Question & Answer

Criminology Licensure Examination
December 2019
CRIMINAL JURISPRUDENCE
1. The branch of public substantive law which defines crimes treats of their nature and provides for their punishment.
(Criminal Law)
2. A generic term used to refer to a wrongdoing punished either under the RPC or under a Special law. (crime)
3. A crime punished under a special law. (Offense)
4. A minor infraction of law. (Misdemeanour)
5. It indicates the deficiency or perception; failure to pay proper attention and use of diligence in foreseeing the injury
or damage impending to be caused; usually involves lack of foresight. (Negligence)
6. It indicates a deficiency of action; failure to take the necessary precaution to avoid injury to person or damage to
property; usually involves lack of skill. (Imprudence)
7. A stage in the execution of a crime where the offender commences commission of a felony directly by over acts, and
does NOT perform all acts of the felony by reason of some cause or accident other his spontaneous desistance.
(Attempted)
8. A stage in the execution of crime where the offender performs all the acts of execution which would produce the
felony as a consequence but which nevertheless, do not produce it due to some cause independent of the will of the
perpetrator. (Frustrated)
9. A stage in the execution of a crime where all the elements necessary for its execution and accomplishment are
present. (Consummated)
10. Five (5) circumstances that affect criminal liability
 Justifying Circumstances
 Exempting Circumstances
 Mitigating Circumstances
 Aggravating Circumstances
 Alternative Circumstances
11. It is the cause, which in the natural and continuous sequence, unbroken by any efficient intervening cause, produces
injury, and without which the result would not have occurred. (Proximate Cause)
12. Error in Personae – ‘mistake in the identity of the victim’
13. Aberratio Ictus – ‘Mistake in the Blow’
14. Praeter Intentionem – ‘Injurious result is greater than that needed’
15. It is a physical activity or deed, indicating the intention to commit a particular crime, more than a mere planning or
preparation, which if carried to its complete termination following its natural course, without being frustrated by
external obstacles nor by voluntary desistance of the perpetrator, will logically and necessarily ripen into a concrete
offense. (Overt Act)
16. Classification of Felonies according to their gravity. (1. Grave Felonies, 2. Less Grave Felonies, 3. Light Felonies)
17. If a crime is punishable by an afflictive penalty. (Grave Felony)
18. If a crime is punishable by correctional penalty, a crime punishable by arresto mayor (Less Grave Felony)
19. A crime is punishable by arresto menor or a fine not exceeding 200 pesos or both. (Light Grave Felony)
20. Two (2) kinds of complex crime. (1. Compound Crime, 2. Complex Crime Proper)
21. A person who was within a period of ten years from the date of last release or last conviction of the crimes of (1)
serious or less serious injuries, (2) robbery, (3) theft, (4) estafa, or (5) falsification, was found guilty of any of said
crimes a third time or oftener. (Habitual Delinquent)
22. Use of a particular means to effect desired result. (Intent)
23. An act which would be an offense against person or property, were it not for inherent impossibility of its
accomplishment or on account of the employment of inadequate or ineffectual means. (Impossible crime)
24. The most important requisite for self defense. (Unlawful Aggression)
25. (5) Relatives that can be defended (1. Spouse, 2. Ascendants, 3. Descendants, 4. Brothers and Sisters (Legitimate,
natural or adopted), or relatives by affinity in the same degrees, 5. Relatives by consanguinity within 4 th civil
degree.)
26. It exists when a person, while of advanced age, has a mental development comparable to that of children between
two and seven years of age. (Imbecility)
27. It exists when there is complete deprivation of intelligence or freedom of the will. (Insanity)
28. An occurrence that happens outside the sway of our will, and although it comes about through some act of our will,
it lies beyond the bounds of humanly foreseeable consequences. (Accident)
29. Mental Capacity to understand the difference between right and wrong. (Discernment)
30. Those which if present in the commission of the crime, do not entirely free the actor from criminal liability but serve
only to reduce the penalty. (Mitigating Circumstances)
31. Those which, if attendant in the commission of the crime, serve to have the penalty imposed in its maximum period
provided by law for the offense or change the nature of the crime. (Aggravating Circumstances)
32. Those which must be taken into consideration as aggravating or mitigating according to the nature and effects of the
crime and other conditions attending its commission. (Alternative Circumstances)
33. It exists when two or more persons come to an agreement concerning the commission of a felony and decide to
commit it. (Conspiracy)
34. Two (2) concepts of conspiracy. (1. As crime by itself, 2. As a means of committing a crime)
One grave felony + two less grave felonies = Complex Crime

Two less grave felonies = Complex Crime
Two grave felonies = Complex Crime
35. Requirements of a crime

 Actus Reus
 Mens Rea
 Causation
 Concurrence of elements
 Prosecution must prove these four parts of crime in order to successfully convict the defendant
36. RA 11131- An act regulating the practice of criminology profession in the Philippines, and appropriating funds
therefor, repealing for the purpose Republic Act No. 6506, Otherwise known as “AN ACT CREATING THE
BOARD OF EXAMINERS FOR CRIMINOLOGIST IN THE PHILIPPINES” – This Act shall be known as “The
Philippine Criminology Profession Act of 2018”
37. The taking of a person into custody in order that he may be bound to answer for the commission of an offense.
(Arrest)
38. Method of arrest with a warrant- (1) When a warrant of arrest is issued by a judge, the warrant is delivered to the
proper law enforcement agency for execution.
(2) The head of office to which the warrant of arrest was delivered shall cause the warrant to be executed within 10
days from its receipt. (3) Within 10 days after the expiration of the period, the officer to whom it was assigned for
execution shall make a report to the judge who issued the warrant.
(4) In case of failure to execute the warrant, he shall state the reasons for its non-execution.
39. When in the presence of the arresting person, the person to be arrested has committed, is actually committing or is
attempting to commit an offense. (In flagrante delicto arrest)
40. When an offense has in fact been committed and the arresting person has probable cause to believe based on
personal knowledge of facts and circumstances that the person to be arrested has committed it. ( Doctrine of hot
pursuit)
41. It means actual belief or reasonable grounds of suspicion that the person to be arrested is probably guilty of the
offense based on actual facts. (Personal Knowledge)
42. Deliver to the judicial authorities within the period specified by law.
 Light penalties – 12 hours
 Correctional penalties – 18 hours
 Afflictive penalties – 36 hours
43. NATURE OF THE RIGHT TO BAIL- The right to bail is a constitutional right which flows from the presumption
of innocence in favor of every accused who should not be subjected to the loss of freedom.
44. FORMS OF BAIL- Corporate Surety/Bail Bond; Property bond; Cash deposit/ cash bond; Recognizance
45. Is a sworn written statement charging a person within offense, subscribed by the offended party, any peace officer or
other public officer charged with the enforcement of the law violated. (Complaint)
46. An accusation in writing charging a person with an offense subscribed by the prosecutor and filed with the court.
(Information)
47. An inquiry or proceeding for the purpose of determining whether there is sufficient ground to engender a well-
founded belief that a crime cognizable by the RTC has been committed and that the respondent id probably guilty
thereof, and should be held for trial. (Preliminary Investigation)
48. The process whereby the accused and the prosecutor in a Criminal case work out a mutually satisfactory disposition
of the case subject to court approval. It usually involves the defendant’s pleading guilty to a lesser offense or to only
one or some of the counts of a multi-count indictment return for a lighter sentence than that for the graver charge.
(Plea Bargaining)
49. Oral Testimony. (Subpoena Ad Testificandum)
50. Order of the court directing the person in charge or in possession of document to bring the said document to the
court. Example: The registrar of the registry of deeds is directed by the court to bring the land title of a parcel of land
which is the subject of the land dispute. (Subpoena Duces Tecum)
Exercise: Criminal Jurisprudence (Book1, Book2, Criminal Procedure, Criminal Evidence)

1. Impossible crime is punishable only:
a. When it is committed against person d. A and C
b. When it is committed against honor. e. A and B
c. When it is committed against property.
2. What is that felony which the law punishes with penalties which in their maximum
period are correctional?
a. Grave felony c. Less grave felony
b. Correctional felony d. Prision correccional
e. Light felony
3. A fine exceeding 200 is :

a. Light penalty c. Correctional penalty
b. Less grave penalty d. Grave penalty
e. None of the above
4. A criminal conspiracy exists when:

a. Two or more persons come to an agreement to commit a felony.
b. Two or more persons decide to commit a felony.
c. Two or more persons plan to commit a felony.
d. None of the above.
5. Self-defense requires as its permanent element:

a. Unlawful aggression
b. Lack of sufficient provocation of the persons defending himself.
c. Reasonable necessity of the means employed to prevent or repel it.
d. Defender must have no intention to commit a crime.
6. Crime committed under an impulse of an uncontrollable fear is:

a. Justifying circumstance c. Exempting circumstance
b. Mitigating circumstance d. Aggravating circumstance
7. An impulse of an uncontrollable fear is best exemplified by the principle:

a. Nullum crimen nulla poena sine lege.
b. Non nudis pactis traditionis ryrem dominia transferantor.
c. Qui tacit qon cinteri viditur
d. Actus mi envito factus non est meus actus
e. El que es causa de la causa es causa del mal causado
8. An act without an intent is a crime may be best described by the maxim:

a. Nullum crimen nulla poena sine lege.
b. Non nudis pactis traditionis ryrem dominia transferantor.
c. Qui tacit qon cinteri viditur.
d. Actus mi envito factus non est meus actus.
e. El ques es causa de la causa es causa del mal causado.
9. A child born out of wedlock but the parent subsequently had a valid marriage is
considered.
a. Incestuous c. Adulterous
b. Sacrilegious d. Legitimated
10. A natural child (proper) may be legitimated. Which requisite is NOT correct?
a. There must be subsequent marriage of the parents
b. Child must be acknowledge by the father
c. Child must be acknowledge by both parents before marriage
d. Child must be natural
11. A young widow remarries before the legal restriction is lifted, the penalty is.
a. Reclusion perpetua c. Arresto menor
b. Reclusion temporal d. Arresto mayor
12. Which is true about impotency?

a. A person who is impotent is sterile
b. Both sterile and impotency may exist at the same time
c. A sterile person is impotent
d. All of the above
13. Which of the following factor/s predisposes a person to mental disorder?

a. Excessive use of certain drugs c. Poor moral training and breeding
b. Impaired validity as birth trauma d. all of the three
14. Insanity may be a basis for the following, EXCEPT

a. Invalidation of a contract c. Voidance of a will
b. Annulment of marriage d. Paternity on a pregnancy
15. Law is?

a. Rule of conduct c. Principles, rules and enactment
b. Science of moral law d. all of the above
16. Principles governing applicability and effect of Law.

a. Ignorance of Law excuses no one from compliance therewith
b. No retroactive effect unless contrary is provided
c. Retroactive effect favourable to accused who is not habitual delinquent
d. All of the above
17. Which statement or principle is true?

a. Rights may always be waived c. Rules are repealed by subsequent ones
b. Customs are always contrary to law d. All of the above
18. Persons authorized to make a will:

a. Not expressly prohibited by law
b. 18 years old and above
c. Testator is of sound mind at the time of its execution
d. All of the above
19. Serious Physical Injury is present when

Victim was wounded, beaten, assaulted and when given injuries substances and
beverages
a. Incapacitated for more than 30 days
b. Needs medical assistance for more than 30 days
c. All of the above
d. None of the above
20. Which is NOT a requisite for simple seduction

a. Sexual intercourse was carried out
b. The sexual act was achieved by means of deceit
c. The woman is unmarried, over 12 years old but under 18 years
d. The woman is a virgin
21. A priest had sexual intercourse with a 16 years old virgin who went to church to
confess in spite of her resistance.
a. Rape c. Qualified Seduction
b. Ordinary qualified seduction d. Acts of Lasciviousness
22. When the crime of seduction be involved even though the woman victim is above 18
years
a. Simple seduction c. Incestuous, qualified seduction
b. Ordinary qualified seduction d. None of the Above
23. A confession is different from admission because the latter is.

a. Expressed acknowledgement of the truth of his guilt as to crime charged
b. Statement of fact which does directly involve an acknowledgement of guilt
c. Statement of guilt
d. All of the three
24. Standard medical textbooks are as a rule not admissible as evidence in court because.
a. The author cannot be presented as a witness to be subjected to cross the
examination
b. The evidence presented is not the personal knowledge of the witness
c. It might prolong the proceeding by the presentation of the adverse party against
the opinion of the author of the book
25. When is a circumstantial evidence sufficient to produce conviction?

a. When there is more than one circumstance
b. When the facts from which the inference are derived are proven
c. When a combination of all circumstances produce a conviction beyond reasonable
doubt
d. All of the above
26. Which statement is NOT valid with regards to hearsay evidence?

a. Its value rests mainly in the veracity and competency of other persons
b. Evidence proceeding from the personal knowledge of the witness
c. Does not derive its value solely from the credit of the witness
d. Evidence obtained from mere repetition of what one had heard from others and is
therefore weak
27. A resident physician in a hospital gave a lethal dose of poison to one of his
patients suffering from a very painful and incurable disease without the knowledge
and consent of the patient. The resident physician is liable for.
a. Homicide
b. Murder
c. Giving assistance to the commission of suicide
d. Physician not liable based on the principle that if a physician cannot cure the
condition of the patient, he must at least mitigate or alleviate his sufferings
28. Which of the following statements is not valid?

a. There is more incidence of suicide in the female than male
b. The incidence of suicide increases with age and are more in the elderly
c. Suicide rarely occurs during the pre-adolescent age
d. Most victims have experienced depression of long duration prior to dying
29. Apart from the crimes penalized in the Revised Penal Code, several other pieces of
criminal legislation have been passed, penalizing acts such as illegal possession and
trafficking of dangerous drugs, money laundering, and illegal possession of firearms,
These laws are called.
a. Act No. 3815 and its amendments
b. Penal Presidential Decrees, Issued Martial Law
c. Special Penal Laws
30. This is a person who directly commits the crime, or takes a direct part in the
execution of the crime.
Example: A gunman in a murder, the actual person who falsified election returns in an
election operation.
a. Principal by direct participating c. Principal by induction
b. Principal by cooperation d. Co-Principals
31. Acts of a person which are said to be in accordance with the law so that such person
is deemed not to have transgressed the law and is free from both criminal and civil
liability except for the state of necessity.
a. Justifying circumstances c. Exempting circumstances
b. Mitigating circumstances d. aggravating circumstances
32. Are those recognized as lies by the police organization, and they are situational
lies told what it is not possible to explain the truth.
a. Accepted lying c. all of these
b. Deviant lying d. tolerated lies
33. It means possession by a person of certain qualities of mind or morals,

distinguishing him from others.
a. Privies c. Character
b. Expert d. None of the above
34. Inference which the law makes so peremptory that it will not allow them to be
overturned by any contrary proof however strong.
a. Presumption c. Burden of Evidence
b. Burden of Proof d. Conclusive
35. A conclusion based from facts.

a. Presumption c. Conclusive Presumption
b. Burden of Evidence d. Presumption of Facts
36. A bar which precludes a person from denying or asserting anything to the contrary of
that which has been established as truth.
a. Estoppel c. Conclusive Presumption
b. Presumption of facts d. Estoppel by deed
37. A solemn and a formal declaration or assertion that the witness will tell truth.
a. Assurance c. Prayer
b. Affirmation d. Mumbaki
38. Res gestae means:

a. Interest c. Things done
b. Crime d. Evidence
39. It refers to the testimony of an expert witness or persons having knowledge not
usually acquired by other persons.
a. Direct Evidence c. Real Evidence
b. Expert Evidence d. Positive Evidence
40. What is the significance of evidence presented before the court?

a. Reliability c. Conformity
b. Relevancy d. Any of these
41. Ken is an employee of Dimalaya Corporation. As an employee thereof, he was able to

learn the safety vault combination. One Monday evening he went to their office to
steal the money placed in the safety vault. He found it empty. What crime is he
liable of?
a. Frustrated Theft c. Attempted Theft
b. Impossible Crime d. Attempted Robberry
42. Which of the following is not a source of Philippine Penal Laws?

a. Revised Penal Code c. Special Penal Laws
b. Penal Pres. Decrees d. Legislative Decrees
43. Criminal liability is partially extinguished by _______?

a. Conditional Pardon c. Parole
b. Amnesty d. All of the above
44. Andy was apprehended and arrested by SPO1 George for illegal parking. She was
detained at the police precinct, underwent investigation, and released only after 48
hrs. What crime was committed by SPO1 George?
a. Illegal Detention
b. Arbitrary detention
c. Illegal arrest
d. Delay in the delivery of detained persons to the proper judicial authorities
45. When is evidence presented in court for admissibility considered relevant to the
issue?
a. When it is not excluded by the rules
b. When it has a direct bearing and actual connection to the facts and issue
c. When it is not repugnant in taste
d. When it is not immoral
46. A treasury warrant was payable to A or his representative. B took possession of the
warrant wrote the name of A, endorsed it at the back and was able to en-cash it. B is
liable for-
a. Estafa c. Falsification
b. Forgery d. All of these
47. The unauthorized act of public officer who compels another person to change his
residence.
a. Violation of domicile c. Expulsion
b. Arbitrary detention d. Direct assault
48. Deliberate planning of act before execution.

a. Treachery c. Ignominy
b. Evident premeditation d. Cruelty
49. A question which arises in a case the resolution of which is the logical
antecedent of the issue involved in said case and the cognizance of which
pertains to another tribunal.
a. Legal question c. Prejudicial question
b. Juridical question d. Judicial question
50. Any person who without authority of Law shall by means of violence, threats or
intimidation prevents another from doing something not prohibited by law or compel
him to do something against his will, whether it be right or wrong.
a. Grave Coercion c. Grave Threats
b. Direct Bribery d. Grave Scandal
December 2018
LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION
1. Police - one of the pillars of the criminal justice system that has the specific responsibility of maintaining law and
order and combating crime within the society.
- comes from Latin "politia"-civil administration which itself derives from the ancient Greek WORD "city“
POLIS-POLITEIA and the French called it Policie- Police
2. Administration - an organizational process concerned with the implementation of objectives and plans and
internal operating efficiency. WORK/FUNCTION
3. Organization - a group of persons working together for a common goal or objectives.STRUCTURE-
HIERARCHY
4. Police Organization - a group of trained personnel in the field of public safety administration engaged in the
achievement of goals and objectives that promotes the maintenance of peace and order, protection of life and
property, enforcement of the laws and the prevention of crimes.
5. Enforcement - means to compel obedience to a law, regulation or command. POLICING IS THE OTHER
FORMAL TERMS
6. Law Enforcement Agency - pertains to an organization responsible for enforcing the laws.
7. Objectives - refer to the purpose by which the organization was created. Refer to the goals of the
organization.
8. Supervision - means the act of watching over the work or tasks of the members of the organization to
ensure that desired results are achieved.
9. Management - the process of directing and facilitating the work of people organized in formal groups
in order to achieve objectives. Judicious or wise use of resources (manpower,
material,money,equipment,
supplies and time).
10. Sworn Officers – all personnel of the police department who have oath and who possess the power to
arrest.
11. Superior Officer - one having supervisory responsibilities, either temporarily or permanently, over
officers of lower rank.
12. Commanding Officer - an officer who is in command of the department, a bureau, a division, an area,
or a district.
13. Ranking Officer - the officer who has the more senior rank/higher rank in a team or group.
14. Length of Service - the period of time that has elapsed since the oath of office was administered.
Previous active services may be included or added.
15. Hierarchy - represents the formal relationship among superiors and subordinates in any given
organization. Serves as the framework for the flow of authority downward and obedience upward,
through the department.
16. Authority - the right to command and control the behavior of employees in lower positions within an
organizational hierarchy. Must be viewed in terms of prescribed roles rather than of individuals.
A particular position within the organization. Carries the same regardless of who occupies that position.
17. Command responsibility- answerability and accountability of subordinate’s action.
18. Management/Administrative process (POSDCORB) Planning, Organizing, Directing , Controlling,
Staffing, Reporting, Budgeting
19. ORGANIZATIONAL STRUCTURE - the systematic arrangement of the relationship of the
members, positions, departments and functions or work of the organization. it is comprised of functions,
relationships, responsibilities and authorities of individuals within the organization.
20. POLICE FUNTION FUNCTIONS
1. PRIMARY OR LINE FUNCTIONS- functions that carry out the major purposes of the
organization, delivering the services and dealing directly with the public - the backbone of the police
department examples of the line functions of the police are patrolling, traffic duties, crime investigation.
2. STAFF/ADMINISTRATIVE FUNCTIONS- functions that are designed to support the line
functions and assist in the performance of the line functions - examples of the staff functions of the
police are planning, research, budgeting and legal advice
3. AUXILIARY FUNCTIONS- functions involving the logistical operations of the organization-
examples are training, communication, maintenance, records management, supplies and equipment
management
21. Organizational Units/Service in the Police Organization Functional Units/Service ( BUDISU )
 Bureau - the largest organic functional unit within a large department; comprised of several
divisions.
 Division - a primary subdivision of a bureau
 Section - functional unit within a division that is necessary for specialization.
 Unit - functional group within a section or the smallest functional group within an organization.
22. Territorial Units/Service ( POROBESEDA)
 Post - a fixed point or location to which an officer is assigned for duty.
 Route - a length of streets designated for patrol purpose, also called line beat.
 Beat - an area designed for patrol purposes whether foot or motorized.
 Sector - an area containing two or more beat, route or post.
 District - a geographical subdivision of a city for patrol purposes, usually with its own station.
 Area - a section or territorial division of a large city each comprised of designated districts.
23. THREE METHODS OF POLICING
1. LEGALISTIC-ACCORDING TO BOOK
2. WATCHMAN- SETTLEMENT
3. SERVICE ORIENTED- COMMUNITY CONTRIBUTION
24. AUGUST VOLLMER - recognized as the Father of Modern Law Enforcement for his contributions in
the development of the field of criminal justice in the US- author of the book, Police Administration,
which served as the basic guide in the administration of the police organization in the US - was the first
police chief of Berkeley, California.
25. Compulsory Retirement- Compulsory retirement for officer and non-officer shall be upon the
attainment of age fifty-six (56): Provided that, in case of any officer with the rank of Chief
Superintendent, Director or Deputy Director General, the commission may allow his retention in the
service for an unextendible period of one (1) year.
26. Optional Retirement- Upon accumulation of at least twenty (2) years of satisfactory active service, an
officer or non-officer, at his own request and with the approval of the commission, shall be retired from
the service and entitled to receive benefits provided by law.
27. Permanent Physical Disability- An officer or non-officer who is permanently and totally disabled as a
result of injuries suffered or sickness contracted in the performance of his duty as duly certified by the
National Police Commission, upon finding and certification by the appropriate medical officer that the
extent of the disability or sickness renders such member unfit or unable to further perform the duties of
his position, shall be entitled to one year’s salary and to lifetime pension equivalent to eighty percent
(80%) of his last salary, in addition to other benefits as provided for under existing laws.
28. Police Operational Planning -Involves strategies or tactics, procedures, policies or guidelines.
29. Operational Planning- The preparation and development of procedures and techniques in
accomplishing each of the primary tasks and functions of an organization.
30. Police Planning- The systematic and orderly determination of facts and events as basis for policy
formulation and decision making affecting law enforcement management.
31. Planning- The process of developing methods or procedures or an arrangement of parts intended to
facilitate the accomplishment of a definite objective. The process of deciding in advance what is to be
done and how it is to be done.
32. Plan - A method or way of doing something in order to attain objectives and provides answers to the
5Ws and 1H.
33. Strategy - a broad design or method or a plan to attain a stated goal or objective.
34. Tactics - are specific design, method or a course of action to attain a particular objective in consonance
with strategy.
35. Procedures - are sequences of activities to reach a point or to attain what is desired.
36. Policy - a course of action which could be a program of actions adopted by an individual, group,
organization or government or the set of principles on which they are based.
37. INCREMENTAL PLANNING – It concludes that long range and comprehensive planning are not
only too difficult, but inherently bad.
38. TRANSACTIVE PLANNING – Techniques include field surveys and interpersonal dialogue marked
by a process of mutual learning.
39. ADVOCACY PLANNING – Beneficial aspect of this approach include a greater sensitivity to the
unintended and negative side effects of the plan.
40. Physical Security – This concern with the physical measures adopted to prevent unauthorized access to
equipment, facilities, material and document and to safeguard them against espionage, sabotage,
damage, loss and theft.
41. Personnel Security –Its purpose is to ensure that a firm hires those best suited to assist the firm in
achieving its goals and objectives and once hired assist in providing necessary security to the work force
while carrying out their functions.
42. Document and Information Security –Classified documents need special handling. lack of
indoctrination and orientation among the personnel handling them can result in the leakage, loss, theft
and unauthorized disclosure of the documents.
43. First line of defense – perimeter fences/barriers
44. Second line of defense – doors, floors, windows, walls, roofs and grills and other entries to the
building.
45. Third line of defense – storage system like steel cabinets, safes, vaults and interior files.
46. Audio Detection Device – it will detect any sound caused by attempted force entry. A supersonic
microphone speaker sensor is installed in walls, ceilings and floors of the protected area.
47. Vibration Detection Device – it will detect any vibration caused by attempted force entry. A vibration
sensitive sensor is attached to walls, ceilings or floors of the protected area.
48. Metallic foil or wire – it will detect any action that moves the foil or wire. An electrically charge strips
of tinfoil or wore is used in the doors, windows or glass of the protected area.
49. Laser Beam Alarm – a laser emitter floods a wall or fencing with a beam so that when this beam is
distributed by a physical object, an alarm is activated.
50. Photoelectric or Electric Eye Device – an invisible/visible beam is emitted and when this is disturbed
or when an intruder breaks contact with the beam, it will activate the alarm.
51. KOBAN - It is a police post located in urban neighborhood. The smallest organizational unit in today's
Japanese police system.
Exercise: (1.Police Organization and Administration with Police Planning, 2. Police Patrol Operations with
Police Communication System, 3. Industrial Security Management, 4. Police Intelligence,
5. Police Personnel and Record Management, 6. Comparative Police System)
1. Essential in the efficient performance of routine duties, in the wise direction of

police effort and supervision and control of personnel.
a. Records c. Communications
b. Public relations d. Funding
2. This record maintains the arrest and jail booking report for all persons arrested
a. Arrest and warrant records c. Identification records

b. Administrative records d. Arrest and booking records
3. Serves as the police department’s foundation records, accomplished by the desk officer or
clerk, or telephone operator receiving call for police assistance.
a. Investigation report c. Complaint/assigned sheet

b. Case report d. Daily record of events
4. These records in personnel management are designed to aid in assignments, promotions and
disciplinary actions.
a. Case records c. 201 file

b. Identification records d. Administrative records
5. This general plan action emanates from the highest or top management and is intended to set-up
guidelines in the operation of the organization.
a. Originated policy c. Appealed policy

b. Imposed policy d. Procedures
6. It refers to the division of task of command among the officers of various units.
a. Chain of command c. Delegation of authority

b. Command responsibility d. Personnel management
7. Any Philippines National Police uniformed personnel who are admitted due to the said waiver
program shall be given an appropriate period to satisfy the accomplishment of the waived
requirement particularly referring to education and weight. What would be his/her status while
the said requirements are pending?
a. Regular uniformed personnel c. Permanent appointment

b. Conditional appointment d. Temporary appointment
8. Created by royal decree to relieve partially Spanish Peninsular Troops in their duty in
policing towns in the Philippines in 1852.
a. Guardilleros c. Guardia civil
b. Politia d. Barangay police
9. A statue which provides for the organization and government of insular constabulary.
a. Act 225 c. PD 765
b. RA 4864 d. RA 6975
10. The gauge of police efficiency is the absence of crimes.

a. Old concept c. continental theory
b. Modern concept d. Home rule theory
11. This viewpoint stresses that punishment is the sole instrument of social control.
a. Old concept c. continental theory
b. Modern concept d. Home rule theory
12. Control would entail which activity?

a. Inspection c. Follow-up procedures
b. Periodic report of activities d. all of these
13. Routine and frequent rotation of transfer of personnel is desirable in which type of police
work?
a. Vice c. Investigation
b. Patrol d. Juvenile
14. Largest organic unit within a large department

a. Division c. Section
b. Bureau d. Functional units
15. Etymology of the word police, meaning government of a city.
a. Patrouiller c. Polisia
b. Politia d. Politela
16. Specific conditions and place that requires patrol officer’s special attention.
a. Hazards c. Uninhabited places

b. Attractive nuisance d. Bars and night clubs
17. In his contact with the public a police officer on patrol should consider primarily the;
a. Public attitude towards the police c. Character of persons in his beat
b. Impression he creates d. Time he stays in a particular area
18. Which among the following is a component of s targeted oriented patrol?
a. Event oriented patrol c. Location oriented patrol
b. Offender oriented patrol d. All of these
19. The unit within the police department primarily responsible for taking direct police
intervention whenever a crime is committed.
a. Patrol c. Vice
b. Investigation d. Traffic
20. Territorial decentralization is more appropriate in which police function?
a. Patrol c. Vice
b. Investigation d. Traffic
21. Justification for the creation and maintenance of specialized police units within the police
organization.
a. It is aimed to relieve patrol units in cases of special operations
b. Assumes complete responsibility in a specialized area or problem.
c. It assist the patrol force
d. It is used to defer specialized and high tech crimes
22. It is considered as the busiest shift for patrol duty and offers a wide variety of challenges
and activities.
a. Morning shift c. Midnight shift

b. Afternoon shift d. Grave yard shift
23. How does Police Profession Service shows importance in Police Personnel Administration?
a. Where the personnel structure attracts to the police service the nation’s
b. Where best manpower by offering successful applicants
c. Where any honorable career profession enduring from youth to retirement
d. All of the above
24. What is the importance of workable Police Personnel Program?

a. To attain the establishment of a competent and well trained police force
b. To attain basic necessities that provide for classifications
c. To attain fair compensation
d. To attain intelligent selections and reasonable promotional opportunities
25. The important task of the Human Resource Development is winning employee’s acceptance
organizational objectives, except:
a. To assist top and line management archives the organization’s objective
b. To acquire capable people and provide them with opportunities
c. To assist top management in formulating policies and programs
d. All of the above
26. How does Police Selection operates its functions in police personnel?
a. To determine the most qualifies police applicant for a given position in the police
organization
b. To help the police officers adjust and knowledgeable in a new job and or working
environment
c. To improve the police personnel organization by strictly implementing police selection
d. All of the above
27. What are the functions of Police financial compensations, except?

a. Base pay c. Supplementary
b. Incentive of variable d. Job satisfaction
28. How policy gives its purpose to the procedures?

a. To give life and direction to the program of activities
b. To provide definite guidelines
c. To serves as standards of performance
d. To help build police officers enthusiasm and loyalty
e. All of the above
29. How Originated Policy applied?

a. Comes from top management level and is intended to set up guidelines in the operation of
the police organizations
b. Comes from the government in the forms of laws, administrative orders, and rules and
procedures or contact specifications.
c. Comes when problems arises at the lower levels of the organization.
30. How Imposed policy applied?

a. Comes from top management level and is intended to set up guidelines in the operation of
the police organizations.
b. Comes from the government in the forms of laws, administrative orders, and rules and
procedures or contact specifications
c. Comes when problems arises at the lower levels of the organization.
31. Regional Director Aplaca, applied his policies in a broad term in a specific designations of
Police Station in Cagayan de Oro City, stress in general terms management traits such as
fairness in dealing with officers, understanding and humane treatment of the work force. What
type of policy did RD Aplaca applied?
a. General Statement of Principles c. Chain of Command
b. Specific Rules d. Imposed Policy
32. PSI Bihag a new assigned officer from Laguna, was task to cover specific situations regarding
Oplan Tokhang the head office said that PSI Bihag must be direct and less flexible. And they
must be more rigid in nature. What type of policy will PSI Bihag use?
a. General Statement of Principles c. Chain of Command
b. Specific Rules d. Imposed Policy
33. Policemen are regarded as servant of the community. Adopted by the PNP.
a. Old Concept c. Home Rule Theory
b. Modern Concept d. Continental Theory
34. Policemen are regarded as state or servants of the higher authorities. Adopted by European
Countries.
b. Continental Theory d. Modern Concept
35. Police service gives the impression of being merely suppressive machinery. Police test of
efficiency is based on the no. of arrest.
36. Regards police as the first line of defense of the criminal justice system, an organ of crime
prevention. Police test of efficiency is based on the absence of crime.
37. A philosophy of police suggesting that problem solving is best done at the neighborhood level,
where issues originate not at a far-off central headquarters.
a. Pro-active Policing c. Problem Oriented Policing
b. Neighbourhood Oriented Policing d. Community Oriented Policing
38. Aggressive law enforcement style in which patrol officers take the initiative against crime
instead of waiting for criminal acts to occur.
39. A style of police management that stresses proactive problem-solving instead of reactive crime
fighting.
40. The opposite of Pro Active policing where the police wait for crime to occur.
b. Reactive Policing d. Community Oriented Policing
41. Programs designed to bring the police and the public closer together and create more
cooperative working environment between them.
b. Reactive Policing d. Community Oriented Policing
42. The first Filipino Chief of the Philippine Constabulary in 1917.

a. Brig.Gen. Rafael Crame c. Col. Lambert Javalera
b. Col. Antonio Torres d. Dir.Gen. Cesar Nazareno
43. The first Filipino Chief of Police of the Manila Police Department in 1935.
44. The first chief of police of the Manila Police Department after the Philippine Independence
from the United States of America in 1946.
45. The first chief of the Philippine National Police.

46. This model is especially appropriate for police agencies as it is based on a 'problem-oriented
approach to planning.
a. SYNOPTICPLANNING c. TRANSACTIVE PLANNING
b. RADICAL PLANNING d. ADVOCACY PLANNING
47. Fencing barriers and protective walls should always be regularly inspected by security; any
sign or attempts to break in should be reported for investigation.
a. Tower Guard c. Top Guard
b. Barrier Maintenance d. Protection in Depth
48. One who steals due to his inability to resist the unexpected opportunity and has little fear of
detection.
a. Casual Pilferer c. Relative Vulnerability
b. Systematic Pilferer d. Relative Criticality of Operation
49. One who steals with preconceived plans and takes away any or all types or supplies for economic
gains.
a. Casual Pilferer c. Relative Vulnerability
b. Systematic Pilferer d. Relative Criticality of Operation
50. The police force is led by an Inspector-General of Police (IGP)

a. Royal Malaysia Police c. Russian Police
b. Koban d. SWITZERLAND POLICING SYSTEM

December 2018
CRIMINALISTICS
1. It is the inability to focus light passing through the center of the lens and its edge at the same place on the film.
(Spherical aberration)
2. Refers to a picture of the original object photographed. (Positive Print)
3. Looking at object closely with one eye while the other is finding that the object is not seen from the same angle
and has apparently a different position and shape. (Depth of field)
4. Characteristic of photographic paper usually utilized in police photography. (Single, Glossy, White)
5. Device which allow the photographer to watch the object he is photographing. It is usually made up of small lens
and mirrors.(View Finders)
6. The response of film to different length of light source.(Spectral Sensitive)
7. Refers to nearest distance at which the lens is focused with given particular diaphragm opening . (Hyper-focal
distance)
8. Refers to a fingerprint pattern wherein the ridge flow from one side to the other without recurving, and ridges
rising in the center. (Tented arch)
9. It is a fingerprint pattern in which the ridge or downward slant from the little finger toward the radius bone or the
thumb. (Radial loop)
10. Study of the characteristics formed by the side of the papillary dirges as a means of identification. (Edgeoscopy)
11. Referred to as outer terminus (Delta)
12. Impressions which are taken simultaneously on the fingerprint card. (Plain Impression)
13. Fingerprint pattern in which two or different type of pattern are represented. (Accidental loop)
14. A distinct fingerprint pattern with two separate loops, with its respective shoulder and deltas. (Double Loop)
15. A fingerprint pattern with a single loop but has two deltas. (Central Pocket Loop)
16. Fundamental unit of heredity. (Gene)
17. It is the oxygen carrier of the blood. (Haemoglobin)
18. Way to test blood even when it is decomposed and stained with contamination. (Benzidine test)
19. Stage of blood examination wherein the actual proof that subject is definitely blood. (Confirmatory test)
20. Deals with the study and identification of body fluids. (Serology)
21. Refers to that branch science which treats of the form and quantity of medicine to be administered within a certain
period. (Posology)
22. The test is used to detect the presence of semen particularly in stained clothing. (Florence test)
23. Agents which produce intestinal evacuation. (Cathartics)
24. Refers to the study of the adverse effects of chemical, physical or biological agents on living organisms and the
ecosystem, including the prevention and amelioration of such adverse effects. (Toxicology)
25. Defined as the branch of chemistry which deals with the application of chemical principles in the solution of
problems which arise in connection with the administration of justice. (Forensic Chemistry)
26. Color of the blood when exposed to the atmosphere. (Reddish-brown)
27. It has for its characteristics as, bright scarlet in color, with high oxygen content and leaves the blood vessel with
pressure. (Arterial blood)
28. Dark red in color, with low oxygen content and usually does not spill far from the wound. (Venous blood)
29. This blood contains a high number of deodorleins bacillus, it does not clot and has acidic reactions. (Menstrual
blood)
30. Conditions in which foreign matters are introduced in the blood stream blocking the blood circulation in the finer
capillaries and arterioles. (Embolism)
31. Effusion of blood into the tissue underneath the skin due to the rupture of blood vessels as a result of the
application of blunt force. (Contusion)
32. It has for its characteristics as, bright scarlet in color, with high oxygen content and leaves the blood vessel with
pressure. (Arterial blood)
33. Dark red in color, with low oxygen content and usually does not spill far from the wound. (Venous blood)
34. This blood contains a high number of deodorleins bacillus, it does not clot and has acidic reactions. (Menstrual
blood)
35. Conditions in which foreign matters are introduced in the blood stream blocking the blood circulation in the finer
capillaries and arterioles. (Embolism)
36. Effusion of blood into the tissue underneath the skin due to the rupture of blood vessels as a result of the
application of blunt force. (Contusion)
37. A wound which resembles the shape or object of the instrument which caused it. (Patterned wound)
38. Necessary persistent cessation in respiration, circulation and brain function is sufficient to declare a person
clinically dead? (10-15 minutes)
39. Rate of growth of human hair. (0.5 to 0.6 mm./ day)
40. Sudden inflammation of the pancreas cause by infections carried in the blood stream. It may follow obstruction of
the pancreatic duct and subsequent congestion of the gland. (Acute pancreatitis)
41. A wound which inflicted in the body which is so serious that it will endanger one`s life. (Mortal wound)
42. A wound produced by a blunt instrument such as log and stone. (Lacerated wound)
43. When the person was stabbed by an ice pick, this wound will be exhibited. (Punctured wound)
44. Wound produced by butcher`s knife. (Hack wound)

45. In cases of suicide, this would be the noticeable muscular change. (Instantaneous rigor)
46. It is the dissolution of the tissues by the digestive action of its bacteria and enzyme. (Putrefaction)
47. This component drives the chart paper under the recording pen simultaneously at the rate of 6 to 12 inches per
minute. (Keymograph)
48. This component record changes of the subject’s blood pressure and pulse rate. (Cardiospygmograph
49. It records the skin resistance to a small amount of electricity. (Galvanograph)
50. This component records the changes in the breathing of the subject. (Pneumograph)
51. Developed by systolic blood pressure method for detecting deception. (William Maston)
52. Italian scientist who used hydrospygmograph procedure for persons charge with the commission of a crime.
(Lombroso)
53. Pioneer who first used the term psychogalvanic skin reflex. (Veraguth)
54. Who first incorporated the galvanograph with measurement, respiration component and blood pressure?
(Leonard Keeler)
55. Danao made firearms or homemade weapons are usually classified as. (Zip guns)
56. delay in discharge or the cartridge’s failure to explode on time. (Hang fire)
57. Measuring device used to measure the velocity of projectiles. (Chronograph)
58. Any metallic body referred to as a bullet. (Projectile)
59. The science of dealing with the effect of the impact of the projectiles at the same time it leaves the muzzle of the
firearm to the time it hits the target. (Exterior ballistics)
60. The science which deals with the effect of the impact of the projectile on the target. (Terminal ballistics)
61. Rearward movement of the firearm from firing. (Recoil)
62. Term used in referring to the tip of a bullet. (Ogive)
63. It refers to the placement of the right and left specimen in side by side position. (Juxtaposition)
64. Pattern or curved path of the bullet in flight. (Trajectory)
65. Refers to the deflection of the bullet from its normal path after striking resistant surface. (Ricochet)
66. Regarded as the Father of Ballistics. (Col. Calvin H. Goddard)
67. The unstable rotating motion of the bullet. (Yaw)
68. The appearance of a paper when viewed by transmitted light, which discloses the formation and texture of the
sheet. (Lock-through of paper)
69. Refers to any specimen of writing executed normally without any attempt to change or control its identifying
habits and its usual quality of execution. (Natural writing)
70. A preliminary embellished initial common to capital letters. (Beard)
71. A minute curve which occurs at the end of terminal strokes. (Hook)
72. An oblong curve found in small letters f, g, h and i. (Loop)
73. The introductory backward stroke added to the start of many capital letters in which can also be seen occasionally
in introductory strokes of small letters. (Hitch)
74. Refers to any deceitful or fraudulent signature which was executed by actually following the outline of a genuine
signature with a writing instrument. (Traced forgery)
75. Also known as “posy litem motam” or dictated standards is a document which are executed and prepared at one
time upon request. (Requested standards)
Exercise: (1. Police Photography, 2. Personal Identification, 3. Forensic Toxicology, 4. Legal Medicine,
5. Polygraphy, 6. Ballistics, 7. Questioned Document
1. It refers to a lens that is characterized as by the thicker at the center and thinner
sides.
a. Positive lens c. Convex lens
b. Negative lens d. Concave lens
2. The chemical processing step wherein the latent image recorded on the paper or film
becomes visible.
a. Fixer c. Stop bath
b. Bleacher d. Developer
3. Refers to the process of taking pictures with the use of microscope.

a. Microphotography c. Macrophotography
b. Photomicrography d. Photomicrography
4. Commonly used hardening agent and an acid fixing solution.

a. Hypo or silver halide c. Sodium sulphate
b. Potassium aluminium d. Acetic acid
5. Chemical used as an accelerator in a developer solution.

a. Hydroquinone c. Sodium Carbonate
b. Sodium sulfate d. Potassium bromide
6. It is a coating which consists of light sensitive silver salts in a gelatin medium used
for all photographic films and papers.
a. Solution c. Dektol
b. Halides d. Emulsion
7. In this type of camera the image being photographed can be seen in flat surface as
reflected by the mirror behind the viewing lens. The viewing screen will help the
photographer in the accurate composition of the object to photograph as he looks into
the camera at his waist level.
a. View finder type c. Twin lens reflex type
b. Single lens reflex type d. View or press camera type
8. A German criminologist who discovered that fingerprinting for identification purpose

were already used in the Far East during the Tang dynasty from 618 to 906 A.D.
a. Henry Faulds c. Robert Heindle
b. Dr. Nehemiah Grew d. Alphones Bertillon
9. Regarded as the “Father of Fingerprints”.

a. Sir Edward Richard Henry c. Alphonse Bertillon
b. Sir Francis Galton d. Gilbert Thompson
10. Basis of fingerprint identification.

a. Pores c. Friction ridges
b. Ridges d. Latent print
11. Fingerprinting is universally used as a valuable method of identification due to

following reason; except.
a. Fingerprints are not changeable
b. Wounded or burned out patterns will re-appear
c. There are two identical fingerprints
d. It is formed in the nine month of pregnncy
12. A British scientist who devoted his work to the study of fingerprint classification in
England.
a. Sir Francis Galton c. Samuel Clemens
b. Sir Edward Richard Henry d. Gilbert Thompson
13. An American who first utilized fingerprint classification to prevent forgery in New
Mexico.
a. Sir Francis Galton c. Samuel Clemens
b. Sir Edward Richard Henry d. Gilbert Thompson
14. First Filipino expert on fingerprinting.

a. Atty. Agustin Patricio c. Atty. Lorenzon Sunico
b. Gen. Rafael Crame d. Col. Jose Lukban
15. The most reliable and delicate test for the determination of the presence of blood by
means of an optical instrument.
a. Precipitin test c. Microscopic test
b. Spectroscopic test d. Florence test
16. It is used to characterized and locate seminal fluid.

a. Florence test c. Barberios test
b. Microscopic examination d. Acid Phosphate test
17. A test used if the powder particles of nitrates are deeply embedded in the clothing, the
visible result of which is the fact that nitrates are converted to a dye.
a. Walker’s test c. Microscopic test
b. Diphenylamine test d. Spectroscopic test
18. An examination which is used to determine the general group of which the fiber belongs.
a. Chemical test c. Fluorescence test
b. Florence test d. Burning or ignition test
19. A reliable test which is used to identify and compare ballpoint pen ink.
a. Spot test c. Paper Chromatography
b. Chemical test d. Dissolution test
20. A rapid and convenient method of determining the density of small glass fragments.
a. Density gradient test c. Immersion method
b. Flotation method d. Polish mark examination
21. A test which shows the constituent elements of glass which is the key to establish the
origin of the glass samples examined.
a. X-ray diffraction c. Spectrographic analysis
b. Ultra-violet Examination d. Physical Property Examination
22. Builder of the first pyramid, he was considered as the first or earliest recorded
medico-legal expert.
a. Antitius c. Paulus Zachhias
b. Imhotep d. San Juan de Bautista
23. First chief medico legal officer of the Philippine Commonwealth.

a. Dr. Sixto delos Angeles c. Dr. Gregorio T. Lantin
b. Dr. Pedro Solis d. Dr. Enrique V. delos Santos
24. Regarded as the Father of Forensic Medicine.

a. Antitius c. Paulus Zacchias
25. Earliest known forensic pathologist or police surgeon, who performed the autopsy of
Julius Caesar, reporting tht out of the 23 stab wounds, only one penetrated the chest
cavity between the first and second rib which was Caesar`s proximate cause of death.
a. Antitius c. Paulus Zacchias
26. First chief of the Medico Legal Division of the Bureau of Investigation.
a. Dr. Sixto delos Angeles c. Dr. Gregorio T. Lantin
b. Dr. Pedro Solis d. Dr. Enrique V. delos Santos
27. This test is not concerned with the answer whether it is yes or no, what is relevant is
the time of response in relation to delay of the answer.
a. Word Association Test c. Truth Serum
b. Psychological strew evaluator d. Water therapy
28. A test undertaken when the subject is not aware of the details of the offence for which
he is under scrutiny.
a. Guilt complex test c. Peak of tension
b. Silent answer d. Narrative
29. When response and control questions are consistently similar this is administered.
a. Guilt complex test c. Peak of tension
b. Silent answer d. Narrative
30. This test uses hyoscine hydrobromide drug administered hypodermically which produces a
state of delirium.
a. Hypnotism c. Narco-synthesis
b. Narco-analysis d. Administration of truth serum
31. It is based on the maxim “in vino veritas’ meaning in wine there is truth.
a. Hypnotism c. Narco-synthesis
b. Narco-analysis d. Administration of truth serum
32. Devised an instrument capable of continuously recording pulse rate, respiration and
blood pressure.
a. William Marston c. John Larson
b. Angelo Mosso d. Sticker
33. Type of questions related to the facts of the case and is answerable by NO.
a. Relevant Question c. General Question
b. Irrelevant Question d. Immaterial Question
34. Scientific examination of bullets and firearms.

a. Interior ballistics c. Terminal ballistics
b. Exterior ballistics d. Forensic ballistics
35. A barrel of any firearms is legally classified as:

a. Part of the firearm c. Accessory
b. Nomenclature d. Complete firearm
36. Rate of twist in the rifling of a rifle or pistol barrel.

a. Land c. Leed
b. Grooves d. Ogive
37. After repeated firing of a revolver, this I deposited frequently on the index finger of
the hand which the shooter used to fire the gun.
a. Powder burn c. Precipitin
b. Residue d. Dirt
38. To link a shell with a shotgun that fired it, in the laboratory examination it should be
given:
a. Wadding c. Pellets
b. Cap d. Wads
39. It is a result when the muzzle is held against the target or body when fired.
a. Smudging c. Contact burn
b. Tattooing d. Contact wound
40. It is produced when muzzle is held against the target.

a. Smudging c. Contact burn
b. Tattooing d. Contact wound
41. A loop made as a flourish which is added to a letter.

a. Embellishment c. Buckle knot
b. Beard d. Hitch
42. Visible record in the writing stroke of the basis movement and manner of holding the
writing instrument.
a. Line quality c. Baseline
b. Rhythm d. Writing pressure
43. Additional unnecessary stroke for ornamental purposes.

a. Embellishment c. Diacritic
b. Hump d. Knot
44. Balance quality of movement of the harmonious recurrence of stress of impulse.

a. Line quality c. Baseline
b. Rhythm d. Writing pressure
45. Refers to the periodic increase in pressure or intermittently forcing the pen against
the paper surface with increase pressure.
a. Writing pressure c. Pen emphasis
b. Shading d. Natural variation
46. An imaginary line upon which the writing rests.

a. Line quality c. Pen emphasis
b. Baseline d. Natural variation
47. Disconnection between letters or letter combination due to lack movement control.
a. Pen lift c. Patching
b. Retouching d. Retracing
48. A distinctive design which is translucent impressed on the paper during manufacture.
a. Water marks c. Paper design
b. Fiber marks d. Wire marks
49. Refer to a group of muscles which pushes the pen down forming downward strokes.
a. Flexor muscles c. Extensor muscle
b. Lubrical muscles d. None of these
50. A type of face ordinarily spaced 10 characters to the horizontal inch.
a. Pica c. Proportional Spacing machine
b. Elite d. Adding machine

December 2018
CRIME DETECTION AND INVESTIGATION
1. It is an enforcement action, wherein the violator is commanded to appear in court, but

without detaining him (Traffic citation)
2. Key to determining which traffic unit first tried to prevent the motor vehicle accident,
this marking is made while the wheel is still turning. (Skid marks)
3. A number representing the resistance to sliding of two surfaces in contact is known as.
(Coefficient of friction)
4. The theory which asserts that man exhibits a constant variation of life energy and mood
state. (Biorhythm)
5. Descriptive of any material when by its nature or as a result of its reaction with other
elements promotes a rapid drop in temperature of the immediate surroundings.
(Cryogenic)
6. Lowest temperature of a liquid in open container at which vapors are evolved fast
enough to support continuous combustion. (Fire point)
7. The temperature at which a flammable liquid form a vapor air mixture that ignites.
(Flash point)
8. Minimum temperature in which the substance in the air must be heated in order to
initiate or cause a self-contained combustion without the addition of heat from outside
sources. (Ignition temperature)
9. An exothermic chemical change in which a combustible material react with an oxidizing
agent. (Oxidation)
10.Rapid oxidation accompanied by heat and light. (Combustion)
11.In this phase of the fire the maximum heat and its destructive capabilities are
developed. (Free burning phase)
12.Refers to the normal pattern or movement of fire, smoke and fire gases within a building
or structure under natural conditions. (Thermal balance)
13.Refers to gases liberated by heat. (Free radicals)
14.An occurrence when the heat has brought the combustible portion of the ceiling to their
ignition temperature, it is characterized by a sudden burst or shooting forth light and
flames. (Flashover)
15.An explosive condition in the smouldering phase of fire, it is a result of a sudden
introduction of oxygen. (Backdraft)
16.A combination of three elements namely: fuel, heat and oxygen. (Fire triangle)
17.A means by which heat is transformed by a circulating medium either gas or a liquid.
(Convection)
18.Formed by the incomplete combustion of acetylene or natural cracking of hydrogen in
the absence of air. (Carbon black)
19.A form of static electricity or an electrical current of great magnitude producing
tremendous amperage and voltage, it is the most common cause of providential fires.
(Lightning)
20.Any act that would remove or neutralize a fire hazard. (Abatement)
21.A treatment for alcoholics which calls for hospitalization and is costly due to the
administration of nauseating drugs. (Aversion treatment)
22.A method of treatment for alcoholics which aims at eliminating emotional tensions of the
patient which led to their alcoholism. (Psychotherapy method)
23.A person who acts as agents of prostitution. (Pimp)
24.Another name for cocaine. (Coke)
25.A medical service rendered to a patient which deals with the physical and physiological
complications arising from drug abuse. (Treatment)
26.A dynamic process aimed at changing a patient’s health and giving his fullest potential
without the use of drugs or medicine. (Rehabilitation)
27.The process of gradually depriving drugs from the point of habituation until such time
he is no longer hooked on the substance. (Withdrawal method)
28.An adaptive condition which results from repeated drug use. (Physical dependence)
29.An alkaloid of opium after morphine which has limited use as a pain killer and more
popularly used as a cough syrup and is quite addictive. (Codeine)
30.This method calls for public licensing of houses of prostitution, the registration of its
workers and segregation of brothels in restricted districts. (School of regulatory
control)
31.This method believes that prostitution is a crime and is to be prohibited, thus it calls for
making it unlawful for both the prostitute and customer to engage in such acts. (School
of total repression)
32.A French inspired method wherein it is aimed at preventing prostitution to be engaged
in clandestine manner and accepting its existence and the improbability of eradicating
prostitution. (School of regulatory control)
33.A burnt pattern of inverted cone indicates. (The fingerprint of the fire)
34.The most powerful derivative from the Papaver Somniferum, it has no medicinal value.
(Heroin)
35.Also known as pot, grass, weed, dope, Thai stick or Acapulco gold it resembles dried
parsley mixed with stems and seeds, and is either eaten or smoked. (Marijuana)
36.Dark brown resin that is collected from the tops of potent Cannabis Sativa. (Hashish)
37.It is the psychoactive agent of Marijuana. (Cannabis sativa)
38.Source of Cocaine which is a hardy plant cultivated in Bolivia and first used by the
Incas of Peru. (Papaver somniferum)
39.The most popular and latest sex drug, whose chemical name is “Methy Dioxy
Methamphetamine”. (Chomper)
40.Illegal drugs modified molecularly by chemists to circumvent legal restrictions.
(Hallucinogens)
41.Drugs that produce perceptual alteration, varying emotional change, thought disruption
and ego distortion. (Tranquilizers)
42.The killing of one human being by another. (Homicide)
43.Killing of one’s ascendants, descendants, or spouse. (Parricide)
44.Killing of an infant less than three days old. (Infanticide)
45.Killing one’s father. (Patricide)
46.Killing one’s mother (Matricide)
47.Killing of one’s own brother (Fratricide)
48.Killing of one’s own sister (Sororicide)
49.Taking one’s own life voluntarily (Suicide)
50.Act of one who murders his wife (Uxoricide)
51.The killing or murder of a king (Regicide)
52.The killing or murder of a prophet (Vaticide)
53.Mercy killing or the act or practice of painlessly putting to death persons suffering from
incurable and distressing disease. (Euthanasia)
54.It proposes that exploiting the process of socialization and social learning builds self-
control and reduces the inclination to indulge in behavior recognized as antisocial.
(Represented in the work of “Travis Hirschi”). (Social Control Theory)
55.A term used to describe a number of criminal organizations around the world. Derived
from Arabic word denoting “Place of Refuge”. (Mafia)
EXERCISE: 1. Fundamentals of Criminal Investigation, 2. Special Crime Investigation, 3.

Organized Crime Investigation, 4. Drug Education and Vice Control, 5. Traffic Management
and Accident Investigation, 6. Fire Technology and Arson
1. The method of operation which will enable investigators to a pattern of criminal

behavior.
a. Reconstruction of the crime scene c. Instrumentation
b. Elicitation d. Modus operandi
2. This is where the techniques and principles of both physical and natural science are
applied and practiced to analyze crime-scene evidence.
a. Forensics laboratory c. SOCO
b. Crime laboratory d. Chemistry laboratory
3. A fictional character developed by Sir Arthur Conan Doyle who influenced crime-detection
methods by using serology, firearm identification, fingerprinting and questioned
document examination.
a. Sherlock Holmes c. Alphonse Bertillon
b. Albert Osborne d. Calvin Goddard
4. Refers to the uniqueness of some item of evidence made possible by the fact that no
things in nature are exactly the same.
a. Criminalistics c. Instrumentation
b. Individualization d. Reconstruction of the crime scene
5. A U.S. Army colonel who refined the techniques of bullet comparison and established the
use of a comparison microscope, which is indispensable tool to modern firearms examiner.
a. Sherlock Holmes c. Alphonse Bertillon
b. Albert Osborne d. Calvin H. Goddard
6. He undertook the first definitive study of fingerprints and developed a method of

classifying them.
a. Albert Osborn c. Francis Galton
b. Leone Lottes d. Calvin Goddard
7. He devised a relatively simple procedure for determining the blood group of dried
bloodstain.
a. Leone Lottes c. Albert Osborne
b. Karl Landsteiner d. Francis Galton
8. For private vehicles a green sticker is issued, for hire vehicles yellow, red for
government vehicles and _____ for diplomatic vehicles.
a. Pink c. Black
b. Blue d. Orange
9. Refers to the main road as conduit system with a right of way ranging from 20 meters to
120 meters.
a. Provincial roads c. City roads
b. National roads d. Municipal roads
10. Linkages between two municipalities with a right of way from 15 meters to 60 meters.
a. Provincial roads c. City roads
b. National roads d. Municipal roads
c.
11. A road intended for farm to market traffic.
a. Local collector road c. Feeder road
b. Expressway d. Subway
12. A modern urban system of roadway above street level for free flow of traffic.
a. Expressway c. Skyway
b. Subway d. Major collector road
13. The greatest advance in land transportation after the sled was the _____ and originated
in the Tigris Euphrates valley about 3,500 B.C.
a. Feeder roads c. Wheel
b. Roads d. The harness
14. The credit of having invented the internal combustion engine was given to a Frenchman
named;
a. Napoleon Bonaparte c. Nicolas Otto
b. Etiene Leonir d. Gottlieb Daimler
15. The Romans brought road building to its peak of perfection in ancient times, hence the
saying “all roads, lead to _______.”
a. Forum c. Paris
b. Coliseum d. Rome
16. It refers to a dangerous conduct and attitude, which indicates lack of concern for
injurious consequences likely to result from such a behavior.
a. Drunk driving c. Reckless imprudence
b. Reckless driving d. Reckless negligence
17. Which among the following is commonly used to put out Class C fires?
a. CO2 c. Water
b. Sand d. Baking soda
18. Class A fires may be extinguished by:

a. CO2 c. Water
b. Sand d. Baking soda
19. Excess heat energy liberated by an oxidation reaction is called____.

a. Latent heat c. Specific heat
b. Heat of combustion d. Thermal heat
20. The minimum temperature at which a fuel will burn is:

a. Ignition temperature c. Heat of combustion
b. Thermal heat d. Specific heat
21. Instrument used to open/close fire hydrants.

a. Sprinkler c. Fire hose
b. Fire pump d. Hydrant key
22. A chemical decomposition of matter through the action of heat.

a. Pyrolysis c. Detonation
b. Combustion d. Oxidation
23. Measure of the rate of flow of heat, through unit area of the material with unit
temperature gradient.
a. Conduction c. Radiation
b. Thermal conductivity d. Oxidation
24. A means of heat transfer when energy travels through space or materials as waves.
a. Conduction c. Radiation
b. Convection d. Fission
25. It is legally classified as arson and set on purpose with a motive.

a. Providential fire c. Intentional fire
b. Accidental fire d. None of the foregoing
26. The psychoactive ingredient in Marijuana which causes the high or trip of its users.
a. Papaver somniferum c. Opium poppy
b. Hashish d. Tetrahydrocannabinol (THC)
27. Obtained from Indian hemp known as “Cannabis Sativa”, which is a shrub which grows on
tropic and temperate regions.
a. Marijuana c. Cocaine
b. Opium d. Shabu
28. Obtained from a female poppy plant known as “Papaver Somniferum” derived from a Greek
word which means juice.
a. Marijuana c. Cocaine
b. Opium d. Shabu
29. Named after the Greek God of dreams, it is obtained from opium.
a. Heroin c. Hasish
b. Morphine d. Cocaine
30. The increase of prostitution is directly proportional with this problem.
a. Rising number of broken homes
b. Increased white slave trade
c. Rising number of organized crimes

d. Spread of sexually transmitted/venereal diseases
31. Persons who engage in discriminate sexual intercourse with others for hire or
compensation.
a. Call girls c. Factory girls
b. Prostitutes d. Pimps
32. The procurement and transportation of women from far flung places for immoral purposes.
a. White slavery c. Organized crimes
b. Prostitution d. All of the foregoing
33. This place usually lodges several numbers of factory girls or professional prostitutes
under the control of an organized crime ring.
a. Disorderly houses c. Call houses
b. Furnished room houses d. Massage clinics
34. Refers to prostitutes who works in regular homes of prostitution or brothels, she
accepts all customers and has nothing to do with selecting or soliciting them.
a. Door knocker c. Hustler
b. Call girl d. Factory girls
35. Refers to a person who sets up and furnishes the means with which to carry on the
gambling game.
a. Maintainer c. Banker
b. Conductor d. Gullible person
36. Anti-gambling law

a. PD 1869 c. PD 1602
b. PD 1612 d. PD 1866
37. Social causes of prostitution are the following, except:

a. Broken families c. Anonymity of city life
b. Poverty d. All of the foregoing
38. Refers to persons having no apparent means of subsistence.

a. Gambler ` c. Vagrants
b. Prostitute d. None of these
39. Penalty provided for by law which punishes white slave trade.
a. Prison correctional c. Reclusion temporal
b. Prison mayor d. Reclusion perpetua
40. A person who manages or carries a gambling game.

a. Maintainer c. Banker
b. Conductor d. Operator
41. Refers to the increasing the dosage of drugs to maintain the same effect.
a. Tolerance c. Poly drug abuse
b. Physical dependence d. Drug experimenter
42. Codeine which is an alkaloid of opium is primarily used as:

a. Pain killer c. Stimulant
b. Cough reliever d. Depressant
43. Originally known as “Kakuseizai” meaning walking drug, it was brought to the Philippines
by a Japanese tourist.
a. Marijuana c. Shabu
b. Cocaine d. Opium
44. The most potent derivative from opium.

a. Codeine c. Morphine
b. Cocaine d. Heroin
45. This method of therapy for alcoholics is based on conversion and fellowship.
a. Aversion treatment c. Withdrawal method
b. Psychotherapy method d. Program for alcoholic anonymous
46. A transnational grouping of highly centralized enterprises run by criminals for the
purpose of engaging in illegal activity, most commonly for monetary profit.
a. Organized Crime c. White Collar Crime
b. Blue Collar Crime d. Sedition
47. A crime committed by a person of respectability and high social status of course of his
occupation, as defined by Edwin Sutherland (1939).
a. Organized Crime c. White Collar Crime
b. Blue Collar Crime d. Sedition
48. This theory, People became criminal when significant members of the society label them
such and they accept those labels as a personal identity. These labels imply a variety
of behaviour and attitudes; labels thus help define not just one trait but the whole
person.
a. Labeling Theory c. Differential-Opportunity theory
b. Social Control Theory d. Differential Identification
49. In this view, people commit criminal or delinquent acts if they believe that it will
lead to acceptance by and approval of these important people in their lives.
50. Observation that legitimate opportunities to pursue culturally approved goals are social
structured and unevenly distributed—especially by access to delinquency and criminality.

December 2018
CRIMINAL SOCIOLOGY
1. It is when the offender acquires something as a consequence of his criminal act., (theft, robbery, Staffa)
Acquisitive Crime)
2. When the end result of a criminal act is destructive. (Homicide, murder, infanticide, parricide, arson)
Extinctive Crime
3. Those crimes committed only during a certain period of the year (violation of tax law, violations of the
omnibus election code). Seasonal Crime
4. This type of criminal doesn’t stick to crime as a profession but rather pushed to commit crimes due to great
opportunity. Ordinary Crime
5. One who associates himself with other criminals to earn a high degree of organization to enable them to
commit crimes easily without being detected by authorities? Organized Criminal
6. A type of person who is engaged in criminal activities with high degree of skill. Professional Criminal
7. A type of criminal who violates a criminal law because of the impulse or fit of passion. “Acute Criminal”
8. This type of criminal commits crime acted in consonance of deliberated thinking. He plans the crime ahead
of time. They are the targeted offenders. Chronic Criminal
9. This means, different individuals and group, commonly used to describe a large number of disapproved
behaviors of children and youth. Juvenile Delinquency
10. The child begins with petty larceny between 8 and sometime during the 12 th year. Emergence
11. He or she then may move on to shoplifting and vandalism between ages 12 to 14. Exploration
12. At the age of 13, there is a substantial increase in variety and seriousness. Explosion
13. They are more likely to become property violators than violent offenders. Socialized Delinquents
14.They become delinquents as a result of distortions in their personality and their ideas and perception of the
world around them. They may become deviant because of some anxiety or neurotic compulsion. Neurotic
Delinquents
15.There are youths with severe personality disorders have a significantly distorted perception of the society and
people around them. Psychotic Delinquents
16.These delinquents are chronic law breakers who make breaking of laws a habit they cannot avoid or scape
from it. Emotionally Maladjusted Delinquents
17.Commonly participate in a group; they have similar characteristics, “pro-social”. Occasional Delinquents
18. On the move- a migrant, traveller or journey man who transfers from place to place. Nomadism
19.A withdrawal reaction which prohibit from conscious awareness especially unacceptable desires of impulses.
Reaction Formation
20. The process of directing anger to someone or something other than he is angry at. Displacement
21. A chronic reaction pattern of resentment, regards even when neutral situation as having hostile implication.
Free-Floating anger
22. An aggressive reaction where one tries to blame or hold responsible others to hide and conceal and explain
his failures. Scapegoating
23. A concession where a person to avoid conflict seals off attitudes in the mental compartment from
conflicting ones. Isolation
24. A conciliation undertaken by seeking a new goal that is socially acceptable. Sublimation
25.Sexual indulgence seeing nude woman/man in some form of sexual act (peeping tom) Voyeurism
26.Sexual fulfilment by exposure of private organs or entire body. Exhibitionist
27.Sexual gratification/excitement by wearing clothes and acting the role of opposite sex. Transvestism
28.Refer to honest policemen who are ready to cover and conceal corrupt practices of the police department as
part of camaraderie and the unwritten code of silence. Straight Shooters
29.Refers to police officers who passively accept gifts and bribes as they come along also known as “Vegetarian
Cops”. Grass Eaters
30.It defers characteristics such as race, ethnicity, or religion through social pressure, restrictive laws or
personal choice. Segregation
31.Refers to the ability to govern and discipline oneself by means or logical reasoning and sound discretion.
Prudence
32.Is a part of corruption continuum, wherein an honest police officer turns bad due to repeatedly accepting free
meals, which leads to serious misbehaviour and finally corruption? Slippery slope
33.Refers to policemen with integrity and honest and straightforward. Mostly idealistic they rise above
corruption and confront it. White Knights
34.Refers to the acceptance of gifts, money or favor as a result of an act performed by a police officer or public
servant. Pasasalamat
35.This design is applied to those samples which are taken because they are the most available. The researcher
simply takes the nearest individuals as subjects of the study until the sample reaches the desired size.
(incidental sampling)
36. An examination of data or facts in terms of quantity, quality, attribute, trait, pattern, trend and relationship
among others so as to answer research questions which involve statistical techniques and procedures . (data
analysis)
37. This type of data encourages the researcher to become involved with the subjects, looking for meaning and
developing emergent theories through the analysis of soft, non-numerical data. (qualitative data)
38. It is defined as written works collectively especially those of enduring importance, exhibiting creative
Imagination and artistic skill which are written in a particular period language and subject. ( related
literature)
39. It is defined as the method of getting a representative portion of a population- total of objects, persons,
families, species or order of plants or of animals. (Sampling)
40. It is a means of converting information either manually or by machine into quantitative and qualitative
forms for use in research analysis. (data processing)
41.His interest in socialism led him to recognize the importance of social, economic, and political determinants.
He believed that criminals could be held morally responsible for their crimes because they did not choose to
commit crimes but, rather, driven to commit by conditions of their lives. Enrico Ferri
42.According to his theory, natural crimes are found in all human societies, regardless of the views of the
lawmakers and no civilized society can afford to disregard them. He traced the roots of criminal behavior
not to physical features but to their roots of criminal behavior not to physical features but to their
psychological equivalents, which he called “moral anomalies”. (Raffaele Garofalo)
43.This emphasizes the subordinate position of women in society. According to this, remains in a position of
inferiority that has not been fully rectified by changes in the law during the 20 th century. (Feminist
Criminology)
44.He emphasizes that criminal behavior is learned in interaction with others, usually in small groups, and that
criminals learn to favor criminal behavior over noncriminal behavior. (Edwin Sutherland)
45.An American psychologist who devoted his life to observing the variety of human bodies and temperaments.
He taught and did research at a number of U.S Universities and is best known for his series of books on
human constitution. (Willian Herbert Sheldon)
46.This body type is manifested by relatively great development of digestive viscera tendency to put on fat; soft
roundness, short tampering, limps; small bones; and smooth velvety skin. (Endomorphic)
47.This physique where there is relatively predominance of muscle, bone and the motor organ or the body; large
wrist and hands, if lean a hard rectangular outline. (Mesomorphic)
48.This type of physique is evidenced by relatively predominance of skin and its appendages which include the
nervous system, fragile, delicate bones droopy shoulders small face, sharp nose, fine hair relatively small
body mass and relatively great surface area. (Ectomorphic)
49.According to their research, “delinquency rates increased as one moved away from the center of the city, and
ecological rates of delinquency remained stable over generations despite a complete turnover of ethnic
composition and social disorganization explained the high rates of delinquency in the inner-city”. (Shaw
and McKay)
50.He advocated the strain theory, which maintains that the failure of man to achieve a higher status of life
caused them to commit crimes on order for that status/goal to be attained; He even identified two kinds of
Strain “Structural and Individual”. (Robert King Merton)
Exercise: (1. Introduction to Criminology, 2. Human Behavior 3. Ethics and Values, 4. Juvenile Justice
System, 5. Research)
1. Those who continue to commit crime because of deficiency of intelligence and lack of self-
control.
a. Habitual Criminal c. Acute Criminal
b. Active Criminal d. Passive Criminal
2. Franco committed crimes due to his aggressiveness, What type of criminal does Franco
belong?
a. Habitual Criminal c. Active Criminal
b. Acute Criminal d. Passive Inadequate Criminal
3. Those who commit crimes because they are pushed to it by reward or promise.
a. Habitual Criminal c. Active Criminal
b. Acute Criminal d. Passive Inadequate Criminal
4. It contends that crime is one instance may be caused by one or more factors, while in
other instances it is caused by another set of factors.
a. Strain Theory c. Eclectic Theory
b. Rational Choice Theory d. Labelling Theory
5. He published the book entitled “An Introduction to the Principles of Morals and
Legislation” in where he stated that “Society is based on social- contract which calls for
the exchange of liberties for freedoms”.
a. Jeremy Bentham c. Paulo Coelho
b. Edwin Sutherland d. Walter Reckless
6. This explanation accepts the fact that crimes are committed in accordance with the free
will of men but the act of committing a crime is modified by some causes that finally
prevail upon the person to commit crimes.
a. Neo-classical School of Thought c. Positivist Theory
b. Positive School of Thought d. Positivism
7. This studies first the natural origin of crime and then its social and legal consequences
in order to provide, by social and legal means.
8. This term refers to a method of analysis based on the collection of observable scientific
facts.
9. This is the study of the relationship between the facial features and human conduct of a
person in relation to his crimes.
a. Physiognomy c. Demonology
b. Astrology d. Theology
10. This emphasizes the subordinate position of women in society. According to this, remains
in a position of inferiority that has not been fully rectified by changes in the law
during the 20th century.
a. Feminist Criminology c. Study of Woman
b. Feminism d. All of the above
11. Membership in fraternities or groups that advocate bad things.

a. Over Inhibited c. Socialized Delinquency
b. Un-socialized Aggression d. Socialized Delinquent
12. Rejected or abandoned no parents to imitate and become aggressive.

a. Over Inhibited c. Socialized Delinquency
b. Un-socialized Aggression d. Socialized Delinquent
13. Begins at early age with stubborn behavior. This leads to defiance and then to authority
avoidance.
a. Authority-conflict Pathway c. Covert Pathway
b. Overt Pathway d. Social conflict Pathway
14. Begins with minor, underhanded behavior that leads to property damage. This behavior
eventually escalates to more serious forms of criminality.
15. Escalates to aggressive acts beginning with aggression and leading to physical fighting
and then to violence.
16. They become delinquents as a result of their social association with people from whom
they learned deviant values.
a. Neurotic Delinquents c. Socialized Delinquents
b. Psychotic Delinquents d. Psychiatric Delinquents
17. Proposes that juveniles sense a moral obligation to be bound by the law. Such a bind
between a person and the law remains in place most of the time. When it is not in place,
delinquents will drift.
a. Interactional Theory c. Neutralization Theory
b. Self-Derogation Theory d. Culture Deviance Theory
18. All motivation to maximize our self-esteem, motivation to conform will be minimized by
family, school and peer interactions that devalue our sense of self.
19. This theory states that weakening of a child’s social bond is the fundamental cause of
delinquency.
20. This theory argues that it is the absence of self-control rather than the presence of
come forces or factors such as poverty, anomie, opportunities for deviance, delinquent
peers, etc,.
a. Interactional Theory c. Self-control Theory
21. This theory links delinquents’ acts to the formation of independent subcultures with a
unique set of values that clash with the main stream culture.
22. These are actions commonly “deems”, such as defending or attacking in reaction to a
threat.
a. Values c. Instinctive
b. Moral d. Emotions
23. Refers to demeanours which are resorted to in a regular basis it may be further
characterized as: emotional and language.
a. Habitual c. Complimentary
b. Habbit d. Negative Value
24. Are human conduct which is unlearned and inherent, said to be present at birth of a
person, and significantly influenced by heredity.
25. Human conduct in response to stimuli undertaken by means of substitution.

a. Complex c. Symbolic
b. Instinctive d. Habitual
26. Refers to two or more habitual behavior which occurs in one situation.
a. Complex c. Symbolic
b. Instinctive d. Habitual
27. A condition of psychological arousal an expression or display of distinctive somatic and

autonomic responses.
28. Joy/sadness, acceptance/disgust, anger/fear, _____?

a. surprise/anticipation c. fantasy/reality
b. perception/feelings d. none of them
29. It includes hysterical amnesia, the sleep walking trance, multiple personality with the
victim dis-associative with the environment as a whole, and losing track entirely of the
passage of time.
a. Dis-associative Neurosis c. Anxiety
b. Amnesia d. Conversation Neurosis
30. Converted into physical symptoms associated with all parts of the body, symbolic of the
underlying conflict, motor disturbances, impaired movement or paralysis.
a. Dis-associative Neurosis c. Anxiety
b. Amnesia d. Conversation Neurosis
31. Understand sufferer is disturbed and not crazy; refer to a person appropriate treatment
facility.
a. Obsessive-Compulsive c. Phobic
b. Depressed d. None of the them
32. There is delusion of persecution or grandeur, hallucination usually auditory sometimes

are present.
a. Paranoid Schizophrenia c. Hebephrenic
b. Simple Schizophrenia d. All of them
33. How community relation originated its meaning.
a. Communitas c. Community
b. Communis d. Relation
34. The society’s prime instrument for making known what acts are crimes and what sanctions
may be applied to those who commit acts defined as crimes.
a. Law c. Justice
b. Conduct d. Ethics
35. How Characteristics change tactics and techniques in social action?

a. Shift power relationship and resources to an oppressed group
b. Activist; advocate agitator; broker; negotiator; partisan
c. Employer or consultant
d. Conflict or contest
36. A social norm providing guidance for people in their dealings with one another, as a
standard against which actions are evaluated, and as a prescription or requirement that
people act justly.
a. Law c. Justice
b. Ethics d. Conduct
37. It is also called community development

a. Locality Development Model c. Social Planning Model
b. Social Action Model d. Social System Model
38. The role of an expert is stressed in this approach

39. This approached is often Expressed.

40. How goals percept its locality development in community relation.

a. Self-help c. Emphasis on process goals
b. Improve community living d. All of the above
41. How social planning perform its goals in community relationship.

a. Use problem-solving approach to resolve community problems
b. Through the efforts of planning experts
c. Using fact gathering and problem-solving approach
d. Consensus on conflict
42. Rules of conduct applied to law enforcement.

a. Police ethics c. Code of Police Ethics
b. Rules of Engagement d. All of these
43. Regulates those actions that involve the rights that exist between.
a. Justice c. Distributive Justice
b. Commutative Justice d. Legal Justice
44. Regulates those actions in which an individual claims his rights from society.
a. Justice c. Distributive Justice
b. Commutative Justice d. Legal Justice
45. A police officer’s practice of engaging in any other calling or business aside from law
enforcement while on active service.
a. Immorality c. Moonlighting
b. Illegal business d. Unauthorized business
46. This is used to test the hypothesis to answer the problem which includes instrumentation.
a. Methods c. design
b. Procedures d. process
47. A research that involves observation in actual setting field research, or study of
certain phenomena.
a. action c. descriptive
b. experimental d. sociological
48. It is result, an outcome, or a decision of a research conducted

a. conclusions c. recommendations
b. findings d. interpretations
49. These researchers conducted ecological analysis of the distribution of delinquency rates
in Chicago and found out that delinquency was concentrated in or near areas zoned
industrial or commercial.
a. Clliford Shaw and Henry Mckay c. Rolf Loebec and Thornberry
b. Richmond and Blumstein d. Rochester and Southamer
50. It is compiled from data that state and county agencies provide the juvenile Court Data
Archive that provides information about offenses charged; age, gender and race of
offenders, referral sources; detention practices, petitioning decision, and dispositions
ordered.
a. juvenile offenses survey c. juvenile court statistics
b. juvenile case statistics d. juvenile courts cases
December 2018
CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION
1. A means of social control, People believe that “punishment” is effective as a means of social control but this belief is
doubtful, Redress that the state takes against an-offending members. “Punishment”
2. It is infliction of some sort of pain on the offender for violating the law. “General Concept of Punishment”
3. Justification of Punishment
 Retribution - Redress through personal vengeance.
 Expiation or Atonement- condemnation of the whole group against the offending member.
 Deterrence - Punishment gives a lesson to the offender.
 Protection - by putting the offender in prison, society is protected.
 Reformation – society can best be protected from crime if the purpose of imprisonment is to reform or
rehabilitate the prisoner.
PRE-CLASSICAL THEORIES OF PUNISHMENT
 Secular Theory - (Arristotle(Athenian Philosopher) “Nicomedean Ethics”)

- Punishment is a means of restoring the balance between pleasure and pain.
- Another form of so called, “Free-will Theory”
- “corrective justice” is a means whereby the loss suffered by the wronged man is compensated.
Suffering by the offender restores the balance between the injured and the transgressor.
 The Judean – “Christian Theory” 30 AD, Believes that punishment has a redemptive Purpose of repelling sin
advocated by the Devil.
 Rise of the Canonical Courts
4. Cesare Beccaria (Italian philosopher) – Author of the book “Crimes and Punishment” (1764)
Contributions:
 Arbitrary Policies given by the Judges
 Uncertainty and Obscurity of the Laws
 Defects in Criminal procedure in admission of testimonies (Secret accusations, Torture, Incrimination of
witnesses, lone pending cases, abuse of power by rich against the poor.)
5. Cesare Lombroson (Jurisprudence and Psychiatry) – “The Criminal in Relation to Anthropology”
6. Enrico Ferri (1856) – “Theory of Imputability and the Denial of the Free-will” 1878
7. Rafaele Garofalo – (Naples 1856) – “Crime can be understood only as it is studied by scientific methods”
8. The Modern Clinical School –“The criminal is the product of his biological inheritance” the school entirely
repudiates “Retribution, Expiation and Intimidation”.
9. Jail - was introduced in “Medieval Europe”
10. 1718 – England began transporting prisoners to American Colonies until the American Retribution.
11. Development of Prison - Provision of the “Pennsylvania Reform” law of 1790.
12. The Auburn System – Confinement of the Prisoners in Single cells at night and congregate work in shops during the
day.
13. The Pennsylvania System - Confinement of the prisoners in their own cells days and night.
14. The Reformatory Movement (19th Century) – Manuel Montesimos (Director of the prison of Valencia, Spain 1835)
divided prisoners into companies and appointed prisoners as petty officers in charge. Academic classes of one hour a
day were given all inmates under 20yrs of age.
15. Domets of France – established and agricultural colony for delinquent’s boys in 1839
based on re-education rather than force.
16. Alexander Maconochie – Father of Parole System (in England) and introduced a progressive humane
system to substitute for corporal punishment – “ The Mark System ”
17. Sir Walter Crofton – Introduced “ The Irish System in 1856 ”
18. Zebulon Reed Brockway – Forerunner of modern penology (1876) and the Elmira System
19. Sir Evelyn Ruggles Brise (England) – the Borstal Institution and best institutions for young offenders.
Golden Age of Penology
20. 1870 (National Prison Association) – Now, American Correctional Association- Declaration of Principles.
21. 1875- International Prison Congress (London)
22. 1876, The Elmira Reformatory – The first separate “Institution for Women” Indiana & Massachusetts.
23. Act No. 4221 – “Philippine Assembly adult Probation” abolished in 1973 (after two years) People vs. Vera, 37 O.G
164 re-established PD 968 (signed by President Ferdinand Marcos) July 24, 1976.
“Parole is the extension of imprisonment. The period served on parole is part of the same sentence that he serves in
the prison”
24. Diversification of Institution
 Diversification by Age- segregation between under the age of 18 and older group.
 Diversification of Sex- Male and Female in cells
 Diversification by Degree of Custody, (a) Super Security Facility – Consists of Incorrigibles, recidivists,
escape artist, and chronic troublemakers. (b) Maximum Security Institution – thick all enclosures –Prisoners
are “Not allowed” to work outside institution, but “assigned” to industrial shops within the “prison
enclosures”. (c)
 Medium Security Institution- enclosed by 2 layers of wire fence may be allowed to work outside the fence
under guard escorts. (d) The Minimum Security Institution- without fence. (e) The Special Facility – consists
of incurables, intractable and dangerous persons who are difficult to manage.
 Diversification of Institutions by Medical or Mental Conditions.
25. Admission Procedures – Checking of Commitment Papers  Searching the Prisoners  Issuance of Clothes and
Equipment  Assignment to Quarters  The Quarantine Unit
26. Act No. 1533 – Law on Working Detention
27. Act No. 3326 – Law on Prescription of Penalty
28. Act No. 3316 – Basis for granting good Conduct Time allowance to inmate
29. Act No. 4103 –Indeterminate Sentence Law
30. EO 292- Supervision of Parole and Probation
31. RA 4221 –Probation in the Philippines
Establishing Year of Philippine Prisons
32. 1847 – The Bilibid Prison
33. 1953 – the Reception and Diagnostic Center
34. 1869 – The San Ramon Prison and Penal Farm, (Ramon Blanco) Spanish Capt. in the Royal Army.
35. Nov. 16 1904 – The Iwahig Penal Colony , (R.J Shields w/ his 16 prisoners)
36. 1931 – The Correctional Institution for Women, Authority Act 3579 on Nov. 27, 1929
37. Jan 12, 1932 – The Davao Penal Colony, in accordance Act. No. 414 series 1931 by General Paulino Santos
38. Sept. 27, 1954 – The Sablayan Penal Colony and Farm
39. Proclamation No. 51- by, President Manuel Roxas, January 28,1948 World war II
40. Proclamation No. 76 – President Elpidio Quirino, June 21, 1948 Hukbalahap and Pambansang Kaisahan ng mga
magbubukid.
41. Municipal Prisoners- May be deprived of liberty for not more than 6 months.
42. Provincial or City Prisoners- Not more than 3 years
43. National Prisoners – “all other prisoners”
44. PARDON- A form of executive clemency that is exercised by the chief executive. An act of grace and the recipient of
pardon are not entitled to it as a matter of RIGHT.
45. Absolute Pardon – w/o any conditions attached
 Pardon- (granted by) Chief Executive, after conviction/already convicted
 Amnesty- (granted by) Congress, Trial or Investigation
46. Conditional Pardon- must first be accepted by the recipient before it takes effect. (granted by) President and the
Board of Pardons and Parole, Petition as request is given by the BPP (Board of Pardon and Parole) Parole (granted by)
BPP.
47. Amnesty- A general Pardon extended to groups of persons and is generally exercised by executive clemency with the
concurrence of congress.
48. Communication – an act of clemency by which an executive act change a heavier sentence to a less serious one or a
long term.
49. Reprieve –Temporary stay on the execution, exercised by President.
50. Good Conduct –Time Deductions- conditional release, is the statutory shortening of the maximum sentence. Act No.
2489 Industrial Good Time Law.
51. Probation- A term, coined by John Augustus from the Latin verb “probare” which means to prove or test. It is a
procedure under which the court release a defendant found guilty of a crime without imprisonment subject to the
condition imposed by the court and subject to supervision of the probation service.
Founding of Probation
52. Mathew Davenport Hill -18th Century English judge.
53. John Augustus – 19th Century Boston Boot maker, FATHER OF PROBATION, Woburn Massachusetts.
54. PD 968 – Adult Probation Law of 1976, 24th of July.
Exercise: 1. Institutional Correction, 2. Non-Institutional Correction

1. This kind of punishment was given to the offender to show others what would happen to
them if they committed a heinous crime.
A. Protection C. Deterrence
B. Lethal injection D. Stoning
2. For amnesty to be granted, there should be:

A. Recommendation from the UN C. Recommendation from the CHR
B. Application D. Concurrence of Congress
3. It is the penalty where a convicted person shall not be permitted to enter the place
designated in the sentence, or within the radius specified therein which shall not be
more than 250 meters and not less than 25 meters.
A. Segregation C. Destierro
B. Fine D. Imprisonment
4. The period of deducted sentence granted to a prisoner who escaped on the occasion of
disorder arising from conflagration, earthquakes, volcanic eruptions or any catastrophe
where he voluntarily returns and surrenders within 48 hours following the proclamation
announcing the termination of such disorder.
A. 2/5 reduction of sentence C. 1/3 reduction of sentence
B. ¼ reduction of sentence D. 1/5 reduction of sentence
5. Probation is a condition privilege an act of mercy by the judge which has not been
earned by the defendant, and such probation can simply be withdrawn in any condition if
the privilege is violated by the probationer.
A. Contract Theory C. Consistent Theory
B. Grace Theory D. Custody Theory
6. It is the punishment and treatment model of prisons established in 1820 by which

communication among the inmates was next to impossible, since prisoners are individually
isolated.
A. Mark system C. Irish system
B. Auburn system D. Pennsylvania system
7. A person who is sentenced to serve imprisonment for not more than 6 months.
A. Insular prisoner C. City prisoner
B. Provincial prisoner D. Municipal prisoner
8. This is a procedure which allows a jail prisoner to pursue his normal job during the
week and return to the jail to serve his sentence during weekends and non-working hours.
A. Amnesty C. Probation
B. Good Conduct Time Allowance D. Delayed sentence
9. He established the Borstal Prison which was known as the finest institution for young
offender.
A. Macanochie C. Sir Walter Crofton
B. Zebulon Reed Brockway D. Sir Evelyn Ruggles Brise
10. It is an act of clemency which changes a heavier sentence to a less serious one or a
longer tern to a shorter term.
A. Pardon C. Commutation
B. Probation D. None of these
11. This are the group of prisoners who may be allowed to work outside the fence under guard
escorts generally employed as agricultural workers.
A. Medium security prisoners C. Maximum security prisoners
B. Minimum security prisoner D. Super security prisoners
12. He introduced the “Progressive of Mark System” of penal management granting privileges,
and service reduction leading to a ticket to leave.
A. Sir Evelyn Ruggles Brise C. Sir Walter Crofton
B. Alexander Macanochie D. Zebulon Brockway Reed
13. It refers to commission of another crime during the service of sentence of penalty
imposed for another previous offense.
A. Recidivism C. Delinquency
B. Quasi-recidivism D. “Concurso De Delito”
14. A model in correctional history that had been successful for young boys and girls in the
earlier house of refuge and training that was adopted for older offenders.
A. Family model C. Reform model
B. Penitence model D. Rehabilitation model
15. It detains minimum custody offenders serving short sentences with constructive work
programs by providing employment to prisoners, remedial services and constructive
leisure time activities.
A. Provincial jails C. Ordinary jails
B. Workhouse, jail camps, camp house D. Lock-up
16. This prison system implemented confinement of inmates in their cells for day and night.
A. Auburn System C. Pennsylvania System
B. Borstal D. Alcatraz
17. This system was evaluated as more advantageous because prisoners can be more efficient
and increase output when they work in groups instead of working alone.
A. Maison de force C. Auburn System
B. Irish System D. Pennsylvania System
18. This branch takes charge of the preparation of the daily menu, food purchases,
preparing, cooking and serving the food of the inmates on a day to day basis.
A. General services branch C. Mittimus computing branch
B. Budget and finance branch D. Mess services branch
19. It is a justification for punishment which claims that certain things can be done after
the person has served his sentence will not want to commit another offense.
A. Incapacitation C. Deterrence
B. Rehabilitation D. Retribution
20. It is a temporary stay of execution of sentence.

A. Reprieve C. Pardon
B. Commutation D. Amnesty
21. It is not to be considered as a punishment when used to prevent an inmate from

influencing witnesses or of preventing injury to himself or others.
A. Counsel and reprimand C. Loss of Privilege
B. Solitary Confinement D. Loss of Good Time
22. This group consists of chronic troublemakers but not as dangerous as the super security
prisoners, since they are not allowed working outside the institution.
A. maximum security prisoners C. super security prisoners
B. minimum security prisoners D. medium security prisoners
23. It is the factor used mostly for the diversification of correctional institutions.
A. Degree of custody C. Sex
B. Age D. Medical and Mental condition
24. It is a program of graduated release designed to reduce the severity of abrupt discharge
into the community from the institutional life.
A. Re-entry program C. group counselling
B. Conjugal visits D. Psychodrome program
25. Inmates who commits suicide are considered as in any of the following:
A. Liability of the jail administration
B. Liability of the sentencing court
C. No liability because inmate is insane
D. Liability of the inmate himself
26. ___________ is an act of grace and the recipient is not entitled to it as a matter of
right.
A. Pardon C. Parole
B. Probation D. None of these
27. Upon the assumption of the IPPC’s work, the United Nations preferred to identify its
activities and programs under the broader concept of _____________.
A. Social justice C. Social offense
B. Social defense D. Juvenile justice
28. It is practiced under English common law whereby judge could suspend the imposition or
execution of a sentence on condition of good behaviour on the part of the offender.
A. PD 603 C. Recognize of good behaviour
B. Benefits of Clergy D. Judicial Reprieve
29. It is one which will relieve inmate’s feeling of insecurity about his situation; it is
likewise essential in effecting new changes which affect the masses or inmate
population.
A. Good communication C. Food and recreation
B. Conjugal leave D. All of these
30. A person who is sentenced to serve a prison term of over three(3) years is a-
A. Municipal prisoner C. National or Insular prisoner
B. Detention prisoner D. City prisoner
31. Pardon cannot be exercised in which of the following instances

A. before conviction
B. after conviction
C. before trial
D. before conviction and before trial
32. Pardon is exercised when the person is ___________________________.

A. already convicted C. not yet convicted
B. bout to be convicted D. serve the sentence
33. The purpose of the decree on probation shall be to

A. Provide an opportunity for the reformation of a penitent offender which might be
less probable if he were to serve a prison sentence.
B. Prevent the commission of offenses
C. Promote the correction and rehabilitation of an offender by providing him with
individualized treatment
D. All of these
34. Punishing a criminal to serve as example to others is a theory of ______________.

A. Self-defense C. Social defense
B. Exemplary D. Equality
35. The Head of Bureau of Corrections is known as -

A. Chief of the Bureau of Corrections
B. Director of the Bureau of Corrections
C. Superintendent of the Bureau of Corrections
D. None of these
36. The first workhouse in England (1557-1558)

A. Singsing Prison C. Alcatraz
B. Bridewell D. Walnut Street Journal
37. B.J.M.P. is under the administration of the:

A. Executive Department C. P.N.P.
B. D.I.L.G. D. None of these
38. The basis of this school of penology is human freewill.

A. Penology School C. Classical School
B. Neo-Classical D. Positivist
39. Takes charge of financial affairs particularly in accounting, budgeting and other
related activities by the consolidation of financial reports and statements of
subsistence outlays and disbursements in the operation of the jail.
A. Budget and Finance Branch C. General Services Branch

B. Property and Supply Branch D. Mass Services Branch
40. Operation conducted by the BJMP wherein the prisoner may be searched at any time to look
for contrabands.
A. Check and Balance C. S.O.P
B. Inventory D. Operation Greyhound
41. The first international cooperation with respect to the prevention of crime and the
treatment of convicted offenders in 1875 is _________.
A. American Correctional Association
B. Philippine Correctional Association
C. Correctional Association of the Philippines
D. International Penal and Penitentiary Commission
42. It is that branch of administration of Criminal Justice System charged with the
responsibility for the custody, supervision and rehabilitation of convicted offenders.
A. Conviction C. Corrections
B. Penalty D. Punishment
43. This is also called guidance or case conference where the prisoner after undergoing all
tests and interviews, appear before the Center’s staff to plan out his tentative
rehabilitation program.
A. Admissions procedure C. Exit conference
B. Guidance and counselling D. Staff conference
44. This law provides that life sentence shall be automatically reduced to 30 years.
A. PD 603 C. RA 2849
B. EO 343 D. RA 9165
45. He introduced the “Progressive of Mark System” of penal management granting privileges,
and service reduction leading to a ticket to leave.
A. Sir Evelyn Ruggles Brise C. Sir Walter Crofton
B. Alexander Macanochie D. Zebulon Brockway Reed
46. Pardon cannot be extended to one of the following instances.

A. Rebellion C. Coup D’ Etat
B. Plunder D. Impeachment
47. A model in correctional history that had been successful for young boys and girls in the
earlier house of refuge and training that was adopted for older offenders.
A. Family model C. Reform model
B. Penitence model D. Rehabilitation model
48. Punishing a criminal to serve as an example to others is a theory of ___________.

A. Self-defense C. Social defense
B. Exemplarity D. Equality
49. ________ of prisoners are aimed to prevent moral and physical contamination of inmates
and to thwart unnecessary custodial risks.
A. Classification C. None of these
B. Imprisonment D. Segregation
50. It was built in 1704 by Pope Clement XI for incorrigible boys and persons under30.
A. Hospice of San Michelle C. Irish System
B. Maison de Force D. Auburn system

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Criminology Licensure Examination

One grave felony + two less grave felonies = Complex Crime

35. Requirements of a crime

Exercise: Criminal Jurisprudence (Book1, Book2, Criminal Procedure, Criminal Evidence)

3. A fine exceeding 200 is :

4. A criminal conspiracy exists when:

5. Self-defense requires as its permanent element:

6. Crime committed under an impulse of an uncontrollable fear is:

7. An impulse of an uncontrollable fear is best exemplified by the principle:

8. An act without an intent is a crime may be best described by the maxim:

12. Which is true about impotency?

13. Which of the following factor/s predisposes a person to mental disorder?

14. Insanity may be a basis for the following, EXCEPT

15. Law is?

16. Principles governing applicability and effect of Law.

17. Which statement or principle is true?

18. Persons authorized to make a will:

19. Serious Physical Injury is present when

20. Which is NOT a requisite for simple seduction

23. A confession is different from admission because the latter is.

25. When is a circumstantial evidence sufficient to produce conviction?

26. Which statement is NOT valid with regards to hearsay evidence?

28. Which of the following statements is not valid?

33. It means possession by a person of certain qualities of mind or morals,

35. A conclusion based from facts.

38. Res gestae means:

40. What is the significance of evidence presented before the court?

41. Ken is an employee of Dimalaya Corporation. As an employee thereof, he was able to

42. Which of the following is not a source of Philippine Penal Laws?

43. Criminal liability is partially extinguished by _______?

48. Deliberate planning of act before execution.

LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION

1. Essential in the efficient performance of routine duties, in the wise direction of

a. Arrest and warrant records c. Identification records

a. Investigation report c. Complaint/assigned sheet

a. Case records c. 201 file

a. Originated policy c. Appealed policy

a. Chain of command c. Delegation of authority

a. Regular uniformed personnel c. Permanent appointment

10. The gauge of police efficiency is the absence of crimes.

12. Control would entail which activity?

14. Largest organic unit within a large department

15. Etymology of the word police, meaning government of a city.

a. Hazards c. Uninhabited places

20. Territorial decentralization is more appropriate in which police function?

a. Morning shift c. Midnight shift

24. What is the importance of workable Police Personnel Program?

27. What are the functions of Police financial compensations, except?

28. How policy gives its purpose to the procedures?

29. How Originated Policy applied?

30. How Imposed policy applied?

42. The first Filipino Chief of the Philippine Constabulary in 1917.

45. The first chief of the Philippine National Police.

50. The police force is led by an Inspector-General of Police (IGP)

Criminology Licensure Examination

44. Wound produced by butcher`s knife. (Hack wound)

3. Refers to the process of taking pictures with the use of microscope.

4. Commonly used hardening agent and an acid fixing solution.

5. Chemical used as an accelerator in a developer solution.

8. A German criminologist who discovered that fingerprinting for identification purpose

9. Regarded as the “Father of Fingerprints”.

10. Basis of fingerprint identification.

11. Fingerprinting is universally used as a valuable method of identification due to

14. First Filipino expert on fingerprinting.

Question & Answer

Question & Answer