NEET

SAMPLE PAPER

Max. Marks: 180 Duration: 3 Hrs

This paper consists of Chemistry, Physics and Biology

Chemistry
• Multiple Choice Questions with one correct answer Question No. 1 to 45. A correct answer
carries 1 Mark. A wrong answer carries a penalty of 0.25 marks.
Physics
• Multiple Choice Questions with one correct answer Question No. 46 to 90. A correct answer
carries 1 Mark. A wrong answer carries a penalty of 0.25 marks.
Biology
• Multiple Choice Questions with one correct answer Question No. 91 to 180. A correct answer
carries 1 Mark. A wrong answer carries a penalty of 0.25 marks.

Useful Data
At. Wt.:
N = 14; O = 16; H = 1; S = 32; Cl = 35.5; Mn = 55; Na = 23; C = 12; Ag = 108; K = 39; Fe = 56; Pb = 207
Physical constants:
h = 6.626 10−34 J.sec , Na = 6.022 1023 mol-1 , C = 2.998 108 ms-1 , me = 9.110−31 kg

Chemistry
1. The second ionization potentials in electron volts of oxygen and fluorine atoms are respectively
given by
(a) 35.1, 38.3 (b) 38.3, 38.3 (c) 38.3, 35.1 (d) 35.1, 35.1
2. If the pressure of a gas contained in a closed vessel is increased by 0.4% and the temperature
increased by 1K then the initial temperature must be

(a) 250 K (b) 250C (c) 25K (d) 25C

3. Among the following which is polar

(a) CO2 (b) SO2

(c) BeCl2 (d) Cl Cl

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4. The number of moles of CaCl2 needed to react with excess of AgNO3 to produce 4.31 gm of AgCl

(a) 0.03 (b) 0.015 (c) 0.045 (d) 0.06

5. The frequency of radiation emitted when the electron falls from n = 4 to n = 1 in a hydrogen atom

will be (given IP of H = 2.18 10−18 J atom−1 and h = 6.625 10−25 JS )

(a) 1.03 103 S −1 (b) 3.08 1015 S −1 (c) 2 1015 S −1 (d) 1.54 1015 S −1

6. A metal M readily forms water soluble sulphate MSO4 , Water insoluble hydroxide M (OH )2 and

oxide MO , which becomes inert on heating. The hydroxide is soluble in NaOH . The metal is
(a) Be (b) Mg (c) Ca (d) Sr
7. Which of the following is colourless?
+2 −1 +2
(a) Cu ( H2O)4  (b) Cu ( CN )2  (c) Cu ( NH3 )4  (d) CuCl4 
−2

8. Which of the following dissolves in H2 SO4 to give oleum?

(a) H2 S (b) S 2 O (c) SO2 (d) SO3

9. Chlorine water oxidises sodium thiosulphate to

(a) Na2 SO4 and Na 2 S (b) Na2 S2O5 (c) Na2 SO4 and S (d) Na2 S4O6

10. Which of the following is not a protonic and?

(a) B (OH )3 (b) PO ( OH )3 (c) SO (OH )2 (d) SO2 ( OH )2

11. Equivalent amounts of H 2 and I 2 are heated in a closed vessel till equilibrium is obtained. If 80%

of the H 2 can be converted to HI , the K c at this temperature is

(a) 64 (b) 16 (c) 0.25 (d) 4

12. At 300K 36 g of glucose present in a litre of its solution has an osmotic pressure of 4.98 bar. If the
osmotic pressure of the solution is 1.52 bar at the same temperature, what would be its
concentration?
(a) 0.061M (b) 0.61M (c) 0.0061M (d) 6.1M

13. Calculate the amount of work done by two moles of an ideal gas at 298 K in reversible isothermal

expansion from 10 litre to 20 litre log 2 = 0.3010

(a) -3435 J (b) −343.5 J (c) -34.35 J (d) -3.435 J

14. The emf of the cell reaction, Zn( S ) + Cu(+aq2 ) → Zn(+aq2 ) + Cu( S ) is 1.1 V. Calculate free energy change for

the reaction. If enthalpy of the reaction is −216.7 KJ mol −1 , Calculate the entropy change of the

reaction

(a) −1.476 JK −1mol −1 (b) −14.76 JK −1mol −1 (c) −1476 JK −1mol −1 (d) −147.6 JK −1mol −1

15. 26.8 gm of Na2 SO4 .nH2O contains 12.6 gm of water. The value of n is

(a) 1 (b) 10 (c) 6 (d) 7

16. How many moles of He are produced when one mole of 92 U 238 disintegrates into 82 Pb206 ?

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 (a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 8 (d) 1
17. Consider the reaction: A → B + C initial concentration of A is 1M. 20 min time is required for

completion of 20% reaction. If

d
dt
( )
 B = K  A , then half-life t 12 is (log5 = 0.6989 log 4 = 0.6020)
(a) 55.44 min (b) 50 min (c) 62.13 min (d) 76.3 min

18. What will be the pH of a solution formed by mixing 40cm3 of 0.1 M HCl with 10cm3 of 0.45 M

NaOH?
(a) 10 (b) 8 (c) 5 (d) 12
CH3
H CH3
19. The compound contains how many hyper conjugative hydrogen
H3C

H3C CH3

atoms
(a) 9 (b) 15 (c) 10 (d) 11

20. Arrange the following in the increasing order of stability

CH3
CH3
CH2 y= CH3 C CH3
x= H3 C z= H3 C CH

CH3
H3 C H3 C
(a) x  y  z (b) y  z  x (c) x  y  z (d) x = y = z

21. How many coulombs are required for the oxidation of 1 mole of H2O2 to O2 ?

(a) 9.65 104 (b) 93000 (c) 1.93105 (d) 19.3102

22. Number of stereo isomers of the given compound is
CH3 CH CH CH CH3

OH
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 6

→( X ) , R2 NH ⎯⎯⎯⎯ →(Y ) ; the major products (X) and (Y) are respectively
− −
23. RNH2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯
CHCl3 / OH
⎯ CHCl3 / OH
⎯

(a) RCN and RNC (b) RNC and R2 NCHO

(c) Both RNC (d) RNC and no reaction

24. Glucose reacts with acetic anhydride to form:
(a) Mono acetate (b) Tetra acetate (c) Penta acetate (d) Hexa acetate
25. Identify the final product [E]

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 CH3OH/HCl +
Br2/Fe (CH3CO)2O, AlCl3
C6H6 [A] [B] [C] i) Mg [D]
H3O
[E]
ii) D2O
OH D OCH3

(a) (b) (c) (d)

COCH3 COCH3 COCH3 COCH3

26. What happens when 2, 4, 6-trinitrochlorobenzene is just warmed with water?

(a) No reaction takes place (b) A hydrate is formed
(c) 2, 4-dinitrophenol is formed (d) Picric acid is formed
27. How many ethers will be formed when a mixture of C2 H5OH and CH3OH are treated with

con. H2 SO4 ?

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

28. In which of the following compounds, does the transition metal atoms have +3 oxidation number?
4−
(a)  Mn ( H2O)3 Cl3  (b) CrO5 (c) Fe (CO )5  (d) Fe (CN )6 

29. Maximum number of hydrogen bonds per H2O molecule is

(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 1

30. Solubility of salts in D2O is lower than in H2O because of

(a) greater density of D2O (b) higher boiling point of D2O

(c) lower dielectric constant of D2O (d) viscous nature of D2O

31. The alkali metal which forms only the monoxide is

(a) K (b) Rb (c) Na (d) Li
32. The oxidation number of H in sodium hydride is

(a) +1 (b) 0 (c) -1 (d) −
2
33. Inorganic benzene is
(a) B3 H3 N3 (b) BH3 NH3 (c) B3 H6 N3 (d) H3 B3 N6

34. The carbon atoms of graphite are

(a) sp 2 hybridised (b) sp 3 hybridised (c) sp hybridised (d) dsp2 hybridised

The IUPAC name of the compound,

OH
CH3 CH CH CH3
CH3
(a) 2-hydroxy-3-methyl butane (b) 3-methyl butanol
(c) 3-methyl-2-butanol (d) 2-methyl-3hydroxy butane

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35. 2-methyl but-2-ene is

CH3 CH3
(a) CH3 CH CH2CH3 (b) CH3 C CH CH3
CH3

(c) CH3 CH CH CH2

(d) CH3 CH CH CH3
CH3
CH3

36. A mixture of 2-bromopropane and bromoethane is heated with sodium metal in ether medium.
The alkane/s formed during the reaction is/are
(a) butane only (b) 2,3-methylbutane only
(c) 2,2-dimethylbutane only (d) all of these
37. Number of possible isomers (including stereoisomers) with molecular formula C4 H8 is

(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6

38. UV radiation from sun causes a reaction that produces ______ layer in atmosphere
(a) carbon monoxides (b) sulphur dioxide (c) fluorides (d) ozone
39. A molecule contains atoms A and B such that A occurs at the corners of the cube and Y at the face
centres. The formula of the molecule is
(a) AB3 (b) AB (c) AB2 (d) A2 B

40. How many unit cells are present in a cube shaped ideal crystal of NaCl of mass 1.0g?

(a) 5.14 1021 (b) 1.28 1021 (c) 1.711021 (d) 2.5 1021
41. 0.1435 m solution of a non-volatile, non-electrolyte solute has the freezing point 0.73 degrees lower
than that of benzene. What is the value of molal freezing point depression constant of benzene?

(a) 5.087 Km−1 (b) 40.0Km−1 (c) 0.52Km−1 (d) 1.86Km−1

42. A solution of 18g of non-volatile, non-electrolyte solute in 150g of water was found to have a

boiling point of 100.34C . If K b for water is 0.51K molal −1 , what is the molar mass of the solute?

(a) 180 (b) 60 (c) 100 (d) 342

43. Corrosion of iron can be prevented by coating the Iron surface by________ in galvanisation
process
(a) Zn (b) Pb (c) Ni (d) Sn
44. The electrochemical equivalent of a substance is the mass of the substance liberated on passing a
current of
(a) one coulomb (b) one faraday (c) one ampere (d) one volt

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 Physics
45. A certain body of mass M moves under the action of a conservative force with potential energy U

Kx
given by U = ( x → distance, a → amplitude)
x + a2
2

In this equation the units of K will be equal to that of:

(a) Power (b) Couple (c) joule-metre (d) All are true

46. The coordinates of a moving particle at any time t are given by x = ct 2 and y = bt 2 , the speed of the

particle at time t is given by:

(a) 2t ( c + b ) (b) (c 2
+ b2 ) (c) 2t (c 2
+ b2 ) (d) 2t (c 2
− b2 )

47. If the cable of a lift snaps while the lift is descending, then the weight as felt by the person inside
the lift is
(a) twice the actual weight (b) zero
(c) same as the actual weight (d) half of the actual weight
48. The masses m1 and m2 are initially at rest and at infinite distance apart. They start moving towards

one another under their mutual gravitational field. Their relative speed when they are at a
distance d apart is:

 2G ( m1 + m2 )   2G ( m1m2 )   2Gd 
(a) 2G ( m1 + m2 ) (b)   (c)   (d)  
 d   d   m1 + m2 
49. The height of mercury column in a simple barometer is h. As the tube is inclined with the vertical
at an angle  , the length of the mercury column along the length of the tube is l , then:

h cos
(a) l = h (b) l = (c) l = h cos  (d) l = ( h )
cos 
50. The load versus elongation graph for the same material is shown
in figure. The thinnest wire is represented by the line :
(a) OB (b) OA
(c) OD (d) OC

51. If the work done in blowing a bubble of volume V is W then the work done in blowing a soap
bubble of volume 2V will be:
3
(a) W (b) 2W (c) 2W (d) 4W
52. The ratio of radii of two spheres is 1:2 when they are dropped in a viscous liquid. The ratio of their
terminal speeds is:
(a) 1:1 (b) 2:1 (c) 1:2 (d) 1:4
53. A black body at a temperature T radiates at the rate of W watts. If the temperature of the body is
reduced to T / 3, it will radiate at the rate of (in watts)

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 W W W W
(a) (b) (c) (d)
81 243 27 9
54. A Carnot engine working between 300 K and 600 K has a work output of 800 J per cycle. The
amount of heat energy supplied to the engine from the source in each cycle is
(a) 800 J (b) 1600 J (c) 3200 J (d) 6400 J
55. The height of a waterfall is 84 metre. Assuming that the entire kinetic energy of falling water is
converted into heat, the rise in temperature of the water will be

( g = 9.8metre / sec , J = 4.2 joule/Cal)

2

(a) 0.196 C (b) 1.960 C (c) 0.96 C (d) 0.0196 C

56. Ten tuning forks are arranged in increasing order of frequency in such a way that any two nearest
tuning forks produce 4 beats per sec. the highest frequency is twice that of the lowest. Possible
highest and lowest frequencies (in Hz) are
(a) 80 and 40 (b) 100 and 50 (c) 44 and 22 (d) 72 and 36
57. A spherical mirror forms an image of the magnification 3. The object distance , if focal length of
mirror is 24 cm, may be
(a) 32 cm, 24 cm (b) 32 cm, 16 cm (c) 32 cm only (d) 16 m only
58. The maximum value of index of refraction of a material of a prism which allows the passage of
light through it when the refracting angle of the prism is A is:

 A  A  A  A
(a) 1 + sin 2   (b) 1 + cos2   (c) 1 + tan 2   (d) 1 + cot 2  
2 2 2 2
59. An achromatic combination is made with a lens of focal length ' f ' and dispersive power '  ' with

a lens having dispersive power of 2. The focal length of second will be
(a) 2 f (b) f / 2 (c) − f / 2 (d) −2 f

60. Two resistances R1 and R2 are made of different materials. The temperature coefficient of the

material of R1 is  and of the material of R2 is −  . The resistance of the series combination of R1

and R2 will not change with temperature, if R1 / R2 equals:

  + a2 +  2 
(a) (b) (c) (d)
  −  
61. A 100 W bulb working on 200 volts and a 200 W bulb working on 100 V have:
(a) Resistance in the ratio 4:1
(b) Maximum current ratings in the ratio 1:4
(c) Resistance in the ratio 2:1
(d) Maximum current ratings in the ratio 1:2

62. In the circuit shown here, what is the value of

the unknown resistance R . For which the

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 effective resistance of the circuit between points P and Q is also equal to R

(a) 3ohms (b) 39 ohms (c) 69 ohms (d) 10ohms

63. In an electronic circuit, a cell, a variable resistance R and Ammeter are connected in series. A
Voltmeter connected with the variable resistance to measure the voltage across the wire R and at
one instant the reading of Ammeter and Voltmeter are 0.3 A and 0.9 V respectively. At other
instant the values of Ammeter and Voltmeter are 0.25 A and 1.0 volt for other value of R. The
internal resistance of the cell will be:
(a) 3.4 (b) 4.3  (c) 2.00 (d) 4.6

64. A proton and an alpha particle have equal kinetic energies. When they enter a field of magnetic
induction B, moving at right angles to it, they describe circles. If rp and r be the radii of the

curvature respectively, then:

rp 1 rp 2 rp 1 rp 1
(a) = (b) = (c) = (d) =
r 1 r 1 r 2 r 4

65. In LCR circuit the capacitance is changed from C to 4C. For the same resonant frequency, the
inductance should be changed from L to
(a) 2L (b) L / 2 (c) L / 4 (d) 4L
66. In the L-C-R series circuit the voltmeter and ammeter
readings are:
(a) V = 100volt, I = 2amp (b) V = 100volt, I = 5amp

(c) V = 100V , I = 3amp (d) V = 100V , I = 1amp

o
67. Light of wavelength 4000 A is incident on a metal plate
whose work function is 2 eV. The maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons would
be
(a) 2.0 eV (b) 1.5 eV (c) 1.1 eV (d) 0.5 eV
68. The angular speed of the electron in the nth orbit of Bohr’s hydrogen atom is

(a) Inversely proportional to n (b) Inversely proportional to n

(c) Inversely proportional to n 2 (d) Inversely proportional to n 3
69. The half-life of radon is 4 days. 10 gram of radon after 16days will reduce to
(a) 2.5 gram (b) 0.625 gram (c) 1.625 gram (d) 0.25 gram
70. The mass M is attached to two springs according to the figure. If the
frictional force is absent the time period of horizontal oscillation of
the body will be:

3K K M M
(a) 2 (b) 2 (c) 2 (d) 2
M M 2K 3K

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71. A sinusoidal voltage of peak value 200 volt is a connected to a diode
and resistor R in the circuit shown so that half wave rectification
occurs. If the forward resistance of the diode is negligible compared
to R, the rms voltage across R is
100
(a) 200 V (b) 100 V (c) V (d) 283 V
2
72. What are the accelerations of ' A ' and ' B ' respectively. ( wedge is
fixed, string and pulley are ideal )

g g g g
(a) , (b) ,
3 6 6 3
g g
(c) , (d) 0, 0
2 2
73. A solid sphere, hollow sphere, solid cylinder, hollow cylinder and ring each of mass M and
radius R are simultaneously released at rest from top of incline and allowed to roll down the
incline. The angular acceleration is maximum for
(a) Solid sphere (b) Hollow cylinder
(c) Hollow sphere (d) Ring
74. In Young’s Double Slit Experiment, the slits are 0.5 mm apart and the interference is observed on a
screen at a distance of 100 cm from the slits. It is found that the ninth bright fringe is at a distance
of 7.5 mm from the second dark fringe from the centre of the fringe pattern. The wavelength of
light used is
5000 2500
(a) 5000 A (b) A (c) 2500 A (d) A
7 7
75. A photon has same wavelength as the de-Broglie wavelength of electrons. Given C=Speed of light
V=Speed of electron
Ee = Kinetic energy of electrons EPh = Kinetic energy of photon

Pe = Momentum of electron PPh = Momentum of photon

Which of the following is correct?

Ee 2C Ee V Pe 2C Ee V
(a) = (b) = (c) = (d) =
EPh V EPh 2C PPh V EPh C

76. The wavelength of characteristic X − ray K line emitted by a hydrogen like element is 0.32 A .

Calculate the wavelength of K  line emitted by the same element

(a) 0.72A (b) 0.37 A (c) 7.2 A (d) 0.27 A

77. A standing wave is formed in a string of length 150 cm and mass 1.5 kg tied at both ends. Tension
in the string is 36 N. There are 4 nodes on the string other than the ends. Calculate the natural
frequency of the wave?
(a) 20 Hz (b) 10 Hz (c) 30 Hz (d) 40 Hz

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78. A large hollow metallic sphere A (of radius R ) is positively charged to a potential of 100 V and a

small sphere B (of radius R )is also positively charged to a potential of 100 V. Now B is placed
5
inside A and they are connected by a wire. The final potential of A will be
(a) 200V (b) 150V (c) 120V (d) 100V

79. The radius of a planet is ' n ' times the radius of earth ( R ) . A satellite revolves around it in a circle

of radius 4nR with angular velocity . The acceleration due to gravity on that planet is

(a) R2 (b) 16R2 (c) 32n R 2 (d) 64n R 2

80. Figure shows a 2.0V potentiometer used for the determination

of internal resistance of a 1.5V cell. The balance point of the

cell in open circuit is 76.3 cm. When a resistor of 9.5 is used
in the external circuit of the cell, the balance point shifts to
64.8cm length of potentiometer wire. What is the internal

resistance of the cell?

(a) 1.7 (b) 1.5 (c) 1.2 (d) 1.1

81. The materials for the construction of electro magnets should have
(a) high initial permeability (b) low initial permeability
(c) large area of hysteresis loop (d) high coercivity
82. A cyclotron is operated at a frequency of 24MHz and has a Dee radius r = 60 cm . What is the

magnitude of the magnetic field ' B ' to accelerated deuterons? m = 3.34 10−27 kg

(a) 9.5T (b) 7.2T (c) 5.0T (d) 3.2T

83. C = 1F , L = 4H . At time t = 0 charge in the capacitor is 4C and

it is decreasing at the rate of 5 C/s

(a) Maximum charge in the capacitor can be 6C
(b) Maximum charge in the capacitor can be 3C
(c) No charge is on the capacitor
(d) None of the above
84. A uniform rod of mass ' M ' is hinged at its upper end A particle of mass ' m ' moving horizontally

M
strikes the rod at its midpoint elastically. If the particle comes to rest after collision then is
m
2 3 4 3
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 4 3 2
85. The length of an elastic string is ' a ' meter when the longitudinal tension is 4N and ' b ' meter when
the longitudinal tension is 5N. The length of the string in meter when the longitudinal tension is
9N is

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 1
(a) 5b − 4a (b) b − a (c) 2b − a (d) 4a − 3b
4
86. A sinusoidal voltage source V = V0 sin t is connected to a capacitor of

capacitance ' C ' as shown in the circuit. If i is conduction current and id is

displacement current in the circuit then [There in no material medium

between the plates]
3CV0 CV
(a) i = id (b) i  id (c) i  id (d) i = , id = 0
t t
+
6 C →5 B + e + v + Q . The maximum energy of the
87. The radionuclide 11 C decays according to 11 11

( )
6 C = 11.011434 u and
emitted positron in the process is 0.960 MeV. Given the mass values: m 11

( )
5 B = 11.009305 u. Calculate Q value.
m 11

(a) 0.961MeV (b) 961MeV (c) 0.961 eV (d) 0.001MeV

88. The capacitor is charged by closing the switch ' S '.

The switch is then opened and the capacitor is
allowed to discharge. t1 and t 2 be the time constant of

the circuit during the charging and discharging of the

capacitor R1 = R2 = R3 = R

t1
Ratio of =
t2

3 1 2 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2 1 3 3
89. A telescope has an objective of focal length 50 cm and an eyepiece of focal length 5 cm. The least
distance of distinct vision is 25 cm. The telescope is focused for distinct vision on a scale 200 cm
away from the objective. Calculate the distance between objective and eyepiece?
(a) 80.70cm (b) 70.80cm (c) 90.70cm (d) 70.90cm

Biology
90. Los of water by guttation occurs in plants through
(a) bark (b) cuticle (c) stomata (d) hydrathodes
91. Mohl’s half-leaf experiment proves that
(a) on organic substance is produced (b) CO2 is necessary for photosynthesis
(c) Chlorophyll is necessary (d) O2 is released during photosynthesis
92. The forest with thick canopy of tall trees with buttresses, epiphytes and lianas with high
biodiversity is typical of

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 (a) evergreen forests (b) scrub jungles
(c) deciduous forests (d) coniferous forests
93. Parthenocarpic development of fruit is brought about by
(a) NAA, 2-T (b) 2, 4, 5-T (c) 2, 4-D (d) NAA, 2, 4-D
94. Of the following statements, which one is true?
(a) DNA is single-stranded, RNA is double-stranded
(b) There is only one type of RNA, but there are many types of DNA
(c) DNA synthesizes RNA, but RNA generally cannot synthesize DNA.
(d) DNA bases are adenine, guanine, cytosine, uracil and RNA has adenine, guanine, cytosine
and thymine
95. Symbiotic nitrogen fixation is brought about by
(a) Nostoc, Anabaena (b) Bacillus dentrificans
(c) Rhizobium radicicola (d) Nitrosomonas
96. Chromosomes having sub-terminal centromeres are called
(a) acrocentric (b) polycentric (c) submetacentric (d) acentric
97. Chromosomes are lined up in the equatorial plane during
(a) metaphase (b) anaphase (c) telophase (d) interphase
98. The unwinding of DNA duplex is performed by an enzyme called
(a) lactase (b) gyrase (c) maltase (d) ligase
99. One of the following is not an example for prey-predator food chain.
(a) Seeds → Rodents → Snakes → Mongoose (b) Green plants → Deer → Tiger
(c) Grass → Grasshopper → Lizard → Hawk
(d) Mangroves → Shed leaves → Detritus → Shrimps → Small fishes → Large fishes
100. Hypanthodium is typically seen in
(a) Cocos (b) Ficus (c) Solanum (d) Hibiscus
101. The conical root of carrot is a
(a) Haustorial root (b) adventitious root (c) Tap root (d) fibrous root
102. Organisms (living things) where RNA is genetic material, are
(a)  174 (b) Amoeba

(c) Escherichia coli (d) Tobacco mosaic virus; rous sarcoma virus
103. Chromosomes which have definite roles in sex determination, are
(a) Lysosomes (b) allosomes (c) giant chromosomes (d) autosomes
104. Match the following
Column I Column II
A. Radial p. Cucurbitaceae
B. Collateral q. Dracaena
C. Bicollateral r. Root system

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 D. Concentric s. Dicot stem
t. Seed
(a) A = q, B = r, C = s, D = p (b) A = t, B = s, C = r, D = p
(c) A = r, B = s, C = p, D = q (d) A = t, B = p, C = s, D = t
105. A snake feeding on a rat is an example for
(a) primary consumer and primary carnivore
(b) tertiary consumer and secondary carnivore
(c) secondary consumer and primary carnivore
(d) primary consumer or herbivore
106. The phenomenon where the pollutants pass in higher concentration through the food chain and
accumulate into the maximum quantity in the final consumer is called
(a) bio-geochemical cycle (b) eutrophication
(c) biological degradation (d) biological magnification
107. The uptake of soil ions by the root system is by a process of
(a) diffusion (b) osmoses (c) imbibition (d) all of these
108. Ascending order of ecological units in the increasing order of complexity is
(a) species, population, community, ecosystem, biome, biosphere
(b) community, population, species, biosphere, ecosystem, biome
(c) biome, biosphere, ecosystem, community, population, species
(d) population, community, species, ecosystem, biosphere, biome
109. One of the following pairs is an example for hespiridum.
(a) banana and papaya (b) pineapple and guava
(c) orange and lemon (d) apple and grapes
110. Haploid plants can be produced by
(a) Pollen culture (b) cotyledon culture
(c) Embryo culture (d) meristem culture
111. In angiosperms, triple fusion results in the formation of
(a) secondary nucleus (b) polar nucleus
(c) primary endosperm nucleus (d) zygotic nucleus
112. Chargaff’s rule is applicable to
(a) single-stranded RNA (b) single-stranded DNA and RNA
(c) single-stranded DNA (d) double-stranded DNA
113. What will be the direction of net osomotic movement of water if solution ‘A’, enclosed in a
semipermeable membrane, having an osmotic potential of -30 bars and turgor pressure of 5 bars is
submerged in a solution B with an osmotic potential of -10 bars and 0 turgor pressure?
(a) B to A (b) Equal movement in both directions
(c) A to B (d) No movement

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114. The phase of cell cycle during which ‘DNA + polymerase’ is functionally active is
(a) S (b) G2 (c) G1 (d) M
115. Match the biochemical processes given under Column I with their respective cellular locations
given under Column II. From the answer choose the one which gives the correct combination of
alphabets.
Column I Column II
A. Krebs cycle 1. Stroma
B. Glycolysis 2. Grana
C. Calvin cycle 3. Mitochondrial matrix
4. Cytoplasm
(a) A = 4, B = 3, C = 2, (b) A = 3, B = 4, C = 1
(c) A = 3, B = 4, C = 2 (d) A = 4, B = 3, C = 1
116. An ascomycetes fungus is
(a) Agaricus (b) Pleurotes (c) Phytophthora (d) Yeast
117. ‘Phycology’ is the study of
(a) Lichens (b) Ficus (c) Fungi (d) algae
118. RQ of sprouting potato tubers will be
(a) 1 (b) <1 (c) >1 (d) 0
119. Chlorophyll molecules are green in colour because they
(a) transmit green light (b) transform green light
(c) reflect green light (d) absorb green light
120. The cohesive force existing between molecules of water is contribution to
(a) Plasmolysis (b) translocation
(c) Ascent of sap (d) osmosis
121. Balbiani rings are the structural features of
(a) allosomes (b) autosomes
(c) lampbrush chromosomes (d) polytene chromosomes
122. In ATP, the high energy bond is the one which links
(a) ribose with phosphate (b) phosphate to phosphate
(c) adenine with phosphate (d) adenine with ribose
123. A common feature shared by guard cells and mesophyll cells is
(a) presence of chloroplasts (b) dumb-bell shaped structure
(c) differentially thick cell wall (d) uniformly thin cell wall
124. A polysome is formed by
(a) a cluster of ribosomal subunits
(b) many mRNAs being attached to a ribosome
(c) a cluster of ribosomes

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 (d) many ribosomes attached to mRNA
125. Construction of a recombinant DNA involves
(a) Cleaving and rejoining DNA segments with ‘endonculease’ alone.
(b) Cleaving DNA segments with ‘endonuclease’ and rejoining them with ‘ligase’
(c) Cleaving DNA segments with ‘ligase’ and rejoining them with ‘endonuclease’
(d) Cleaving and rejoining DNA segment with ‘ligase’ alone

126. To promote the growth of lateral branches of a plant.

(a) Axillary buds are removed
(b) apical bud is removed
(c) Auxin is applied to the apical bud
(d) auxin is applied to the decapitated shoot tip
127. What do A, B, C and D represent in the following figure?
(a) A: carrier protein, B: symport, C: uniport, D: antiport
(b) A: carrier protein, B: uniport, C: antiport, D: symport
(c) A: carrier protein, B: antiport, C: symport, D: uniport
(d) A: carrier protein, B: uniport, C: symport, D: antiport

128. The book “Die naturlichen pflazenfamilien” was written by

(a) John Hutchinson (b) A Engler and AE Prantl
(c) Bentham and Hooker (d) Linnaeus
129. A phylogenetic system of classification depends upon
(a) floral characters (b) genetic characters
(c) evolutionary relations (d) both (b) and (c)
130. Which of the following is correct about heterospory?
(a) Sellaginella and Salvinia are heterosporous
(b) Heterosporous pteridophytes have macros (large) and micro (small) spores
(c) The development of zygote within female gametophyte is the precursor to the seed habit
(d) All of the above
131. In which of the following ecosystems, grazing food chain is the major conduit for energy flow?
(a) Terrestrial ecosystem (b) Aquatic ecosystem
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b)

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132. The purple cabbage leaves do not loose their colour in cold water but do so in the boiling water
because
(a) boiling water enters the cell easily (b) plasmalemma is killed in boiling water
(c) pigment is not soluble in cold water (d) cell wall is coagulated in boiling water
133. Identify the correct statement among the following?
(a) Secondary meristem helps in the healing of damaged plant tissue
(b) Because of marked climatic variation plants growing near sea shore do not have annual
growth ring
(c) Monocot cannot propagate vegetatively as they have scattered vascular bundles
(d) The age of the tree can be determined by the height
134. Why is the Krebs cycle called a cycle?
(a) Because the most important molecule, oxaloacetate, is circular
(b) Because while the rest of cellular respiration happens during the day, it takes place at night
(c) Because the first molecule in the pathway is also the last
(d) Because it takes place in the mitochondria, which are round
135. What is common between leech, centipede and earthworm
a. are hermaphrodite b. have no legs
c. have Malphighian tubules d. have ventral nerve cord.
(a) a & b (b) b & d (c) c & d (d) a & d
136. Except annelida and arthropoda metameric segmentation is found in :
(a) Mollusca (b) Cestoda (c) Coelenterata (d) Chordata
137. The strongest muscle of the body is found in :
(a) Finger (b) Wrist (c) Thigh (d) Jaws
138. Power of regeneration is minimum in :
(a) Epithelial tissue (b) Nervous tissue (c) Connective tissue (d) Skeletal tissue
139. Part of the alimentary canal of Pheretima lined internally by cuticle is :
(a) Stomach (b) Intestine (c) Pharynx (d) Gizzard
140. Setae help in locomotion in earthworm but not uniformly present in all segments. Select among
the following that represent setae
(a) 1st segment. (b) Last segment
(c) Clitellar segment (d) 20th - 22nd segment
141. If alive earthworm is picked with a needle on its outer surface without damaging its gut, the fluid
that comes out is :
(a) Slimy mucus (b) Excretory fluid (c) Coelomic fluid (d) Haemolymph
142. What happens if the secretion of parietal cells of gastric glands is blocked with an inhibitor?
(a) In the absence of HCl secretion, inactive pepsinogen is not converted into the active
enzyme pepsin.

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 (b) Enterokinase will not be released from the duodenal mucosa and so trysinogen is not
converted into trypsin
(c) Gastric juice will be deficient in chymosin
(d) Gastric juice will be deficient in pepsinogen
143. Anti-Haemorrhagic vitamin is :
(a) Vit - C (b) Vit – B (c) Vit – A (d) Vit – K
144. Heparin is produced by :
(a) Kidney cells (b) Blood cells (c) Bone narrow (d) Liver cells
145. The medulla has two respiratory nuclei or centres. Which centre inhibits the inspiratory centre
when deep expiration is required?
(a) Expiratory centre (b) Inspiratory centre
(c) Dorsal respiratory group (d) Basal nuclei
146. The carotid bodies and aortic bodies concerned with breathing are located :
(a) On the pulmonary artery (b) On the trachea
(c) On aortic arch and carotid arteries (d) In the medulla
147. The rate of breathing in hypothermia :
(a) Increases (b) decreases (c) No change (d) Fluctuates
148. ‘Lub’ and ‘dub’ are heart sounds, one of them is higher pitched and shorter.
(a) Lub (b) Dub (c) Murmur (d) none of these
149. In human heart, there is a small oval depression left of the opening of inferior vena cava in inter
auricular septum. It is called :
(a) Foramen magnum (b) Fossa rotundus
(c) Fossa ovalis (d) Foramen of Panizae
150. In certain pathological conditions or old age there is arterial inelasticity i.e., loss of elasticity. This
condition is called
(a) Meningitis (b) Osteoporosis (c) Arteriosclerosis (d) Atherosclerosis
151. In deserts heat death in camels in mainly due to :
(a) Scarcity of water (b) Fall in volume of blood
(c) Drinking lots of water in short time (d) Heat
152. The glomerular filtrate is normally in osmotic equilibrium with the plasma, hence the plasma is
said to be :
(a) Isotonic (b) Hypertonic (c) Hypotonic (d) Haemolytic
153. Which of the following is also called Duct of Bellini?
(a) Proximal tubule (b) collecting duct
(c) Distal tubule (d) Ascending limb of Henle’s loop
154. The parasympathetic nerves arise from :
(a) thoracico – lumbar nerves

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 (b) cervical nerves
(c) sacral nerves
(d) 3rd, 7th, 9th, and 10th cranial nerves and sacral spinal nerves
155. Arbor vitae controls :
(a) Voluntary action
(b) Involuntary actions as group movement of muscles.
(c) Involuntary actions like secretion of glands.
(d) none of these
156. The cranial nerve which brings about reflex of vomiting and swallowing is :
(a) X (b) VIII (c) VII (d) IV
157. Over secretion of glucocorticoid due to excess ACTH leads to :
(a) Grave’s disease (b) Conn’s syndrome
(c) Cushing’s syndrome (d) Simmond’s disease
158. Calcitonin has little effect on the adults although it is sometimes given by injection or nasal spray
in the treatment of _________
(a) Arthritis (b) Fracture (c) Osteoporosis (d) Dislocation
159. Parathormone influences calcium absorption in the small intestine by regulating the metabolism of
(a) Vitamin C (b) Vitamin D (c) Vitamin B6 (d) Enterogastrone
160. The motion sickness is caused due to excessive stimulation of :
(a) Vestibular apparatus (b) Semicircular canals
(c) Cochlea (d) Both a and b
161. The function of vagus nerve innervating the heart is to :
(a) Initiate the heart beat (b) Reduce the heart beat
(c) Accelerate the heart beat (d) Maintain constant heart beat
162. The direction of light striking the retina will be :
(a) Photoreceptor cells → bipolar neurons → ganglionic cells → sensory nerve
(b) Sensory nerve → bipolar neurons → ganglionic cells → Photoreceptor cells
(c) Sensory nerve → ganglionic cells → bipolar neurons → Photoreceptor cells
(d) Photoreceptor cells → ganglionic cells → bipolar neurons → Sensory nerve
163. The scrotum regulates the temperature of the testis through the action of the
(a) Gubernaculum (b) Cremaster muscle (c) Epididymis (d) Tunica albuginea
164. When mammary gland of male develop similar to that of female, then this condition is known as
(a) Gonochorism (b) Gynaecomastia (c) Feminism (d) Gynaecism
165. The branch of embryology which concerns with the study of abnormal embryonic development is
termed as
(a) Gerontology (b) Teratology (c) Embryology (d) none of these
166. Part of primitive gut is

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 (a) Yolk sac (b) Trophoblast (c) Inner cell mass (d) All of these
167. Assertion & Reasons
Assertion, A- As polyspermy is being slowly blocked the cortical granules explode and release
their contents into the perivetelline space.
Reason, R- Quick blocking of polyspermy sets in depolarisation of the egg plasmalemma and
mobilization of Ca2+ from stores within the egg.
In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R).
(a) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both Assertion & Reason are true, but the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) Assertion is true statement but reason is false
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

168. Match List I and List II and select the correct answer code
List I List II
A. Extinct (i) A Taxon is extinct when there is no reasonable
doubt that the last individual has died.
B. Endangered (ii) Facing a high risk of extinction in the wilds in the
medium term future
C. Vulnerable (iii) Facing a very high risk of extinction in the wilds
in near future
D. Rare (iv) Species with small population at risk

A B C D
(a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(b) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(c) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(d) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
169. Carcinogens present in tobacco smoke are
(a) Polonium 210 and polycyclic hydrocarbons
(b) Radioactive polonium-210 and some seven polycyclic hydrocarbons
(c) Polonium-210 and heterocyclic hydrocarbon
(d) Uranium and hydrocarbons.
170. Industrial Toxicology Research Institute is situated in
(a) Calcutta (b) Bombay (c) Lucknow (d) Hyderabad
171. Man-made radioactive element Sr90 accumulates in the body through
(a) Air (b) Food web
(c) Water (d) Contaminated soil

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172. Addiction of LSD leads to
(a) Hallucination (b) Damage to kidneys
(c) Mental and emotional disturbance (d) Damage to lungs
173. Headquarter of World Health Organisation is located at
(a) New York (b) Geneva (c) London (d) Paris
174. Match the Column I and Column II and select the correct answer code
Column I Column II
(Psychological Disorders) (Symptoms)
A. Mood disorders 1. Distorted thought
B. Schizophrenia 2. Depression
C. Borderline personality 3. Sweating, nausea, diarrhoea, trembling etc.
disorder
D. Anxiety disorder 4. Quarrelsome behaviour
A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 2 1 3 4
175. Match column I and column II and choose the correct combination.
Column I Column II
(Disease) (Causal agent)
A. AIDS (p) Yersinia pestis
B. Syphilis (q) Hepatitis-B virus
C. Viral jaundice (r) Treponema pallidum
D. STD (s) Neisseria gonorrhoea
(t) HIV
(a) A = (t), B = (r), C = (q), D = (s) (b) A = (t), B = (q), C = (r), D = (s)
(c) A = (p), B = (t), C = (q), D = (s) (d) A = (t), B = (q), C = (p), D = (s)
176. Genetic traits are often carried on separate chromosomes. Which of the following genotype
represents a dihybrid organism
(a) TTRR (b) TrRr (c) ttrr (d) ttRr
177. In an experiment, AaBb (F1) was test crossed with aabb. In the progeny, genotypes, AaBa, aaBb,
were more frequent than that AaBb and aabb. The genotypes of the parents of F1 should be.
(a) AABB and aabb (b) AAbb and aaBB
(c) AAbb and AABB (d) AABB and aaBB
178. The neurons present in dorsal root ganglion of spinal nerves is
(a) Unipolar (b) Pseudo unipolar (c) Bipolar (d) Multipolar

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179. A lady sues a man for support of her child she has blood group B, her child is of blood group O
and that of man is B. Could the man be the father?
(a) Yes, but chances are 1/4% (b) Yes, but chances are 1/8%
(c) Yes, but chances are 1/16% (d) Yes, but chances are 1/2%

Chemistry:
Answer Key:
1. c 2. a 3. b 4. b 5. b 6. a 7. b 8. d 9. c 10. a
11. a 12. a 13. a 14. b 15. d 16. c 17. c 18. d 19. c 20. b
21. c 22. b 23. b 24. c 25. c 26. d 27. c 28. a 29. b 30. c
31. d 32. c 33. c 34. a 35. c 36. d 37. d 38. d 39. d 40. a
41. d 42. a 43. a 44. a 45. a

Physics:
Answer Key:
46. c 47. c 48. d 49. b 50. b 51. b 52. d 53. d 54. a 55. b
56. a 57. d 58. d 59. d 60. d 61. d 62. b 63. c 64. c 65. a
66. c 67. a 68. c 69. d 70. b 71. d 72. b 73. d 74. a 75. a
76. b 77. d 78. b 79. c 80. d 81. a 82. a 83. d 84. a 85. b
86. a 87. a 88. a 89. c 90. b

Biology:
Answer Key:
91. d 92. b 93. a 94. d 95. c 96. c 97. c 98. a 99. b 100. d
101. b 102. c 103. d 104. b 105. c 106. c 107. d 108. d 109. a 110. c
111. a 112. c 113. d 114. a 115. a 116. b 117. d 118. d 119. a 120. c
121. c 122. d 123. b 124. a 125. d 126. b 127. b 128. b 129. b 130. d
131. d 132. b 133. b 134. d 135. c 136. d 137. d 138. c 139. b 140. d
141. d 142. c 143. a 144. b 145. d 146. a 147. c 148. b 149. b 150. c
151. c 152. b 153. a 154. b 155. d 156. b 157. a 158. c 159. c 160. b
161. d 162. b 163. a 164. b 165. b 166. b 167. a 168. a 169. b 170. b
171. c 172. b 173. a 174. b 175. a 176. a 177. b 178. b 179. b 180. a

www.vedantu.com 21
 Chemistry
Solutions:
1. After removal of 2nd electron from 2P , fluorine will get half-filled configuration but for oxygen
half-filled configuration has to be disturbed.
P1 P2
2. =
T1 T2

100 100.4
=
T1 T1 + 1

100T1 +100 = 100.4T1

T1 (100.4 −100) = 100

0.4T1 = 100

1000
T1 = = 250 K
4
3. SO2 is a bent molecule has net dipole moment

4. → 2 AgCl + Ca ( NO3 )2
CaCl2 + 2 AgNO3 ⎯⎯

4.31
moles of AgCl =
143.5
4.31 1
 mole of CaCl2 =  = 0.015
143.5 2

5. E1 = −2.18 10−18 J atom−1

2.18 10−18
E4 = − = −0.136 10−18 J atom−1
16

Energy released = ( 2.18 − 0.136)10

−18
J atom−1

= 2.04 10−18 J atom−1

Now E = hv

E
v=
h

2.04 10−18
= = 3.08 1015 S −1
6.625 10−34
6. Other oxides are not inert on heating

Cu is Cu ( I ) in Cu ( CN )2 and has 3d10 configuration, All others have Cu ( II ) and 3d 9 configuration.

−
7.

8. H2 SO4 + SO3 → H2 S2O7 (Oleum)

9. Na2 S2O3 + Cl2 + H2O ⎯⎯

→ Na2 SO4 + 2HCl + S

10. B (OH )3 + H2O → B (OH )4 + H +

−

H2 + I2 2HI
11.
(g) (g) (g)

t=0 1 1 0

teq 1 − 0.8 1 − 0.8 2  0.8

V V V
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 2
 1.6 
 
KC =   = 64
V
0.2 0.2

V V
12.  = CRT

We know that 1 = C1 RT1 and  2 = C2 RT2 (T1 = T2 )

n
C= (no. of moles per litre)
V
V = 1lit

1 2
 =
C1 C2

2 1.52  36
C2 = C1 = = 0.061M
1 4.98 180

V2
13. W = −2.303 nRT log
V1

20
W = −2.303  2  8.314  298log = −2.303 2  8.314  298 0.3
10
W = −3435J
14. −Go = nFE o
= 2  96500 1.1
= 212.3KJ

Go = −212.3KJ mol −1

Go = H o − T S o
H o − Go
S o =
T
−216.7 − ( −212.3)
=
298
= −0.01476 KJ K −1mol −1

−14.76 JK −1 mol −1

15. Na2 SO4 .nH2O

molar mass = (142 + 18n )

12.6
mass of water =  (142 + 18n )
26.8
12.6
18n =  (142 + 18n )
26.8
n=7

16. Radioactive change is 92 U 238 ⎯⎯

→82 Pb206

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 Decrease in mass = ( 238 − 206) = 32

Let the number of  − particles emitted be x

4x = 32
x =8
2.303 100
17. K = log
20 100 − 20
2.303 100
= log
20 80
2.303
= ( log5 − log 4)
20
2.303 2.303
= ( 0.6989 − 0.602) = ( 0.097)
20 20
1 0.693  20
t = = 62.13min
2 2.303  0.097
MV 0.1 40
18. Number of moles of HCl = = = 0.004
1000 1000
MV 0.45 10
Number of moles of NaOH = = = 0.0045
1000 1000
Remaining moles of NaOH after neutralization = 0.0005
0.0005
Molarity of OH − = 1000 = 0.01M
50

 POH = 2 PH = 12
19. 10 −  − Hydrogen atoms are present
20. 1  2  3 is stability order of Carbon ions

21. H2O2 → O2 + 2H + + 2e−

1 mole H2O2 = 2 moles c

= 2  96500C = 193000C = 1.93 105 C

22. Compound has one chiral centre and one double bond. Hence, Stereo isomers are four.
23. Carbylamine test is given by 1o amines only
Whereas 2o amines reacts as follows

24. CHO CHO

(CHOH) 4 Ac2O
(CHOAc) 4

CH2OH CH2OAc
glucose penta acetate
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25. Br Br Br D D

COCH3 C(OCH3)2CH3 C(OCH3)2CH3 COCH3

[A] [B] [C] [D] [E]

26. Cl OH
O2 N NO 2 O2 N NO 2

+H2O warm

NO 2 NO 2

27. CH3OCH3 ,CH3OCH2CH3 ,C2 H5OC2 H5

28. Oxidation number of Cr in the given compound is +6 for Fe is 0 in Fe (CO)5 and Fe is in +2 in

ferrocyanide complex, Mn in the given compound is +3.

29. Due to two lone pairs of oxygen atom and 2 hydrogen atoms.
30. D2O has lower dielectric constant (78.06) than H2O (78.39) thus solubility of salts is less in D2O

than in H2O .

31. Lithium forms monoxide only.

32. +1 + x = 0; x = −1

33. B3N3H6

34. Graphite has a layered structure in which each carbon atom is bonded to three other carbon atoms
through sigma bonds by means of sp 2 hybrid orbitals.

35. Parent chain should be numbered from the end nearer to OH group.
36. Longest chain is one containing the multiple bond.
37. The reaction represents Wurtz reaction which follows free radical path. 2 moles of Bromoethane
give butane. 2 moles of 2-Bromopropane give 2, 3 – dimethyl butane. 1 mole Bromoethane & 1
mole 2 – Bromopropane give 2 – methylbutane.
38. Molecular formula is C4 H8 . The degree of unsaturation = 1.

Hydrocarbons with molecular formula C4 H8 represent alkenes and cycloalkanes.

a
b c d e f

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 Number of possible isomers with molecular formula C4 H8 = 6 .

39. O2 → O + O; O2 + (O) O3

40. Number of corner atoms = (1/ 8)  8 = 1atom of A

Number of face cantered atoms = (1/ 6)  6 = 3 atoms of B

Thus, the formula of the compound = AB3

41. MW of NaCl = 58.5, 1g contains = (1/58.5) 6.0231023 NaCl molecules = 11022

But 4 NaCl molecules form one unit cell. Number of unit cells in 1g = 1/ 4 1022 = 2.5 1021
Tf 0.73
42. Tf = K f .m  K f = = = 5.087Kmolal −1
m 0.1435
100.Kb .W2 1000  0.5118
43. Molecular mass of solute = = = 180
W1.T 150  0.34

44. Zn prevents rusting of Iron in galvanisation.

45. One coulomb of electricity will deposit the mass called electrochemical equivalent.

Physics
Solutions:

46. k =
(
U x2 + a2 ) = Joule − m2 = Joule − metre
x m
 dx   dy 
47. V =   iˆ +   ˆj
 dt   dt 

V = 2ct iˆ + 2btjˆ

48. The apparent weight of a person in a moving lift is given is by W = m ( g − a ) = 0

49. M1V1 + M 2V2 = D (LCM )

 M1V1 = −M2V2 (LCM )

−GM1M 2 1 1
 + M1V12 = M 2V12 = D ( LCE)
d 2 2

P12 P2 GM1M 2
+ 1 =
2M1 2M 2 d

2G ( M1M 2 )
2
P1 = P2 =
d ( M1 + M 2 )

VRV = V1 − V2

= V1 + V2

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 1  2G ( M1M 2 )
2
 1
= + 
 M1 M 2  d ( M1 + M 2 )
50. P = hpg

P = (l cos ) pg

h
 h = r cos   r =
cos 
51. As the thickness is less, elongation is more.
Fl
l =
Ay

52. W = T  4 r 2
1
Here r1 = 2 3 r
2 1
W 1  r1 
=   = 23
W  r 

1
W 1 = ( 4) 3 W

4  
53. 6 yRVt =  R2 Pg 1 − 
3  P

2 ( P − ) 2
 Vt = gR
9 4

 Vt  R2

54. W =  AT 4
4
 T1 
W =W  
1
T 
 
4
1 W
= W .  =
3 81

W T1 − T2
55. =
Q T1

800 300
=
Q 600
Q = 1600 J

56. mgh = 4200J / cos ( mst )

gh 9.8  84
t = =
5  4200 1 4200
= 0.196C

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57. n1 = n + 0 ( 4)

n10 = n + 9 ( 4)

n10 = 2n1

−v v
58. m = ( or )
u u
v = −3u ( or ) v = 3u

1 1 1
+ =
v u f

 u = 32cm ( or ) 16cm

1
59. = for refracted ray through the prism A = 2c
sin c

1 A
 = = 1 + cos2
 A 2
sin  
2
w1 w2
60. + =0
f1 f 2

−w2 f1
f2 =
w1

f2 = −2 f

61. R11 + R21 = R1 + R2

R1 (1+  t ) + R2 (1 − t ) = R1 + R2

R1  t = R2 t

R1 
=
R2 

62. P1 = 100W , V1 = 200V

P2 = 200W , V2 = 100V

V 2 200  200
R1 = 1 = = 400
P1 100

V 2 100 100
R1 = 2 = = 50
P2 200

P1 = i12 R1

P2 = i22 R2
2
 i  P  R 1
  1  =  1  2 =
 R2   P2  R1 16

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 (3 + R ) 10
63. R = 3+
13 + R

13R + R2 = 39 + 3R + 30 + 10R

R = 69
64.  = i1 ( R1 + r ) = 0

 − i2 ( R2 + r ) = 0

V  V 
 i1  1 + r  = i2  2 + r 
 i1   i2 

 0.9   1 
 0.3  + r  = 0.25  +r
 0.3   0.25 
r = 2

mV 2mE
65. r = =
Bq Bq

m
r
q

rP mP q
= 
r m qP

1 2 1
=  =
4 1 1
1
66. w = = constant
LC
L2C2 = 49

49 C 1
L2 = = L =
C2 4c 4

E0
67. i =
Rv + ( X L − X C )
2

E 100
i= 0 = = 2A
R 50
V = iR = 100V
68. b8 = + KEMax
12400
KEmax = = −2
4000
= 3.1− 2 = 1.1ev
 1 1
69. = . Further,   , r  n2 ;     3 
r n n 
16 1
70. Number of half-lives, n = = 4, m = m0 n .
4 2

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 m = 0.625g .

71. Keff = K + 2K = 3K

m
T = 2
3K

RT =  I 2 Rdt +  I 2 Rdt
T 2 T
72. Let us find the rms value of rectified current, I rms
2
0 T 2

Since only half wave is rectified,

  I 2 Rdt = 0
T

T 2

RT = 
T 2
 I rms
2
I 2 Rdt
0

RT = 
T 2
or I rms
2
I 02 sin2 t Rdt
0

I 02 R T I
or I rms
2
RT =  or I rms = 0
2 2 2
E0 200
Similarly, Erms = = V = 100V
2 2
mg
73. For A T = = 2 ma
2
For B mg − 2T = ma

Solving a = 0

 
 

74. The angular acceleration of the body  =  
g sin
  K2  
 R 1 + 2  
  R 

Radius of gyration of solid sphere is less compare to remaining objects given, therefore angular

acceleration is maximum for solid sphere.

9 D
75. Y9 = Position of 9th bright fringe =
d

 1  D 3 D
Y2 = Position of 2nd dark fringe =  2 −  =
 2 d 2 d

Y9 − Y2 = 7.5mm

 = 5000 A0
76. Ph = e

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 h h
=
PPh Pe

EPh 2Ee
=
C V
EPh 2C
=
Ee V

1  1 1 
77. = Z 2R 2 − 2 
  n1 n2 
1 1 1
For K line = Z 2R 2 − 2 
 1 2 

1 1 1
For K  line = Z 2R 2 − 2 
 1 3 

 27
=
 32

27 27
 =  =  0.32 = 0.27 A0
32 32

P T 5 36
78. n = = = 5  2 = 10Hz
2l m 2 1.5 1
1.5
m= = 1kgm−1
1.5
m → linear density

1 q
79. The change on sphere A and B are V =
4 0 r

 qA = ( 4 0 R )V

 R
qB =  4 0 V
 5
When they are connected by conducting wire, the entire charge will
6R
flow to outer sphere, so that their potentials become equal. Thus q = qA + qB = ( 4 0 ) V
5

( 4 0 ) 
6RV 

Final potential of A now V =
1 q
1
=  5  = 6V = 600 = 120V
4 0 r 4 0 R 5 5

GMm
80. mR 2 =
R2
GM = R3 2
r 3 2
g=
R2

( 4nR)  2
3

g1 =
n2 R 2

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 g1 = 64nR 2

 76.3 
81. r = 9.5  − 1  1.7
 64.8 
82. High initial permeability

83. f = 24 106 Hz R = 0.6m

mV
B= V =  R = 2 fR
qR

84. i = 5 A

qm2 q2 1 2
= + Li  qmax = 6c
2c 2c 2

V 
l Ml 2  l 
85. mV = I  =  
2 3 2
 
 
M 3
 =
m 4

86. 4 = K ( a − l0 ) …. (1)

5 = K (b − l0 ) …. (2)

9 = K (l − l0 ) …. (3)

Solving l = 5b − 4a

d dq dq
87. id =  0 = 0 = =i
dt dt 0 dt

88. Q = m 11
 6 ( ) ( )
C − m 11  c2 (Note m has been doubled)
6 B − 2me 
 e

Using given masses, Q = 0.961MeV .

Q = Ed + Ee + Ev

The daughter nucleus is too heavy compared to e + and v. so it carries negligible energy ( Ed  0) .

If the kinetic energy ( Ev ) carried by the neutrino is minimum (i.e., zero), the position carries

maximum energy, and this is practically all energy Q; hence maximum ( Ee  q).

89. When S is closed t1 = RC

3RC t1 2
When S is opened t2 =  =
2 t2 3

90. For objective u = 200 cm f0 = +50 cm

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1 1 1 200
− =  V0 = cm
V0 u f 3

For eye lens Ve = −25 cm fe = +5 cm

1 1 1 25
− =  Ve = − cm
−25 ue 5 6
200 25 425
L = V0 + Ve = + = = 70.80 cm
3 6 6

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