Commission's opinion,
is final in determining disqualifications.
198. Solution (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement l is correct - An overseas elector must be a citizen
of India to be eligible for voting in the Lok Sabha elections.
Statement 2 is correct - The name of the overseas elector
must be included in the electoral roll of the constituency
they would be voting from to be eligible to vote.
Statement 3 is correct - Overseas Indian voters are required
to be physically present in India for voting, as e-voting is not
allowed. They have the options of postal ballots and proxy
voting, with certain restrictions and eligibility criteria.
199. Solution (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer
The Secretary General of the Lok Sabha does not work under
the Speaker with delegated authority. Instead, the Secretary
General works independently and performs various
administrative functions related to the functioning of
the Lok Sabha. The Secretary General is the principal
administrative officer of the Lok Sabha Secretariat and is
responsible for the overall management and coordination of
its activities.
Important Tips
In the discharge of his constitutional and statutory
responsibilities, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is assisted
by the secretary general of Lok Sabha, (whose pay
scale, position and status etc. is equivalent to that
of the highest-ranking official in the Government of
India i.e. Cabinet Secretary).
The secretary general remains in office must retire
at the age of 60. The secretary general is answerable
only to the Speaker; actions cannot be discussed or
cdtidsed in or outside the Lok Sabha.
On behalf of the President, the secretary-general
summons each Member of Lok Sabha to attend
session of the Parliament and authenticates bills in
the absence of the Speaker.
200. Solution (b)
Exp) Option bis the correct answer
II
Statement I is correct: The privileges of Members of
Parliament (MPs) are separate from the fundamental
rights guaranteed under Article 19(l)(a). The privileges of
MPs are defined by the Constitution and laws passed by
the Parliament, and they are not subject to the limitations
imposed by Article 19(l)(a).
Statement 2 is correct: While the privileges of MPs are
protected, they are subject to certain limitations. Articles
20-22 of the Indian Constitution provide specific rights and
protections regarding protection against self-incrimination,
protection against double jeopardy, and protection of
personal liberty. Article 32 allows individuals to approach
the Supreme Court for the enforcement of their fundamental
rights. Therefore, the privileges of MPs must be read subject
to these constitutional provisions.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The privileges of MPs grant them
immunity from civil proceedings only and not from criminal
prosecution. MPs are not immune from criminal charges
and can be prosecuted for offenses committed like any other
citizen.
Statement 4 is incorrect: While MPs enjoy certain
protections for their speech and conduct within Parliament,
these privileges do not extend to their private or personal
capacity outside of parliamentary proceedings. Outside of
Parliament, MPs are subject to the same laws and regulations
as any other citizen, and their freedom of speech is governed
by the general laws of the land.
Important Tips
Individual Privileges of the Members of the Parliament
No arrest of the member of the parliament can take
place during its session. Also, members can't be
arrested 40 days before and after the session's beginning
and end of the session.
The members of parliament are entitled to the
freedom of speech in the houses. They are not liable
to any court proceedings for the speech given in the
parliament or its committees. However, it is regulated
using the rules guiding such provisions of the house.
They are exempted from jury service. They can refuse
to give evidence and appear as a witness in a case
pending in a court when Parliament is in session.
201. Solution (d)
Exp) Option d is the correct answer
The process of appointing Members of Parliamentary
Committees involves a combination of appointment,
election, and nomination. In the case of some committees,
the Members are appointed or elected through a motion
made and adopted by the Speaker or Chairman. In other
cases, Members may be nominated directly by the Speaker
or Chairman without the need for a motion. Nominations
are made based on various considerations such as party
representation, expertise, and experience.
202. Solution (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
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KING R QUEEN P [ऋषभ राजपूत ]
In a state, the state legislative council is considered as the
upper house of the state which have a bicameral legislature
and the state Legislative assembly is called as lower
house house of the state. One third of the Members of
legislative council are elected by electorate consisting
oflocal bodies and authorities (option c is incorrect)
At present there are 6 out of 28 states have a legislative
Council.
The members of the Legislative council can't be more
than one-third of the membership of the state legislative
assembly and its composition can't be less than 40
members.
Important Tips
India has a bicameral system of legislatures both at the
centre and in some states.
At the state level, the equivalent of the Lok Sabha is
the Vidhan Sabha or Legislative Assembly and that of
the Rajya Sabha is the Vidhan Parishad or Legislative
Council.
Article 169 provides for creation and abolition of
legislative councils in states.
203. Solution (d)
Exp) Op ton d is the correct answer
Rajya Sabha being a federal chamber - representing States/
Union territories, enjoys certain special powers:
a) To empower Parliament to make laws in respect of any
matter enumerated in the State List in the national
interest by adopting a resolution to this effect (article
249), (option dis correct)
b) Creation of All India Services (article 312)
c) Approving Proclamations (issued under article 352 or
article 356 or article 360) if the Lok Sabha stand dissolved
or the dissolution of the Lok Sabha takes place within the
period allowed for the approval of the Proclamation by
Parliament.
d) To Initiate the proceeding for removal of Vice President
is also the exclusive jurisdiction of Rajya Sabha i.e. The
resolution for removal of Vice President can only be
initiated in Rajya Sabha and not in Lok Sabha.
Important Tips
The Council of States (Rajya Sabha) was First Constituted
on 3rd April, 1952.
The Council of States as Rajya Sabha in Hindi on 23rd
August, 1954.
Rajya Sabha is a permanent and a continuous chamber
where representatives are elected for the house.
The First Chairman ofRajya Sabha was Dr. S. Radhakrishnan.
Dr. S. Radhakrishnan was the first Chairman of
Rajya Sabha for two consecutive terms (13.5.1952 to
12.5.1962).
The First Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha was Shri
S.V. Krishnamoorthy Rao.
II II
204. Solution (a) budget year in three separate parts viz. Consolidated
Exp) Option a is the couect answer Fund of India, Contingency Fund of India and Public
Account of India.
To discuss state matters in general condition does not lie
under procedure and conduct of business of Parliament 208. Solution (d)
under Article 246 of the Constitution. (option a is not
Exp): Option dis the correct answer.
correct)
Parliament has right to make laws on Union list and Third It contains the forms of oath and affirmation
Concurrent list of Schedule seven. Schedule for:
Parliament can discuss the issue of Police action against Union Ministers of India
the Schedule Castes and Tribes under the Scheduled Parliament Election Candidates
Castes and Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989
Members of Parliament (MPs)
Issue of Industrial labours come under Concurrent list,
so it can be discussed in Parliament. Supreme Court Judges
Parliament can also discuss issues in dealing with violent Comptroller and Auditor General
disturbances in an undertaking under the control of the State Ministers
Union Government State Legislature Elections' Candidates
Important Tips State Legislature Members
Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the High Court Judges
Council of States have been formulated under Article 118
Fourth It contains the provisions in relation to
of the Constitution wherein each House of Parliament is
Schedule the allocation of seats for States and Union
required to make rules for regulating its Procedure and
Territories in the Rajya sabha (option d is •
conduct of business.
correct)
205. Solution (d) Fifth It contains provisions in relation to the
Schedule administration and control of scheduled areas
.,.
Exp) Option dis the correct answer
and scheduled tribes
The legislature of states involve Governor, Legislative
Assembly and the Legislative Council. Sixth It contains provisions in relation to the
Under article 164 of the Indian constitution chief • Schedule administration of tribal areas in the states of
minister shall be appointed by the governor. Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram

Important Tips 209. Solution (b)

Part VI of the Constitution containing Articles 153 to
167 deals with the government in the States.
The state executive consists of the Governor, the Chief
Minister, the Council of Minister and the Advocate
General of the state.
206. Solution (d)
Exp) Option dis the correct answer.
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
According to article l 02 of the constitution of India:
1. A person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for
being, a member of either House of Parliament:
(a) if he holds any office of profit under the Government of
India or the Government of any State, other than an office
declared by Parliament by law not to disqualify its holder

According to article 108 a joint sitting is called by the (b) if he is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a
President and presided over by the speaker. competent court;

A bill which requires special majority in both the houses
cannot be introduced in joint sitting of the Parliament
Even for money bill Rajya sabha can only amended some
changes and it is Lok sabha only which passes the money
bill. Hence there is no point in introducing the money
bill in the joint sitting of the Parliament
207. Solution (c)
2. A person shall be disqualified for being a member of
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Annual Financial Statement is a document presented to
the Parliament every Financial Year as a part of Budget
process under Article 112.
(c) ifhe is an undischarged insolvent;
(d) if he is not a citizen of India, or has voluntarily acquired
the citizenship of a foreign State, or is under any
acknowledgement of allegiance or adherence to a foreign
State;
(e) if he is so disqualified by or under any law made by
Parliament Explanation
either House of Parliament if he is so disqualified under
the Tenth Schedule.
Important Tips

This document comprises the receipts and expenditures Disqualification of MPs & MLAs according to
of the government of current year, previous year and representation of people act 1951:

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KING R QUEEN P [ऋषभ राजपूत ]


Statement 3 is incorrect: State Election Commission is
mandated to Conducts elections only for Panchayats and
Municipalities of the State.
Statement 4 is incorrect: This function (preparation of the
electoral rolls and conducts elections) is not assigned to
the State Election Commission, but to the Chief Electoral
Officer of each state, who works under the supervision and
control of the Election Commission of India. The Chief
Electoral Officer is responsible for preparing and revising
the electoral rolls and conducting elections for Parliament
and state legislatures, as per Article 324 of the Constitution.
24. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The Gram Panchayat bears the responsibility of planning,
execution, and implementation of MNREGA (Mahatma
Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act) schemes
at the local level.
Important Tips
Features of MGNREGA:
It is a scheme that provides legal guarantee of wage
employment to the adult members of rural households.
• Every rural household has the right to register
under MGNREGA, and job cards are issued to every
household registered under MGNREGA within 15 days
from the date of receipt of the application for the job
card registration.
A minimum of 10 job seekers shall apply to sanction a
new work under MGNREGA
The work shall be provided within 5 km jurisdiction
from the village. If the work provided is beyond 5 Kms,
the job seekers shall be given 10% of the minimum
wages as the additional amount
• Social Audit of MGNREGA works is mandatory, which
lends to accountability and transparency
25. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer,
Charles Metcalfe was an acting Governor-General of India
from March 1835 to March 1836 and he wrote about the self-
sufficiency and vitality of the Indian village communities.
He said, "The village communities are little republics, having
nearly everything that they want within themselves, and
almost independent of any foreign relations."
Important Tips
Metcalfe (governor general-1835-36) repealed the
obnoxious 1823 ordinance (using a press without license
was a penal offence) and earned the epithet, "liberator of
the Indian press".
The new Press Act (1835) required a printer/publisher to
give a precise account of premises of a publication and
cease functioning, if required by a similar declaration.
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II
26. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option bis the correct answer.
The committee which recommended a three-tier Panchayati
Raj System in India was the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee.
Important Tips
The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee was appointed
in 1957 by the Government of India to examine and
suggest measures for better working of the Community
Development Programme and the National Extension
Service.
The committee submitted its report in 1958, and
recommended the establishment of a democratic
decentralised local government, which came to be known
as the Panchayati Raj.
The committee suggested a three-tier system of Panchayati
Raj, comprising the following:
Gram Panchayat at the village level, directly elected by the
people.
Panchayat Samiti at the block level, indirectly elected by
the members of the Gram Panchayats within the block.
Zila Parishad at the district level, indirectly elected by the
members of the Panchayat Samitis within the district.
27. Solution: (d)
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
The state government controls over urban local bodies in
legislative, financial, and personnel matters. This means
that:
The state government can enact laws and regulations
regarding the functioning, powers, and finances of the
urban local bodies, such as municipalities and municipal
corporations. The urban local bodies can only make rules
or by-laws within the framework of the state laws.
The state government can determine the sources and
methods of revenue generation for the urban local
bodies, such as taxes, fees, grants, loans, etc. The state
government can also regulate the expenditure and audit
of the urban local bodies, and impose financial discipline
and control on them.
The state government can decide the recruitment,
training, promotion, transfer, discipline, and service
conditions of the employees of the urban local bodies.
The state government can also prescribe the qualifications
and pay scales of the employees of the urban local bodies.
The state government does not control over urban
local bodies in respect of citizens' grievances. This
means that:
The state government cannot interfere with the
complaints or grievances of the citizens against the
urban local bodies or their functionaries. The urban
local bodies are responsible for addressing and redressing
the grievances of the citizens within their jurisdiction.
The state government can only appoint ombudsmen
or lokayuktas to investigate and redress the grievances
II
of the citizens against the urban local bodies or their
functionaries. The ombudsmen or lokayuktas are
independent and impartial authorities who act as
watchdogs over the urban local bodies.
28. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Pair A is correctly matched: The Committee on
Rationalization of Panchayat Statistics was appointed by the
Government of India in 1960 under the chairmanship of V.R.
Rao
Pair B is incorrectly matched: A.S. Trivedi was not
associated with Panchayat Raj Training. S.P. Jain was
involved in developing an action plan for training of
Panchayati Raj functionaries
Pair C is correctly matched: The Working Group on
Panchayats and Cooperatives was constituted by the
Government of India, Ministry of Community Development
and Cooperation in 1961 under the chairmanship of S.D.
Mishra
Pair D is correctly matched: The Committee to review
the existing Administrative Arrangements for Rural
Development and Poverty Alleviation Programmes under the
chairmanship of G.V.K. Rao was appointed by the Planning
Commission in 1985
29. Solution: (d)
Exp) Option dis the correct answer.
Option I is incorrect: 74th Amendment Act does not
mention municipal committees as a type of urban local
government. It only mentions three types of municipalities:
nagar panchayats, municipal councils and municipal
corporations.
Option II is correct: 74th Amendment Act provides for the
constitution of ward committees at ward level or other
level within the territorial area of a municipality as may be
provided in the state law.
Option III is correct: 74th Amendment Act provides for
the constitution of a metropolitan planning committee
for every metropolitan area, which is an area having
a population of ten lakhs or more, to prepare a draft
development plan for the area.
Option IV is correct: 74th Amendment Act provides for
the constitution of a district planning committee for every
district, to consolidate the plans prepared by the panchayats
and the municipalities in the district and to prepare a draft
development plan for the district as a whole
30. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason
(R) is correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Assertion (A)is correct: Municipal corporations are formed
in big cities having a definite area and population. This
statement is true. Municipal corporations are local self-
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KING R QUEEN P [ऋषभ राजपूत ]
government bodies established in large urban areas to
administer and manage the complex affairs of the city.
Reason (R) is correct: Urban administrations of big cities
are very complex in nature. This statement is also true.
Big cities have dense populations, multiple infrastructure
needs, various social and economic complexities, and
require specialized governance structures to address these
challenges effectively.
31. Solution: (d)
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
According to the Panchayati Raj system in India, a Gram
Panchayat is the elected body that governs a village or a
group of villages, while a Gram Sabha is the assembly of all
adult members of a village or a group of villages
Statement 1 is correct: In a Gram Panchayat there can be
more than one village. This is correct, as a Gram Panchayat
may consist of one or more villages, depending on the
population and area
Statement 2 is correct: Meeting of Gram Sabha held in
each village. This is correct, as the meeting of Gram Sabha
is held at least twice a year in each village within the area of
the Gram Panchayat
Statement 3 is incorrect: Meeting of Gram Sabha held in
the headquarter of Gram Panchayat. This is incorrect, as the
meeting of Gram Sabha is not held in the headquarter of
Gram Panchayat, but in each village under its jurisdiction.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Meeting of Gram Panchayat held
in each village. This is incorrect, as the meeting of Gram
Panchayat is not held in each village, but in the headquarter
of the Gram Panchayat or any other place fixed by it.
Statement 5 is correct: Meeting of Gram Panchayat held
in the headquarter of Gram Panchayat. This is correct, as
the meeting of Gram Panchayat is usually held in the
headquarter of the Gram Panchayat or any other place fixed
by it
32. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement l is incorrect: Polling shall be postponed. This
statement is false because polling shall not be postponed in
all cases of death of a candidate before polling. It depends
on whether there are other contesting candidates in that seat
or not.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Polling shall not be postponed.
This statement is false because polling shall be postponed in
some cases of death of a candidate before polling. It depends
on whether there are other contesting candidates in that seat
or not.
Statement 3 is correct: If only one candidate remains, then
polling will be postponed. This statement is true because if
a candidate dies before the polling date and there is no other
contesting candidate in that seat, then the election for that
seat will be countermanded and fresh election will be held
later.
II
Statement 4 is correct: If more than one candidate remains,
then polling will not be postponed. This statement is true
because if a candidate dies before the polling date and there
are other contesting candidates in that seat, then the election
for that seat will not be countermanded and polling will be
held as per schedule.
33. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect and Statement 2 is correct:
The term begins from the date of the first meeting of the
Municipal Corporation.
Statement 3 is correct: The tenure of the Municipal Council
is 5 years
Statement 4 is correct: A municipality constituted upon
the dissolution of a municipality before the expiration of its
duration shall continue only for the remainder of the period
for which the dissolved municipality would have continued
had it not been so dissolved. If the municipal council is
dissolved within the first two years of its tenure, a new
municipal council will be organized for the remaining three
years of its tenure.
Statement 5 is incorrect: A municipality reconstituted after
premature dissolution does not enjoy the full period of
five years but remains in office only for the remainder of
the period.
34. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: The wards committee is formed
with some wards of nagar Panchayat: This statement is
correct because a nagar panchayat is an urban local body that
administers a town with a population of 100,000 or less, and
it is divided into wards according to population.
Statement 2 is correct: Councillor elected from the wards
become its member: This statement is correct because the
members of the wards committee are elected by direct
election from electoral wards in the nagar panchayat for a
term of five years.
Statement 3 is correct: Two persons are nominated in the
committee residing in the ward: This statement is correct
because in addition to the elected members, there are three
nominated members in the wards committee, who are
residents of the ward.
Statement 4 is incorrect: The Chairperson of the Wards
Committee is elected by the elected members thereof from
among themselves.
35. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The alteration in the limits of Block and Zila Panchayats
is notified by the Governor of the respective state. When
there is a need to alter the boundaries or geographical
limits of Block and Zila Panchayats, it is usually done to
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accommodate changes in the demographic, administrative,
or developmental requirements of the region. These changes
could include the creation of new Blocks or Zila Panchayats,
the merger of existing ones, or alterations in their territorial
jurisdiction.
36. Solution: (d)
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
In such a case, the state government may have the primary
responsibility to resolve the dispute, as it has administrative
control over the panchayats and their areas. However, the
state government may also need the approval of the central
government, as it has legislative and executive control over
the cantonments and their boards.
Important Tips
A panchayat is a local self-government institution under
the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992. It has
powers and functions as per the state laws and the Eleventh
Schedule of the Constitution.
A cantonment board is a statutory body under the
Cantonments Act, 2006. It has powers and functions as per
the central laws and the rules and regulations made by the
central government.
37. Solution: (e)
Exp) Option e is the correct answer.
The Zila Panchayats of Scheduled Areas have the powers
to:
(a) Plan minor water bodies: They can plan and undertake
projects related to minor water bodies within their
jurisdiction.
(b) Control over institutions in all social sectors: Zila
Panchayats have the authority to oversee and manage
iii.stitutions in various social sectors, including education,
health, and other welfare activities.
(c) Control on tribal sub plans: They have the responsibility
to implement and monitor tribal sub-plans, which are
designed to ensure the socio-economic development of
tribal communities.
(d) Exercise other functions as conferred by the State
Government: In addition to the above-mentioned
powers, Zila Panchayats may be entrusted with other
functions by the State Government as per the specific
requirements and policies of the state.
38. Solution: (d)
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
According to the Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled
Areas) Act, 1996 or PESA, which is a law enacted by the
Government of India for ensuring self-governance through
traditional Gram Sabha's for people living in the Scheduled
Areas of India, the meeting of Gram Sabha in Scheduled
Areas is presided over by a Schedule Tribe member present
who is elected by Gram Sabha.
II
39. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer
Statement l is correct: In the Panchayati Raj System, all
seats in a Panchayat are filled through direct elections. The
members of the Panchayat, including the Sarpanch (village
head) or Chairperson, are elected by the people through the
process of direct voting.
Statement 2 is correct: The 'Gram Sabha' is a village-level
assembly that consists of all the adults who are registered in
the electoral rolls of the village. The members of the Gram
Sabha have the right to participate in the decision-making
process of the Panchayat and are involved in various local
governance activities.
Statement 3 is correct: The election of the Chairperson of
a Panchayat is governed by the respective state's legislation.
Each state in India has its own law that defines the process
and criteria for electing the Chairperson of a Panchayat.
Statement 4 is incorrect: While most states in India have a
three-tier system of Panchayats, there are a few exceptions.
Some states have a two-tier system, consisting of the Gram
Panchayat at the village level and the Zilla Parishad at the
district level. States like Kerala and Goa follow a two-tier
system, whereas states like Rajasthan, Maharashtra, and
Andhra Pradesh have a three-tier system.
40. Solution: (d)
Exp) Option d is the correct answer
Statement l is correct: The elections to the Panchayats
in India are conducted by the respective State Election
Commissions (SECs). The State Election Commission is
responsible for overseeing and conducting the electoral
process for Panchayat elections within the state under
Article 243K of the constitution.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The State Election Commissioner
is appointed by the Governor of the state.
Statement 3 is correct: As per the provisions of the
Constitution of India, the State Legislatures have the power
to make laws on all matters relating to Panchayat elections.
This includes the conduct of elections, the qualifications
and disqu~ lifications of candidates, the delimitation of
constituencies, and other related aspects.
41. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
While MGNREGA guarantees 100 days of wage employment,
it primarily focuses on providing unskilled manual work
rather than specifically emphasizing skilled labor.
The other objectives of MGNREGA include the creation
of productive assets, enhancing livelihood security, and
ensuring empowerment to women. These objectives aim to
enha11ce livelihood security of households in rural areas of
the country.
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II
42. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option bis the correct answer.
As per the 73rd Amendment to the Constitution of India,
individuals must be at least 21 years of age to be eligible for
Panchayat membership, contrary to the mentioned 25 years.
This amendment lowered the age requirement to encourage
youth participation in local governance.
Important Tips
Panchayati Raj was given constitutional status through
the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 (Part
IX, Schedule 11, Article 243-243 0), and it was first
established in Rajasthan on October 2, 1959, followed
by Andhra Pradesh, as recommended by the Balwant Rai
Mehta Committee.
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act aims to provide
a three-tier system of Panchayati Raj, which consists of
Village-level Panchayats, Block-level Panchayats, and
District-level Panchayats . Panchayati Raj System (PRS)
was initially implemented based on the recommendations
of the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee. Later, it was granted
constitutional status through on recommendation of the
LM Singhvi committee.
Different committees associated with Panchayati Raj (in
Chronological Order):
Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (January 1957)
Ashok Mehta Committee (December, 1957)
G.V.K. Rao Committee (1985)
L.M. Singhvi Committee (1986)
Thungon Committee (1988)
Gadgil Committee ( 1988)
The Panchayati Raj was implemented under the Prime
Ministership of P. V. Narasimha Rao.
43. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Each Panchayat operates under its own set of regulations,
with the state legislature conferring powers to facilitate
their functioning effectively. These powers encompass
formulating economic development and social justice plans,
plan implementation, and handling matters specified in the
eleventh schedule.
44. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The 11th Schedule of the Constitution of India distributes
powers between the State Legislatures and the Panchayats.
These powers include areas such as rural development,
planning, agriculture, education, health, water supply,
sanitation, poverty alleviation, and social justice. The
State Legislatures are responsible for enacting laws and
providing the necessary framework for the functioning of
the Panchayats, while the Panchayats have the authority to
implement and execute various developmental programs and
initiatives at the grassroots level.
II INDIAN POLITY A:l'iD QClVERNANCE
45. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The elected members of the District Council shall hold
office for a term of five years from the date appointed
for the first meeting of the Council after the general
elections to the Council. (option bis correct)
Sixth schedule to the constitution of India provides for
setting up of autonomous district council
The Constitution of India makes special provisions for
the administration of the tribal dominated areas in four
states viz Assam, Meghalaya Tripura and Mizoram.
As per Article 244 and sixth Schedule these areas are
called "Tribal Areas
The Sixth Schedule envisages establishment of
Autonomous District Councils (ADC)
Important Tips
District council for each autonomous district:
It has 30 members.
4 are nominated by the governor - They perform their
duties during the pleasure of the governor
26 are elected using the adult franchise - Their term
of office is five years.
There is a separate regional council for each
autonomous district
• The laws related to the following can be made by the
regional and autonomous councils with the assent
of the governor: Land, Forest, Canal Water, Shifting
Cultivation, Village Administration, Inheritance of
Property, Marriage & Divorce, Social Customs.
• The central and state acts do not apply on these
autonomous and regional councils (unless modified
and accepted).
46. Solution: (b)
Exp: Option b is the correct answer.
Part IX of the 73rd Constitutional amendment act 1992
constitutionalised the Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRis)
Article 243, 243A to 243 0 under Part IX has been
included in the Indian constitution.
The PRis are the local self-governing bodies that
ensure the opportunity for people's participation and
involvement in the formulation and implementation of
rural development programmes.
The main objective of Panchayat System in India is to
strengthen the base of democracy at the grass root level.
Part IX A of the 74th Constitutional amendment act 1992
constitutionalised the The Municipality in the Indian
constitution.
• Few states like Nagaland, Meghalaya, Mizoram and some
other tribes don't have a three tier system of government.
The act doesn't apply to these areas. (statement 1 is not
correct)
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47. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Article 243 G mentions "subjected to the provision of
this constitution the legislature of a state which says that
Panchayats are under the umbrella of the Constitution.
Within the constitutional framework, 'Panchayats' is a
State subject. Hence, the Panchayat does not work on
the principle of constitutional autonomy. (Statement 3
is not correct)
48. Solution: (d)
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
The Constitution of India does not contain any provision
for the constitution of urban panchayats in every state. The
Constitution only makes provisions for the constitution
of municipalities, which are divided into three categories-
Nagar Panchayats, Municipal Council, and Municipal
Corporations. The Constitution leaves it up to the states to
decide whether or not to constitute urban panchayats.
49. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect- According to the Article 243G
of the Indian Constitution, the state legislature has the
authority to endow Panchayats with powers and authority
necessary for self-government. The state legislature may
authorize a Panchayat to levy, collect, and appropriate taxes,
duties, tolls, and fees.
Statement 2 is correct- The Constitution empowers the
State Legislature to devolve powers to Panchayats for the
preparation of plans related to economic development and
social justice. This enables Panchayats to play a role in local-
level planning and implementation of development schemes.
Statement 3 is correct- The State Legislature can also
devolve powers to Panchayats for the implementation of
schemes related to economic development and social
justice. This enables Panchayats to actively participate in the
execution of development programs at the local level.
50. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer
Articles 371 to 371- J in Part XXI of the Constitution ofindia
contain special provisions for twelve states: Maharashtra,
Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Sikkim, Mizoram, Arunachal
Pradesh, Gujarat, Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Goa and
Karnataka. Madhya Pradesh is not mentioned in Article
371 of the Constitution of India.
51. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer
In India, the power to levy taxes by Panchayats is primarily
within the domain of the State Governments. The State
Governments have the authority to authorize Panchayats to
levy certain taxes, fees, or other local charges.
II .INDIAN P()LITYANDGOYERN.ANCE
This means that he/ she has to examine whether the
expenditure is in accordance with the rules and regulations,
as well as whether it is prudent, economical, and efficient.
Reason (R) is correct: He/she has to uphold the Constitution
and the laws of Parliament in the field of financial
administration. This means that he/she has to ensure that
the executive (i.e., the council of ministers) is accountable to
Parliament in the area of financial administration. The CAG's
role is not limited to verifying the legality of expenditures but
also extends to upholding the constitutional and legislative
provisions related to financial administration.
53. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer
The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) was established
in 1964 on the recommendations of the Santhanam
Committee, which was set up in 1962 to review the working
of the central government's anti-corruption machinery. It
had suggested a high-powered central agency to investigate
corruption cases involving government employees and
recommend disciplinary action against corrupt officials.
Important Tips
The Gorwala Committee (1951) recommendations to
enhance India's public administration:
The committee proposed changes in the recruitment
process for administrators to ensure efficiency and
competence in the civil services.
Emphasis was placed on improving training to equip
administrators with necessary skills for effective
governance.
Mechanisms were suggested to strengthen the
connection between administrators and legislative
bodies for improved coordination and governance.
Recommendations aimed at establishing a framework
for administrators to work closely with the Planning
Commission for planned economic development.
Setting up of Organisation & Method (0 & M)
divisions at various government levels was suggested
to enhance organizational efficiency.
54. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer
Administrative Reforms Commission of India (1966-70)
was headed by Morarji Desai, and it submitted a report that
recommended the establishment of Lokpal and Lokayukta
at the central and state levels. The commission argued that
these institutions would help to improve the standards of
public administration and to prevent corruption.
55. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer
According to Article 316( 1) of the Indian Constitution,
the Chairman and members of the Union or Joint Public
Service Commission are appointed by the President.
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56. Solution: (d)
Exp) Option d is the correct answer
The SHRC does not have the power to punish for the
violation of human rights. This power is vested with the
courts. The SHRC can only recommend measures to the
state government to improve the protection of human rights
in the state.
57. Solution: (d)
Exp) Option d is the correct answer
The State Public Service Commission is not consulted on
making transfers of Civil Servants because transfers are
considered to be administrative decisions falling under
the purview of the executive branch of the government.
The State Public Service Commission's role is primarily
limited to matters related to recruitment, appointments,
promotions, and disciplinary matters.
58. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The CAG can be removed from his/her office in like manner
as a judge of the Supreme Court, who can also be removed
by the President only on an address from both Houses of
Parliament on the grounds of proved misbehaviour or
incapacity under Article 124 (4) of the Constitution.
59. Solution: (d)
Exp) Option dis the correct answer
The Finance Commission consists of a chairman and four
other members to be appointed by the president. Hence, there
are total 5 members in commission. According to Article
280 (2) of the constitution, Parliament may by law determine
the qualifications which shall be requisite for appointment as
members of the Commission and the manner in which they
shall be selected. Hence, it is not necessary that at least one
member of the Commission must be a Judge of the High
Court or Supreme Court. As per Section 6 in The Finance
Commission (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act, 1951, every
member of the Commission shall hold office for such period
as may be specified in the order of the President appointing
him, but shall be eligible for reappointment: Provided that
he may, by letter addressed to the President, resign his office.
The First Chairman of the Commission was K. C. Neogy
and Fifteenth Chairman is N. K. Singh.
60. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement I is incorrect- Out of the 543 elected seats in the
Lok Sabha, 84 are reserved for Scheduled Castes and 47
are reserved for Scheduled Tribes. The allocation of seats
to them is determined based on their percentage of the total
population in the country. This ensures that the reservation
system does not exclude representation for other social
groups in the country.
Statement II is correct- The Delimitation Commission
is responsible for deciding which constituencies are to be
reserved for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes
(STs).
II
Statement III is incorrect- The Delimitation Commission
is appointed by the President of India and operates in
coordination with the Election Commission of India.
Important Tips
In India, Delimitation Commissions have been constituted
on four occasions: in 1952 under the Delimitation
Commission Act, 1952; in 1963 under the Delimitation
Commission Act, 1962; in 1973 under the Delimitation Act,
1972; and in 2002 under the Delimitation Act, 2002. The
Delimitation Commission consists of a retired Supreme
Court judge, the Chief Election Commissioner, and the
respective State Election Commissioners. The primary
functions of the Delimitation Commission are as follows:
Determining the boundaries of territorial
constituencies in the country to account for changes
in population.
Identifying seats reserved for Scheduled Castes and
Scheduled Tribes in areas where their population is
relatively high.
61. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Article 326 of the Constitution of India recognizes adult
suffrage. It states that every citizen of India who is 18 years
of age or above on the qualifying date is entitled to be
registered as a voter at any election to the Lok Sabha and
the State Legislative Assemblies.
Important Tips
Article 324-- Superintendence, direction and control of
elections to be vested in an Election Commission.
Article 325- No person to be ineligible for inclusion in,
or to claim to be included in a special, electoral roll on
grounds of religion, race, caste or sex.
Article 327- Power of Parliament to make provision with
respect to elections to legislatures.
62. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer
The doctrine of pleasure in Article 310 of the Indian
Constitution allows the government to terminate the
employment of public servants at will. It grants the
government the right to appoint and dismiss public servants.
63. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the conect answer
The Vohra (Committee) Report was submitted by the former
Indian Home Secretary, N. N. Vohra, in October 1993. It
studied the problem of the criminalization of politics and
of the nexus among criminals, politicians and bureaucrats
in India.
Important Tip
Key Recommendations of Vohra Committee:
Establishment of a Nodal Point: Create a central hub
for intelligence and enforcement agencies to promptly
share crime syndicate-related information, improving
coordination.
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Prosecution of Offenders: Ensure swift prosecution of
individuals involved in criminal activities, especially
those connected to politicians and government
officials.
Strengthen Criminal Justice System: Enhance legal
provisions to effectively combat economic offenses and
organized crime.
Focus on Criminal Gangs: Direct law enforcement
to target not only individual crimes but also criminal
gangs, armed groups, drug mafias, and smuggling
networks.
End Political Patronage: Sever ties between
j
politicians and criminal elements, breaking the cycle
of criminalization of politics,
~------------·--- ----·-·-~-··----···~---~
64. Solution: (d)
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
The CAG submits his/her reports relating to the accounts
of the Union to the President, who shall cause them to be
laid before each House of Parliament under Article 151 ( 1) of
the Constitution. Similarly, the CAG submits his/her reports
relating to the accounts of a State to the Governor, who shall
cause them to be laid before the Legislature of the State
under Article 151 (2) of the Constitution.
Important Tips
The Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG)
is the supreme audit authority of the country and
he/she audits the accounts of the Union and State
governments.
He/she is appointed by the President of India under
Article 148 of the Constitution and holds office for a
term of six years or until he/ she attains the age of 65
years, whichever is earlier.
He/she can be removed by the President only on an
address from both Houses of Parliament on the grounds
of proved misbehaviour or incapacity
65. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer
According to Article 316(1) of the Indian Constitution, the
Chairman and other members of a State Public Service
Commission are appointed by the Governor of the
respective state.
66. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option bis the correct answer.
The power to grant or refuse leave to the CAG and to
revoke or curtail leave granted to him/her, shall vest
in the President, as per Section 5 (1) of the Comptroller
and Auditor General's (Duties, Powers and Conditions of
Service) Act, 1971.
CAG is appointed by the President oflndia under Article 148
of the Constitution and holds office for a term of six years or
II INDIAN l'OLITYAND. GQV:EllNANCE
until he/she attains the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
He/she can be removed by the President only on an address
from both Houses of Parliament on the grounds of proved
misbehavior or incapacity.
67. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: It is the duty of the Comptroller and
Auditor-General (CAG) to audit all receipts that are payable
into the Consolidated Fund of India. The CAG ensures that
the revenue received by the government is properly audited
and accounted for.
Statement 2 is correct: The CAG has the authority to audit
and report on the accounts of stores or stock kept in any
office or department of the Union or a State. This authority
allows the CAG to examine the management and utilization
of stores or stock maintained by government offices or
departments.
68. Solution: (d)
Exp) Option d is the correct answer
Governor is not member of the committee to recommend
name for the appointment of Chairperson and members of
State Human Rights Commission. Instead, the Chairperson
and members of the SHRC are appointed by the Governor,
on the recommendation of a committee consisting of:
The Chief Minister (chairperson)
The Home Minister
The Leader of the Opposition in the legislative council
The Leader of the Opposition in the legislative assembly
The Speaker of the legislative assembly
The Chairman of the legislative council
69. Solution: (d)
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Article 149 of the Indian Constitution prescribes the duties
and powers of the Comptroller and Auditor General
( CAG) ofindia. This article outlines the role, functions, and
responsibilities of the CAG in auditing and reporting on the
accounts of the Union and the States. It provides the CAG
with the authority to examine and audit the accounts related
to the receipt and expenditure of public funds.
Important Tips
Article 146 deals with the officers and servants and the
expenses of the Supreme Court. It states that the Chief
Justice of India can appoint officers and servants of the
Supreme Court in consultation with the President.
Article 147 covers the interpretation of the constitution
along with that of the government of India act, 1935.
Article 148 states that there shall be a CAG who shall be
appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and
seal and shall only be removed from office in like manner
and on like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
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70. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer
The Chairman of the Council of States is not a member
of the committee. Section 2, 3 and 4 of The Protection of
Human Rights Act, 1993 lay down the rules for appointment
to the NHRC. The Chairperson and members of the
NHRC are appointed by the President of India, on the
recommendation of a committee consisting of:
The Prime Minister (Chairperson)
The Home Minister
The Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha (Lower
House)
• The Leader of the Opposition in the Rajya Sabha (Upper
House)
The Speaker of the Lok Sabha (Lower House)
The Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (Upper House)
Important Tips
The Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act,
2019
NHRC Composition: The Act allowed a former Chief
Justice or Judge of the Supreme Court to become
NHRC's chairperson. The number of members
increased from two to three, with at least one member
being a woman. Chairpersons of commissions for
Backward Classes, Child Rights, and Disabilities would
also join NHRC as members.
SHRC Chairperson: The Bill allowed a former Chief
Justice or Judge of a High Court to become the
chairperson of SHRC.
Term of Office: The term of office for NHRC and
SHRC chairpersons and members was reduced to
three years or until seventy years of age. The limit on
reappointment for members was removed.
Powers of Secretary-General: The Secretary-General
and Secretary of NHRC and SHRCs received broader
administrative and financial powers, excluding judicial
functions, under the respective chairperson's control.
Union Territories: The central government could
assign human rights functions of Union Territories to
SHRCs, while Delhi's human rights functions would
remain under NHRC's jurisdiction.
71. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option a is the correct answer
Governor of the state appoints the chairperson and other
members of the State Human Rights Commission.
Important Tips
State Human Rights Commission:
Composition: The Commission is made up of three
members: a chairperson and two members.
Chairperson: The chairperson shall be a retired Chief
Justice of a High Court or a High Court Judge
II fNDI:ANPOLITY :ANOGOVERl'.\JANCE
Members: Members should be a serving or retired High
Court judge or a District Judge. With a minimum of
seven year experience as a District Judge, as well as
someone with knowledge or practical experience in
human rights.
Tenure: The chairperson and members are elected for
a three-year term or until they reach the age of 70,
whichever comes first.
Removal: The governor appoints the chairperson
and members of a State Human Rights Commission,
however, they can only be removed by the President
72. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer
The Chairperson of the Law Commission of India is not
the ex-officio member of the National Human Rights
Commission.
Ex-officio members of NHRC:
Chairperson, National Commission for Scheduled Castes
Chairperson, National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
Chairperson, National Commission for Minorities
Chairperson, National Commission for Women
Chairperson, National Commission for Backward Classes
Chairperson National Commission for Protection of
Child Rights
Chief Commissioner for Persons with Disabilities
73. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer
A Sitting Judge of the High Court or a Sitting District Judge
can be appointed as a member of the State Human Rights
Commission after consultation with the Chief Justice of
the High Court of the concerned State.
74. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer
The State Human Rights Commission (SHRC) submits its
annual or special reports to the state government. These
reports are laid before the state legislature, along with a
memorandum of action taken on the recommendations of
the Commission and the reasons for nonacceptance of any of
such recommendations.
75. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer
Section 39 of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 says
that Every Member of the Commission, State Commission
and every officer appointed or authorized by the Commission
or the State Commission to exercise functions under this Act
shall be deemed to be a public servant.
76. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer
As per the section 13 ( 4) of the national human rights
protection act, 1993, In relation to offences described under
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Section 175, Section 178, Section 179, Section 180 or Section
228 of the Indian Penal Code, the Human Rights Commission
is to be deemed a civil court. This means that the Human
Rights Commission has the same powers as a civil court in
respect of these offences. For example, the Human Rights
Commission can issue summons, compel the attendance of
witnesses, and take evidence on oath.
Important Tips
Sections of IPC mentioned in the question:
Section 175:- Omission to produce document to public
servant by person legally bound to produce it.
Section 178:- Refusing oath or affirmation when duly
required by public servant to make it.
Section 179:- Refusing to answer public servant
authorized to question.
Section 180:- Refusing to sign statement.
Section 228:- Intentional insult or interruption to
public servant sitting in judicial proceeding.
77. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer
The Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 (PHRA) provides
that while dealing with complaints of violation of Human
Rights by the members of the armed forces, the Commission
either on its own motion or on receipt of a petition, shall
seek a report from the Central Government. The Central
Government shall, within a period of three months, or
such longer period as may be specified by the Commission,
submit a report to the Commission. The Commission shall,
after considering the report of the Central Government,
take such action as it deems fit.
78. Solution: (d)
Exp) Option d is the correct answer
The objective of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993,
was to achieve all of the following:
The primary aim of the Act was to ensure improved
protection and promotion of human rights in India.
The Act established the National Human Rights
Commission (NHRC) at the national level to inquire into
human rights violations and recommend measures for
their prevention and redressal.
Apart from the NHRC, the Act also allowed for the
creation of State Human Rights Commissions (SHRCs)
in each state to address human rights issues at the state
level.
Important Tips
key provisions of the Protection of Human Rights Act,
1993:
The establishment of the NHRC and SHRCs
The investigation of allegations of human rights
violations
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II I:NDIAN POLITYAND GOVERNANCE
The taking of appropriate action against those
responsible for human rights violations
The establishment of Human Rights Courts
The training of law enforcement officials on human
rights
The promotion of human rights education
79. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
National Voters Day is celebrated every year on 25 January
in India to mark the foundation of the Election Commission
of India. The Election Commission of India was established
on 25 January 1950.
Important Tip
The main objective of celebrating National Voters Day is to
encourage people to participate in the electoral process and
to make them aware of their rights and responsibilities
as voters. On this day, various awareness programmes
are organized by the Election Commission of India and
other organizations to promote voter education and
participation.
80. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option b is the correct answer
The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI)
is responsible for the implementation of the
Government of India's policy in all matters concerning
telecommunications in India. TRAI is an independent
regulatory body established under the Telecom Regulatory
Authority oflndia Act, 1997. It functions as the regulator for
the telecommunications sector in India and has the authority
to make regulations, issue guidelines, and ensure compliance
with the government's policies in the telecom sector.
81. Solution: (b)
Exp) Option bis the correct answer
Article 338A of the Indian Constitution deals specifically
with the establishment of the National Commission for
Scheduled Tribes (NCST). This article was inserted into
the Constitution through the 89th Amendment Act of 2003.
The NCST is a constitutional body tasked with safeguarding
the rights and interests of the Scheduled Tribes in India.
82. Solution: (c)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Tribunals established by a law of the Parliament can exclude
the jurisdiction of all courts (except the jurisdiction of
Supreme Court under Article 136) to allow to special leave
to appeal.
Important Tips
The dictionary meaning of the word 'Tribunal' is seat
of the Judge.
The 42nd amendment act of 1976 added a new part
XIV-A entitled as Tribunals.
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KING R QUEEN P [ऋषभ राजपूत ]
II
It consists of only two articles: article 323 A dealing
with administrative tribunals and article 323 B
dealing with tribunals for other matters.
Article 323 A empowers the parliament to establish
the administrative tribunals in 1985.
This article empowers the Central government to
establish one central administrative tribunal and the
state administrative tribunals.
Article 323 B empowers the parliament and state
legislature to establish tribunal for different disputes
83. Solution: (a)
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Established in: 1948
Used for: immediate relief to families of those killed in
natural calamities like floods, cyclones and earthquakes,
etc. and to the victims of the major accidents and riots
Headed by: Prime Minister
Administration: Administered on an Honorary basis by
Joint Secretary to the Prime Minister as Secretary of the
fund.
PMNRF operates from the Prime Minister's Office
(PMO) (option a is correct)
Features:
(a) Consists entirely of public contributions and does not get
any budgetary support.
(b) Recognized as a Trust under the Income Tax Act
(c) Exempt under the Income Tax Act, 1961 under Section
10 and 139 for return purposes.
84. Solution: (d)
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
The Commission shall, perform all or any of the following
functions, namely:-
Inquire at its own initiative on the violation of human
rights
Inquiry on a petition presented to it by a victim
Visit to jails to study the condition of the inmates
Undertaking and promoting research in the field of
human rights
encourage the efforts of NGOs and institutions working
in the field of human rights
review the factors, including acts of terrorism that inhibit
the enjoyment of human rights
such other functions as it may consider necessary for the
promotion of human rights
Important Tips
It is formed as per the statutory prov1s10ns of
Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.
It is a multi-member body consist of Chairman and
four members. President appoints the Chairman
and members of the NHRC on the recommendation
of the high-powered committee headed by the Prime
Minister.