ABRET CORRELATION OF HISTORY WITH

EEG EXAM 100% VERIFIED.

An EEG obtained within 24 hours following a closed head injury would be LEAST likely
to show

a. focal polymorphic delta activity

b. focal spike activity
c. asymmetry of the background activity
d. slowing over the posterior head regions Answer -focal spike activity

The EEG of a patient with Lennox-Gastaut syndrome is most likely to show:

a. occipital spikes
b. 1.5 Hz spike and wave discharges
c. temporal sharp waves
d. 3 Hz spike and wave discharges Answer -1.5 Hz spike and wave discharges

Which of the following infectious diseases is most frequently associated with periodic
complexes in the EEG?

a. neurosyphilis
b. herpes simplex encephalitis
c. tuberculous meningitis
d. mumps encephalitis Answer -herpes simplex encephalitis

What is the typical EEG pattern associated with absence seizures?

a. 1.5 Hz spike and wave

b. 3 Hz spike and wave
c. focal spike and wave
d. polyspike and wave Answer -3 hz spike and wave

The EEG is most likely to show hypsarrhythmia pattern in patients with:

a. West syndrome
b. Lennox-Gastaut syndrome
c. absence seizures
d. temporal lobe epilepsy Answer -west syndrome (infantile spasms)

Localized or lateralized high voltage delta

a. subarachnoid hemorrhage
b. alcohol withdrawal
c. subdural hematoma
d. cerebral abscess Answer -cerebral abscess (pus filled swelling in the brain from
infection)

This patient's seizures begin with mumbling and difficulty with speech, progress to
jerking on the right side, then a generalized convulsion. What is the likely correlate?

a. wicket spikes
b. bi-PLEDS
c. complex partial seizure
d. electrodecremental seizure Answer -complex partial seizure

Landau-kleffner syndrome

a. aphasia
b. agnosia
c. apraxia
d. ataxia Answer -aphasia (acquired aphasia)

If a 3 year old girl has a febrile seizure a week prior to EEG recording, which of the
following is the most likely finding?

a. high voltage slowing with occasional spikes

b. focal spikes
c. 3 Hz spike and wave activity
d. a normal record Answer -a normal record

A disease characterized by progressive dementia and periodic sharp wave complexes

on the EEG is:

a. Rasmussens encephalitis
b. Wilson's disease
c. Tay Sachs disease
d. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease Answer -Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

Meningitis

a. positive babinki's signs

b. nuchal rigidity
c. cortical blindness
d. aphasia Answer -nuchal rigidity (stiff neck)

A stroke which results in only LEFT leg weakness most likely involves which of the
following arteries?

a. the right vertebral artery

b. the right posterior communicating artery
c. the right anterior cerebral artery
d. the right posterior cerebral artery Answer -the right anterior cerebral artery

An underlying lesion of white matter will more likely result in

a. focal slowing
b. intermittent slowing
c. generalized spike and wave
d. suppression Answer -focal slowing (white matter lesions are areas of dead cells in
the brain, they are often indicative of a neurological disorder, also common with aging
when they occur in small areas)

The EEG of a patient with Down's syndrome is most likely to show:

a. paroxysmal fast activity

b. high amplitude delta slowing
c. slow spike and wave
d. normal activity Answer -normal activity

The EEG is always abnormal in

a. transient ischemic attack

b. Parkinson's disease
c. herpes simplex encephalitis
d. Alzheimer's disease Answer -herpes simplex encephalitis

Seizures commonly result from withdrawal of which of the following?

a. nicotine
b. ibuprofen
c. alcohol
d. antihistimine Answer -alcohol

The EEG of a patient in the earliest stages of Alzheimer's disease is most likely to show

a. temporal sharp waves

b. 5-6 Hz background activity
c. FIRDA
d. normal activity Answer -normal activity

Occipital spikes in response to low frequency flashes are most commonly seen in what
conditions?

a. Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy

b. Batten's disease
c. Huntington's disease
d. Occipital lobe epilepsy Answer -Batten's disease

Seizures with visual hallucinations such as flashing lights are most likely to arise from
the:

a. occipital lobe
b. temporal lobe
c. parietal lobe
d. frontal lobe Answer -occipital lobe (visual cortex)

The interictal EEG of children with a history of untreated febrile seizures usually is

a. excessively fast
b. asynchronous and slow
c. diffusely paroxysmal
d. normal Answer -normal

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

a. multifocal spikes
b. LPDs/PLEDs
c. GPDs/GPEDs
d. FIRDA Answer -GPDs/GPEDs

What effects might be seen on an EEG performed on a patient with chronic alcoholism?

a. diffuse slowing
b. low amplitude and decreased alpha
c. high amplitude beta
d. frontal slowing Answer -low amplitude and decreased alpha

PLEDs are not typically seen in patients with

a. herpes simplex encephalitis

b. acute cerebral infarct
c. acute cerebral lesions
d. Lennox-Gastaut Answer -Lennox-Gastaut

Which of the following EEG patterns is characteristic of West syndrome?

a. Generalized spike and wave

b. hypersynchrony
c. status epilepticus
d. hypsarrythmia Answer -hypsarrythmia
The EEG of a patient with hepatic encephalopathy is most likely to show:

a. burst suppression pattern

b. generalized triphasic waves
c. atypical spike and wave
d. FIRDA Answer -generalized triphasic waves (hepatic is related to liver)

An EEG pattern usually seen in toxic-metabolic encephalopathies, most commonly

hepatic or renal. Usually associated with an alteration of consciousness

a. intermittent rhythmic delta patterns

b. subtle changes in the background rhythms
c. PLEDs
d. Triphasic waves Answer -triphasic waves

Which of the following would indicate the best prognosis in a comatose patient?

a. generalized low amplitude delta with no background activity

b. electrographic changes indicating wakefulness and sleep
c. spindle coma
d. generalized suppression of the EEG Answer -electrographic changes indicating
wakefulness and sleep

Very high voltage, generalized, but anterior-dominant fast activity appearing as

continuous sleep spindles sometimes found in mental retardation has been referred to
as:

a. super spindles
b. mega spindles
c. frontal spindles
d. extreme spindles Answer -extreme spindles

The EEG pattern of hypsarrythmia is usually associated with

a. infantile spasms
b. absence seizures
c. generalized tonic clonic seizures
d. complex partial seizures Answer -infantile spasms

Benign Rolandic epilepsy

a. parietal-occipital spikes
b. central-temporal spikes
c. occipital spikes
d. frontal spikes Answer -central-temporal spikes
Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis is associated with:

a. measles
b. mononucleosis
c. HIV
d. polio Answer -measles

Tonic phase in GTC is characterized by:

a. synchronous spike and wave

b. generalized delta-theta with focal spike-wave
c. generalized voltage suppression and muscle artifact
d. focal polyspikes Answer -generalized voltage suppression and muscle artifact (tonic
is stiffening and clonic is jerking)

Features such as bicycling movements, kicking, throwing things, rocking; often

nocturnal

a. parietal lobe seizures

b. occipital lobe seizures
c. frontal lobe seizures
d. temporal lobe seizures Answer -frontal lobe seizures

Five year old boy with previously normal development, presents with sudden loss of
language skills. EEG shows frequent epileptiform discharges during sleep. Which of the
following could be considered as a potential diagnoses?

a. Landau-Kleffner syndrome
b. Lennox-Gastaut syndrome
c. Dravet syndrome
d. Tourette syndrome Answer -Landau Kleffner syndrome

Which of the following requires sterilization before and after use?

a. electrode nets
b. surface electrodes
c. oximeter probes
d. In-dwelling depth electrodes Answer -In-dwelling depth electrodes

High amplitude spikes in the occipital region, time locked with a slow photic stimulus
rate in young children is a characteristic of which of the following diseases?

a. Malaria disease
b. Rubella disease
c. Batten's disease
d. Pertusis disease Answer -Batten's disease
Burst Suppression

a. rage attack
b. benign hypertension
c. transient ischemia attack
d. deep anesthesia Answer -deep anesthesia

What clinical states may cause the alpha rhythm to attenuate?

a. anxiety
b drowsiness
c. attention
d. all are correct Answer -all are correct

Slow spike and wave complexes are characteristic of

a. juvenile myoclonic epilepsy

b. Sturge-Weber
c. absence seizures
d. Lennox-Gastaut syndrome Answer -Lennox-Gastaut syndrome (1.5 Hz spike and
wave)

Which of the following is the worst prognostic feature in the EEG of a comatose patient?

a. voltage below 40 microvolts

b. absence of fast activity
c. generalized irregular data
d. monorhythmic tracing without variability Answer -monorhythmic tracing without
variability

Infantile spasms with developmental delay and hypsarrhythmic EEG pattern:

a. Reye's syndrome
b. Rasmussen's syndrome
c. subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
d. West syndrome Answer -West syndrome

Photic induced epileptic discharges are most likely associated with

a. hepatic encephalopathy
b. meningitis
c. barbiturate withdrawal
d. down syndrome Answer -barbiturate withdrawal

Which of the following occurs during a typical absence seizures?

a. aura
b. prolonged postictal depression
c. impaired consciousness
d. generalized tonic clonic activity Answer -impaired consciousness

The waveform morphology during the clonic phase of a GTC may present as

a. spike and slow wave - rhythmic generalized

b. diffuse rhythmic slowing
c. multifocal sharps and spike
d. diffuse polyspikes Answer -spike and slow wave - rhythmic generalized (tonic has
voltage suppression with muscle artifact. clonic has spike and wave)

This EEG epoch contains abnormalities which are suggestive of:

a. juvenile myoclonic epilepsy

b. stage 2 sleep - vertex waves
c. Lennox-Gastaut syndrome
d. benign Rolandic epilepsy Answer -benign Rolandic epilepsy (central spikes)

In the majority of patients with arterial hypertension and acute pure motor hemiplegia,
an EEG will most likely show

a. frontal intermittent rhythmic delta activity

b. contralateral hemispheric polymorphic delta activity
c. normal activity
d. hyperventilation induced focal delta slowing Answer -normal activity

Which of the following represents a poor prognosis?

a. diffuse slowing
b. spindle coma
c. non-convulsive status
d. alpha coma Answer -alpha coma

Which of the following is important to know when evaluating the background activity?

a. if there is a history of seizures

b. patient's ability to cooperate
c. patient level of alertness
d. if hyperventilation has been performed Answer -patient's level of alertness

Seizure activity in which anatomical region may produce strong deja vu and chewing
automatisms
a. occipital
b. temporal
c. frontal
d. parietal Answer -temporal

Eyelid myoclonia with absences, eye closure induced seizures, EEG paroxysms and
photosensitivity:

a. Landau-Kleffner syndrome
b. Ramsey-Hunt syndrome
c. Jeavons syndrome
d. Rasmussens syndrome Answer -Jeavons syndrome

In deepening coma, triphasic waves are most likely to:

a. become unilateral
b. disappear
c. become more prominent
d. increase in frequency Answer -disappear

The EEG of a patient with meningitis is most likely to show:

a. temporal sharp waves

b. alpha coma pattern
c. triphasic waves
d. slowing Answer -slowing

A degenerative disease characterized by dementia and "dance-like" movements:

a. Huntington's chorea
b. Alzheimer's disease
c. Parkinson's disease
d. Lewy body dementia Answer -Huntington's chorea

A 60 year old male presents with new onset dementia and myoclonus. What would you
expect to see on the EEG?

a. Generalized periodic epileptiform discharges

b. hypsarrhythmic
c. burst suppression
d. Rolandic spikes Answer -generalized periodic epileptiform discharges

Which of the following must be ruled out as a cause of electrocerebral inactivity in the
determination of brain death?

a. barbiturate overdose
b. hyperthermia
c. catatonic state
d. Huntington's chorea Answer -barbiturate overdose

The EEG of a child with benign Rolandic epilepsy is most likely to show:

a. C3 spikes
b. generalized atypical spike and wave
c. occipital spikes
d. 3 Hz spike and wave Answer -C3 spikes (central spikes)

Which of the following tumors is most likely to provoke EEG abnormalities?

a. acoustic neuroma
b. meningioma
c. chordama
d. glioblastoma Answer -glioblastoma
What is the most prominent feature of Dilantin toxicity?

a. postural tremor
b. ataxia
c. weakness
d. behavioral changes Answer -ataxia (impaired balance or coordination) (dilantin aka
phenytoin)

Which is most important to document in the history of your EEG patient?

a. head circumference
b. psychiatry disorder
c. last seizure
d. cardiac history Answer -last seizure

Which of the following should be documented in the history?

a. the patient did not sleep during the recording.

b. the patient is nauseated
c. the patient had dialysis this morning
d. the patient donated blood prior to the EEG Answer -patient had dialysis this
morning

Which of the following begins with the head and eyes turning to one side?

a. adversive seizure
b. focal sensory
c. myoclonic seizure
d. absence seizure Answer -adversive seizure
A patient with a right hemiparesis most likely has a lesion of the left

a. parietal lobe
b. frontal lobe
c. cerebellum
d. superior temporal gyrus Answer -frontal lobe (hemiparesis is weakness on one side
of the body. frontal lobe lesions affect motor function)

Which is most important to document in the history of your EEG patient?

a. neuropathy
b. last surgery
c. skull defects
d. presence of sleep apnea Answer -skull defects

In evaluating abnormal EEG discharges it is most important to document

a. level of consciousness and movements

b. heart rate and blood pressure
c. current medications and dosages
d. last meal and handedness Answer -level of consciousness and movements

The EEG is most useful in evaluating

a. cerebral trauma
b. brain tumors
c. seizure disorders
d. cerebrovascular disease Answer -seizure disorders

This study would be useful for acute head trauma

a. CT
b. xray
c. NCS
d. PET Answer -CT

The acronym used to describe distinctive EEG waves or complexes that occur between
seizures and are distinguished from the background activity:

a. NCSE (Non-Convulsive Status Epilepticus)

b. FIRDA (Frontal Intermittent Rhythmic Delta Activity)
c. IED (Interictal Epileptiform Discharges)
d. GPEDS (Generalized Periodic Epileptiform Discharges) Answer -IED (Interictal
Epileptiform Discharges)
Which of the following is the most appropriate for determining cerebral dominance?

a. Evoked Potentials
b. Computed axial tomography
c. Intracarotid sodium amytal (WADA)
d. EEG Answer -Intracarotid sodium amytal (WADA)

Dysarthria

a. impaired speech
b. shortness of breath
c. inability to formulate ideas
d. painful joints Answer -impaired speech

Homonymous Hemianopsia

a. loss of the left visual field in one eye

b. loss of peripheral vision
c. loss of the inferior visual field
d. loss of the left or right visual field in both eyes Answer -loss of the left or right visual
field in both eyes

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

a. periodic sharp waves

b. polyspike complex
c. spike and wave complex
d. multifocal sharp waves Answer -periodic sharp waves

Scotoma

a. scieral tumor
b. retinal inflammation
c. area of visual loss
d. increase in intraocular pressure Answer -area of visual loss

Ictal

a. before
b. during
c. after
d. in-between Answer -during

Ictal EEG

a. time before the event

b. time in-between events
c. time following an event
d. time during the event Answer -time during the event

Proximal

a. below
b. near to
c. above
d. far from Answer -near to

fMRI

a. focused MRI
b. functional MRI
c. filtered MRI
d. fluoriscopic MRI Answer -functional MRI

Deja Vu

a. generalized tonic clonic seizures

b. focal motor
c. absence seizures
d. partial seizures Answer -partial seizures

Diplopia

a. double vision
b. decreased vision in both eyes
c. blurred vision
d. droopy eyelids Answer -double vision

Used to localize site of seizure onset by looking for are of hyperfusion

a. MRI
b. Interictal PET
c. Ictal SPECT
d. CT Answer -Ictal SPECT

Used in treatment for generalized seizures, commonly in absence seizures

a. Dilantin
b. ACTH
c. Ethosuximide
d. Phenobarbital Answer -Ethosuximide
Which of the following is an effect of phenobarbital on the EEG?

a. decreases theta activity

b. increases paroxysmal activity
c. increases beta activity
d. slows alpha rhythm Answer -increases beta activity

With rapidly increasing dosage, which of the following medications will have the most
sedative effect on the patient?

a. antipsychotics
b. benzodiazepines
c. phenothiazines
d. barbiturates Answer -barbiturates

Vagal nerve stimulators are used to treat

a. tumors
b. pain syndromes
c. seizures and depression
d. headaches Answer -seizures and depression

ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone)

a. complex partial seizures

b. infantile spasms
c. status epilepticus
d. absence seizures Answer -infantile spasms

Treatment for infantile spams

a. Acetylcholine (Ach)
b. Adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)
c. Lamotrigine
d. phenytoin Answer -Adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)

Once EEG data is acquired there is an expectation that the information will be
protected. This means

a. only the medical director can remove data files from the department
b. the viewing of the data is restricted to neurologists
c. patients may never have access to the raw data
d. all staff are accountable for protecting the patient confidentiality Answer -all staff
are accountable for protecting the patient confidentiality
The central aspect of using the "minimum necessary" amount of protected health
information needed to accomplish the intended purpose of the use, disclosure, or
request is a part of which act?

a. Insurance Act
b. Affordable Care Act
c. Sunshine Act
d. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act Answer -Health Insurance
Portability and Accountability Act

A technologist should only discuss EEG findings with:

a. the interpreting encephalographer

b. the patient's primary care physician
c. the patient's nurse
d. the consulting neurologist Answer -the interpreting encephalographer

A business associate agreement is required when:

a. medical records are shared

b. medical records are handled in the department
c. a new staff member is hired
d. staff work more than one healthcare entity Answer -medical records are shared

When is it permissible to release patient information to a third party?

a. when the patient provides verbal consent

b. when it is in the best interest of the patient
c. when the patient provides written consent
d. when requested by another physician Answer -when the patient provides written
consent