Cac de Tu Luyen

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PHẦN II: CÁC ĐỀ TỰ LUYỆN

ĐỀ SỐ 1
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. thank B. month C. mother D. think
Question 2: A. reveal B. pocket C. survey D. predict
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary
stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. event B. money C. concept D. future
Question 4: A. employment B. relative C. arrival D. profession
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5: We had a _______ dinner in an expensive restaurant.
A. romance B. romanticize C. romantic D. romantically
Question 6: You are interested in reading books, _______?
A. are you B. don't you C. have you D. aren’t you
Question 7: Ladies and gentlemen, let's give a _______ hand to our special guests tonight.
A. big B. huge C. large D. vast
Question 8: The Olympic athlete was satisfied __________ her performance.
A. at B. in C. on D. with
Question 9: For a limited period only, all our carpets are being sold at half _______
A. cost B. value C. price D. score
Question 10: The government is trying to persuade consumers __________ more.
A. save B. saving C. to saving D. to save
Question 11: The boss is the last person __________ the meeting room.
A. to enter B. entering
C. entered D. who enter
Question 12: The plane _______ an hour late, which made me fall behind schedule.
A. took after B. went off C. took off D. went out
Question 13: Before I had a chance to thank him, he _______.
A. was going B. goes C. will go D. had gone
Question 14: _______, she will be very surprised.
A. When my mother sees this picture B. When my mother saw this picture
C. When my mother had seen this picture D. When my mother was seeing this picture
Question 15: I just wanted to spend time with my friends, go to __________ cinema, do normal stuff.
A. the B. a C. an D. ∅
Question 16: Laura wanted to tell Jack the whole truth but she _______ herself - it wasn't the right moment.
A. tested B. searched C. tried D. checked
Question 17: All flights _______ because of the bad weather.
A. was delayed B. delayed C. were delayed D. delay
Question 18: One of three questions, the second one was __________.
A. the most difficult B. more difficult C. as difficult D. the more difficult
Question 19: If you cook, I'll _______ the washing-up.
A. do B. take C. get D. put
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of
the following questions.
Question 20: We restrict the number of students per class to ten with the aim of improving productivity.
A. increase B. remain C. remove D. limit
Question 21: Brown was really upset over not getting the present he wanted from Father Christmas.
A. happy B. glad C. sad D. excited

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each
of the following questions.
Question 22: Antique toy cars are ten a penny nowadays because you can easily find them at any store.
A. common B. scarce C. abundant D. ancient
Question 23: She's young and dynamic and will be a great addition to the team.
A. energetic B. influential C. lethargic D. active
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 24: Mai is saying goodbye to Linh after lunch at Linh’s house.
- Mai: “I had a good time. Thank you so much!”
- Linh: “ _______”
A. Here you are. B. I'm afraid.
C. I'm glad that you enjoyed it. D. None of your business!
Question 25: Dat and Minh are talking about a film that they have recently watched.
- Dat: “It’s the best film I’ve ever seen”
- Minh: “ _______. I have watched it three times”
A. I couldn’t agree with you more B. It’s such a boring film
C. Never mind D. You're welcome
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits
each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
If you ask a group of people what eating healthy means to them, you’ll probably get a different
answer (26) _______ time. For some, healthy eating means reining in a fast food habit or consuming more fruits
and vegetables, (27) _______ for others it may mean occasionally enjoying a piece of cake without feeling guilty.
Still yet, those who have certain medical conditions and even food allergies may conceptualize the concept of
healthy eating in their own unique way. In short, there's no single right (28) _______ to what healthy eating means.
Healthy eating is human, and as humans, we all have different wants and needs, (29) _______ inevitably affect our
food choices. What’s more, what healthy eating means to you may even change throughout the different stages of
your life as you grow and (30) _______ to your ever-changing needs.
(Adapted from https://www.healthline.com/nutrition/joys-of-healthy-eating)
Question 26: A. many B. much C. every D. some
Question 27: A. while B. despite C. however D. because
Question 28: A. reaction B. question C. issue D. answer
Question 29: A. what B. which C. where D. who
Question 30: A. correct B. modify C. adopt D. adapt
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
A few months ago, a group of scientists warned about the rise of “extinction denial,” an effort much like
climate denial to mischaracterize the extinction crisis and suggest that human activity isn't really having a
damaging effect on ecosystems and the whole planet. That damaging effect is, in reality, impossible to deny.
This past year, scientists and conservation organizations declared that a long list of species may have gone
extinct, including dozens of frogs, orchids and fish. Most of these species haven’t been seen in decades, despite
frequent and regular expeditions to find out if they still exist. The causes of these extinctions range from diseases
to invasive species to habitat loss, but most boil down to human behavior.
One of the first papers of 2020 to report any extinction announced the probable loss of 17 percent of
Bangladesh’s 187 known orchid species. Some of these still exist in other countries, but even regional extinctions
(or extirpations, as they're called) tell us that we’ve taken a toll on our ecological habitats. A similar paper
published just days later suggested that nine more orchid species from Madagascar may have also gone extinct.
One of the few extinctions of 2020 received much media attention, and it’s easy to see why. Handfish are an
unusual group of species whose front fins look somewhat like human appendages, which they use to walk around

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the ocean floor. The smooth species, which hasn’t been seen since 1802, lived off the coast of Tasmania and was
probably common when it was first collected by naturalists. Bottom fishing, pollution, habitat destruction, bycatch
and other threats are all listed as among the probable reasons for its extinction. Even though the local
fishery collapsed more than 50 years ago, the remaining handfish species are still critically endangered, so this
extinction should serve as an important wake-up call to save them.
(Adapted from https://www.scientificamerican.com/)
Question 31: Which of the following could be the main idea of the passage?
A. Human activities are not the primary cause of species extinction.
B. Myriad flora and fauna species may have become extinction recently.
C. The negative effects of extinction crisis are increasing.
D. Plants are more vulnerable than animals.
Question 32: The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. expeditions B. decades C. species D. scientists
Question 33: Which of the following is TRUE?
A. It's likely to find the extinct orchid species beyond the borders of Bangladesh.
B. Deforestation may cause some diseases to kill the invasive species.
C. The price for our modern society is the increasing loss in ecological habitats.
D. Bottom fishing and accidental entrapment only affect big marine species.
Question 34: According to the last paragraph, handfish _______.
A. are raised for recreation. B. resemble human’s ancestor.
C. are threatened by naturalists D. live on the seabed.
Question 35: The word “collapsed'' in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______
A. closed down B. gave up C. put off D. took over
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions from 36 to 42.
When I was a teenager playing Ubisoft's Assassin's Creed series, I definitely wasn't looking to learn things.
But with 11 main AC games all set during different times and places in history - like ancient Egypt, Greece, and
America during the Revolutionary War - I was bound to learn something, even if just by accident. And I definitely
did.
One day, my history teacher passed out blank maps of the Caribbean. It was a quiz I had forgotten about. We
had to label countries and major cities. Luckily, I'd been playing a lot of Assassin's Creed: Black Flag, set in the
Caribbean during the golden age of piracy in the early 18th century. So I was able to draw on my life as a pirate to
fill in the map, and I got an A.
When I was seven, I learned to multiply quickly through a purely educational game called Treasure
Mountain!, which had me solving math problems to progress up a mountain and collect treasure in a never-
ending loop. And then, of course, there was Assassin's Creed.
Ubisoft leaned into AC's educational potential, with very cool results. They did a lot of research to recreate
Ancient Egypt in AC: Origins and Ancient Greece in AC: Odyssey, and they released an educational discovery
tour for each game that lets you look around the environment with no violence, enemies, or time constraints. You
can learn about the Olympic Games, and how Sparta trained its soldiers in ancient Greece, with real historical
figures acting as your tour guides. Or jump over to ancient Egypt to check out mummies and climb on the
pyramids.
Obviously, Assassin's Creed can't teach you everything you need to know about the ancient world - but the
games do make that world come alive for people who are reluctant to learn, like I was.
If you're looking for some other options, Minecraft is incredibly popular with kids of any age. Minecraft:
Education Edition is free for everybody with a student email until at least June 30, and features over 500 pre-made
lesson plans for things like coding, history, English, and much more. For example, there is a lesson plan on how to
write clear instructions for in-game actions, and another that lets kids learn about slopes by building a roller
coaster.
(Source: https://www.npr.org/)
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Question 36: Which is the most suitable title for the passage?
A. Relaxation choices after studying. B. Propaganda for online gaming.
C. New educational platforms. D. Learning from video games.
Question 37: The word “bound” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. fated B. certain C. forced D, required
Question 38: The word “never-ending” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______
A. endless B. relentless C. limitless D. hopeless
Question 39: According to paragraph 4, which is NOT an experience offered in Assassin’s Creed: Odyssey
A. Learning about the grand pyramids and the making of mummies.
B. Historical personages introducing tours around the ancient Greek.
C. Exploring the ancient Greece without being hassled by enemies.
D. Watching how the ancient Spartan military training was like.
Question 40: According to the passage, what is the authors trying to convince the readers of?
A. The gaming industry is one of the most culturally rich industries.
B. Gaming teaches more about historical events than textbooks do.
C. Video games can get children interested in learning something.
D. The gaming worlds are well researched, thus historically correct.
Question 41: Through the passage, the author wants to encourage people _______
A. to invest in online games as a potential learning tool in classrooms.
B. to use games as a way to solidify their previously learnt knowledge.
C. to take advantage of games, be it educational or not, to learn things.
D. to draw a clear line between the virtual world and the real world.
Question 42: The word “another” in paragraph 6 refers to _______.
A. instruction B. lesson plan C. in-game action D. student email
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following
questions.
Question 43: We travel to Italy last summer and stayed in a small village on the coast.
A. travel B. summer C. a D. coast
Question 44: The kids are getting on my nerves because it's making so much noise.
A. are getting B. nerves C. it’s D. much
Question 45: This is certainly a most regretful incident and I hope that the internal enquiry will shed some light
on the matter.
A. regretful B. hope C. internal D. matter
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions.
Question 46: It is compulsory for you to bring your books back to the school library by Friday.
A. You must bring your books back to the school library by Friday.
B. You should have brought your books back to the school library by Friday.
C. You needn't bring your books back to the school library by Friday.
D. You can't bring your books back to the school library by Friday.
Question 47: “I saw Mike at school yesterday and he seemed fine”, Phil said
A. Phil said that he had seen Mike at school yesterday and he had seemed fine.
B. Phil said that I had seen Mike at school yesterday and he had seemed fine.
C. Phil said that he saw Mike at school the previous day and he seemed fine.
D. Phil said that he had seen Mike at school the previous day and he had seemed fine.
Question 48: She last played the guitar three months ago.
A. She had three months to play the guitar.
B. She hasn't played the guitar for three months.
C. She has played the guitar for three months.

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D. She didn’t play the guitar three months ago.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following
questions.
Question 49: Jack really wants to take up golf. He doesn’t have enough time.
A. Provided that Jack has enough money, she can’t take up golf.
B. If only Jack had had enough time, he couldn’t have taken up golf.
C. If Jack had had enough time, he couldn’t have taken up golf.
D. Jack wishes he had enough time so that he could take up golf.
Question 50: Students are forbidden to bring their mobile phones to the exam room. There is no exception to
whoever.
A. Under no circumstances are students prohibited from bringing their mobile phones to the exam room.
B. On no account are students permitted to bring their mobile phones to the exam room.
C. By no means are students forbidden to bring their mobile phones to the exam room.
D. At no time are students prohibited from bringing their mobile phones to the exam room.
-----THE END-----

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ĐỀ SỐ 2
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. job B. bank C. climb D. book
Question 2: A. public B. number C. study D. future
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary
stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. experience B. traditional C. information D. relationship
Question 4: A. public B. appear C. expose D. comply
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5: There are many valuable insights in her book, _______?
A. are there B. aren’t there C. is it D. isn't it
Question 6: They need a bigger house, but they just can’t _______ the rent.
A. afford B. affordable C. affordably D. affordability
Question 7: The jury has to decide whether a person is guiltyor innocent __________ a crime.
A. of B. with C. at D. on
Question 8: David wants to have a part-time _______ to pay for his tuition fee.
A. career B. profession C. work D. job
Question 9: He was __________ fifth climber to die on these mountains over the past two days.
A. the B. a C. an D. ∅
Question 10: Perter is not going out _______ his homework.
A. until he has finished B. until he will finish
C. until he had finished D. until he was finishing
Question 11: My family was watching television when the power _______.
A. was going off B. goes off C. had gone off D. went off
Question 12: Details of the attack _______ to the public tomorrow.
A. will be released B. will release C. are releasing D. release
Question 13: If you’re _______ off the mark in answering these questions, you can win a prize.
A. fast B. brief C. quick D. rapid
Question 14: I think the problem can be _______ without too much difficulty.
A. got on B. got over C. taken up D. taken after
Question 15: How do you manage __________ in this heat without air conditioning?
A. to work B. harder C. the hardest D. as hard
Question 16: He worked __________ than the others.
A. more hardly B. The fastest C. The faster D. Fast
Question 17: Her husband is away, so she'll have to _______ other childcare arrangements.
A. make B. do C. take D. get
Question 18: The woman __________ in the meeting hall didn’t seem friendly to us.
A. who is sitting B. sitting
C. to sit D. was sitting
Question 19: He has _______ himself as the leading candidate in the election.
A. installed B. instituted C. established D. practiced
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of
the following questions.
Question 20: I was listening to an amusing program on the radio, which made me laugh out loud.
A. entertaining B. annoying C. unpleasant D. insensible
Question 21: He was a very stubborn man who refused to accept defeat.
A. disagree B. approve C. deny D. deceive

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each
of the following questions.
Question 22: The cabinet minister left office under a cloud after a fraud scandal.
A. unreliable B. reputable C. trusted D. dependable
Question 23: I first met Simon in 2008 and struck up an acquaintance with him.
A. familiarity B. companion C. strangeness D. intimacy
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 24: Lan and Huong are talking about music.
- Lan: “Music plays an important role in our lives”
- Huong:” _______. My life would be boring without music!”
A. I totally agree with you B. I don’t think so
C. You’re wrong D. My pleasure
Question 25: Tom and Marry are at the party.
- Tom: “Your new shoes look so pretty”
- Marry: “ _______. My mom bought it for me yesterday.”
A. I’m afraid so B. Thank you C. I don’t expect D. That's a pity
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits
each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
As Americans live longer and longer, around 70 percent of people 65 or older will need some kind of long-
term care. While some folks will only need part-time help at home to prepare meals and clean
bathrooms, (26) _______ will spend months or years in assisted living or a nursing facility. The problem is that
none of us knows which fate awaits us, so we're left to plan for an old age that could either be perfectly (27)
_______ or cripplingly expensive.
If you don't already know, the cost of long-term care in the U.S. is sky-high, and it's going up faster than
inflation. The average cost of a private room in a nursing home in 2019 was $102,200 a year, (28) _______ is 57
percent more than it cost in 2004, according to Genworth Financial. In 2019, a year in an assisted living
facility (29) _______ $48,612 on average nationwide, but in Washington, D.C., (30) _______, just a year of
assisted living ran $135,456. Staying at home isn't necessarily cheaper, either. Hiring an hourly home health aide
(based on 44 hours per week) averaged $52,624 a year in 2019, Genworth reported.
(Adapt from: https://www.howstuffworks.com/)
Question 26: A. other B. others C. the other D. another
Question 27: A. capable B. extendable C. amiable D. affordable
Question 28: A. that B. which C. who D. when
Question 29: A. paid B. spent C. cost D. saved
Question 30: A. however B. for instance C. therefore D. in addition
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions from 31 to 35.
It appears that WHO played a critically important, though imperfect, role in responding to the initial outbreak
of COVID-19 in Wuhan, China. Under the IHR, member countries are required to report potential PHEICs
occurring in their territories within 24 hours following initial detection.
Historically, however, countries have been reluctant to comply with the IHR’s reporting requirement, partly
because it might expose them to unwanted economic sanctions. Chinese authorities faced this dilemma as they
mulled over the question of spotlighting the potentially grave public health situation in Wuhan. Against this
backdrop, WHO’s detection of the local health commission’s notice on December 31, 2019, along
with its immediate request to gain further information, augmented the strategic situation facing Chinese authorities
to encourage disclosure.
Since late January 2020, WHO’s response to the COVID-19 crisis has suffered a number of institutional
missteps. The agency came under fire for issuing contradictory statements on precautionary health topics, such as

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“human- to-human transmissibility” and “asymptomatic spread.” It has also been criticized for being slow to adapt
its official position on face masks in light of emerging scientific evidence. WHO also arguably erred in choosing
to delay formal declaration of a global public health emergency by at least one week.
For all of its institutional successes and shortfalls, WHO nonetheless continues to contribute powerfully and
positively to the pandemic response effort. To date, the organization has raised over $200 million through its
Solidarity Response Fund to combat the COVID-19 crisis, and has otherwise shipped millions of items of personal
protective equipment (PPE) to healthcare personnel in over 100 countries. WHO has also exercised its norm-
creating power to provide member countries with comprehensive guidance documentation on the pandemic. It has
additionally played a significant role in coordinating the global search for vaccines and other medical treatments.
(Adapted from https://www.gcseglobal.org/)
Question 31: Which of the following could be the best title for the passage?
A. WHO's Overall Role in Combatting the COVID-19
B. WHO’s Missteps and the Consequences in the Pandemic
C. WHO’s Reluctant Response and Economic Sanctions
D. COVID-19 - Are WHO's Efforts Perfect?
Question 32: According to paragraph 2, China is required to _______.
A. expose other countries to unwanted economic sanctions.
B. consider the potential questions that may arise in the pandemic.
C. report on the possibly serious situation of public health in Wuhan.
D. encourage the local health commission’s notice.
Question 33: The word “its” in paragraph 2 refers to _______?
A. the local health commission’s B. WHO's
C. Chinese authorities' D. IHR’s
Question 34: The phrase “came under fire” in paragraph 3 most probably means _______.
A. was completely destroyed B. was severely criticized
C. was significantly punished D. was highly appreciated
Question 35: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the last paragraph?
A. The fund and medical equipment that WHO has supported the infected countries are sponsored by over 100
nations.
B. The interference with vaccine distribution is beyond the control of WHO.
C. The awareness of COVID 19 pandemic is raised considerably thanks to the guidance document of WHO.
D. Despite the shortcomings, WHO has played an indispensable and vital role in the battle against the COVID-
19 pandemic.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions from 36 to 42.
For many hundreds of thousands of people worldwide, online networking has become enmeshed in our daily
lives. However, it is a decades-old insight from a study of traditional social networks that best illuminates one of
the most important aspects of today’s online networking. In 1973, sociologist Mark Granovetter showed how the
loose acquaintances, or “weak ties”, in our social network exert a disproportionate influence over our behaviour
and choices. Granovetter's research showed that a significant percentage of people get their jobs as a result of
recommendations or advice provided by a weak tie. Today our number of weak-tie contacts has exploded via
online social networking. “You couldn't maintain all of those weak ties on your own”, says Jennifer Golbeck of the
University of Maryland. “Online sites, such as Facebook, give you a way of cataloguing them”. The result? It's
now significantly easier for the schoolfriend you haven’t seen in years to pass you a tip that alters your behaviour,
from recommendation of a low-cholesterol breakfast cereal to a party invite where you meet your future wife or
husband.
The explosion of weak ties could have profound consequences for our social structures too, according to
Judith Donath of the Berkman Center for Internet and Society at Harvard University. “We're already seeing
changes”, she says. For example, many people now turn to their online social networks ahead of sources such as

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newspapers and television for trusted and relevant news or information. What they hear could well be inaccurate,
but the change is happening nonetheless. If these huge “supernets” - some of them numbering up to 5,000 people -
continue to thrive and grow, they could fundamentally change the way we share information and transform our
notions of relationships.
But are these vast networks really that relevant to us on a personal level? Robin Dunbar, an evolutionary
anthropologist at the University of Oxford, believes that our primate brains place a cap on the number of genuine
social relationships we can actually cope with: roughly 150. According to Dunbar, online social networking
appears to be very good for “servicing” relationships, but not for establishing them. He argues that our
evolutionary roots mean we still depend heavily on physical and face-to-face contact to be able to create ties.
Online social networking may also have tangible effects on our well-being. Nicole Ellison of Michigan State
University found that the frequency of networking site use correlates with greater self-esteem. Support and
affirmation from the weak ties could be the explanation, say Ellison. “Asking your close friends for help or advice
is nothing new, but we are seeing a lower of barriers among acquaintances”, she says. People are readily sharing
personal feelings and experiences to a wider circle than they might once have done. Sandy Pentland at
Massachusetts Institute of Technology agrees. “The ability to broadcast to our social group means we need never
feel alone”.
(Adapted from The Official Cambridge Guide to IELTS)
Question 36: What topic does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The positive and negative effects of online social networking.
B. The explosion of online acquaintances and its impacts on our lives.
C. Friendship and the influences of online social networking.
D. The consequences of the information and news shared on the online social networks.
Question 37: The word “disproportionate” in paragraph 1 mostly means _______
A. not deserving its importance or influence B. not necessary or of great value
C. not giving cause for hope and confidence D. extremely large
Question 38: The word “enmeshed” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. interested B. entangled C. involved D. endangered
Question 39: What advantage of online social networks is mentioned in paragraph 1?
A. It’s simple to establish new friendships via networking sites.
B. Unemployed people may get their jobs thanks to the employers’ recommendations.
C. Online sites provide us with lists of different choices and behavior.
D. It’s an efficient way of keeping in touch with lot of people.
Question 40: What does the word “they” in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. social networks B. sources C. many people D. relevant news
Question 41: Which drawbacks may online social networking put people at mentioned in the passage?
A. Unreliable information and lack of privacy
B. Hard to maintain all online friendships and being influenced too much
C. Waste of time and reduction in face-to-face relationships
D. Close friends' advice is not useful anymore and people depend on social networking to solve real-world
problems.
Question 42: What can be inferred from the last paragraph?
A. Having a number of online acquaintances helps people escape from loneliness
B. We have become more agreeable to confine in myriad people.
C. Those having an extensive number of online friends may be more self-esteem.
D. Online social networking is established on the base of face-to-face contacts.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following
questions.
Question 43: I didn't use to like him much when we are at school.
A. to like B. much C. are D. school

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Question 44: She has made a study of chemical fertilizers and its effect on the environment.
A. study B. chemical C. its D. the
Question 45: The view of the mountains was so electronic that we decided to take a photo of them.
A. view B. electronic C. decided D. photo
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions.
Question 46: I think it’s a good idea to revise before your exams.
A. You must revise before your exams.
B. You should have revised before your exams.
C. You should revise before your exams.
D. You may revise before your exams.
Question 47: “Where is the Post Office, please?” Jane asked.
A. Jane asked me where the Post Office was.
B. Jane asked me where is the Post Office.
C. Jane told me where the Post Office is.
D. Jane told me where was the Post Office.
Question 48: Lan hasn’t done online shopping for a month.
A. Lan has done online shopping since last month.
B. Lan had a month to do online shopping.
C. Lan started to do online shopping a month ago.
D. The last time Lan did online shopping was a month ago.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: Brown didn’t attend the seminar. He regrets it now.
A. If only Brown attended the seminar.
B. Brown wouldn't regret it now if he attended the seminar.
C. Brown wishes he had attended the seminar.
D. Brown regrets having attended the seminar.
Question 50: Sunbathing is a popular activity. It can cause some skin-related problems.
A. Not only is sunbathing a popular activity but it can also cause some skin-related problems.
B. Popular though sunbathing is, it can cause some skin-related problems.
C. Popular as sunbathing is, this activity can't cause some skin-related problems.
D. How popular sunbathing is, it can't cause some skin-related problems.
-----THE END-----

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ĐỀ SỐ 3
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. tough B. enough C. plough D. cough
Question 2: A. ceremony B. consider C. enclosure D. economic
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary
stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. audience B. attitude C. interview D. attachment
Question 4: A. aspect B. border C. approach D. danger
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5: Yesterday was so much fun, _______?
A. wasn't it B. isn’t it C. does it D. doesn't it
Question 6: This organization was set up to provide food and shelter for __________ poor.
A. a B. an C. the D. ∅
Question 7: You can't work _______ for six hours without a break!
A. continue B. continuous C. continuously D. continuation
Question 8: We'd like to finish this work _______ dark.
A. before it gets B. before it was getting
C. before it had got D. before it will get
Question 9: We should think carefully because the problem is a _______ nut to crack.
A. tight B. hard C. firm D. fit
Question 10: I’m sorry for being late, but my train was _______.
A. kept on B. kept up C. held up D. held on
Question 11: David _______ all of the action movies by the time he was 20.
A. was seeing B. sees C. has seen D. had seen
Question 12: The higher they climbed, _______ it got.
A. the more coldly B. the colder C. the coldest D. coldest
Question 13: I try to avoid __________ shopping on Saturdays because the stores are so crowded.
A. going B. to go C. to going D. go
Question 14: I am not personally acquainted __________ the gentleman in question.
A. with B. at C. on D. in
Question 15: When I got home, I found that my apartment _______.
A. burgles B. had burgled C. had been burgled D. burgled
Question 16: Neil Armstrong was the first person __________ foot on the Moon.
A. to set B. setting C. set D. who setting
Question 17: My mother often _______ a long hot bath every evening.
A. makes B. has C. does D. goes
Question 18: The tutor paused for a while, waiting for his students to _______ the information.
A. consume B. inhale C. digest D. swallow
Question 19: The population of the world is growing at an alarming _______.
A. rate B. percentage C. proportion D. ratio
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of
the following questions.
Question 20: Athletes must undergo a mandatory drug test before competing in the championship.
A. remove B. underestimate C. experience D. abandon
Question 21: There's no instant way of finding a cure - it's just a process of trial and error.
A. gradual B. immediate C. normal D. positive
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each
of the following questions.

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Question 22: You shouldn't feel guilty all the time because you’ve done nothing to be ashamed of.
A. innocent B. selfish C. ashamed D. optimistic
Question 23: The mayor found himself in hot water over his sensitive comments about religion.
A. be in a difficult situation B. be in trouble
C. be likely to be criticized D. be in a simple situation
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 24: Soo and Ji are talking about the benefit of playing sport.
- Ji: “I believe playing sport can help us build up our fitness level.”
- Soo: “ _______. We can stay in shape when we play sport.”
A. I don’t quite agree B. You can say that again
C. Here you are D. Yes, I don’t believe so
Question 25: Jane and Frank are having a discussion about last summer vacation.
- Jane: “Where did you go last summer, Frank?”
- Frank: “_______.”
A. Well, I won't tell you B. I went to Japan to visit my grandparents
C. I plan to go to Japan D. Mind your own business
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits
each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
DOLPHINS
Dolphins are regarded as the friendliest creatures in the sea and stories of them helping drowning sailors
have been (26) _______ since Roman times. The more we learn about dolphins, the more we realize that their
society is more complex than people previously imagined. They look after other dolphins (27) _______ they are
ill, care for pregnant mothers, and protect the weakest in the community, as we do. Some scientists have suggested
that dolphins have a language but it is much more probable that they communicate with (28) _______ other
without needing words. Could any of these mammals be more intelligent than man? Certainly, the most common
argument in (29) _______ of man's superiority over them that we can kill them more easily than they can kill us is
the least satisfactory. (30)_______, the more we discover about these remarkable creatures, the less we appear
superior when we destroy them.
(Adapted from https://www.grammarbank.com/)
Question 26: A. general B. common C. typical D. unique
Question 27: A. which B. that C. where D. when
Question 28: A. many B. little C. each D. a few
Question 29: A. favor B. advance C. need D. order
Question 30: A. Therefore B. On the contrary C. Additionally D. So
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions from 39 to 43.
The adorable clone, named Elizabeth Ann, is a species of black-footed ferret, one of the most endangered
mammals in North America, according to the World Wildlife Fund for Nature. Born on Dec. 10, 2020, Elizabeth
Ann was created using cells from “Willa,” a wild black-footed ferret who died and had her cells cryopreserved in
1988, according to a statement from the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (USFWS), which was involved in the
cloning.
The feat marks the first time an endangered species in the U.S. has been cloned, the statement said. “It was a
commitment to seeing this species survive that has led to the successful birth of Elizabeth Ann,” Ryan Phelan,
executive director of Revive & Restore, a conservation organization that was involved with the cloning, said in the
statement. “To see her now thriving ushers in a new era for her species and for conservation-dependent species
everywhere.”
Black-footed ferrets were once thought to be extinct, but scientists found a small population in 1981, which
allowed conservationists to start captive breeding programs for the species. About 250 to 350 of the ferrets live in
captivity, and 300 more live in reintroduction sites in the wild, according to Revive & Restore. But the limited

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genetic diversity of the species has challenged its recovery, making the creatures prone to health disorders and
certain infections, the Times reported.
Since Willa was not one of the “seven founders” of the population, her genes - which are now possessed by
Elizabeth Ann - could bring much-needed variation to the population's genetics.
Several other endangered animals have been cloned in other parts of the world, including gaur, or wild cattle,
in 2001, bucardo, or wild goats, in 2009, and wild coyotes in 2012, according to Scientific American.
(Source: https://www.livescience.com/)
Question 31: Which could be the best title of the passage?
A. First cloned endangered species in the US.
B. New technology to save the biodiversity.
C. The use of biotechnology in conservation.
D. The first step towards human cloning.
Question 32: The word “ushers in” in paragraph 2 mostly means _______.
A. escorts B. guides C. signals D. causes
Question 33: The word “her” in paragraph 1 refers to _______.
A. Willa B. Elizabeth Ann C. black-footed ferret D. clone
Question 34: According to the passage, Elizabeth Ann _______.
A. will serve as a key to the mystery of black-footed ferret’s genetics.
B. will be the only clone due to the controversial nature of the practice.
C. will be recorded in the history of biology as a technological miracle.
D. will help bring genetic diversity to the black-footed ferret population
Question 35: Which of the following statements is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. Researchers have successfully cloned a highly endangered ferret species.
B. Before cloning, black-footed ferrets were a story of conservation failure.
C. Elizabeth Ann was cloned using cells frozen more than three decades ago.
D. Genetic similarity makes today's ferrets potentially susceptible to diseases.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions from 36 to 42.
Once your child is born, they start learning motor skills, language skills, cognitive skills, and emotional
skills.
Regarding motor skills, it is largely the family’s responsibility for teaching these skills. Even if your child is
in daycare, the work that parents put in at home to teach these skills is much more effective than in the few hours
your child is under someone else's care. Your child will learn how to sit up, walk, run, climb, hold a spoon and so
on. These seem quite natural to us as adults, but they are skills that have to be fine-tuned at a very young age, and
they also reinforce your child’s independence which is essential for their development.
Language skills are another essential component of the role of family in child development. If you do not
speak to your child and teach them your language, they will never learn. One infamous example of this occurring
is with Genie, a child who was locked in a dark room with extremely little human contact until she was rescued at
age 13. She was never able to develop language fluency because it was never taught to her. So, teaching your
children language skills from a young age is also essential to child development.
Another skill that is very important for child development is emotion. Emotional skills are important
throughout your child's entire life as they teach them when to have sympathy and compassion for others as well as
teach them how to deal with the highs and lows that come with life. If your child does not have proper emotional
skills, they will not be able to deal with bad outcomes. If they lack emotional skills, it could lead to destructive
choices when they are older.
To help develop your child's emotional skills, teaching them to smile and wave when they are babies is a
good place to start. When they get a bit older, teaching them to share is very important. In a family, because there
are multiple people, the family can be very helpful in developing a child's skills with the multiple perspectives. To
bring this more to foundational building blocks, while your child is very young, something very helpful for family

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members to do is to teach children basic emotions. When a child is feeling a certain way, naming emotions and
describing them are important ways for your child to understand how they are feeling. Once this foundation is set,
children can learn how to respond to their feelings and move forward.
(Adapted from https://www.all4kids.org/)
Question 36: Which of the following could be the best title of the passage?
A. Skills and the Relation with Child Development
B. The Most Essential Skills in Child Development
C. Teaching Skills: When is the Best Time?
D. Family's Roles in Child's Skill Development
Question 37: The word “reinforce” in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by ______.
A. strengthen B. harbor C. subside D. damage
Question 38: The story of Genie mentioned in paragraph 3 proves that _______
A. communication with others may help children develop their language skills.
B. public did not know anything about the evil that happened to the poor girl.
C. a teenager is unable to learn language skills as naturally as a child.
D. children may not grow up without having human contact daily.
Question 39: The phrase “highs and lows” in paragraph 4 most probably means _______
A. joys and sorrows B. happiness and sadness
C. love and hatred D. successes and failures
Question 40: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
A. Parents have the greater influence on their child's motor skills than others do.
B. Children have to make great efforts to learn the skills considered spontaneous to adults.
C. Emotion is the most indispensable skill for a child to become mature.
D. Children should be taught how to express their emotions when they are babies.
Question 41: The word “they” in the last paragraph refers to _______.
A. emotions B. your children C. ways D. family members
Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Children may become depraved if their parents cannot be a good model.
B. Children probably develop their skills completely in an extended family.
C. The situation of Genie is not popular in the modern society.
D. A child will be more independent if he knows how to respect others’ emotions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following
questions.
Question 43: Last summer we go to Greece for a month.
A. summer B. go C. for D. month
Question 44: Everyone has his own ideas about the best way to bring up children.
A. his B. about C. way D. bring up
Question 45: Marina is easily distinguished because she is the only student who doesn’t wear the uniform.
A. distinguished B. only C. wear D. uniform
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions.
Question 46: The last time I saw her was over 20 years ago.
A. I haven't seen her for over 20 years.
B. 1 haven't seen her since I was over 20 years old.
C. I used to have 20 years to see her.
D. I didn't see her 20 years ago.
Question 47: “Why don't we go to a cafe to do assignments.”, said Linda.
A. Linda wants to go to a cafe to do assignments.
B. Linda suggested going to a cafe to do assignments.

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C. Linda told she didn't want to go to a cafe to do assignments.
D. Linda warned against going to a cafe to do assignments.
Question 48: It is mandatory for everyone to stay at home during social distancing.
A. Everyone must have stayed at home during social distancing.
B. Everyone may stay at home during social distancing.
C. Everyone should stay at home during social distancing.
D. Everyone must stay at home during social distancing.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following
questions.
Question 49: Jon stopped to buy a cup of coffee. He missed the train to Ho Chi Minh city.
A. If Jon hadn't stopped to buy a cup of coffee, he wouldn’t have missed the train to Ho Chi Minh city.
B. Suppose Jon stopped to buy a cup of coffee, he wouldn't have missed the train to Ho Chi Minh city.
C. Without being stopped to buy a cup of coffee, he wouldn’t have missed the train to Ho Chi Minh city.
D. But for stopping to buy a cup of coffee, he won't miss the train to Ho Chi Minh city.
Question 50: I took a painkiller and drank a cup of orange juice. My headache was relieved.
A. Only when I take a painkiller and drink a cup of orange juice was my headache relieved.
B. Not until I took a painkiller and drank a cup of orange juice was my headache relieved.
C. It was not until I took a painkiller and drank a cup of orange juice was my headache relieved
D. Hardly had I taken a painkiller and drink a cup of orange juice when my headache was relieved.
-----THE END-----

TAISACHONTHI.COM Page 15
ĐỀ SỐ 4
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. chemist B. choice C. watch D. match
Question 2: A. humble B. volunteer C. number D. culture
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary
stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. future B. money C. survey D. demand
Question 4: A. interpreter B. bilingual C. enthusiast D. information
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5: Charities across the globe have been encouraging students to join their volunteering programs to help
_______ a difference in the world.
A. make B. take C. tell D. get
Question 6: Our project wasted a _______ amount of time and money.
A. consider B. considerable C. considerably D. consideration
Question 7: You can’t be dependent __________ your parents all your life.
A. at B. in C. with D. on
Question 8: The Panama Canal provides a crucial shipping link between __________ Atlantic and Pacific oceans.
A. an B. the C. an D. ∅
Question 9: I'm never on time, _______?
A. aren't I B. do I C. am I D. are I
Question 10: American culture _______ all over the world over the past few decades.
A. was exporting B. has been exported C. has been exporting D. has exported
Question 11: I was writing my essay while my cat _______ next to me.
A. had lain B. was lying C. is lying D. lay
Question 12: The security system will not permit you __________ without the correct password.
A. to enter B. entering C. to entering D. enter
Question 13: My parents will have waited here _______.
A. by the time I land at Tan Son Nhat airport
B. by the time I was landing at Tan Son Nhat airport
C. by the time I will land at Tan Son Nhat airport
D. by the time I had landed at Tan Son Nhat airport
Question 14: The child __________ by his mother is very naughty.
A. who punished B. punish C. punishing D. to punish
Question 15: The old warehouse has been _______ to make way for a new store.
A. pulled through B. pulled down C. put off D. put on
Question 16: She needed a vaccination _______ to prove that she’d had two doses of an approved vaccine.
A. degree B. diploma C. qualification D. certificate
Question 17: Of my two brothers, Jack is _______.
A. the smartest B. smarter C. the smarter D. smartest
Question 18: Be sure to _______ room in your bags for the souvenirs you’ll want to bring home.
A. admit B. permit C. accept D. allow
Question 19: Brown's always had a _______ spot for Mai because she looks pretty.
A. soft B. light C. faint D. mild
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of
the following questions.
Question 20: Don't be silly! We can’t walk home because it's much too far.
A. sensible B. clear C. foolish D. smart
Question 21: Researchers evaluated teaching performance by comparing students' exam results.

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A. assessed B. accessed C. confessed D. possessed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each
of the following questions.
Question 22: We should be cautious about investing money in research and development.
A. alert B. watchful C. aware D. careless
Question 23: Linda was too clever by half - always correcting the teacher or coming back with a smart answer.
A. confident B. arrogant C. modest D. trustful
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 24: Lan and Mai are talking about the subject of research.
- Lan: “How about collecting more data for this subject?”
- Mai: “ _______”
A. Count me out. B. I’m afraid so.
C. That’s a good idea. D. I don’t really like cheating
Question 25: A guest is asking for a woman's permission.
- The guest: “Do you mind if I smoke here?”
- The woman: “ _______.”
A. Yes, you can smoke here B. Yes, I’d love to
C. No, you can’t do that here D. I'd rather you didn’t
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits
each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
The internet ubiquity in education has flooded the teaching and learning (26) _______ with digital tools
and drastically changed many aspects of academic life, including students' reading habits. This study aimed at
exploring students' perceptions of using the internet to develop reading habits. The study (27) _______ the
qualitative descriptive method with survey design and involved 43 students of the English department of
Universitas Kristen Indonesia Jakarta. Data was collected by means of a questionnaire consisting of 20 items. The
results showed that 43% of the respondents had a positive perception that the internet developed (28) _______ of
their reading habits. (29) _______, the majority of them regarded reading as merely an activity for getting
information to finish school assignments. They viewed the internet as the main source of
information (30) _______ they needed to finish their learning assignments. Since about one-fifth of them preferred
paper-based reading, it was concluded that not the whole of Generation Z members totally ignored printed reading
materials.
(Adapted from Jet, Journal of English teaching)
Question 26: A. procedure B. diagram C. process D. formula
Question 27: A. rented B. hired C. recruited D. employed
Question 28: A. every B. much C. many D. each
Question 29: A. Therefore B. For example C. So D. However
Question 30: A. who B. that C. where D. when
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions from 31 to 35.
For years, charities across the globe have been encouraging students to join their volunteering programmes to
help make a difference in the world. Volunteers are an integral part of any charitable organization; without them,
there would be no charity. Not only can volunteering benefit a wealth of causes, but it can also boost a student's
prospects once they head out into the working world.
Volunteering can be a humbling experience, allowing you to see the world in a different way. Whether you
agree to volunteer for a number of consecutive months or a day a week, the impact you have could be life-
changing. There's also a strong sense of achievement and pride that comes with generously giving up your time for
a worthy cause.
When it comes to volunteering, there are countless opportunities at home or away. Many students choose to
volunteer abroad to experience a new culture and learn more about other countries. It can be a wonderful way to

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experience another country, with support and guidance during the stay from the organizations. Volunteering
overseas involves more group-based work than volunteering at home. It also gives students the opportunity to get
away from studies and work responsibilities.
At home, opportunities are likely to be helping with youth clubs, childcare support, medical support or charity
shops. Working for a cause while at home will allow for flexibility around a student's timetable, they may be able
to give up some of their spare time at the weekend or a few hours in the evening.
(Adapted from https://www.volunteeringsolutions.com/)
Question 31: Which of the following best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Volunteering Experience's Benefits to Students
B. Students' Roles in Charities
C. Abroad or At Home: Where is Better to Volunteer?
D. Should Students Volunteer?
Question 32: The phrase “integral part” in the first paragraph most probably means _______.
A. major supporter B. flexible participant
C. enthusiastic member D. essential factor
Question 33: According to the writer, why do people do volunteer work?
A. Because they can take advantage of their spare time.
B. Because their efforts may make other lives become better.
C. Because local people may feel proud of their work.
D. Because they can see the real world more clearly.
Question 34: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned as the advantages of
volunteering abroad over volunteering at home?
A. exploring a new culture
B. acquiring more information about another country
C. getting on well with others in group work
D. supporting and helping other organizations
Question 35: What does the word “they” in the last paragraph refer to?
A. students B. charity shops C. opportunities D. youth clubs
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or Don your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Translators and interpreters for tech jobs of the future are expected to be one of the fastest growing
occupations in the nation, according to a just released survey by Vietnamworks. Almost all positions for
programmers, application developers, database and network administrators, engineers, designers, architects,
scientists, technicians, and tech support will require bilingual or multilingual fluency.
In just the last two years the demand for tech professionals with foreign language skills has increased more
than two and one-half fold, said the survey, and the uptick shows no signs of abating anytime soon. Roughly
400,000 jobs are expected to open for interpreters (who focus on spoken language) and translators (who focus on
written language) in the tech segment, between 2017 and 2020, says Tran Anh Tuan. Tuan, who works for the
Centre for Forecasting Manpower Needs and Labour Market Information in Ho Chi Minh City doesn’t include
other industries in his prediction, which are also recruiting ferociously for more people with these same language
skills.
While that claim might seem a bit overblown (and amounts to little more than a guess by Tuan), it is clear
that innovative technologies like robotics, 3D printing, drones, artificial intelligence and virtual reality will create
major upheavals in all sorts of labour markets, not just technology over the next few years. In the last month
alone, most every job posted on employment websites throughout Vietnam included the word bilingual. Far higher
salaries go to people who work in high tech positions and can speak a foreign language such as English in addition
to Vietnamese, says Tran Quang Anh from the Posts and Telecommunications Institute of Technology.
Unfortunately, the surveys show that most graduating Vietnamese students are unable to do more than
understand a few basic phrases of foreign languages, and practically none of them can speak any foreign language

TAISACHONTHI.COM Page 18
coherently. The good paying jobs with high salaries and benefits are only available to translators and interpreters
who specialize in high tech jobs, says Anh. But it’s not just English - graduates are needed with fluency in middle
eastern languages like Arabic, Farsi and Pashto (Afghani) as well as German, Japanese and Korean to name just a
few. Spanish is also in high demand in Vietnam, primarily because it is the second most common language in the
US after English.
A recent tech expo in Hanoi sponsored by Vietnamworks and the Navigos Group attracted nearly 4,000
young tech graduates and recruiters from 14 leading companies looking to fill job vacancies with skilled bilingual
workers. The job applicants were young and industrious, said the recruiters. However, missing were candidates
with the requisite language skills and most lacked basic ‘soft skills’ such as written and verbal communication
abilities to effectively communicate even in their native Vietnamese language.
Notably, the recruiters said they considered language abilities and soft skills just as, if not more important,
than academic ability. Yet virtually all the prospective academically qualified employees lacked even the most
basic of interpersonal communication abilities.
(Source: http://english.vov.vn/)
Question 36: Which of the following could be the main idea of the passage?
A. The most popular jobs in Vietnam's job markets.
B. The necessity of foreign languages in most tech jobs.
C. The skills needed in tech jobs nowadays.
D. Vietnamese students are not aware of the importance of learning foreign languages.
Question 37: According to the passage, interpreters and translators are described as the jobs that ____.
A. are decreasing dramatically in the number of employees.
B. there are not enough employees for technology companies to recruit.
C. the requirements have risen considerably and steadily.
D. are expected to experience a downward trend in the near future.
Question 38: The word “upheavals” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. upward displacements B. upward disruptions
C. downward changes D. downward problems
Question 39: Which of the following is TRUE about employment in Vietnam according to Tran Quang Anh from
the Posts and Telecommunications Institute of Technology?
A. People whose major in foreign languages is high tech often earn high salaries.
B. The demand for interpreters and translators in the workforce is not as much as people believe.
C. Not only technology but also other jobs are putting more pressure on language skills.
D. Foreign languages in Vietnam are only needed in the posts on websites.
Question 40: What does the word “them” in paragraph 4 refer to?
A. foreign languages B. a few basic phrases C. Vietnamese students D. the surveys
Question 41: The word “requisite” in paragraph 5 could best be replaced by _______
A. shortage B. necessity C. specification D. measurement
Question 42: What can be inferred from the passage?
A. Academic ability is much more important than foreign languages and soft skills.
B. To get a good job nowadays, applicants must know more than a language and be good at other soft skills.
C. Written and verbal communication abilities determine the opportunity of applicants to get a desirable job.
D. Translators and interpreters are suitable for any position in the work market.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or Don your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each
of the following questions.
Question 43: Our research shows that employees are almost all industrial and want to do a good job.
A. shows B. almost C. industrial D. job
Question 44: In just the last two years the demand for foreign language skills increases more than two and one-
half fold.
A. the B. language C. increases D. fold

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Question 45: Journalists may enter the danger zone but we cannot guarantee her safety.
A. may B. danger C. but D. her
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of
the following questions
Question 46: She began living in Thai Nguyen when she was a child.
A. She didn't live in Thai Nguyen when she was a child.
B. She hasn't lived in Thai Nguyen since she was a child.
C. She has lived in Thai Nguyen since she was a child.
D. The last time she lived in Thai Nguyen was when she was a child.
Question 47: Mary said, “I want to give up my job.”
A. Mary said that she wants to give up her job.
B. Mary said that I wanted to give up her job.
C. Mary said that she didn’t want to give up her job.
D. Mary said that she wanted to give up her job
Question 48: It is not necessary for you to wait here.
A. You cannot wait here. B. You don't have to wait here.
C. You should have waited here. D. You needn't have waited here.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: The scientists make tireless efforts. Vaccines for Covid-19 are developed so fast.
A. Without the tireless efforts of scientists, vaccines for Covid-19 wouldn’t be developed so fast.
B. If the scientists don’t make tireless efforts, vaccines for Covid-19 won’t be developed so fast.
C. Supposing the scientists made tireless efforts, vaccines for Covid-19 would be developed so fast.
D. If the scientists make tireless efforts, vaccines for Covid-19 will be developed so fast.
Question 50: Volunteering can benefit physical health. Additionally, it can boost a student’s prospects once they
head out into the world.
A. Though benefits physical health, volunteering can boost a student's prospects once they head out into the
world.
B. Not only volunteering can benefit physical health, but also can it boost a student’s prospects once they
head out into the working world.
C. Volunteering can benefit physical health apart from boosting a student’s prospects once they head out into
the world.
D. Not only can volunteering benefit physical health, but it can also boost a student’s prospects once they
head out into the working world.
-----THE END-----

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ĐỀ SỐ 5
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. game B. gentle C. gift D. flag
Question 2: A. calculator B. capacity C. magnet D. furnace
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary
stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. harness B. happen C. compose D. listen
Question 4: A. wonderful B. terrific C. effective D. initial
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5: The final test so easy for you, _______?
A. is it B. doesn't it C. isn't it D. hasn't it
Question 6: The building _______ in 2001.
A. constructs B. was constructed C. has constructed D. was constructing
Question 7: It is possible to find a solution that is acceptable __________ both sides.
A. to B. with C. on D. at
Question 8: _______ advice we take from the government, _______ we get through the corona pandemic.
A. The more/ the faster B. The most/ the fastest
C. The most/ the fastest D. The more/ the fastest
Question 9: I really enjoyed __________ book I’ve just finished reading.
A. the B. an C. a D. ∅
Question 10: Successful businesses are highly _______ to economic change.
A. adaptable B. adaptability C. adaptation D. adapt
Question 11: Do you know the boy __________ the windows last night?
A. broke B. broken C. breaking D. who breaks
Question 12: _______, they will have a game of tennis.
A. Once the children had finished work B. As soon as the children finish work
C. Until the children will finish work D. As the children finished work
Question 13: Yesterday evening, my sister _______ badminton when it started raining.
A. plays B. was playing C. played D. has played
Question 14: At first he denied __________ the money but he later admitted to it.
A. stealing B. having stole C. to steal D. to stealing
Question 15: Without the results of the blood test, the doctor could only make a tentative _______.
A. guess B. estimation C. diagnosis D. forecast
Question 16: The kids _______ a lot of fun with that old tent.
A. had B. made C. took D. held
Question 17: More and more people came and the reading club was on a _______.
A. round B. race C. run D. roll
Question 18: When they die, plants _______ gases such as carbon dioxide and methane.
A. cut out B. give off C. cut off D. give out
Question 19: She burst into tears, _______ all her pent-up emotions.
A. discharging B. dismissing C. releasing D. emitting
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSET in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of
the following questions.
Question 20: She manages to stay cheerful despite everything.
A. pessimistic B. gloomy C. positive D. nervous
Question 21: The economy has declined sharply in recent years because of the pandemic.
A. decreased B. increased C. improved D. accelerated

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each
of the following questions.
Question 22: Thank you for your donation. It was very generous of you.
A. hospitable B. honest C. willing D. selfish
Question 23: I'd love to help but I've got my hands full organizing the school play.
A. been busy B. been responsible C. been free D. been occupied
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 24: Jenny has just bought a new dress that Jane likes very much.
- Jane: “What a beautiful dress!”
- Jenny: “_______”
A. I’m glad you like it. B. Here you are.
C. No, I don't think so. D. Oh, you don't like it, do you?
Question 25: Jennie and Laura are talking about the skills for teenagers.
- Jennie: “I believe that interpersonal communication skills can help us to get along well with everyone”
- Laura: “_______. They can also encourage interest and interaction from others in your team.”
A. I totally disagree with you B. You can’t say that again
C. I don’t quite sure about that D. You’re absolutely right
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word that best fits each of
the numbered blanks from 26 to 30
Six thousand couples decided not to let the coronavirus deter them from celebrating their happy
day. (26) _______ the health scare from the coronavirus in neighboring China, the multiple brides and grooms
attended a mass wedding ceremony in South Korea's Unification Church on Friday. The couples jetted in from
sixty countries around the world to attend their wedding. The newlyweds were joined by 24,000 guests; some
renewing their marriage vows and (27) _______ watching friends and family tie the knot. The church seemed well
prepared for such a large-scale event as staff handed out hand sanitizer and surgical masks to all (28) _______.
They also checked the temperature of the couples.
The Unification Church, founded in 1954 by self-declared messiah Sun Myung Moon, is famous for holding
mass weddings. The communal weddings started in 1961 and have seen hundreds of thousands of couples walk
down the aisle. In (29) _______ cases, the bride and groom had been matched and met for the first time at the
ceremony. One newlywed spoke about marrying amid the global spread of the coronavirus. He told the Reuters
news agency: “I'm very happy to attend this deeply blessed joint wedding. Since coronavirus is going around these
days, I wore a mask to be on the safe side.” By sharp (30) _______, a 23-year-old bride from Benin said: “I didn't
put on a mask because I wanted to be beautiful for my husband.”
(Adapted from breakingnewsenglish.com)
Question 26: A. Because B. However C. In spite of D. Although
Question 27: A. the other B. others C. other D. another
Question 28: A. attendees B. refugees C. employees D. referees
Question 29: A. every B. much C. many D. amount
Question 30: A. similarity B. equality C. variety D. contrast
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following
questions.
Question 31: According to the report in 2012, China overtakes the US as the richest country in the world with
an estimated network of US$ 120 trillion.
A. According to B. overtakes C. country D. estimated
Question 32: Since their establishment two years ago, the advice centre has seen over 500 people a week,
A. their B. advice C. has seen D. week
Question 33: The search method is exhausting, so it is ensured that all the necessary parameters will be visited
and checked for violations.
A. exhausting B. ensured C. parameters D. checked

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 34: It's against the law if you smoke in public places.
A. You mustn't smoke in public places.
B. You needn't smoke in public places.
C. You shouldn't smoke in public places.
D. You don’t have to smoke in public places.
Question 35: “Why don't you plant roses in the garden, John?” Mary said.
A. Mary warned John against planting roses in the garden.
B. Mary wondered why John hadn't planted roses in the garden.
C. Mary forced John to plant roses in the garden.
D. Mary suggested that John should plant roses in the garden.
Question 36: Anna last visited her hometown ten years ago.
A. Anna hasn't visited her hometown for ten years.
B. Anna has visited her hometown since she was ten.
C. Anna had ten years to visit her hometown.
D. Anna has visited her hometown for ten years.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following
questions.
Question 37: My sister didn't apply for the position in this company. She now regrets it.
A. My sister wishes that she applied for the position in this company.
B. My sister feels regret because she had applied for the position in this company.
C. If only my sister didn’t apply for the position in this company.
D. My sister wishes that she had applied for the position in this company.
Question 38: Her pupils may be gifted. They will not get used to coping with practical situations.
A. Gifted as they may be, her pupils will not get used to coping with practical situations.
B. Her pupils will get used to coping with practical situations although they may be gifted.
C. However gifted they may be, her pupils will get used to coping with practical situations.
D. Her pupils may be too gifted to get used to coping with practical situations.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, Cor D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions from 39 to 43.
It is hard to argue that the actual contribution to development amounts to a great deal directly. Whilst
volunteer tourists can get involved in building homes or schools, they have usually paid a significant fee for the
opportunity to be involved in this work: money that, if donated to a local community directly, could potentially
pay for a greater amount of labor than the individual volunteer could ever hope to provide. This is especially so in
the case of gap years, in which the level of technical skill or professional experience required of volunteers
is negligible. Hence, it is unsurprising that many academic studies allude to the moral issue of whether gap year
volunteering is principally motivated by altruism - a desire to benefit the society visited - or whether young people
aim to generate “cultural capital” which benefits them in their careers. However, the projects may play a role in
developing people who will, in the course of their careers and lives, act ethically in favor of those less well-off.
Volunteering may lead to greater international understanding; enhanced ability to solve conflicts; widespread
and democratic participation in global affairs through global civic society organizations; and growth of
international social networks among ordinary people. In this scenario, the whole is greater than the sum of its
parts, an outcome where benefits accrue to volunteers and host communities, and contribute to the global greater
good. However, if volunteering is largely limited to individuals of means from wealthier areas of the world, it may
give these privileged volunteers an international perspective, and a career boost, but it will do little for people and
communities who currently lack access to international voluntary work. Those who volunteer will continue to reap
its benefits, using host organizations and host communities as a rung on the ladder of personal advancement.
(Adapted from Compact Advanced)
Question 39: Which best serves as the title of the passage?

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A. Voluntary work B. Volunteer tourism
C. Volunteer issues D. Voluntary potential
Question 40: What is money paid by tourists probably used to do?
A. build homes and schools B. pay for the volunteer
C. to pay for the labor D. do the charity
Question 41: The word “negligible” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______?
A. important B. significant C. vast D. unimportant
Question 42: Which of the following is NOT the benefit volunteer tourism bring about?
A. Greater international understanding
B. Enhanced ability to solve conflicts
C. Reduction violence affairs
D. Growth of international social networks among ordinary people
Question 43: The phrase “a rung on the ladder” in paragraph 2 refers to _______?
A. a stage B. a match C. a play D. an advantage
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions from 44 to 50.
Being bullied in school is not “part of growing up” or just a “rite of passage.” Some children who endure
bullying never get over the fear and the humiliation, according to Mr. Barone. By working together, schools and
parents can make going to school an experience that students will enjoy, not dread.
Students who are the victims of bullies and school officials who hold the power to stop them have very
different perceptions of the problem. This difference has hindered effective prevention efforts. Bullying is a
situation when a student or group of students is mean to you over a long period of time (weeks or even months).
Bullying can either be physical (hitting, kicking, and so on) or it can be verbal (threats, name calling, gossiping, or
ignoring). Using this definition, the school staff member were asked to estimate the percentage of the students in
their schools who had been victimized by bullying. On average, the staff member believed that 16% of the students
had been victims of bullies. The students in the same schools were asked whether they had ever been bothered by a
bully or bullies while you were in middle school. And 58.8 % of the students surveyed said that they had. The size
of the difference in perceptions between students and school staff members suggests that the staff members do not
recognize the extent of the bullying that students face. Bullying just does not seem to be “that big a problem” to
the staff.
The same survey uncovered some interesting facts. Contrary to what many of us believe, bullying in school
does not primarily involve boys. Popular portrayals, such as The Lord of the Flies and the Lords of
Discipline, which depict only boys as both the bullies and the victims, do not reflect reality. As shown in this
study, only 47% of the victims of bullying in middle school are boys. Thus, according to the students’ own
perceptions, the majority (53%) of the victims of bullies are girls. Not surprisingly, the bullying that takes place
among boys tends to be more physical (punching, kicking, pushing, and so on) than that which takes place among
girls (which is usually more verbal in nature). Among the students who said that the bullying they had experienced
was mostly physical, 89.3% were boys. Among those students who said that the bullying they experienced was
mostly verbal, 67.1% were girls).
Among all students surveyed, 10% indicated that they had been physically injured by a bullying in school.
Furthermore, the nature of the injuries ranged from minor bumps and bruises to some injuries that required
hospitalization. Of those students who said they had been injured by a bully, 76.5% were boys.
(Adapted from Reading Academic English)
Question 44: Which of the following best serves as the title of the passage?
A. A study of gender differences in schools
B. A study of bullying in schools
C. A study of bullying consequences
D. A study of how victims are bullied in school
Question 45: The phrase “rite of passage” is closest in meaning to _______?

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A. Important occasion B. Important part
C. Important message D. Important period
Question 46: According to paragraph 2, who can prevent the state of bullying in schools?
A. Students B. School staffs C. Parents D. School officials
Question 47: The word “estimate” paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______?
A. count B. number C. calculate D. understand
Question 48: The word “that” in paragraph 3 refers to ______?
A. the study B. the bullying
C. the victim D. the middle school
Question 49: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. Only boys are bullied in school.
B. The number of the girls who are bullied is bigger than that of the boys.
C. The boys are often punched, pushed and kicked.
D. More girls experienced verbal bullying than boys.
Question 50: What can be the writer’s purpose in the passage?
A. To warn schools members of serious bullying in schools.
B. To show the real state of bullying in schools.
C. To predict that bullying is more and more developing in schools.
D. To advise school members to pay attention to the bullying in schools.
-----THE END-----

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