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Fibrinolysis
Fibrinolysis
Plasmin
Fibrinolysis
● is a serine protease that systematically digests fibrin polymer by the
Besides having a system for clot formation, the body also has a means by hydrolysis of arginine-related and lysine –related peptide bonds. As
which the fibrin clots may be removed and the flow of blood reestablished. fibrin becomes digested, the exposed carboxy-terminal lysine
residues bind additional plasminogen and TPA, which further
As soon as the clotting process has begun, fibrinolysis is initiated to break accelerates clot digestion. Also, FXa, FXIIa, and kallikrein produce
down the fibrin clot that is formed. Normally, the fibrinolytic system functions an alternative mechanism of plasminogen activation.
to keep the vascular system free of fibrin clots or deposited fibrin. Evidence ● Bound plasmin digests clot and restores blood vessel patency
indicates that the fibrinolytic system and the coagulation system are in (openness). Its localization to fibrin through lysine binding prevents
equilibrium in normal persons. As a general rule, fibrinolysis is increased systemic activity. However, free plasmin can be found in the
whenever coagulation is increased. circulation and is capable of digesting Factors 1, V, VIII, and
fibronectin. Plasma alpha2- antiplasmin rapidly binds and inactivates
The active enzyme that is responsible for digesting fibrin or fibrinogen is any free plasmin.
plasmin. Plasmin is not normally found in the circulating blood but is present
in an inactive form, plasminogen. Plasminogen is converted to plasmin by
3. Plasminogen Activators:
certain proteolytic enzymes. These are the plasminogen activators which
are found in small amounts in most body tissues, in very low amounts in
most body fluids, and in urine. The decomposition products of fibrin and A. Endogenous
fibrinogen, called fibrin degradation products(FDPs) or fibrin split a. Tissue Plasminogen Activator (TPA)- secreted by the
products FSPs), are formed during fibrinolysis and are removed from the endothelial cells , hydrolyze fibrin- bound plasminogen,
blood by the mononuclear phagocytic system. As breakdown products of converting it to plasmin. . It has 2 glycosylated kringle
fibrin, D-dimers result only when fibrin that has been stabilized by FXI regions, forms covalent lysine bonds with fibrin during
crosslinking has been digested. polymerization and localizes at the surface of the thrombus
with plasminogen to convert the latter to plasmin. Circulating
TPA is bound to inhibitors such as PAI-1. These complexes
4 Components Fibrinolytic System
are cleared from the circulation.
B. Exogenous
a. Streptokinase that activates the Protein C pathway; however, the functions are
b. acyl- plasminogen streptokinase activator complex independent. Activated TAFI functions as an antifibrinolytic enzyme.
(APSAC) - inactive complex of human plasminogen and i. It inhibits fibrinolysis by cleaving carboxy-terminal lysine
streptokinase. When this is injected, a controlled residues from partially degraded fibrin, thereby preventing
deacylation( removal of acyl group) of the catalytic center the binding of TPA and plasminogen to fibrin and blocking
occurs, activating the complex so that thrombolysis may the formation of plasmin. In coagulation factor –deficient
begin. states, such as hemophilia, decreased thrombin production
may reduce the activation of TAFI. The resulting decreased
TPA,purified UPA preparations called urokinases are used therapeutically to fibrinolysis may contribute further to thrombosis. It may also
dissolve thrombi in patients with myocardial infarction, stroke, and deep vein play a role in regulating inflammation and wound healing.
thrombosis. d. Alpha2 macroglobulin - inactivates plasmin not inhibited by alpha2
antiplasmin
e. Thrombomodulin - released by platelets, inhibits activation of
4. Inhibitors of Fibrinolysis
fibrin-bound plasminogen
a. Plasminogen Activator Inhibitor-1 – the principal inhibitor of ● Plasmin cleaves fibrin (and fibrinogen) producing a series of
plasminogen activation, inactivating both TPA and UPA, thus identifiable fibrin fragments: X, Y,D,E and D-D. Several of these
preventing them from converting plasminogen to plasmin.Produced fragments inhibit hemostasis and contribute to hemorrhage by
by endothelial cells, megakaryocytes, smooth muscle cells, preventing platelet activation and by hindering fibrin polymerization.
fibroblasts, monocytes, adipocytes, hepatocytes, and other cell FDPs are antithrombin so that excessive amounts can cause
types. Platelets store more than 50% of the total PAI-1. Present in bleeding.
excess of the TPA concentration in plasma, and circulating TPA ● Fragment X is described as the central E domain with the 2 D
normally becomes bound to PAI-1. Only at times of EC activation, fragments. (D-E-D), minus some peptides cleaved by plasmin.
such as after trauma, does the level of TPA secretion exceed that of Fragment Y is the E domain after cleavage of one D domain (D-E).
PAI-1 to initiate fibrinolysis. Binding of TPA to fibrin protects TPA Eventually these fragments are further digested to individual D and
from PAI-1 inhibition. Its deficiency is associated with chronic E domains.
bleeding caused by increased fibrinolysis. It is an acute phase ● The D-D fragment, called D-dimer, is composed of two D domains
reactant and is increased in many conditions, including metabolic from separate fibrin molecules ( not fibrinogen) cross-linked by the
syndrome, obesity, atherosclerosis, sepsis, and stroke. Increased action of FXIIIa. Fragments X,Y,D, and E are produced by digestion
levels correlate with reduced fibrinolysis and increased risk of of either fibrin or fibrinogen by plasmin, but D-dimer is a specific
thrombosis. product of digestion of cross-linked fibrin only and is therefore a
b. Alpha-2 antiplasmin - synthesized in the liver and is the primary marker of thrombosis and fibrinolysis.
inhibitor of free plasmin. It is a SERPIN. Free plasmin produced by
activation of plasminogen can bind either to fibrin, where it is
D- dimer
protected by AP( alpha-2 antiplasmin). Therapeutic lysine analogs,
tranexamic acid and e-aminocaprioc acid, are similarly antifibrinolytic
through their affinity for kringles in plasminogen and TPA. Both inhibit D- dimer is present only when the following 3 processes had occurred:
the proteolytic activity of plasmin, thereby reducing clinical bleeding 1. Thrombin generation
caused by excess fibrinolysis. 2. Polymerization of fibrin clot by FXIIIa
c. Thrombin Activatable Fibrinolysis Inhibitor (TAFI) - a plasma 3. Fibrinolysis of the clot by plasmin
procarboxypeptidase produced by the liver that becomes activated
by the thrombin-thrombomodulin complex. This is the same complex Assessing D-dimer levels is an important diagnostic tool to identify DIC and
to rule out venous thromboembolism and pulmonary embolism.
DEGRADATION OF CROSS-LINKED FIBRIN BY PLASMIN
Another way of classifying Plasminogen activators
1. D-dimer immunoassay
Review Questions
1. Thromboelastography (TEG) and it's more recent modification,
rotational thromboelastometry (ROTEM) have been original assays
to assess the hemostatic status of patients. They are global
Chapter 35
whole-blood analyzers that measure clotting time and the dynamics
of clot formation and dissolution as affected by the kinetics of
thrombin generation, clot strength, clot stability, and inhibitory effects 1. What intimal cell synthesizes and stores von Willebrand factor
on any aspect. These manual coagulometers are used mainly in (VWF)?
liver surgery, cardiac, and trauma. a. Smooth muscle cell
2. Thrombin Generation Assays - Calibrated Automated b. Endothelial cell
Thrombogram (CAT) and the TechnothrombinTGA- measure the c. Fibroblast
phased kinetics of thrombin generation from initiation and peak d. Platelet
generation through down regulation and inactivation. 2. What subendothelial structural protein triggers coagulation
a. Thrombin generation Assays help to better categorize the through activation of factor VII?
physiologic mechanisms of hemostasis and to better assess a. Thrombomodulin
bleeding risk, thrombotic risk, and their modification by b. Nitric oxide
hemostatic or antithrombotic agents. c. Tissue factor
d. Thrombin
3. What coagulation plasma protein should be assayed when
Genetic Testing for Hemostatic Disorders
platelets fail to aggregate properly?
a. Factor VIII
1. High- throughput genetic sequencing (HTS) - the reference b. Fibrinogen
method to identify the genetic variants that underlie platelet-related c. Thrombin
bleeding disorders. d. Factor X
a. whole –genome sequencing 4. What is the primary role of vitamin K for the prothrombin group
b. whole-exome sequencing factors?
c. gene-targeted methods a. Provides a surface on which the proteolytic reactions of
the factors occur
b. Protects them from inappropriate activation by compounds
Important Notes
such as thrombin
c. Accelerates the binding of the serine proteases and their
DIC and primary fibrinolysis have similar clinical manifestations and cofactors
laboratory profiles. Both have: d. Carboxylates the factors to allow calcium binding
1. Prolonged PT, APTT, and PT results 5. What is the source of prothrombin fragment F1.2?
2. Lower than normal fibrinogen levels a. Plasmin proteolysis of fibrin polymer
3. High levels of FSPs/FDPs b. Thrombin proteolysis of fibrinogen
c. Proteolysis of prothrombin by factor Xa
2 tests which can differentiate them: d. Plasmin proteolysis of cross-linked fibrin
1. Platelet count - low in DIC, within reference interval in primary 6. What serine protease forms a complex with factor VIIIa, and
fibrinolysis what is the substrate of this complex?
a. Factor VIIa, factor X
b. Factor Va, prothrombin
c. Factor Xa, prothrombin 1. What is the prevalence of venous thrombosis in the United
d. Factor IXa, factor X States?
7. What protein secreted by endothelial cells activates a. 0.01
fibrinolysis? b. 1 in 1000
a. Plasminogen c. 10% to 15%
b. TPA d. 500,000 cases per year
c. PAI-1 2. What is thrombophilia?
d. TAFI a. Predisposition to thrombosis secondary to a
8. What two regulatory proteins form a complex that digests congenital or acquired disorder
activated factors V and VIII? b. Inappropriate triggering of the plasma coagulation system
a. TFPI and Xa c. A condition in which clots form uncontrollably
b. Antithrombin and protein C d. Inadequate fibrinolysis
c. APC and protein S 3. What acquired thrombosis risk factor is assessed in the
d. Thrombomodulin and plasmin hemostasis laboratory?
9. What are the primary roles of VWF? a. Smoking
a. Inhibit excess coagulation and activate protein C b. Immobilization
b. Activate plasmin and promote lysis of fibrinogen c. Obesity
c. Mediate platelet adhesion and serve as a carrier d. Lupus anticoagulant
molecule for factor VIII 4. Trousseau syndrome, a low-grade chronic DIC, is often
d. Mediate platelet aggregation via the GP IIb/IIIa receptor associated with what type of disorder?
10. Most coagulation factors are synthesized in: a. Renal disease
a. The liver b. Hepatic disease
b. Monocytes c. Adenocarcinoma
c. Endothelial cells d. Chronic inflammation
d. Megakaryocytes 5. What is the most common heritable thrombosis risk factor in
11. The events involved in secondary hemostasis: Caucasians?
a. Lead to the formation of a stable fibrin clot a. APC resistance (factor V Leiden mutation)
b. Usually occur independently of primary hemostasis b. Prothrombin G20210A mutation
c. Occur in a random fashion c. Antithrombin deficiency
d. Are the first line of defense against blood loss d. Protein S deficiency
12. Which of the following coagulation factors is activated by 6. In most LAC profiles, what test is primary (performed
thrombin and mediates the stabilization of the fibrin clot? first)because it detects LAC with the least interference?
a. Tissue factor a. Low-phospholipid PTT
b. Factor VII b. DRVVT
c. Factor IX c. KCT
d. Factor XIII d. PT
13. Which of the following endogenous plasma inhibitors is (are) 7. A patient with venous thrombosis is tested for protein S
important for the control of excessive thrombin generation? deficiency. The protein S activity, antigen, and free antigen are
a. AT, TFPI all less than 65%, and the C4bBP level is normal. What type of
b. Platelet factor 4 deficiency is likely?
c. TAT, F1.2 a. Type I
d. a and b b. Type II
c. Type III
d. No deficiency is indicated, because the reference range
Chapter 39
includes 65%
8. An elevated level of what fibrinolytic system assay is
associated with arterial thrombotic risk?
a. PAI-1
b. TPA
c. Factor VIIa
d. Factor XII
9. How does lipoprotein (a) cause thrombosis?
a. It causes elevated factor VIII levels
b. It coats the endothelial lining of arteries
c. It substitutes for plasminogen or TPA in the forming
clot
d. It contributes additional phospholipid in vivo for
formation of the tenase complex
10. What test may be used to confirm the presence of LAC?
a. PT
b. Bethesda titer
c. Antinuclear antibody
d. DRVVT using high-phospholipid reagent
11. What molecular test may be used to confirm APC resistance?
a. Prothrombin G20210A
b. MTHFR 1298
c. MTHFR 677
d. Factor V Leiden
12. What therapeutic agent may occasionally cause DIC?
a. Factor VIII
b. Factor VIIa
c. Antithrombin concentrate
d. Activated prothrombin complex concentrate
13. Which is not a fibrinolysis control protein?
a. Thrombin-activatable fibrinolysis inhibitor
b. Plasminogen activator inhibitor-1
c. a2-Antiplasmin
d. D-dimer
14. What is the most important application of the quantitative
D-dimer test?
a. Diagnose primary fibrinolysis
b. Diagnose liver and renal disease
c. Rule out deep venous thrombosis
d. Diagnose acute myocardial infarction
15. What is the first laboratory assay necessary to detect heparin
induced thrombocytopenia?
a. Platelet count
b. H:PF4 immunoassay
c. Quick turnaround test
d. Serotonin release assay