1668583121322-JE-Mech. LDCE Question Bank

ALCO LOCOMOTIVE QUESTION BANK
AIR BRAKE SYSTEM OF ALCO LOCO

1. Which pressure is adjusted by limiting valve
A. F-1 pressure
B. BP pressure
C. FP pressure
D. Synchronization pressure
2. When emergency brake application is done through A- 9 in flasher light modified loco the
condition of loco will be
A. Loco comes to idle and nothing else happens

B. Loco comes to idle, flasher light is on
C. Loco comes to idle, flasher light is on & buzzer blows
D. Loco does not come to idle, flasher light is on & buzzer blows
3. PATB buzzer blows when
A. AFI needle is above 60

B. AFI needle is below 60
C. AFI needle is above 80
D. AFI needle is above 70
4. Unit of Air Flow Indicator (AFI) is
A. Kg/cm2
B. Pound / inch
C. Wagon reading
D. Km/h
5. Function of Air vacuum proportionate valve is in Diesel locos for
A. Acceleration
B. Loco comes to idle
C. For starting of loco
D. For synchronization of brake
6. How many position setting of C3 W distributor valve has
A. Two position setting

B. One position setting
C. Three position setting
D. No different setting
7. On operating D-1 emergency which pressure drops
A. MR
B. BP
C. HS-4
D. No air supply
8. How many braking position of A-9 valve have..
A. 05 breaking position
B. 04 breaking position
C. 03 breaking position
D. 01 breaking position
9. How many braking position of SA-9 valve have..
A. 03 position
B. 02 position
C. 05 position
D. 01 position
10. Air supply for horn is from.
A. MR-1 tank
B. MR-2 tank
C. „J‟ filter
D. HS-4
11. Permissible leakage of vacuum in train pipe is
A. 0 cm
B. Up to 10 cm
C. Up to 20 cm
D. Up to 30 cm
12. Overcharging (In air brake system) feature is applied by which air brake valve
A. C3 W distributor valve
B. VA-1B control valve
C. C2-W relay valve
D. VA-1 release valve
13. HB-5 relay valve is fitted in which type of brake system
A. Air Brake loco

B. Duel Brake loco
C. In any type of loco
D. None
14. In 28 VB control valve the vacuum of train pipe comes at
A. Above big diaphragm

B. Below big diaphragm
C. Above small diaphragm
D. Below small diaphragm
15. Above C2- relay diaphragm air pressure comes from
A. A-9 valve
B. SA-9 valve
C. MR pressure
D. Synchronization on pressure
16. Duplex check valve operates when MR pressure reaches at pressure (kg/cm2)
A. 5 kg/cm2
B. 6kg/cm2
C. Always open
D. 10 kg/cm2
17. Max. Permissible time for loco brake release in seconds is. The loco fitted with chock in C2
relay valve.
A. 50 sec
B. 40 sec
C. 24 sec
D. 30 sec
18. H-5 valves operates when BP pressure drops upto (kg/cm2)
A. 1.8 kg/cm2
B. 2.0kg/cm2
C. Kg/cm2
D. Kg/cm2
19. When H5 or HB-5 valve operates which air supply goes to PCS
A. MR pressure
B. HS-4 pressure
C. FP pressure
D. BP pressure
20. When big diaphragm of VA-1B control valve gets punctured, what action will happen?
A. Vacuum will drop to zero

B. Vacuum will not drop down
C. Vacuum will drop partially
D. None
21. R-6 relay valve is fitted in loco for
A. Quick MR charging
B. Quick working of AFMV valve
C. Quick vacuum building
D. By passing AFMV
22. In automatic switching on flasher light modification of locos the TDR (time delay relay) is set
at...
A. 40 sec
B. 15 sec
C. 60 sec
D. 120 sec
23. The standard Colour of humidity indicator in air dryer is
A. Orange
B. Purple
C. Blue
D. White
24. Air dryer starts functioning, when MR pressure reaches to (PSI)
A. 100 PSI
B. 200 PSI
C. 150 PSI
D. Immediately as loco start
25. Thread diameter of BP & FP angle cocks (in inch) is...
A. 1”
B. 3”
C. 2”
D. 1¼ “
2
26. MR safety valve is set at pressure (in kg/cm )
2
A. 10.0 kg/cm
2
B. 6.0 kg/cm
2
C. Above 10.5 kg/cm
2
D. Below 6.0 kg/cm
27. When 7.5-mm dia hole palm end is fitted in BP pipe, the change in BP pressure is
A. Should remain same in one minute

2
B. Should fall below 4.0 kg/cm in one minute
2
C. Should not fall below 4.0 kg/cm in one minute
D. Should come down to 3 cm in one minute
28. In duel brake loco, if combined strainer cock is kept in close position, action will be noticed
A. Vacuum will not be shown in gauge

B. MR pressure will drop
C. Synchronization in loco will be cut off
D. BP will drop
29. By increasing HS-4 pressure (vacuum/air) action will happen
A. Vacuum will drop

B. Vacuum will increase
C. BP will drop
D. BP will increase
30. Auto drain valve blows during
A. Loading of compressor
B. Unloading of compressor
C. When „MR safety valve blow
D. MR pressure is above 10.5 kg/cm2
31. Feed valve is charged from
A. MR-1 tank
B. MR-2 tank
C. ”J‟ filter
D. BP pipe
32. When vacuum is dropping by applying A-9 valve, air enters in train pipe by which valve/filter
A. From SA-9 valve

B. From SA-9 valve
C. From GD-80D filter
D. From GD –80 E filter
33. GD-80 E filter is fitted between
A. VA-1B control valve and VA –1 release valve

B. Train pipe and VA-1 release valve
C. VA-1B control valve and other end open to atmosphere
D. A-9 valve and SA-9 valve
34. In case of pure air brake loco with load at the time of train parting, which safety valve is
operates and brings the loco to idle
A. H-5 relay valve

B. HB-5 relay valve
C. Airflow measuring valve
D. F1 selector valve
35. When driver is working from right control stand and A-9 is applied from left control stand in
emergency position, what will happen?
A. Loco will come to idle

B. Loco will not come to idle
C. Loco will shutdown
D. Only BP will drop and nothing else will happen
36. 28 LV brake system is functional in.............
A. Air brake loco

B. Duel brake loco
C. Vacuum brake loco
D. None
37. 28 LAV1 brake system is functional in............
A. Air brake loco

B. Duel brake loco
C. Vacuum brake loco
D. None
38. In minimum reduction position of A-9 brake valve BP should drop upto (PSI)...
A. 0 to3 PSI
B. 4 to 7 PSI
C. 8 to 11 PSI
D. 12 to 15 PSI
39. Additional C-2 relay valve is used in air brake system for
A. MR pipe charging
B. BP pipe charging
C. Vacuum train pipe charging
D. Feed pipe charging
40. How many numbers of positions MU2B valve have
A. One position
B. Two positions
C. Three positions
D. Four positions
41. How many „O‟ rings are fitted in spool valve of VA-1B control valve
A. 02 Nos
B. 03 Nos
C. 04 Nos
D. 05 Nos
42. Conjunction brakes in IRAB System is applied by
A. Ad C2 Relay valve
B. C2 Relay valve
C. N1 Reducing valve
D. C3W Relay valve
43. During emergency braking the maximum air pressure in brake cylinder is _______
A. 4 Kg/cm2
B. 5 Kg/cm2
C. 2 Kg/cm2
D. 3 Kg/cm2
44. Calibration of Air Flow measuring valve is adjusted at which at reading
A. 80 wagon reading
B. 90 wagon reading
C. 100 wagon reading
D. 110 wagon reading
45. Vacuum test plate hole dia is (in mm)
A. 6.5 mm
B. 7.0 mm
C. 9.5 mm
D. 8.0 mm
46. When does auto drain check valve operates
A. At the time of loading of compressor

B. At the time of loading of compressor
C. In above both cases
D. When loading/unloading of compressor is defective
47. Palm gauges (Orifice test gauge) has the hole size of (in mm)
A. 9.0 mm
B. 7.5 mm
C. 8.0 mm
D. 8.5 mm
48. MR pressure outlet pipe of air flow measuring valve goes to..
A. C-2 relay valve

B. Add. C-2 relay valve
C. A-9 brake valve
D. SA-9 brake valve
49. In case BP pressure is fluctuating the possible defect is in which valve
A. C-2 relay valve defective

B. Add C2 relay valve is defective
C. SA-9 is defective
D. C3W distributor valve is defective
50. Exhaust choke size of C-2 relay valve is (in mm)....
A. 5.0 mm
B. 6.0 mm
C. 7.0 mm
D. 8.0 mm
51. Exhaust choke size of additional C-2 relay valve is (in mm).....
A. 5.0 mm
B. 5.5 mm
C. 6.0 mm
D. 6.5 mm
52. In full service position of A-9 auto brake valve pressure reduction is between (PSI)......
A. 18 to 21 psi
B. 23 to 26 psi
C. 30 to 33 psi
D. 35 to 38 psi
53. In over reduction position of A-9 auto brake valve pressure reduction is between (PSI)......
A. 27 to 30 psi
B. 34 to 46 psi
C. 50 to 62 psi
D. 65 to 77 psi
54. When drying capacity of air dryer is reduced the colour of humidity indicator changes to
A. Pink
B. White
C. Green
D. Black
55. While keeping lead/trial switch in trail ER pressure is
A. ER Pressure is less than 1 kg/cm2

B. ER Pressure is zero
C. ER Pressure is 3.5 kg/cm2
D. ER Pressure is 5 kg/cm2
56. Air supply to power contractor is from
A. MR-1
B. MR-2
C. BP pressure
D. HS-4 valve
57. Wiper gets the air supply from......
A. MR-1
B. MR-2
C. BP pressure
D. HS-4 valve
58. BP pressure remains on which port of VA-1B control valve
A. Port No.1
B. Port No.2
C. Port No.3
D. Port No.6
59. In 28- LAV, system at the time of quick release by SA-9 valve which ports of SA-9 valve get
connected.
A. No.1& 7
B. No.2 & 13
C. No.3 & 20
D. No.2 & 10
60. In lead position of MU2B valve which ports dose not connect with each other
A. 3&13
B. 2&20
C. 53&63
D. 13&30
61. On applying brake through A-9 valve, which port of F-1 selector valve connect with each
other in synchronization braking
A. 4&16
B. 12&14
C. 30&15
D. 15& 20
62. In which position of A-9 brake valve its vent valve operates
A. Minimum reduction position

B. Full service position
C. Over reduction position
D. Emergency position
63. In multiple unit locos to open VA-1 release valve, air pressure comes from which valve
A. From A-9 valve

B. From F-1 selector valve
C. From A-1 differential pilot valve
D. From SA-9 valve
64. In creation of vacuum which valve comes into function
A. SA-9 brake valve

B. H-5 relay valve
C. C-3 W distributor valve
D. VA-1B control valve
65. The governor of air compressor get supply from.......
A. MR-1 pressure
B. MR-2 pressure
C. BP pressure
D. B.C. pressure
66. To operate sander valve the air supply is received from
A. MR-1 pressure
B. MR-2 pressure
C. BP pressure
D. Brake cylinder pressure
Air Brake System Answer Sheet

Q. No. ANSWER Q. No. ANSWER Q.No. ANSWER
1. D 23. C 45. D
2. A 24. A 46. B
3. C 25. D 47. B
4. C 26. C 48. B
5. D 27. C 49. B
6. A 28. C 50. A
7. B 29. A 51. C
8. B 30. B 52. B
9. A 31. A 53. B
10. A 32. C 54. B
11. B 33. B 55. B
12. C 34. A 56. A
13. B 35. A 57. A
14. A 36. C 58. C
15. A 37. B 59. A
16. A 38. B 60. D
17. C 39. B 61. A
18. A 40. B 62. D
19. A 41. C 63. C
20. B 42. D 64. D
21. B 43. B 65. A
22. C 44. C 66. A
ENGINE (POWER PACK) OF ALCO LOCO
1. During which stroke inlets valves opens
A. Suction
B. Compression
C. Power
D. Exhaust
2. During which stroke both valves closed
A. Suction
B. Compression
C. Power
D. Exhaust
3. In WDM3D Locos, how many Main Bearing journals are in one crankshaft?
A. 7 Nos.
B. 6 Nos.
C. 8 Nos.
D. 9 Nos.
4. In WDM3D Locomotive, how many crank pins are on crankshaft?
A. 6 Nos.
B. 7 Nos.
C. 9 Nos.
D. 8 Nos.
5. In WDM3D Loco, how many thrust bearing are used
A. 2 Nos
B. 1 Nos
C. 3 Nos
D. None
6. In WDG3A Locos, how many thrust bearing are used?
A. 1 Nos.
B. 2 Nos.
C. None
D. 3 Nos.
7. The size of Engine Crank Pin is (in inch)
A. 5”
B. 8.5”
C. 6.0”
D. 7.5”
8. Clearance between crankshaft journal & bearing is (in inch)......
A. .001” to .005”
B. .005” to .010”
C. .002” to .006”
D. .004” to .008”
9. How many cam segments are fitted in WDM3A loco
A. 6 Nos
B. 7 Nos
C. 8 Nos
D. 10 Nos
10. Size of Main Bearing journals is (in inch).................
A. 6”
B. 8.5”
C. 10.0”
D. 9.0”
11. How many cam shaft bushes are fitted in one 16 cylinder block
A. 14
B. 16
C. 18
D. 20
12. What is minimum dia clearance between cam shaft & cam bush
A. .002”
B. .004”
C. .005”
D. .010”
13. How many teeth are in split gear
A. 28
B. 30
C. 34
D. 36
14. During setting of cam gear timing which piston is kept at TDC
A. R-1
B. L-1
C. R-8
D. L-8
15. How many cam segments are fitted in WDM3D Loco
A. 15
B. 16
C. 7
D. 8
16. In WDM-2c loco, how many counter weights are on one crankshaft?
A. 2 Nos
B. 3 Nos
C. 8 Nos
D. 4 Nos
17. In WDM3D loco, which type of lubrication system is used?
A. Splash Type
B. Forced feed
C. Self lubricated
D. None of these
18. Main crankshaft vibration damper is fitted near which main bearings in WDM3A locos
A. No-5
B. No-7
C. No-9
D. No-1
19. In WDM3A loco split gear is mounted on crankshaft near main bearing
A. No-1
B. No-5
C. No-7
D. No-9
20. Crankshaft vibration damper is fitted with crankshaft with the help of ................
A. Key
B. Dowel
C. Nuts & Bolts
D. None of these
21. How many cam lobs are in one cam segment
A. 3
B. 4
C. 6
D. 9
22. What is the condemning size of liner?
A. 228.68 mm
B. 220.70 mm`
C. 230.72 mm
D. 231.74 mm
23. In Alco loco, single exhaust manifolds have following no. of pieces
A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 5
24. In WDM3D Loco, one exhaust manifold connects with how many cylinder Heads
A. One
B. Four
C. Two
D. Three
25. What should be minimum run out of extension shaft?
A. .005”
B. .003”
C. .001”
D. .0000”
26. Water pump is driven from............................
A. Split gear
B. Cam gear
C. Extension shaft gear
D. Main generator gear
27. Lube oil pump is driven from............................
A. Split gear
B. Cam gear
C. Extension shaft
D. Main generator gear
28. In WDM3D Locos, main bearing elongation is ....................
A. .010”
B. .015”
C. .040”
D. .050”
29. What is the BHP of WDM3D loco?
A. 3600
B. 3300
C. 2600
D. 3100
30. What is the BHP of WDM3F Loco?
A. 3000
B. 3600
C. 4000
D. 3800
31. What is the BHP of WDG3A loco?
A. 4000
B. 3600
C. 3000
D. 2800
32. What is the BHP of WDM3A Loco?
A. 3100
B. 3500
C. 3600
D. 4000
33. In WDM3A loco thrust bearing is fitted at location
A. No.1 Upper
B. No.4 Upper
C. No.5 Lower
D. No.9 Upper
34. Honey combing is related with ……………..
A. Cylinder Head
B. Piston
C. Liner
D. Connecting rod
35. What is the maximum allowed deflection of main generator
A. ± .0005”
B. ± .001”
C. ± .015”
D. ± .0008”
36. In ALCO TSC, Rotor side, what is the material of oil seal
A. Aluminum
B. Rubber Seal
C. Brass Seal
D. Carbon Seal
37. Universal shaft is used to drive radiator fan because
A. It is rigid
B. It is strong
C. It is self align
D. It is weak
38. GE Governor is operated……………….
A. Mechanically
B. Hydraulically
C. Pneumatically
D. None of these
39. TSC surging on higher notches is due to …………..
A. Excess fuel rack

B. Chocked air maize
C. Less area of nozzle ring
D. Any of the above
40. Hammering sound is coming from engine is due to……………
A. Exhaust valve bend

B. Fuel cam worn out
C. X-head roller worn out
D. Any of the above
41. Smoke is coming from „SMOKE‟ hole of cylinder Head indicates…………….
A. Injector seal is not proper

B. Over torquing
C. Injector crack
D. Injector not fitted
42. Engine air inlet elbow bolt torquing is done at ……………
A. 150 ft. lbs

B. 40 ft. lbs
C. 30 ft. lbs
D. 75 ft. lbs
43. Expresser foundation bolts is torqued at value (ft. lbs.)
A. 300 ft. lbs

B. 450 ft. lbs
C. 800 ft. lbs
D. 750 ft. lbs
44. TSP treatment is done for………………..
A. To remove scaling
B. To decrease the cooling efficiency
C. To avoid any chemical reaction
D. To improve chloride value
45. When hot engine alarm is operated, the condition of loco comes to
A. Idle
B. Run on same speed
C. Shut down
D. None of above
46. What is the unit of S.F.C. (Specific Fuel consumption)
A. gm/hp/hr.
B. Liters/Kwhr/minutes
C. Kg/Newton/hr
D. None
47. In yearly loco, pre priming break in filters are used………
A. To arrest the foreign material

B. To increase the pressure
C. To maintain the pressure
D. To avoid water contamination
48. The temperature difference between the two consecutive main bearings should not exceed
by
A. 5°C
B. 2°C
C. 10°C
D. 20°C
49. CCE motor giving thick black smoke is due to
A. Increase liner wear

B. Valve guide clearance more
C. TSC rotor defective
D. Fuel motor defective
50. Fuel test cock pressure is used for checking …………..
A. Lube oil pressure dropping

B. Booster pressure dropping
C. Fuel pressure dropping
D. Air pressure dropping
51. Exhaust gas temperature at ABB TSC inlet is …………
A. 700°C
B. 600°C
C. 450°C
D. 750°C
52. Exhaust gas temperature at ALCO TSC inlet is …………
A. 300°C
B. 590°C
C. 400°C
D. 800°C
53. Which item is increases the copper content in lube oil
A. Piston wear
B. Liner wear
C. X-head floating bush wear
D. Silicon
54. In WDM3F, how many nos. of cam bushes are fitted in a block
A. 26 nos.
B. 18 nos.
C. 32 nos.
D. 16 nos.
55. In WDM3D the angle of firing order from L to R is

A. 60°
B. 45 °
C. 30°
D. 75°
56. Split gear bolt torquing is done at ……………..
A. 500 ft. lbs.

B. 400 ft. lbs
C. 200 ft. lbs
D. 300 ft. lbs
57. Engine crank case vacuum is not building up due to
A. Linear chrome plating worn out

B. Fuel motor not working
C. Dust blower not working
D. Engine RPM less
58. Which of the following is the reason of hot engine
A. ETS setting defective

B. Radiator fan not working
C. Radiator fins chocked
D. Any of above
59. Engine giving blueish smoke indicates…………….
A. Water mix in fuel oil

B. Injector hole chocked partially
C. Cylinder head valve guide clearance more
D. FIP delivery less
60. White smoke given by engine is due to ……..
A. FIP not responding

B. Tappet phasing disturbs
C. Cylinder head crack internally
D. X-head having abnormal sound
61. For the same HP and bore size, which engine will be heavier
A. Petrol engine
B. Diesel engine
C. Jet engine
D. None of the above
62. What is compression ratio of WDG3A
A. 12.0:1
B. 11.5: 1
C. 12.5:1
D. 13.0: 1
63. Minimum RPM of engine with low idle feature is
A. 390
B. 410
C. 350
D. 370
64. Which of the following is not the safety item of locomotive
A. OST
B. LWS
C. Governor
D. ACP
65. BAP is not building up due to ……….
A. TSC rotor jam

B. Gov. defective
C. Air Intel gasket burst
D. Any one of above
66. Which of the following is not the reason of low BAP
A. Unmodified FIP
B. Unmodified after cooler
C. Radiators fins chocked
D. None of these
67. Which of the following is not item of fuel efficient loco
A. Steel cap piston

B. Modified FIP
C. ALCO TSC
D. Large After Cooler
68. Which of the following statement is not true
A. Comp. Ratio in diesel engine is more then Petrol engine.

B. For high HP diesel engine are used.
C. Ignition in diesel engines takes place by comp. of air.
D. For the same HP diesel Engine are lighter as compare to Petrol engine.
69. What are the possible causes of injector not responding
A. Injector nozzle hole chocked

B. Phasing on up position
C. Fuel cam lob damage
D. Any of the above
70. What is the delivery of unmodified FIP on test bench at full rack position
A. 400 CC
B. 350 CC
C. 425CC
D. 500 CC
71. What is the delivery of modified FIP on test bench at full rack position
A. 400 CC
B. 350 CC
C. 425CC
D. 450 CC
72. Which of the following is prime mover
A. Engine
B. Traction Generator
C. Traction Motor
73. High viscosity indicates
A. Mixing of water in lube oil

B. Mixing of fuel in lube oil
C. Mixing of carbon contents
D. None of these
74. What is the cause of increase silicon in lube oil
(A) Linear wear

(B) X-head wear
(C) Dust
(D) Water leakage
75. Cylinder Head hydraulic testing is done at
A. 5.0 kg/cm2
B. 10.0 kg/cm2
C. Kg/cm2
D. 2.5
76. Extension shaft clearance limit is
A. .006”
B. .020”
C. .015”
D. .060”
77. In scavenging period burnt gases are pushed out by
A. Fresh air
B. By burnt gases
C. By TSC
D. Nothing of these
78. During over lapping period inlet and exhaust valve remain in
A. Closed position
B. Open position
C. Open & close position
D. Nothing of these
79. Engine hunting is due to
A. Rake movement not free

B. Excess fuel pressure
C. Low fuel pressure
D. Nothing of these
80. Low phasing means
A. After burning of fuel

B. Correct burning of fuel
C. Without burning of fuel
D. Nothing of these
81. Engine given thick black smoke due to
A. Low BAP
B. Less fuel oil level
C. Defective CCE motor
D. Defective manifold
82. Crank pin condemning limit is
A. 152.40 mm
B. 152.60 mm
C. 152.30 mm
D. 152.34 mm
83. Main bearing general surface finish is
A. 25 RMS
B. 40 RMS
C. 50RMS
D. 60 RMS
84. Crank shaft is supported at journal nos.
A. 2 &7
B. 9 &1
C. 4&8
D. 3&6
85. Crankshaft is lifted from crank pin nos. (In WDM3A)
A. 8&4
B. 2&7
C. 9&1
D. 3&7
86. Bucklnsh of cum gear is
A. .006” to .012”
B. .030” to .040”
C. .034” to .045”
D. .020” to .039”
87. The torquing value of foundation bolt of engine block is
A. 1400 ft. labs.

B. 1000 ft. labs.
C. 850 ft.lbs
D. 950 ft. lbs.
88. Cam shaft thrust is
A. .006” to .012”
B. .030” to .040”
C. .050” to .060”
D. .025” to .045”
89. Crank shaft thrust is
A. .010” to .017”
B. .040” to .050”
C. .035” to .040”
D. .060” to .070”
90. In fuel injection pump (FIP) meaning of “No Fuel Position “ is
A. Helix of plunger is to be in front of spill port

B. Helix of plunger is to be separated from split port
C. Either or above
D. None of these
91. Torquing of injector is done at
A. 50 ft. lbs.
B. 80 ft. lbs.
C. 30 ft.lbs
D. 60 ft. lbs.
92. At what degree the spray hole in injector nozzle is made
A. 60°
B. 40°
C. 50°
D. 30°
93. Out of which safety device, engine comes to idle
A. OST
B. LWS
C. ACP
D. Low lube oil indication
94. Which item increases the sodium (Na) contains in lube oil
A. Mixing of fuel oil in lube oil

B. Mixing of Water in lube oil
C. Mixing of Lube oil in fuel oil
D. None of these
Engine (Power Pack) Answer Sheet
Q. No. ANSWER Q. No. ANSWER Q. No. ANSWER

1. A 26. C 51. C
2. B 27. C 52. B
3. D 28. C 53. C
4. D 29. B 54. B
5. B 30. B 55. B
6. A 31. B 56. D
7. C 32. A 57. A
8. B 33. D 58. D
9. C 34. C 59. C
10. B 35. D 60. C
11. C 36. C 61. B
12. C 37. C 62. C
13. D 38. B 63. C
14. A 39. D 64. C
15. B 40. D 65. D
16. C 41. A 66. D
17. B 42. D 67. C
18. D 43. B 68. D
19. D 44. A 69. D
20. C 45. B 70. B
21. C 46. A 71. A
22. B 47. A 72. A
23. B 48. C 73. C
24. C 49. A 74. C
25. D 50. C 75. A

76. A 83. A 90. A
77. A 84. A 91. A
78. B 85. B 92. B
79. A 86. A 93. C
80. A 87. A 94. B
81. A 88. A
82. C 89. A
UNDER TRUCK OF ALCO LOCO
1. Which type of bogie is used in WDM3A loco
A. Bi-mount
B. Tri mount
C. Uni mount
D. None of above
2. Centre pivot of bogie of WDM3A is located between
A. Leading axles and middle axles

B. Trailing axles and middle axles
C. On the middle axle
D. On the trailing axle
3. How much percentage of load does center pivot of WDM3A bogie carries
A. 40%
B. 50%
C. 60%
D. 70%
4. Which type of suspension in WDM3A loco bogie has
A. Single stage
B. Double stage
C. Multi stage
5. The main advantage of single stage suspension is
A. To raise the center of gravity

B. To lower the center of gravity
C. To improve bogie speed
D. To reduce bogie maintenance
6. The device used to transmit loco speed from wheels to the speedometer is called
A. Techogenerator
B. Auxiliary generator
C. Axle generator
D. Main Generator
7. Traction motor load of is transferred on bogie frame through
A. Main journal
B. Suspension nose
C. Axle box
D. Helical coil spring
8. Height of side buffer should be maintained between
A. 1105 mm to 1030 mm
B. 1150 mm to 1000 mm
C. 1150 mm to 900 mm
D. 1105 mm to 800 mm
9. Buffer height can be adjusted by
A. Adding shims to load pads & side bearers

B. Adding shims to spring seat
C. Both A & B‟
10. Amount of shims that could be added to centre pivot & side bearers to adjust side buffer
height
A. 50 mm
B. 21 mm
C. 12 mm
D. 35 mm
11. Amount of shims that could be added to spring seat to adjust side buffer height
A. 6 mm
B. 12 mm
C. 30 mm
D. 35 mm
12. Minimum distance between brake block & wheel in release position should be
A. 5 mm
B. 10 mm
C. 15 mm
D. 20 mm
13. Brake piston travel adjustment in WDM3A is recommended between
A. 20mm to 30mm
B. 10mm to15 mm
C. 67 to 100 mm
D. 50mm to200 mm
14. Gear case bolts of WDM3A bogies is torque at
A. 600-700 ft. labs.

B. 1000-1200 ft. labs.
C. 1400-1600 ft.lbs
D. 350-500 ft. lbs.
15. The wheel dia variation of WDM3A loco on same bogie is permitted upto
A. 2 mm
B. 4 mm
C. 6 mm
D. 8 mm
16. The wheel dia variation of WDM3A on same axle is permitted upto
A. 2 mm
B. 3 mm
C. 4 mm
D. 0.5 mm
17. The wheel dia variation of WDM3A on some loco is permitted upto
A. 10 mm
B. 15 mm
C. 20 mm
D. 25 mm
18. Service limit of wheel dia. of diesel locomotive (In goods service) is
A. 1010 mm
B. 1040 mm
C. 1030 mm
D. 1020 mm
19. Torquing of axle cap bolt is done at
A. 40 m-kg
B. 50 m-kg
C. 60 m-kg
D. 75 m-kg
20. Gauge width of broad gauge loco should be
A. 1596+- 0.5 mm
B. 1596+- 0.7 mm
C. 1596+- 0.8 mm
D. 1596+- 0.9 mm
21. The diameter of new axle of WDM3A bogie at the location of suspension bearing should be
A. 7.250”+- 0.002”
B. 9.000”+- 0.002”
C. 9.005”+- 0.002”
D. 9.050”+- 0.002”
22. In Co- Co bogie, traction motor cap bolts is torque at
A. 700-800 ft. lbs.

B. 750-800 ft. lbs.
C. 759-810 ft. lbs.
D. 775-825 ft. lbs.
23. While inspecting the nose suspension wear plate of a Co-Co bogie maximum clearance
permitted on motor lugs is
A. 5 mm
B. 10 mm
C. 15 mm
D. 20 mm
24. Cranks in the axle are detected by
A. Magna flux test

B. Ultrasonic test
C. Zyglo test
D. Chemical test
25. Nos. of pinion teeth in GE- 752 TM is
A. 15
B. 16
C. 17
D. 18
26. Nos. of teeth of bull gear of WDM3A bogie is

A. 62
B. 65
C. 68
D. 70
27. Free height of outer coil spring of WDM3A loco is

A. 450+-8 mm
B. 451+- 8 mm
C. 452 +- 8 mm
D. 455+- 8 mm
28. Free height of inner coil spring with nominal coil dia 130 mm of the bogie of WDM3A loco is
A. 423 mm
B. 423+- 6mm
C. 423+- 8mm
D. 423+- 2mm
29. Axle load of WDM3D loco is

A. 17.5 Tones
B. 18.5 Tones
C. 19.5 Tones
D. 20.5 Tones
30. Weight of complete bogie of WDG3A loco is

A. 24.00 Tones
B. 21.00 Tones
C. 25.00 Tones
D. 22.50 Tones
31. Length of WDM3D loco over buffer is

A. 19250 mm
B. 20128 mm
C. 21260 mm
D. 22300 mm
32. No. of outer coil springs per bogie in WDG3A loco is

A. 6
B. 8
C. 12
D. 16
33. No. of outer coil springs in WDG3A loco is
A. 16
B. 24
C. 32
D. 12
34. No. of outer coil springs per bogie in WDM3D loco is
A. 6
B. 12
C. 10
D. 08
35. No. of outer coil springs in WDM3D loco is
A. 10
B. 12
C. 14
D. 24
36. Free height of outer coil springs of WDG3A loco is
A. 480 mm
B. 450 mm
C. 500 mm
D. 520 mm
37. Free height of outer coil springs of WDM3D loco is
A. 490 mm
B. 500 mm
C. 560 mm
D. 540 mm
38. No. of primary vertical dampers per bogie in WDM3D loco is
A. 6
B. 5
C. 4
D. 8
39. No. of primary vertical dampers per loco in WDG3A loco

A. 6
B. 4
C. 8
D. 12
40. No. of horizontal damper per bogie in WDM3D loco is
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 6
41. No. of horizontal damper per loco in WDG3A loco bogie is

A. 8
B. 6
C. 2
D. 10
42. No. of secondary lateral damper per bogie in WDG3A loco is
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
43. No. of secondary lateral damper per loco in WDG3A loco is
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
44. Total axle box lateral clearance for front and back wheel of WDG3A Loco is
A. 12 mm
B. 10 mm
C. 8 mm
D. 6 mm
45. Total axle box lateral clearance for intermediate wheel of WDG3A Loco is
A. 20 mm
B. 25 mm
C. 15 mm
D. 10 mm
46. Total axle box side clearance for wheel of WDG3A Loco is
A. 3.5 mm
B. 2.5 mm
C. 1.5 mm
D. 0.5 mm
47. Height of the cattle guard from rail is
A. 8 ½ inches
B. 5 ½ inches
C. 6 ½ inches
D. 4 ½ inches
48. No. of secondary suspension load pads in WDG3A Loco is
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
49. Bogie of WDG3A loco is designated as
A. HTSC
B. Fabricate
C. Flexi-coil Mk-7
D. Flexi-coil Mk-10
50. Total no. of Brake blocks per bogie in WDM3D loco is
A. 12
B. 10
C. 16
D. 14
51. Total no. of brake blocks in WDM3D loco is
A. 16
B. 24
C. 18
D. 20
52. No. of traction motors per bogie in WDM3D loco is

A. 2
B. 3
C. 1
D. 4
53. No. of traction motors in WDM3D loco is

A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
54. To transfer traction & breaking forces between bogie frame bolster and WDM3D loco bogie
is provided with
A. Guide link
B. Axle boxes
C. Damper
D. Traction rod
55. Height of the Rail guard from Rail is

A. 6 ½ Inches
B. 5 ½ Inches
C. 4 ½ Inches
D. 3 ½ Inches
56. Suspension of flexi coil MK-5 bogie is
A. Double stage
B. Single stage
C. Three stage
D. Multi stage
57. For testing of bogie spring, the magnitude of load is
A. 3050 kg
B. 3562 kg
C. 3864kg
D. 3965 kg
58. The shape of Bo- Bo bogie frame resembles to English alphabet
A. A
B. C
C. E
D. H
59. Expanded from of TBU is
A. Truck brake unit

B. Tread brake unit
C. Terminal brake unit
D. Thread brake unit
60. Minimum CBC height from the Rail for Loco is
A. 1050 mm
B. 1030 mm
C. 1000 mm
D. 1100 mm
61. In WDG3A loco bogie the torquing value of M-36 bolts that connects the suspension tube
with Traction motor
A. 1100 ft. lbs.

B. 990 ft. lbs.
C. 1320 ft.lbs
D. 1423 ft. lbs.
62. No. of bolts used to fix traction motor with MSU in WDG3A Loco
A. 4 Nos.
B. 8 Nos.
C. 12 Nos.
D. 16 Nos.
63. Torque value of WDM3D Locomotive gear case fixing bolts
A. 1010 ft. lbs

B. 990 ft. lbs
C. 1000 ft. lbs
D. 980 ft. lbs
64. The thickness of centre pivot liner of WDM3A loco in bogie is

A. 6 mm
B. 8 mm
C. 10 mm
D. 12 mm
65. The tri- mount bogie consists of

A. A single piece carbon steel frame
B. A single piece cast steel frame
C. A double piece carbon steel frame
D. A double piece cast steel frame
66. In WDM3A, the cylindrical pivot liner which transmits _______

A. Traction forces.
B. Braking forces
C. Traction and braking forces
D. None of the above.
67. Silent block flexible bearings are used in
A. Traction bar
B. Guide link
C. Traction motor
D. Suspension tube
68. Pinion and bull gear ratio of WDM3A Loco.
A. 17:90
B. 18:65
C. 17:77
D. 35:90
69. Traction and braking forces are transmitted from wheel-set to bogie frame through _____
A. Hydraulic dampers.
B. Rubber pads.
C. Happy pads
D. Horn guide.
70. Buffer height can be adjusted by
A. Adding shims to load pads & side bearers

B. Adding shims to spring seat
C. Both A & B
71. Slack adjuster is initially set to provide a safe release of
A. 6 mm
B. 8 mm
C. 10 mm
D. 12 mm
72. With new wheels & brake shoes the initial setting of safe release is 10 mm. At this position
the piston travel will be
A. 50 mm
B. 57 mm
C. 67 mm
D. 77 mm
73. The limit of flat spot on wheel is

A. 30 mm
B. 40 mm
C. 50 mm
D. 60 mm
74. If flat spot on wheel is exceeds 50 mm, then
A. Wheel set to be sent for re disking
B. Wheel set should be connected
C. Dressing is done before turning
Under Truck Answer Sheet
1. B 26. B 51. B
2. A 27. B 52. B
3. C 28. B 53. D
4. A 29. C 54. B
5. B 30. B 55. C
6. C 31. C 56. A
7. B 32. B 57. C
8. A 33. A 58. D
9. C 34. B 59. B
10. C 35. D 60. B
11. B 36. A 61. B
12. B 37. C 62. B
13. C 38. A 63. C
14. B 39. B 64. C
15. A 40. A 65. B
16. D 41. C 66. C
17. D 42. A 67. B
18. A 43. C 68. B
19. B 44. D 69. D
20. A 45. B 70. C
21. B 46. C 71. C
22. C 47. C 72. C
23. B 48. D 73. C
24. B 49. B 74. C
25. D 50. A
HHP LOCO QUESTION BANK
GM LOCOMOTIVE
1. What is the hours power of WDP4 & WDG4 locomotive
A. 3000 HP
B. 3500 HP
C. 4000 HP
D. 4500 HP
2. What is the model designation of WDG4 locomotive
A. GT46 MAC
B. GT46
C. GT46PAK
D. ALCO 251
3. What is the model designation of WDP4 locomotive
A. GT46 MAC
B. GT46
C. GT46PAK
D. ALCO 251
4. Which type of diesel engine model is fitted in GM locomotive
A. ALCO-251
B. GT46
C. 710 G3B
D. GT 46MAC
5. Which type of diesel engine is fitted in GM locomotive
A. Four stroke
B. Three stroke
C. One stroke
D. Two stroke
6. What is the compression ratio of the GM locomotive
A. 16:1
B. 14:1
C. 13:1
D. 15:1
7. What is the full speed RPM of the GM locomotive engine
A. 1000 RPM
B. 904 RPM
C. 900 RPM
D. 950 RPM
8. How much the minimum speed of the GM locomotive engine without LIR
(low idle relay)
A. 200 RPM
B. 250 RPM
C. 269 RPM
D. 249 RPM
9. How much the minimum speed of the GM locomotive engine with LIR
A. 200 RPM
B. 250 RPM
C. 269 RPM
D. 249 RPM
10. What is the lube oil capacity in system of GM loco?
A. 1000 Liters
B. 1100 Liters
C. 950 Liters
D. 910 Liters
11. What is the fuel tank capacity in the GM locomotive
A. 5000 Liters
B. 6000 Liters
C. 4000 Liters
D. 7000 Liters
12. What is the coolent water capacity in the GM locomotive
A. 1200 Liters
B. 1100 Liters
C. 1045 Liters
D. 1145 Liters
13. Capacity of sand box in the WDP 4 & WDG 4 locomotive
A. 12 Ft3/ box
B. 15 Ft3/ box
C. 14 Ft3/ box
D. 18 Ft3/ box
14. What is the minimum continues speed of the WDG 4 locomotive
A. 21.5 Kmph
B. 22.5 Kmph
C. 20.5 Kmph
D. 23.5 Kmph
15. What is the maximum speed of the WDG 4 locomotive
A. 150 Kmph
B. 140 Kmph
C. 120 Kmph
D. 110 Kmph
16. Which type of bogie fitted in the GM locomotive
A. Single suspension
B. Double suspension
C. Triple suspension
D. None of these
17. In the fuel oil system which type of injectors provided in the GM locomotive
A. Unit injectors
B. Injectors with HP line
C. Injector with cam
D. None of these
18. In the two stroke engine the cylinder head of the engine equipped with
A. Inlet & Exhaust valves

B. Only Inlet valves
C. Only Exhaust valves
D. None of these
19. In the GM locomotive the Turbo charger is driven by
A. Exhaust Gas
B. Gear Train
C. Gear Train & Exhaust gas
D. None of these
20. In the WDP4 & WDG4 locomotive engine how much lube oil pumps used
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
21. In the GM locomotive the air compressor is ........
A. Air cooled
B. Water cooled
C. Oil cooled
D. None of these
22. In the WDP4 & WDG4 locomotive the coolant used in compressor is
A. Engine coolant
B. Compressor coolant
C. Raw water
D. None of these
23. Air compressor the lube oil sump capacity is
A. 10 Liters
B. 12 Liters
C. 15 Liters
D. 23 Liters
24. Air compressor in the GM locomotive is
A. Single stage
B. Two stage
C. Three stage
D. Four stage
25. How many brake cylinders are used per bogie
A. 06 Nos
B. 04 Nos
C. 02 Nos
D. 05 Nos
26. Which type of bogie is used in GM locomotive
A. Fabricated bogie
B. Cast steel
C. High tensile cast steel
D. None of these
27. In GM locomotive Air brake is controlled by
A. Mechanically
B. Electrically
C. Computer
D. None of these
28. Air brake system in WDP4 &WDG4 loco is
A. 28LAV-1
B. 28LV-1
C. CCB-KNORR
D. None of these
29. In GM locomotive the first schedule carried out after
A. One month
B. Three month
C. Four month
D. 15 Days
30. Maximum speed of WDP4 locomotive is
A. 120 Kmph
B. 160 Kmph
C. 150 Kmph
D. 180 Kmph
31. TM pinion and bull gear ratio in WDG4 loco is
A. 17:90
B. 17:77
C. 65:18
D. 90:35
32. TM pinion and bull gear ratio in WDP4 loco is
A. 17:90
B. 17:77
C. 18:65
D. 35:90
33. Total weight of WDG4 loco is
A. 140 Tones
B. 129 Tones
C. 160 Tones
D. None of these
34. Total weight of WDP4 loco is
A. 115.8 Tones
B. 119.8 Tones
C. 121.8 Tones
D. None of these
GM LOCOMOTIVE

1. C 13. B 25. B
2. A 14. B 26. C
3. C 15. C 27. C
4. C 16. B 28. C
5. D 17. A 29. B
6. A 18. C 30. B
7. B 19. C 31. A
8. C 20. D 32. B
9. A 21. B 33. B
10. C 22. A 34. A
11. B 23. A
12. C 24. B
HHP LOCO GENERAL DATA
SLNO QUESTION ANSWER

01. WHAT IS THE HEIGHT OF WDP4 LOCO OVER HORN 4.22M
02. WHAT IS THE WIDTH OF WDP4 LOCO OVER CAB 2.7M
03. WHAT IS THE MAXIMUM WIDTH OF WDP4 3.07 M
04. WHAT IS THE MINIMUM CONTINUOUS SPEED OF WDP4 22.5 KMPH
05. WHAT IS THE MAXIMUM SPEED OF WDP4 160 KMPH
06. WHAT IS THE MAXIMUM STALL TRACTIVE EFFORT 270KN
07. WHAT IS THE CONTINUOUS TRACTIVE EFFORT OF WDP4 200KN
08. WHAT IS THE MINIMUM CURVE NEGOTIATION CAPABILITY OF WDP4 10 DEG CURVE
09. WHAT IS THE LUBE OIL CAPACITY OF WDP4 950 LITRE
10. WHAT IS THE COOLING SYSTEM CAPACITY OF WDP4 1045 LITRE
11. WHAT IS THE SAND CAPACITY OF WDP4 8 CUB FEET
12. WHAT IS THE FUEL CAPACITY OF WDP4 6000 LITRE
13. WHAT IS THE LUBE OIL CAPACITY OF COMPRESSOR IN WDP4 9.98 LITRE
14. WHAT IS THE DISCHARGE CAPACITY OF COMPRESSOR IN WDP4 7.19M3/MIN
15. WHAT IS THE MODEL OF COMPRESSOR IN WDP4 WLNA9BB
16. HOW MANY BRAKE CYLINDERS ARE IN WDP4 4
17. WHAT IS THE MODEL OF TRUCK USED IN WDP4 HTSC
18. WHAT IS THE GRADE OF LUBE OIL USED IN HHP LOCO RR520
19. WHAT IS THE GRADE OF GOVERNOR OIL USED IN HHP LOCO RR 520
20. WHAT IS THE GRADE OF TM GEAR CASE USED IN HHP LOCO RR 100
21. WHAT IS THE GRADE OF COMPRESSOR OIL USED IN HHP LOCO RR 460 SYNTHETIC OIL
22. WHAT IS THE MINIMUM WHEEL DIA PERMISSIBLE FOR PASSENGER SERVICE 1016
23. WHAT IS THE MINIMUM WHEEL DIA PERMISSIBLE FOR GOODS SERVICE 1006
24. WHAT IS PERMISSIBLE DIFFERENCE IN WHEEL DIAMETER ON THE SAME AXLE 0.5 TO 2.5 MM
25. WHAT IS PERMISSIBLE DIFFERENCE IN WHEEL DIAMETER ON THE SAME BOGIE 2-8MM
26. WHAT IS PERMISSIBLE DIFFERENCE IN WHEEL DIAMETER ON THE SAME LOCOMOTIVE 15-25 MM
27. WHAT IS THE MAXIMUM PERMISSIBLE ROOT WEAR IN A WHEEL 6 MM
28. WHAT IS THE MAXIMUM PERMISSIBLE FLANGE WEAR IN A WHEEL 3 MM
29. WHAT IS THE MAXIMUM PERMISSIBLE THREAD WEAR IN A WHEEL 4 MM
30. WHAT IS THE PERMISSIBLE GAUGE WIDTH IN AN AXLE SET 1596 ± 0.5MM NEW ASSEMBLY
1596 ± 1.5/0.5MM SERVICE LIMIT
31. WHAT IS THE RAIL GUARD HEIGHT FROM RAIL LEVEL. 100MM --130 MM
32. WHAT IS THE CENTER BUFFER COUPLER HEIGHT RANGE FROM RAIL LEVEL 1105 - 1060 MM.
33. WHAT IS THE SIDE BUFFER HEIGHT RANGE FROM RAIL LEVEL 1105 - 1030 MM
34. WHAT IS THE UNIT OF TORQUE IN ENGLISH SYSTEM FT-LBS
35. WHAT IS THE AXLE LOAD OF WDP4 19.5T
ENGINE
SL NO QUESTION ANSWER
01. WHAT IS THE MODEL NUMBER OF ENGINE USED IN WDP4 710G3B
02. WHAT IS THE BORE OF POWER ASSEMBLY 230.19MM/9-1/16ÏNCH
03. WHAT IS THE STROKE OF POWER ASSEMBLY IN EMD ENGINE 279.4 MM/ 11 INCH
04. WHAT IS THE ANGLE BETWEEN LEFT AND RIGHT BANK OF EMD ENGINE 45 DEG
05. WHAT IS THE COMPRESSION RATIO OF EMD ENGINE 16:1
06. WHAT IS THE DISPLACEMENT PER CYLINDER IN EMD ENGINE 11635 CM3/ 710 CU.IN
07. WHAT IS THE FIRING ORDER OF EMD ENGINE 1,8,9,16,3,6,11,13,4,5,12,13,2,7,10,11
08. HOW MANY EXHAUST VALVES PER CYLINDER IN EMD ENGINE 04
09. HOW MANY MAIN BEARINGS ARE IN EMD ENGINE 10
10. WHAT TYPE OF COOLING WATER SYSTEM IN EMD ENGINE PRESSURISED
11. WHAT TYPE OF WATER PUMPS ARE THERE IN EMD ENGINE CENTRIFUGAL
12. WHAT TYPE OF LUBE OIL PUMPS ARE THERE IN EMD ENGINES HELICAL GEARS TYPE
13. WHAT TYPE OF FUEL INJECTION IS USED IN EMD ENGINE UNIT INJECTOR WITH NEEDLE VALVE
14. WHAT IS THE TYPE OF FUEL PUMP IN EMD ENGINE POSITIVE DISPLACEMENT
15. WHAT TYPE OF ENGINE STARTING IS USED IN EMD ENGINE DUAL ELECTRIC MOTORS
16. WHAT IS THE LOW IDLE RPM OF EMD ENGINE 200
17. WHAT IS THE IDLE RPM OF EMD ENGINE 260
TH
18. WHAT IS THE 8 NOTCH RPM OF EMD ENGINE 904
19. WHAT IS THE DRY WEIGHT OF EMD ENGINE 17962 KG
20. WHAT IS THE WEIGHT OF PISTON OF EMD ENGINE 27 KG
21. WHAT IS THE SIZE OF CRAB BOLT USED IN CYLINDER HEAD OF EMD ENGINE 1-3/4 INCH-12 UNR
22. WHAT IS THE SIZE OF MAIN BEARING STUD BOLT USED IN EMD ENGINE 1-1/4 INCH-12 UNR
23. WHAT IS THE FINAL TORQUE VALUE OF MAIN BEARING CAP NUT 1017NM/ 750 FT-LBS
24. WHAT IS THE MINIMUM DIAMETER OF MAIN BEARING BORE OF EMD 234.886 MM/9.2475 IN
ENGINE
25. WHAT IS THE MINIMUM CLEARANCE BETWEEN BEARING SHELL TO 0.038 MM/0.0015 IN
26. CRANKSHAFT IN EMD ENGINE
27. WHAT IS THE MAXIMUM ROUGHNESS OF VALVE STEM IN EMD ENGINE 0.635 MICRO INCH
28. WHAT IS THE PERMISSIBLE DIFFERENCE OF HEIGHT IN VALVE STEM 1.59 MM/ 1/16 IN
29. WHAT IS THE VALVE SEAT ANGLE OF EMD ENGINE 30 DEG
30. WHAT IS THE VALVE SEAT WIDTH OF EMD ENGINE 2.36-3.18 MM
31. WHAT IS THE MINIMUM VALVE SPRING FREE LENGTH 100.79 MM/3.968 MM
32. WHAT IS THE MINIMUM TORQUE VALUE OF CYLINDER LINER STUD IN EMD 67.79NM
ENGINE
33. WHAT IS THE MINIMUM COOLING WATER TEMPERATURE NEEDED FOR 49 DEG C/120 DEG F
34. FULL LOAD IN EMD ENGINE
35. WHAT IS THE WATER PUMP DRIVE GEAR BACKLASH IN EMD ENGINES 0.20- 0.64 MM
36. WHAT IS THE MAXIMUM ALLOWABLE PRESSURE DIFFERENCE ACROSS 635MM OF WATER
AFTER COOLER IN EMD ENGINES
37. WHAT IS THE FUEL RELIEF VALVE SETTING OF EMD ENGINES 690KPA/ 100PSI
38. WHAT IS THE FINAL PRESSURE OF ATOMISED FUEL INJECTED TO CYLINDER 16000-18000PSI.
39. WHAT IS THE TYPE OF GOVERNOR USED IN EMD ENGINES WOODWARD
40. WHAT IS THE RESISTANCE VALUE OF LCR RHEOSTAT IN WW GOV 1500 OHM
41. WHAT IS THE RESISTANCE VALUE OF LCR PACK 6500 OHM
42. WHAT IS THE LOW WATER PRESSURE TRIP PRESSURE OF EMD LOCO 762MM/30INCH
43. WHAT IS THE TRIPPING PRESSURE OF CRANKCASE PRESSURE DETECT IN 20-76MM
EMD LOCO
44. WHAT IS THE OST SETTING LIMIT IN EMD ENGINES 990-1045 RPM.
45. WHAT IS THE BACKLASH BETWEEN RING GEAR AND STARTER MOTOR 0.38-1.02 MM
46. WHAT TYPE OF MOTOR USED FOR EMD MAKE ENGINE CRANKING DC SERIES MOTOR
47. WAHT IS THE BRUSH SPRING PRESSURE TENSION OF STARTER MOTOR 2.04- 2.27 KG
48. WHAT IS THE RELIEF VALVE SETTING OF SOAK BACK PUMP 221KPA/32 PSI
49. WHAT IS THE BYPASS VALVE SETTING OF SOAK BACK PUMP 483 KPA/70 PSI
50. WHAT IS THE DELIVERY RATE OF SOAK PUMP IN EMD ENGINE 15GPM/57LPM
51. WHAT IS THE CRANK CASE SUCTION PRESSURE IN EMD ENGINE 50.8 – 203 MM
52. WHAT IS THE LUBE OIL RELIEF VALVE SETTING IN EMD LOCOS 862 KPA/ 125 PSI
53. WHAT ARE THE FOUR STOKES IN A DIESEL ENGINE INLET, COMPRESSION, POWER,
EXHAUST
54. ON WHAT DEGREE ROTATION OF CRANKSHAFT ONE PULSE OF POWER IS 22.5 DEG
PRODUCED IN EMD ENGINES
55. WHAT IS THE MEANING OF 710 IN EMD ENGINE MODEL CUBIC INCH DISPLACEMENT PER
CYLINDER
56. WHAT IS THE TEMPERATURE APPLIED TO ENGINE BLOCK TO RELIEVE 1200 DEG F
57. WHAT IS THE TYPE OF MAIN BEARING OF EMD ENGINE TRIMETAL BEARING
58. WHAT ARE THE MATERIALS USED TO MANUFACTURE MAIN BEARING IN STEEL,BRONZE,LEAD/TIN
EMD ENGINE
59. WHICH ARE THE LOCATIONS THRUST COLLARS ARE FITTED IN EMD ENGINE 5AND6
60. WHAT TYPE OF CAM SHAFT IS USED IN EMD ENGINES DURACAM
61. HOW MANY GEARS ARE IN ACCESSORY GEAR DRIVE TRAIN IN EMD ENGINE 5
62. WHAT IS THE LUBE OIL PUMP DELIVERY CAPACITY AT 8TH NOTCH IN EMD 405 GPM
ENGINE
63. WHAT IS THE RELIEF VALVE SETTING OF SOAK BACK SYSTEM IN EMD 55PSI
ENGINES
64. WHAT IS THE MINIMUM LUBE OIL PRESSURE REQUIRED IN EMD ENGINES 8-12 PSI
65. AT WHAT LUBE OIL TEMPERATURE THE ENGINE SHUT DOWN IN EMD 124 DEG C
ENGINES
66. AT WHAT EXHAUST GAS TEMPERATURE THE TURBO SUPERCHARGER WORKS 1000DEG F /538 DEG C
AS GAS DRIVEN TURBO
67. HOW MANY TURBINES BLADES ARE IN EMD TURBO 53
68. WHAT IS THE MINIMUM TRD OF EMD TURBO 27 SEC
69. HOW MUCH TIME THE SOAK BACK PUMP WORKS AFTER SHUTTING DOWN 30—35 MINUTES
THE ENGINE
70. HOW MANY ELECTRICAL SOLENOIDS ARE IN WOOD WARD GOVERNOR 5
71. WHICH ARE THE SPEED SETTING SOLENOIDS IN WOODWARD GOVERNOR A,B,C,D
72. WHICH SOLENOID IS USED TO SHUTDOWN EMD ENGINE D
73. WHICH ARE THE PROTECTION DEVICES ARE TERMED EPD LOW WATER AND CRANKCASE
PRESSURE
74. WHAT IS THE WATER PRESSURE DIFFERENCE WITH AIR PRESSURE FOR ½ PSI
TRIPPING EPD
75. AT WHAT TEMPERATURE THE HOT OIL DETECT OPEN FULLY 135 PSI
76. WHAT IS THE SET SPEED OF OST W R T ENGINE SPEED PLUS 10 %
77. WHAT IS THE SET TIME DELAY FOR LOW LUBE OIL PRESSURE SHUTTING 50-60 SEC
DOWN IN IDLE SPEED
78. WHICH SOLENOID WORKS DURING LR SELF TEST ORS
79. WHAT IS THE LR INDICATOR POSITION IN GOVERNOR DURING NORMAL MAXIMUM
LOCO WORKING
AIR BRAKE SYSTEM –CCB 1.5
SL NO QUESTIONS ANSWER
01. WHICH IS THE CIRCUIT BREAKER USED FOR AIR BRAKE SYSTEM MICRO AIRBRAKE
02. WHAT IS THE RATING OF MAB BREAKER 15 A
03. WHAT IS THE OPERATING VOLTAGE OF AB SYSTEM 24V
04. WHICH IS THE POWER SUPPLY MODULE FOR CCB VCU
05. WHAT IS THE VALUE OF MELCHER VOLTAGE 24
06. WHAT IS THE PERMISSIBLE GROUNDING VOLTAGE IN CCB 3V
07. WHICH IS THE HANDLE USED FOR LOCO BRAKE DIRECT HANDLE
08. WHICH IS THE HANDLE USED FOR TRAIN BRAKE AUTO HANDLE
09. NAME OF THE BRAKE CONTROLLER SELECTION SWITCH LT SWITCH
10. HOW MANY POSITIONS ARE IN LT SWITCH 4
11. WHICH ARE THE POSITIONS OF LT SWITCH LEAD, TRAIL, TEST, HLPR
12. NAME THE CONNECTOR USED FOR COMMUNICATION WITH EM2000 CRJ 10
13. HOW MANY CARDS ARE THERE IN CCB 12
14. NAME THE PROCESSOR CARD CPZ
15. NAME THE CARD CONVERT ANALOG TO DIGITAL SIGNALS ADZ
16. NAME THE CARD WHICH CONNECTED TO PRESSURE SENSORS ADZ
17. NAME THE CARD WHICH CONTROLS THE ANALOG CONVERTER EPA CARD
18. WHAT IS THE BP PRESSURE OF HHP LOCO 5.2 KG/CM
19. WHAT TYPE OF CABLE IS CONNECTING BCV AND CCB OFC CABLE
20. TO WHICH CARD THE MICRO SWITCHES INSIDE BCV ARE CONNECTED TO SS9 CARD
21. WHAT IS THE BC PRESSURE UNDER A9 EMERGENCY 4.4KG/CM
22. WHICH MAGNET VALVE WORKS DURING PENALTY BY POWER LOSS MVER
23. WHAT IS THE MAIN RESERVOIR PRESSURE 8 - 10 KG/CM2.
24. WHAT IS THE BP PRESSURE DURING RELEASE POSITION 5.7 KG/ CM2 MAXIMUM
25. WHAT IS THE ER AND BRAKE PIPE PRESSURE DURING RUNNING POSITION 5.2 KG/CM2, BC = 0
26. WHAT IS THE BC PRESSURE AT MINIMUM SERVICE 1.1 KG/CM2.
27. WHAT IS THE BC PRESSURE AT FULL SERVICE - ER/BP - 3.4 KG/CM2 4.35 KG/CM2.
28. WHAT IS THE .BCEP PRESSURE UNDER EMERGENCY 3.57 KG/CM2
WHAT IS THE BC PRESSURE AT MAXIMUM BRAKE POSITION BY INDEPENDENT
29. HANDLE 5.2 KG/CM2. BCEP = 3.7 KG/ CM2.
30. WHICH CARD GIVES SUPPLY TO MAGNET VALVES DB1 CARD
31. WHICH ANALOG CONVERTER CONTROL BP AW4-ER
32. WHICH ANALOG CONVERTER CONTROL BC AW4-16
SL NO QUESTIONS ANSWER
33. WHICH ANALOG CONVERTER CONTROL BCEQ AW4-20
34. WHICH CARD GIVE SUPPLY TO AW4 –ER EPA1
35. WHICH CARD GIVES SUPPLY TO AW4-16 EPA2.
36. WHICH CARD GIVE SUPPLY TO AW4-20 EPA3
37. WHICH PRESSURE TRANSDUCER MEASURE BP BPT
38. WHICH TRANSDUCER MEASURE MR PRESSURE MRET
39. WHICH TRANSDUCER MEASURE BC BCT
40. WHICH TRANSDUCER MEASURE BCEQ 20T
41. WHICH CARD CONVERT OPTICAL FREQUENCY TO DIGITAL SIGNAL FOR CARD
42. WHICH MAGNET VALVE OPERATE DURING EMERGENCY APPLICATION MVEM
43. NAME THE MAGNET VALVE -BRAKE PIPE CUT-OFF MAGNET VALVE MV53
44. WHI9CH RELAY IN CCB DROPS DURING PENALTY COR
45. NAME THE COMPUTER POWER SUPPLY CARDS SVJ AND SV2
46. NAME THE DISPLAY CARD DIZ
47. WHICH ARE THE COUPLERS PROVIDED IN BCV BVJ1 AND BVJ2
48. AEII SWITCH IS CONNECTED TO WHICH COUPLER IN BCV BVJ2
49. LT SWITCH IS CONNECTED TO WHICH CARD SS9A/B
50. FAULT CODE START WITH 50 IS RELATED TO MR TRANSDUCER.
51. FAULT CODE STARTING WITH 90 RELATED TO DEFECTIVE ADZ CARD.
52. WHAT IS THE BP PRESSURE WHEN A9 HANDLE IS IN MINIMUM REDUCTION 4.7
53. WHAT IS THE BP PRESSURE WHEN A9 HANDLE IS IN FULL SERVICE 3.4
54. WHAT IS THE BC PRESSURE WHEN DEAD ENGINE COC IS CLOSED 1.76
55. WHAT IS THE BC PRESSURE UNDER POWER OF PENALTY 3.75
AIRBRAKE SYSTEM – CCB2
SL NO QUESTIONS ANSWERS
01. WHAT IS THE SPECIALITY OF EBV IN CCB2 SYSTEM PROVIDED WITH DISPLAY
02. NAME THE EMERGENCY VALVE PROVIDED IN EBV OF CCB2 NB11
03. WHAT IS THE FULL FORM OF LRU LINE REPLACEABLE UNIT
04. IN WHICH EQUIPMENT LRUS ARE MOUNTED EPCU
05. WHAT IS EPCI ELECTRO PNEUMATIC CONTROL UNIT
06. HOW MANY LRU ARE IN EPCP 06
07. WHICH ARE THE ELECTRONICALLY CONTROLLED LRU 16CP,20 CP,ERCP,BPCP
08. WHICH ARE THE PNEUMATICALLY CONTROLLED LRU BCCP AND KE VALVE
09. WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF ER CP CONTROL EQUALIZING CONTROL
PRESSSURE
10. WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF BPCP CONTROL TRAINLINE BRAKE PIPE
PRESSURE
11. WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF 16CP CONTROL BC CONTROL PILOT AIR
PRESSURE
12. WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF 20 CP CONTROL THE BRAKE CYLINDER
EQUALIZING PIPE
13. WHAT IS THE FULL FORM OF BCCP BRAKE CYLINDER CONTROL PORTION
14. WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF BCCP CONTROL BRAKE CYLINDER PRESSURE IN
LOCO
15. WHAT IS RCP RELAY CONTROL PORTION
16. HOW MANY RELAYS ARE IN RCP 7, 2 HIGH CURRENT AND 5 LOW CURRENT
17. WHICH MODULE GIVE POWER SUPPLY TO CCB2 PSJB
18. WHAT IS THE OPERATING VOLTAGE FOR CCB2 24VDC
19. WHICH MODULE IN CCB2 COMMUNICATE WITH LCC LON TO RS485 CONVERTER ASSEMBLY
20. WHAT IS PER COS IN CCB2 PNEUMATIC EQUALIZING RESERVOIR CUT
OUT SWITCH
21. WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OR PER COS MANUAL BRAKING
22. WHAT IS THE MANUAL BRAKE CONTROL IN CCB2 857. BU-DBV (DRIVER BACK UP BRAKE
VALVE
23. HOW MANY POSITIONS DBV HAVE 3
24. WHAT IS THE BP PRESSURE WHEN EBV IN RELEASE POSITION IN HHP LOCOS 5.7
25. WHAT IS THE BP PRESSURE WHEN EBV IN RUN POSITION IN HHP LOCOS 5.2
26. WHAT IS THE BC PRESSURE WHEN SA9 HANDLE IS IN FULL SERVICE IN HHP LOCOS 5.2
27. WHAT IS THE BC PRESSURE WHEN A9 HANDLE IN EMERGENCY 1.8
28. WHAT IS THE FULL FORM OF LON LOCAL OPERATING NETWORK
29. WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF MV53 MAGNET VALVE WHEN ENERGISED CUTOUT BP PIPE CHARGING
2
30. WHAT IS THE FEED PIPE PRESSURE VALUE 6 KG/CM
31. WHICH AIR PRESSURE IS USED AS REFERENCE FOR TRAIL LOCO BRAKING BCEQ
BOGIE
S.No. Question Answer

01. WHAT IS THE FULL FORM OF HTSC HIGH TENSILE STEEL CAST
02. WHAT IS THE VERTICAL STOP CLEARANCE OF BOGIE AND UNDERFRAME IN HTSC BOGIE 16MM +/- 3.2MM
03. WHAT IS THE TYPE OF JOURNAL BEARING IN HTSC BOGIE CARTRIDGE TYPE GREASE LUBRICATED
04. WHAT IS THE NORMAL WORKING TEMPERATURE OF JOURNAL BEARING 56 DEG C
05. WHAT IS THE PERMISSIBLE THRUST CLEARANCE OF JOURNAL BEARING IN MIDDLE AXLE 0.31 MM
06. WHAT IS THE PERMISSIBLE THRUST CLEARANCE OF JOURNAL BEARING IN END AXLE 0.187MM
07. WHAT IS THE PERMISSIBLE CLEARANCE BETWEEN DEFLECTION PADS AND NYLON 25.4MM
WEAR PLATE
08. WHAT IS THE PERMISSIBLE INSTALLED SPRING HEIGHT 434.8MM
09. WHAT IS THE PERMISSIBLE CLEARANCE BETWEEN BRAKE SHOE AND WHEEL WITH 15.9MM
SINGLE SLACK ADJUSTER
10. WHAT IS THE PERMISSIBLE CLEARANCE BETWEEN BRAKE SHOE AND WHEEL WITH 19.1MM
DOUBLE SLACK ADJUSTER
11. WHAT IS THE BRAKE CYLINDER PISTON TRAVEL RANGE 50.8- 165.1 MM
12. WHAT IS THE TOQUE VALUE OF GEAR CASE PARTING BOLTS 47.45 NM
13. WHAT IS THE TORQUE VALUE OF GEAR CASE 1-1/8 BOLTS 1342.24 NM
14. WHICH PART CONNECT TRACTION MOTOR TO BOGIE NOSE LINK/DOGBONE
15. WHICH EQUIPMENT TRANSFER THE LOCO WEIGHT TO BOGIE FRAME 4 RUBBER COMPRESSION SPRING
COMPRESSOR SYSTEM

01. MODEL OF COMPRESSOR USED IN HHP LOCOS WLN9BB
02. WHAT TYPE OF COOLING SYSTEM USED IN COMPRESSOR WATER COOLED
03. WHAT IS THE COMPRESSOR OIL PRESSURE AT IDLE 18-25 PSI
04. HOW MANY CYLINDERS ARE IN A COMPRESSOR 3,2LPAND1HP
05. WHICH IS THE PRIME MOVER OF THE COMPRESSOR DIESEL ENGINE
06. WHICH MAGNET VALVE CONTROL COMPRESSOR LOADING MVCC
07. WHICH SENSOR MEASURE THE COMPRESSED AIR FROM COMPRESSOR MRPT
08. WHAT IS THE MAXIMUM MR PRESSURE IN LEAD LOCO 9.84 KG/CM2
09. WHAT IS THE MAXIMUM MR PRESSURE IN TRAILING LOCO 10.19KG/CM2
10. WHICH RELAY SYNCHRONIZE COMPRESSOR OPERATION IN MU UNITS CMPSYN RELAY
11. WHICH MU WIRE CARRY COMPRESSOR SYNCHRONIZATION SIGNAL IN MU Locos WIRE NO 25
12. WHICH ARE THE RESERVOIRS IN COMPRESSOR SYSTEM MR1,MR2
13. WHAT IS THE CAPACITY OF MR TANK 492 LITRE
14. WHAT IS THE MR SAFETY VALVE SETTING 10.6 KG/CM2
15. WHICH MAGNET VALVE WILL BLOW DOWN WATER FROM MR TANK EBT (Electronic Blow down timer)
16. WHICH RELAY CONTROL THE AIR DRYER TOWER CHANGE DCR (DRYER CONTROL RELAY)
17. WHICH EQUIPMENT REMOVE WATER FROM MR AIR GOING TO AIR BRAKE AIR DRYER
SYSTEM
18. AT WHAT SPEED THE DCR RELAY IS ENERGISED 430
19. THE MINIMUM MR PRESSURE REQUIRED TO OPERATE AIR DRYER 7.03KG/CM2
20. AT WHAT SPEED MANUAL SANDING IS CUT OFF IN HHP LOCO 19.4 KMPH
21. WHAT IS THE QUANTITY OF SAND FALLING PER MINUTE 425- 567 GM
22. WHAT IS THE MAXIMUM OPERATING SPEED OF WIPER 60-80 CYCLES
23. WHAT IS THE FREQUENCY OF RADAR BLOW DOWN TAKE PLACE 25 SEC
24. WHAT IS THE DURATION OF RADAR BLOW DOWN 2.6 SEC
FORCED AIR SYSTEM
01. WHICH FILTERS ARE FITTED IN CLEAN ROOM WALLS INERTIAL AIR FILTERS
02. WHICH MOTOR REMOVE THE DIRT FROM INERTIAL FILTER INERTIAL FILTER BLOWER MOTOR
03. TO WHICH MACHINE THE TRACTION MOTOR BLOWERS ARE COUPLED AUX GEN
04. WHICH BLOWER COOLS TA RECTIFIERS TA BLOWER
05. WHICH BLOWER GIVES AIR TO COMPRESSOR TM BLOWER
06. WHICH BLOWER GIVES AIR TO PRESSURISE ECC TM BLOWER
07. WHICH BLOWER GIVES AIR TO TA ROOM ASPIRATOR TM BLOWER
08. FROM WHERE TURBO TAKES AIR CLEAN ROOM
09. WHAT IS THE ANOTHER NAME OF TA ROOM CLEAN ROOM
10. WHICH BLOWER COOLS CROW BAR MODULES IN TCC TCC ELECTRONIC BLOWER
11. FROM WHICH TCC ELECTRONIC BLOWER IS TAKING AIR CLEAN ROOM
12. WHICH MACHINE GIVE POWER SUPPLY TO TCC ELECTRONIC BLOWER MOTOR CA
13. WHICH COOLS GTOS IN TCC TCC BLOWER
14. WHAT IS THE MINIMUM STATIC PRESSURE OF ECC1 13 MM WATER
15. WHAT IS THE MINIMUM STATIC PRESSURE OF ECC3 CABINET 2.6 MM WATER
COOLING SYSTEM
01. HOW MANY WATER PUMPS ARE IN HHP LOCO 2
02. HOW MANY WATER TEMPERATURE SENSORS ARE IN HHP LOCO 2
03. IN WHICH WATER PIPE LINE ETP SENSORS ARE FITTED LUBE OIL COOLER TO WATER PUMP
04. WHAT IS THE FULL FORM OF ETP ENGINE TEMPERATURE PROBE
05. IF BOTH ETP FAILS WHAT IS THE EFFECT IN LOCO NO LOAD
06. HOW MANY RADIATORS ARE IN HHP LOCO 2
07. HOW MANY RADIATOR CORES ARE IN ONE RADIATOR 2
08. HOW MANY RADIATOR FANS ARE IN HHP LOCO 2
09. HOW MANY BLADES IN A FAN 8
10. WHAT IS THE DIAMETER OF COOLING FAN IN WDP4 LOCO 52 INCH
11. WHAT IS THE WORKING TEMPERATURE RANGE OF COOLING WATER SYSTEM 79-85 DEG C
12. HOW MANY FAN CONTACTORS ARE IN COOLING WATER SYSTEM IN HHP LOCO 6
13. WHAT IS THE OPENING PRESSURE OF PRESSURE CAP IN COOLING WATER system 20PSI
14. WHICH EQUIPMENT SENSE THE WATER LEVEL IN COOLING WATER SYSTEM ELWS
15. WHICH ARE THE TWO SPEED IN WHICH RADIATOR FANS RUNS HALF ,FULL
16. WHICH CONTACTOR PICKS UP FOR SLOW SPEED FCS
17. WHICH CONTACTORS ARE PICKED UP IN FULL SPEED FCFXA. FCFX B
FUEL OIL SYSTEM

01. WHAT TYPE OF FUEL PUMP USED IN FUEL OIL SYSTEM POSITIVE DISPLACEMENT GEAR TYPE
02. WHAT IS THE TYPE OF FUEL PUMP MOTOR USED VERTICAL PUMP WITH 3 PHASE AC
MOTOR
03. WHEN WILL FUEL PUMP MOTOR START ROTATE PRIME /START SWITCH IN PRIME
POSITION
04. WHICH RELAY GIVE SUPPLY TO FUEL PUMP MOTOR FPR
05. WHAT IS THE SETTING OF FUEL BYPASS VALVE 30 PSI
06. AT WHAT PRESSURE THE FUEL BYPASS GAUGE NEEDLE TOUCHES YELLOW ZONE 20 PSI
07. HOW MANY FUEL SIGHT GLASSES IN FUEL OIL SYSTEM 2
08. WHAT IS THE FUEL TANK CAPACITY IN HHP LOCO 6000 LITRE
LUBE OIL SYSTEM

01. WHAT IS THE TYPE OF LUBE OIL PUMP POSITIVE DISPLACEMENT GEAR TYPE
02. WHICH ARE THE PUMPS WORKS IN LUBE OIL SYSTEM LUBE OIL AND SCAVENGING PUMP
03. WHICH GEAR DRIVE LUBE OIL PUMPS ACCESSORY DRIVE GEAR TRAIN.
04. AT WHAT TEMPERATURE, THE LUBE OIL PRESSURE TO BE CHECKED ABOVE 66 DEG C
05. WHAT IS THE FILTER TANK PRESSURE AT IDLE FOR FILTER REPLACEMENT IN LUBE
OIL SYSTEM. 7 PSI
06. AT WHAT LUBE OIL TEMPERATURE, THE HOT OIL DETECTOR VALVE OPEN TO SHUT
DOWN ENGINE 124 DEG C
07. WHICH MOTOR LUBRICATE TURBO BEFORE ENGINE CRANKING TLPM
08. WHAT IS THE MAXIMUM COOLING DOWN TIME OF TURBO AFTER ENGINE SHUT
DOWN 35 MIN
09. WHAT IS THE OIL PAN CAPACITY OF HHP ENGINE 950 LITRE
HHP LOCOMOTIVES
1. What is the Horse power of WDP4D Locomotives.

A. 3000 HP
B. 3500 HP
C. 4000 HP
D. 4500 HP
2. What is the compression ratio of WDP4D Locomotives

A. 16:1
B. 14:1
C. 13:1
D. 15:1
3. Which type of diesel engine is fitted in HHP Locomotive

A. Four stroke
B. Three stroke
C. One stroke
D. Two stroke
4. TM pinion and bull gear ratio in WDP4 D Loco is

A. 17:90
B. 17:77
C. 65:18
D. 90:35
5. Maximum speed of WDP4 D locomotive is

A. 130 Kmph
B. 160 Kmph
C. 150 Kmph
D. 180 Kmph
6. What is the fuel tank capacity in WDP4 D locomotive

A. 5000 Litter
B. 6000 Litter
C. 4000 Litter
D. None of these
7. Transmission in WDP4 D locomotive is

A. AC-DC
B. AC-AC
C. DC-DC
D. DC-AC
8. Total weight of WDP4 D loco is

A. 115.8 Tones
B. 119.8 Tones
C. 121.8 Tones
D. 123.0 Tones
9. Total weight of WDG4 loco is
A. 115 Tones
B. 119 Tones
C. 126 Tones
D. 123 Tones
10. What is the maximum speed of the WDG 4 locomotive

A. 150 Kmph
B. 140 Kmph
C. 120 Kmph
D. 100 Kmph
11. What is the fuel tank capacity of WDG4 Locomotive

A. 5000 Liters
B. 6000 Liters
C. 4000 Liters
D. 7000 Liters
12. Length of WDG4 loco over buffer is

A. 19964 mm
B. 23000 mm
C. 20000 mm
D. 21000 mm
13. Length of WDP4D loco over buffer is

A. 19964 mm
B. 23000 mm
C. 20000 mm
D. 21000 mm
14. Maximum Tractive effort of WDG4 loco is

A. 41 Tones
B. 53Tones
C. 50 Tones
D.123.0 Tones
15. MaximumTractive effort of WDP4D loco is

A. 41 Tones
B. 53Tones
C. 50 Tones
D. 123.0 Tones
16. Which type of diesel engine model is fitted in HHP locomotive

A. ALCO-251
B. GT46
C. 710 G3B
D. GT 46MAC
17. How many cylinders are used in HHP Loco Engine
A. 16 Nos
B. 08 Nos
C. 12 Nos
D. 14 Nos
18. Which type of Traction Motors fitted in HHP LOCO?

A. 3-Phase AC Motors
B. DC Séries Motors
C. Both A & B
D. None of these
19. Which type of Main Generator fitted in HHP LOCO?

A. DC Generator
B. 3 phase Alternator
C. Both A & B
D. None of these
20. Main role of Traction Inverters in HHP LOCO?

A. To control 3-Phase AC Induction Motors
B. To control 3 phase Alternator
C. Both A & B
D. None of these
21. Traction Inverters converts in HHP Loco?

A. DC power into 3 phase AC power for variable frequency
B. AC power into 3 phase AC power
C. Both A & B
D. None of these
22. How much Traction Inverters in HHP LOCO (In Medha make Traction System)
A. 6
B. 5
C. 4
D. 3
23. How much Traction Inverters in HHP LOCO (In EMD make Traction System)
A. 6
B. 2
C. 4
D. 3
24. How much Traction Inverters in HHP LOCO (In SIEMENS make Traction System)
A. 6
B. 2
C. 4
D. 3
25. In HHP Loco LCC, Traction Computer, DCL in house of (In EMD make Traction System:).
A. ECC1
B. ECC2
C. TCC
D. ECC3
26. In HHP Loco LCC, Traction Computer, DCL in house of ( In SIEMENS make Traction System)
A. ECC1
B. ECC2
C. TCC
D. ECC3
27. In HHP Loco , Traction Computer, DCL in house of (In Medha make Traction System:).
A.ECC1
B. ECC2
C. TCC
D. ECC3
28. In HHP Loco, LCC in house of ( In Medha make Traction System:).

A.ECC1
B. ECC2
C. TCC
D. ECC3
29. How much phase module in HHP Loco (In Medha make Traction System)
A. 18
B. 6
C.12
D. None of these
30. How much phase module in HHP Loco (In EMD make Traction System)
A. 18
B. 6
C. 12
D. None of these
31. How much phase module in HHP Loco (In Siemens make Traction System)
A. 18
B. 6
C. 12
D. None of these
32. Which type of IGBT Device used in HHP loco (In Medha make Traction System)
A. ABB make,V =6.5 KV, I=600Amps. 2 devices/phase module
B. Siemens make, V =6.5 KV, I=600Amps. 6 devices/phase module
C. Mitsubishi make, V =4.5 KV, I=1200Amps, 4 devices /phase module
D. None of these
33. Which type of IGBT Device used in HHP loco (In SIEMENS make Traction System)
B. Siemens make, V =6.5 KV, I=600Amps. 6 devices/phase module-
C. Mitsubishi make, V =4.5 KV, I=1200Amps, 4 devices /phase module
D. None of these
34. Which type of IGBT Device used in HHP loco (In EMD make Traction System)
B. Siemens make, V =6.5 KV, I=600Amps. 6 devices/phase module
C. Mitsubishi make, V =4.5 KV, I=1200Amps, 4 devices/phase module
D. None of these
35. Input voltage & current of TCC is.

A. 620 -2600 V DC, max 1200 A DC
B. 0 V AC--- 2000 V, max 1100 A AC
C. 520 -2600 V DC, max 1100 A DC
D. None of these
36. Output voltage & current of TCC is.

A. 620 -2600 V DC, max 1200 A DC
B. 0 V AC- 2000 V, max 1100 A AC
C. 520 -2600 V DC, max 1100 A DC
D. None of these
37. Weight of TCC is.

A. 2400Kg
B. 2000Kg
C. 1500Kg
D. None of these
38. Outer Dimension (lxbxh) of TCC is.

A. 1833x2140x1450mm
B. 1530x2140x1450mm
C. 2133x2140x1450mm
D. None of these
39. Current rating of COMPUTER CONTROL, AC CONTROL, AIR DRYER, Circuit breaker in
HHP loco is
A. 10 Amp
B. 15 Amp
C. 20 Amp
D. 25 Amp
40. Current rating of FUEL PUMP, TURBO, LIGHT, GOV. BOOSTER PUMP, LOCAL
CONTROL, TCC BLOWER, FILTER BLOWER circuit breaker in HHP loco is
A. 30 Amp
B. 15 Amp
C. 20 Amp
D. 25 Amp
41. Current rating of Head Light circuit breaker in HHP loco is
A. 10 Amp
B. 15 Amp
C. 20 Amp
D. 35 Amp
42. Current rating of CONTROL circuit breaker in HHP loco is

A. 40 Amp
B. 50 Amp
C. 90 Amp
D. 35 Amp
43. Current rating of GEN FIELD circuit breaker in HHP loco is

A. 40 Amp
B. 50 Amp
C. 90 Amp
D. 35 Amp
44. Current rating of TCC1 Computer, TCC2 Computer, AUX.GEN FEEDBACK, AUX.GEN
FIELD circuit breaker in HHP loco is
A. 10 Amp
B. 20 Amp
C. 30 Amp
D. 35 Amp
45. Current rating of TCC1-TCC2 BLOWER circuit breaker in HHP loco is

A. 10 Amp
B. 50 Amp
C. 30 Amp
D. 35 Amp
46. Current rating of DCL Control, EVENT RECORDER circuit breaker in HHP loco is
A. 03 Amp
B. 5 Amp
C. 10 Amp
D. 15 Amp
47. How much DC LINK switch gears in HHP LOCO?

A. 6
B. 5
C. 4
D. 3
48. Traction Control Cabinet (TCC) consists of

A. Six Traction Computers, 6 DCL switch gears
B. 6 IGBT based Inverters, DC link Capacitors and Crow bar circuit
C. Both A & B
D. None of these
49. TCC converts during dynamic brake. In HHP Loco?
A. DC power into 3 phase AC power
B. 3 phase AC power into DC power
C. Both A & B
D. None of these
50. In HHP Locos ECC-2 are located in

A. Driver cabin
B. Under Truck
C. Near Radiator room
D. None of these
51. In HHP Locos STA & ST Contactors are located in

A. ECC-1
B. ECC-2
C. ECC-3
D. ECC-4
52. In HHP Locos AGAI &AGAV Sensors are located in

A. ECC-1
B. ECC-2
C. ECC-3
D. ECC-4
53. In HHP Locos Battery charger & Aux Gen CB are located in
A. ECC-1
B. ECC-2
C. ECC-3
D. ECC-4
54. WDP4D Locos, ECC2 same as

A. WDP4
B. WDG4
C. WDP4B
D. All of above
55. In WDP4/WDP4B Locos ECC-1 are located in

A. Driver cabin
B. Near Radiator room
C. Under Truck
D. None of these
56. In WDP4/WDP4B Locos ECC-3 are located in

A. Driver cabin
B. Near Radiator room
C. Under Truck
D. None of thèse
57. ………………..type of speedometer is available onWDG4.
A. Mechanical
B. Electrical
C. radar sensor
D. Electronic
58. How many Power Contactors are available in WDG4 Locomotive?

A.8
B.9
C.0
D.6
59. In WDG4 loco compressor is cooled by

A. Nature
B. Air
C. Oil
D. Water
60. In WDG4 turbo is cooled by

A. Nature
B. Air
C. Oil
D. Water
61. In WDG4 power contactors are replaced with

A. FS contactor
B. only relays
C. BKT/REV
D. DC Link
62. In WDG4 when driver fails to acknowledge the alerter it gives audio warning for ….sec.
A. 10
B. 17
C. 25
D. 8
63. For quick charging of BP in WDG4 …………..is used.

A. Foot pedal
B. A9 release
C. SP1/SP2
D .None of these
64. In WDG4 hot oil detector is set at….degrees centigrade

A.126
B. 100
C.150
D .200
65. Blended brake is mixture of
A. Vacuum +Air
B. Dynamic +Loco
C. Formation +Dynamic+ loco
D. Formation +Loco
66. In WDP4 when the loco is moving in opposite direction to the reverser position……….will
happen soon the speed increases to 5 kmph
A. Dynamic brake come into action
B. alerter will come into function
C. power ground will take place
D. Loco will shutdown
67. The only loco provided with two dipstick gauges to measure lube oil is
A. WDM2
B. WDP4
C. WDG4
D .WDG3A
68. WDG4 engine cylinders are cooled by

A. Water
B. oil and water
C. super charged air and water
D. air conditioning
69. What is the lube oil SUMP capacity of WDP4 loco?

A. 1073 Liters
B. 1100 Liters
C. 950 Liters
D. 910 Liters
70. What is the full speed RPM of the HHP locomotive engine
A. 1000 RPM
B. 904 RPM
C. 900 RPM
D. 950 RPM
71. What is the IDLE speed RPM of the HHP locomotive engine
A. 300 RPM
B. 200 RPM
C. 269 RPM
D. 904 RPM
72. What is the low IDLE speed RPM of the HHP locomotive engine
A. 300 RPM
B. 200 RPM
C. 269 RPM
D 904 RPM
73. What is the lube oil SUMP capacity of WDG4 loco?
A. 1000 Liters
B. 1100 Liters
C. 1457 Liters
D. 910 Liters
74. What is the coolent water capacity in the HHP locomotive

A. 1200 Liters
B. 1100 Liters
C. 1045 Liters
D. 1145 Liters
75. Capacity of sand box in the WDG 4 locomotive

A.1 Ft3/ box
B. 2 Ft3/ box
C. 1.5 Ft3/ box
D. 3 Ft3/ box
76. Capacity of sand box in the WDP 4 locomotive

A. 1.5 Ft3/ box
B. 02 Ft3/ box
C. 01 Ft3/ box
D. 3 Ft3/ box
77. What is the minimum continues speed of the WDG4 locomotive

A. 21.5 Kmph
B. 22.5 Kmph
C. 20.5 Kmph
D. 23.5 Kmph
78. Which type of bogie fitted in the HHP locomotive

A. Single suspension
B. Double suspension
C. Triple suspension
D. None of these
79. In the fuel oil system which type of injectors provided in HHP locomotive
A. Unit injectors
B. Injectors with HP line
C. Injector with cam
D. None of these
80. In the two stroke engine the cylinder head of the engine equipped with
A. Inlet & Exhaust valves
B. Only Inlet valves
C. Only Exhaust valves
D. None of these
81. In the HHP locomotive the Turbo charger is driven by
A. Exhaust Gas
B. Gear Train
C. Gear Train & Exhaust gas
D. None of these
82. In the WDP 4 & WDG4 locomotive engine how many lube oil pumps used
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
83. In the HHP locomotive, the air compressor is........

A. Air cooled
B. Water cooled
C. Oil cooled
D. None of these
84. In the WDP 4 & WDG 4 locomotive the coolant used in compressor is
A. Engine coolant
B. Compressor coolant
C. Raw water
D. None of these
85. Air compressor lube oil sump capacity is

A.10 Liters
B.12 Liters
C.15 Liters
D.23 Liters
86. Air compressor in the HHP locomotive is

A. Single stage
B. Two stage
C. Three stage
D. Four stage
87. How many brake cylinders are used per bogie

A. 06 Nos
B. 04 Nos
C. 02 Nos
D. 05 Nos
88. Which type of bogie is used in HHP locomotive

A. Fabricated bogie
B. Cast steel
C. High tensile cast steel
D. None of these
89. In HHP locomotive Air brake is controlled by
A. Mechanically
B. Electrically
C. Computer
D. None of these
90. Brake system in WDP4 &WDG4 loco is

A. 28LAV-1
B. 28LV-1
C. CCB-KNORR
D. None of these
91. In HHP locomotive the first schedule carried out after

A. One month
B. Three month
C. Four month
D. 15 Days
92. In WDP4/WDG4 when continuous wheel slip is experienced due to locked axle
A. Isolate the defective TM
B. Isolate the defective speed sensor
C. Fail the loco immediately
D. Isolate the defective truck
93. In WDP4/WDG4 loco if water pressure is less

A. LLOB trips
B. Low water pressure button will trip
C. Crank case pressure button will trip
D. Both A and B
94. In WDP4/WDG4 loco while conducting air brake self test on working control stand.
A. A9 handle should be kept in run position
B. SA handle should be kept in release position
C. LT switch in trail position
D. Both A and B
95. In WDP4/WDG4 loco while conducting air brake self test in working control stand
A. A9 handle should be kept in FS
B. SA9 should be kept in release
C. Both a and b
D. LT switch in Trail
96. In WDP4/WDG4 loco while conducting BP leakage test L/T switch should be kept in
A. Lead position
B. Trail position
C. TEST position
D. Helper
97. In WDP4/WDG4 loco Loadmeter will not respond if
A. GFB trips
B. AGFB trips
C. Both A & B
D. MAB trips
98. In WDP4/WDG4 loco when PCS is knocked out

A. MAB breaker should be recycled
B. TCC breaker should be recycled
C. Air drier breaker
D. Both A and B
99. In WDP4/WDG4 loco while conducting BP leakage test. L/T switch should be kept in
A. Lead
B. Trail
C. Helper
D. Test
100. In WDP4/WDG4 loco speed sensor should be isolated when

A. False locked axle indication
B.Traction motor is burnt experienced
C. Axle locked condition
D. Both A and B
101. In WDP4/WDG4 loco if LLOB is in tripped position during cranking engine will
A. Crank
B. Not Fire
C. Not hold
D. Not crank
102. In WDP4 /WDG4 loco before conducting air brake self test
A. Recycle MAB
B. Recycle TCC1 and TCC2
C. Recycle Air drier breaker.
D. Both A & B
103. Location of EST in WDG4 loco is in

A. Control stand
B. control panel
C. Generator room
D. Accessories room
104. In WDG4 loco LLOB is located in

A. Accessories room
B. Compressor room
C. Engine power take off end
D. ECC3
105. In WDP4/WDG4 loco during false locked axle indication
A. Isolate the defective truck
B. Isolate the defective speed sensor
C. Isolate the defective TM
D. Fail the loco
106. In WDP4/WDG4 dead loco for quick release of loco brakes open one side
A. MR equalising cock
B. BC equalising cock
C. BP equalising pipe
D. Both A & B
107. Location of BS in WDG4 Loco is

A. On foot plate
B. In Accessories room
C. In LP's cab
D. In ECC 3
108. In WDP4/WDG4 Loco when lube oil temperature exceeds 124 degree centigrade.
A. Hot oil detector operates
B. LLOB operates
C. OSTA trips
D. Both A and B
109. In WDP4/WDG4 banker loco working control stand A9 should be kept in

A. FS position
B. Run position
C. Release position
D. Emergency position
110. In WDP4/WDG4 loco engine should not be cranked when

A. Low water button is tripped
B. crank case pressure button is tripped
C. LLOB is in tripped
D. OSTA is tripped
111. In WDP4/WDG4 banker loco working CS, L/T switch should be kept in
A. Lead
B. Trail
C. HLPR
D. Test
112. In WDP4/WDG4 loco defective speed sensor should be isolated if

A. False locked axle indication
B. GR trips more than 3 times within experienced 10 minutes
C. Any one TM is defective
D. Crow bar fires
113. Oil visibilty in bye pass sight glass indicates that
A. Primary filter is choked.
B. Spin on filter choked.
C. Lube oil filter choked.
D. Lube oil strainer choked.
114. In WDP4/WDG4 loco choking of fuel oil primary filter is indicated by

A. Filter condition guage.
B. Oil visibility in bye pass sight glass.
C. Both A & B
D. Oil visibility in sight glass near to engine block
115. WDP4/WDG4 MU trailing loco L/T switches in both control stand should be kept in
A. Lead
B. Trail
C. test
D. Helper
116. Oil lubricated TM gear case is provided in

A. WDM 2
B. WDM 3D
C. WDG 3A
D. WDP4
117. If AGFB tripped in WDP4/WDG4 locos

A. Battery will discharge
B. Load meter will not respond
C. Both A and B
D Engine will shut down
118. Firing order of HHP Loco

A.1,8,9,16,3,6,11,14,4,5,12,13,2,7,10,15
B. 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13,14,15,16
C. 1,3,5,7,9,11,13,15,16,2,4,6,8,10,12,14
D. None of these
119. Model of Main Generator assembly in WDG4 Loco

A.TA17-CA6B
B. 5A-8147
C. Both A & B
D None of these
120. Model of AC AUX. Generator in WDG4 Loco

A.TA17-CA6B
B. 5A-8147
C. Both A & B
D. None of these
121. Model of Traction Motor in WDG4 Loco
A.TA17-CA6B
B. 5A-8147
C. TB26221
D None of these
122. Speed of Traction Motor in WDG4 Loco

A. 3220 RPM
B. 2000 RPM
C. 904 RPM
D None of these
123. Horse Power of Traction Motor in WDG4 Loco

A. 500KW
B. 600KW
C. 1430KW
D None of these
124. In WDG4 Loco Traction Motor is……

A. Force air ventilated cooled
B. Oil cooled
C. Water cooled
D. None of these
125. Nominal AC Aux. Generator Voltage in WDG4 Loco

A. 64VDC
B. 55V AC
C. 74VDC
D. None of these
126. Rectified Voltage of AC Aux. Generator in WDG4 Loco

A. 64VDC
B. 55V AC
C. 74VDC
D. None of these
127. Max Power output of AC Aux. Generator in WDG4 Loco

A. 18KW
B. 25KW
C. 20KW
D. None of these
128. Total nos. of Batteries in WDG4 Loco Lead acid type

A. 10
B. 02
C. 08
D. None of these
129. Total nos of cell of Batteries in WDG4 Loco (Lead acid type)
A. 32
B. 50
C. 64
D. None of these
130. Total nos of cell of Batteries in WDP4 Loco (Ni-Cadmium type)

A. 32
B. 50
C. 64
D. None of these
131. Voltage of Battery Cell in WDP4 Loco (Ni-Cadmium type)

A. 1.5V
B. 2.1V
C. 2.5V
D. None of these
132. Voltage of Battery Cell in WDG4 Loco (Lead acid type)

A. 1.5V
B. 2.1V
C. 2.5V
D. None of these
133. Total Voltage of Batteries in WDG4 Loco (Lead acid type)

A. 68V
B. 75V
C. 72V
D. None of these
134. Total Voltage of Batteries in WDP4 Loco (Ni-Cadmium type)

A. 68V
B. 75V
C. 72V
D. None of these
135. Total nos of Batteries in WDP4 Loco (Ni-Cadmium type)

A. 10
B. 02
C. 08
D. None of these
136. Total nos of Cylinder of Air Compressor in WDG4 Loco

A. 06
B. 03
C. 04
D. None of these
137. Capacity of lube oil of Air Compressor in WDG4 Loco
A. 9.98Litter
B.12 Litter
C.06 Litter
D. None of these
138. Model of WDG4. Loco

A. GT46MAC
B. GT46PAC
C. Both A & B
D. None of these
139. Model of WDP4. Loco

A. GT46MAC
B. GT46PAC
C. Both A & B
D. None of these
140. Nos of Axles in WDP4 &WDG4 Locos

A.06
B.04
C.08
D. None of these
141. How many Traction Motors in WDP4 Locos

A.06
B.04
C.08
D. None of these
142. In WDP4 Locos Traction Motor fitted on

A. Axles no.1, 2 & 5, 6
B. All Axles
C. Axles no.1, 2 & 3, 4
D. None of these
143. In WDP4 Locos Engine starting switch is located

A. ECP
B. Engine room
C. Control stand
D. None of these
144. In WDG4 Locos Engine starting switch is located

A. ECP
B. Engine room
C. Control stand
D. None of these
145. In WDG4 Locos RADAR is located
A. Between Rear bogie & Fuel tank
B. Engine room
C. Between Front bogie & Fuel tank-
D. None of these
146. In WDP4 Locos RADAR is located

A. Between Rear bogie & Fuel tank
B. Engine room
C. Between Front bogie & Fuel tank
D. None of these
147. Blended brake, Low water level switch, Temperature gauge & color code are provided in
A. WDP4
B. WDG4
C. Both A & B
D. None of these
148. Starting Tractive effort of WDG4 Loco is

A. 540KN
B. 270KN
C. 400KN
D. 200KN
149. Starting Tractive effort of WDP4 Loco is

A. 540KN
B. 270KN
C. 400KN
D. 200KN
150. Max. Continuous Tractive effort of WDP4 Loco is

A. 540KN
B. 270KN
C. 400KN
D. 200KN
151. Max. Continuous Tractive effort of WDG4 Loco is

A. 540KN
B. 270KN
C. 400KN
D. 200KN
152. Max. Dynamic Tractive effort (Speed 40 KMPH to 0) of WDG4 Loco is

A. 540KN
B. 270KN
C. 400KN
D. 200KN
153. Max. Dynamic Tractive effort (Speed 68 KMPH to 1) of WDP4 Loco is
A. 540KN
B. 270KN
C. 160KN
D. 200KN
154. Dead engine cut-off cock & C3W Distributor valve in WDP4/WDG4 Locos are located in
A. Nose compartment
B. Driver Cabin
C. Engine compartment
D. Radiator compartment
155. Lead/Trail Air Brake Set-up Switch mounts on

A. the lower right corner of the air brake controller
B. Nose compartment
C. Engine compartment
D Radiator compartment
156. How many braking position of A-9 valve have.

A. 05 breaking position
B. 04 breaking position
C. 03 breaking position
D. 01 breaking position
157. How many braking position of SA-9 valve have..

A. 03 position
B. 02 position
C. 05 position
D. 01 position
158. In minimum reduction position of A-9 brake valve BP should drop up to (PSI)...
A. 0 to3 PSI
B. 4 to 7 PSI
C. 8 to 11 PSI
D. 12 to 15 PSI
159. In WDG 4 if false locked wheel indication is experienced

A. Isolate defective sensor
B. Isolate defective truck
C. Isolate defective TM
D. Fail the loco
160. In WDP4/WDG4 if GR (power) trips continuously three times within 10 minutes

A. Truck isolation is to be done
B. Defective TM is to be isolated
C. Defective speed sensor is to be isolated
D. Fail the Loco
161. In WDP4/WDG4 engine cranking but not starting due to
A. EPD Tripped
B. Governor not advancing fuel racks
C. No fuel reaching in the cylinders
D. Any one of above
162. In WDP4/WDG4 thick black smoke and poor hauling due to

A. Low fuel oil pressure & Low booster air pressure
B. Faulty turbo
C. Faulty injectors.
D. Any one of above
163. Temperatures of Engine exhaust gas reach up to

A. 538°C
B. 438°C
C. 338°C
D. None of these
164. Main parts of KNORR/NYAB CCB 1.5 Brake system are

A. VCU & CRU
B. PCU & KE Valve
C. BVC
D. All of above
165. Total no. of Keys on EM2000 Display Panel are

A. 8
B. 16
C.10
D.12
166. No. of Radiator fan in WDP4 &WDG4 Locos

A. 02
B. 01
C. 03
D. None of these
167. No. of Grid Blower Motors in WDP4 &WDG4 Locos

A. 04
B. 02
C. 03
D. None of these
168. No. of Brake blocks in HHP Locos

A. 24
B. 12
C. 08
D. None of these
169. When Computer controlled Breaker is recycled the disabled speed sensor.
A. Remain Disabled
B. Gets enabled but not to be disabled again
C. Remain disabled but to be enabled
D. Get enabled automatically & has to be disabled
170. Brake warning Indication

A. Excessive Main Alternator
B. Excessive Breaking current in DB
C. Excessive Air Breaking
D. Excessive Main Generator Current
171. When Reversor is thrown in forward direction, Sanders of

A. No (3) & (6) only work
B. All sanders work
C. sanders works irrespective of Reversor
D. No (1) & (4) wheels only work
172. Battery charger rectifies AC to DC of

A. Aux gen output
B. Companion Alternator output
C. Main Alternator output
173. B.P continuity not getting to train from a working WDG4 Loco due to
A. Additional BP COC closed in train end
B. BP angle cock defective
C. In train end no BP pressure in loco
D. All of the above
174. On run GR Trip then the engine

A. Will shut - down
B. Comes to idle
C. No effect on engine
D. No effect on loco
175. What is the type of lubrication system being used in diesel loco
A. Gravity lubrication
B. Force Feed lubrication
C. Force Feed & splash lubrication
D. Capillary lubrication
176. To check engine sump level, engine should be in condition

A. Shout – down
B. 4th Notch
C. Idle
D. 2nd Notch
177. Each Traction Motor provided with
A. One speed sensor
B. One speed sensor & one temp sensor
C. One temp sensor
D. Two speed sensor
178. Diameter of new wheels in WDP4 locos is

A. 1090mm
B. 1092mm
C. 1100mm
D. 1080mm
179. When there is communication link failure and micro air breaker is active, the loco will work
A. As lead in
B. Only in trail mode
C. In both modes
D. In helper mode
180. To recover PCS, it is compulsory to keep

A. Both throttle handle in idle
B. Any one throttle handles in idle
C. Leading control stand throttle handle in idle
D. Leading throttle handle in idle & reversor in neutral
181. The companion alternator runs at the same speed as

A. Engine rpm
B. Aux gen rpm
C. Turbo rpm
D. Locomotive rpm
182. MR Pressure dropping on run due to

A. Air dryer defective
B. Auto drain valve malfunctioning
C. Break cylinder pipe damaged
D. All of above
183. WDP4/WDG4 Hand break applies on wheels

A. R4, R5
B. R4, L4
C. R4, R6
D. L4, L5
184. Break cylinder pressure in WDP4/WDG4

A. 5.2 kg /sq.cm
B. 4.8 kg /sq.cm
C. 3.8 kg /sq.cm
D. 3.5 kg /sq.cm
185. MR pressure not building up due to
A. MR EQ COC in open condition
B. Pipe link chocked in MRPT system
C. Defective MVCC
D. All of above
186. What is the effect of auto flasher operation

A. Engine comes to idle
B. auto flasher indication
C. Buzzer
D. All of above
187. ER/BP not creating

A. LT switch defective
B. Air break failure
C. Penalty not reset
D. All of above
188. Lube oil pumps provided In HHP

A. Scavenging pump
B. Piston cooling pump & main lube oil pump
C. Turbo lube pump
D. All of above
189. Radiator fan controlled by

A. EM2000
B. TCC
C. EM2000 & TCC
D. None of these
190. Load demand of the traction motor is met by

A. EM2000
B. TCC
C. EM2000 & TCC
D. None of these
191. Total No. of After coolers inWDP4/WDG4

A.4
B.3
C.2
D.5
192. Total no. of Water expansion tanks inWDP4/WDG4

A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
193. In WDP4/WDG4 BA consists of two zones
A. Green zone & red zone
B. Green zone & yellow zone
C. yellow zone & red zone
D. None of these
194. In WDP4/WDG4 slipped pinion will be indicates clearly by

A. Loco not moving
B. Train not hauling loads
C. High motor rpm in computer feedback
D. None of these
195. Head light rating in WDP4/WDG4 loco is

A. 100W 32V
B. 200W 30V
C. 250W 32V
D.250W 34V
196. Governor is used in HHP Loco

A. GE Governor
B. WW Governor
C. Both (A) & (B)
D. None of these
197. Type of cooling water pump used in WDP4/WDG4 Locomotives

A. Centrifugal
B. Reciprocating
C. Positive displacement
D. None of these
198. OSTA in WDP4/WDG4 trip at minimum

A.960RPM
B. 1000RPM
C. 1020
D. None of these
199. Flasher light working voltage

A. 72V
B. 12V
C. 24V
D. None of these
200. Nos of Main bearings available in WDP4 Locomotives

A. 12
B. 14
C. 10
D. None of these
Answer Sheet
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 D 51 B 101 D 151 C
2 A 52 B 102 A 152 B
3 D 53 B 103 D 153 C
4 B 54 D 104 A 154 A
5 A 55 A 105 B 155 A
6 A 56 B 106 C 156 A
7 B 57 C 107 A 157 A
8 D 58 C 108 D 158 B
9 C 59 D 109 A 159 A
10 C 60 C 110 B 160 A
11 B 61 D 111 C 161 D
12 A 62 B 112 A 162 D
13 B 63 B 113 B 163 A
14 B 64 A 114 D 164 D
15 A 65 C 115 B 165 B
16 C 66 A 116 D 166 A
17 A 67 B 117 C 167 B
18 A 68 C 118 A 168 B
19 B 69 C 119 A 169 D
20 A 70 B 120 B 170 B
21 A 71 C 121 C 171 D
22 A 72 B 122 A 172 A
23 B 73 C 123 A 173 D
24 B 74 C 124 A 174 B
25 A 75 C 125 B 175 D
26 C 76 C 126 C 176 C
27 C 77 B 127 A 177 B
28 A 78 B 128 B 178 B
29 A 79 A 129 A 179 B
30 C 80 C 130 B 180 D
31 C 81 C 131 A 181 A
32 A 82 D 132 B 182 D
33 A 83 B 133 A 183 A
34 C 84 A 134 B 184 A
35 A 85 A 135 A 185 D
36 B 86 B 136 B 186 D
37 A 87 B 137 A 187 D
38 A 88 C 138 A 188 D
39 B 89 C 139 B 189 A
40 A 90 C 140 A 190 B
41 D 91 B 141 B 191 C
42 A 92 C 142 A 192 A
43 C 93 D 143 A 193 A
44 A 94 D 144 B 194 C
45 C 95 B 145 C 195 C
46 A 96 C 146 A 196 B
47 A 97 C 147 A 197 A
48 C 98 A 148 A 198 A
49 B 99 D 149 B 199 B
50 B 100 A 150 D 200 C
Diesel Loco Bits
AIR BRAKE SYSTEM
1) Which pressure is adjusted by limiting valve _______(Synchronization pressure)

2) PATB buzzer blows when _______ (AFI needle is above 80)
3) Unit of Air Flow Indicator (AFI) is _______( Wagon reading)
4) How many position setting of C3 W distributor valve has _________( Two position setting)
5) How many braking position of A-9 valve have.._______( . 04 breaking position)
6) How many braking position of SA-9 valve have. ______(02 position)
7) Air supply for horn is from.. _______( MR-1 tank)
8) Overcharging (In air brake system) feature is applied by which air brake valve _______( C2-W
relay valve)
9) Duplex check valve operates when MR pressure reaches at pressure_____ kg/cm2(5)
10) R-6 relay valve is fitted in loco for __________( Quick working of AFMV valve)
11) In automatic switching on flasher light modification of locos the TDR (time delay relay) is set
at..._____( 60 sec)
12) The standard Colour of humidity indicator in air dryer is ______( Blue)
13) Air dryer starts functioning, when MR pressure reaches to _______( 100 PSI)
14) Thread diameter of BP & FP angle cocks (in inch) is..._______( 1¼ “)
15) MR safety valve is set at pressure (in kg/cm2) ________( Above 10.5 kg/cm2)
16) When 7.5-mm dia hole palm end is fitted in BP pipe, the change in BP pressure should not fall
below ________ in one minute. (4.0 kg/cm2)
17) Auto drain valve blows during _______( Unloading of compressor)
18) Feed valve is charged from _______( MR-1 tank)
19) In case of pure air brake loco with load at the time of train parting, which safety valve is
operates and brings the loco to idle ___________( H-5 relay valve)
20) When driver is working from right control stand and A-9 is applied from left control stand in
emergency position, what will happen?_______( Loco will come to idle)
21) In minimum reduction position of A-9 brake valve BP should drop upto (PSI).__( 4 to 7 PSI)
22) Additional C-2 relay valve is used in air brake system for ______(. BP pipe charging)
23) How many numbers of positions MU2B valve have _______( Two positions)
24) In WDM2 locos, how many horns are fitted? _______(04 nos.)
25) Calibration of Air Flow measuring valve is adjusted at which reading___(100 wagon reading)
26) Palm gauges (Orifice test gauge) has the hole size of (in mm)______(7.5 mm)
27) In case BP pressure is fluctuating the possible defect is in which valve_______(. Add C2 relay
valve is defective)
28) Exhaust choke size of C-2 relay valve is (in mm)....----( 5.0 mm)
29) Exhaust choke size of additional C-2 relay valve is (in mm).....____( 6.0 mm)
30) When drying capacity of air dryer is reduced the colour of humidity indicator changes to-
________(White)
31) Air supply to power contractor is from_____( MR-1)
32) Wiper gets the air supply from......( . MR-1)
33) In lead position of MU2B valve which ports dose not connect with each other____(13 & 30)
34) On applying brake through A-9 valve, which port of F-1selector valve connect with each other
in synchronization braking________(4 & 16)
35) In which position of A-9 brake valve its vent valve operates________( Emergency position)
36) The governor of air compressor get supply from.____( . MR-1 pressure)
37) To operate sander valve the air supply is received from_______( MR-1 pressure)
Mechanical Bits -ENGINE (POWER PACK)
1. During which stroke inlets valves opens_______(Suction)

2. During which stroke both valves closed_____( Compression)
3. In WDP-1 locos, how many thrust bearing are used?______( 1 Nos)
4. The size of Engine Crank Pin is (in inch)______( 6.0”)
5. Clearance between crankshaft journal & bearing is (in inch)......____( . .005” to .010”)
6. Size of Main Bearing journals is (in inch).................( . 8.5”)
7. How many cam shaft bushes are fitted in one 16 cylinder Block______(18)
8. What is minimum dia clearance between cam shaft & cam Bush______(.005”)
9. How many teeth are in split gear_______(36)
10. During setting of cam gear timing which piston is kept at TDC______( R-1)
11. How many cam segments are fitted in WDP-1 loco______(6)
12. Main crankshaft vibration damper is fitted near which main bearings (in WDM-2)
locos______( No-1)
13. Water pump is driven from________________(Extension shaft gear)
14. Lube oil pump is driven from_________________( Extension shaft)
15. In WDP-1 locos, main bearing elongation is________________( 040”)
16. Honey combing is related with _________( Liner.)
17. What is the maximum allowed deflection of main generator_____(± .0008”)
18. Universal shaft is used to drive radiator fan because______(It is self align)
19. GE Governor is operated___________( Hydraulically)
20. TSC surging on higher notches is due to _____( Excess fuel rack,. Chocked air maize,
Less area of nozzle ring, Any of the above)
21. Hammering sound is coming from engine is due to__________( Exhaust valve bend,
Fuel cam worn out, X-head roller worn out, Any of the above)
22. Smoke is coming from SMOKE hole of cylinder Head indicates________( Injector seal
is not proper)
23. Engine air inlet elbow bolt torque is done at_________(75 ft. lbs)
24. Expresser foundation bolts is torque at value (ft. lbs.)_____( 450 ft. lbs)
25. TSP treatment is done for__________( To remove scaling)
26. When hot engine alarm is operated, the condition of loco comes to________( Run on
same speed)
27. What is the unit of S.F.C. (Specific Fuel consumption)____( gm/hp/hr.)
28. In yearly loco, pre priming break in filters are used_______( To arrest the foreign
material)
29. The temperature difference between the two consecutive main bearings should not
exceed by____(10C)
30. CCE motor giving thick black smoke is due to_____( Increase liner wear)
31. Fuel test cock pressure is used for checking __________( Fuel pressure dropping)
32. Exhaust gas temperature at ABB TSC inlet is __________(450C)
33. Exhaust gas temperature at ALCO TSC inlet is _________( 590C)
34. Which item wear is increases the copper content in lube oil______( X-head floating
bush wear)
35. Split gear bolt torque is done at ……………..(300 ft. lbs)
36. Engine crank case vacuum is not building up due to______( Linear chrome plating
worn out)
37. Engine giving bluish smoke indicates________( Cylinder head valve guide clearance
more)
38. White smoke given by engine is due to________( Cylinder head crack internally)
39. Minimum RPM of ALCO engine with low idle feature is ______(350)
40. What is the delivery of unmodified FIP on test bench at full______(350 CC)
41. Lube oil high viscosity indicates_________( Mixing of carbon contents)
42. What is the cause of increase silicon in lube oil____________( Dust)
43. Cyl. Head hydraulic testing is done at____(5.0 kg/cm2)
44. Extension shaft clearance limit is_______(.006”)
45. In scavenging period burnt gases are pushed out by__________( Fresh air)
46. During over lapping period inlet and exhaust valve remain in_____ position ( Open)
47. Engine given thick black smoke due to____________( Low BAP)
48. Crank pin condemning limit is_________(152.30 mm)
49. M ain bearing general surface finish is_________________(25 RMS)
50. C am shaft thrust is_______(.006” to .012”)
51. Which item increases the sodium (Na) contains in lube oil___________( Mixing of
Water in lube oil)
Mechanical Bits-UNDER TRUCK
52. The main advantage of single stage suspension is_________( To lower the center of
gravity)
53. The device used to transmit loco speed from wheels to the speedometer is
called______________( Axle generator)
54. Traction motor load of is transferred on bogie frame through_____( Suspension nose
pad)
55. Height of side buffer should be maintained between_______(1105 mm to 1030 mm)
56. Buffer height can be adjusted by__________( Adding shims to load pads & side
bearers, Adding shims to spring seat)
57. Amount of shims that could be added to centre pivot & side bearers to adjust side
buffer height______(12 mm)
58. Amount of shims that could be added to spring seat to adjust side buffer height____(12
mm)
59. Minimum distance between brake block & wheel in release position should be_____(10
mm)
60. Service limit of wheel dia. of diesel locomotive (In goods service) is________ (1008
mm)
61. For new set Gauge width of broad gauge loco should be______________(1596+- 0.5
mm)
62. Cranks in the axle are detected by__________( Ultrasonic test)
63. Nos. of pinion teeth in GE- 752 TM is_______________(18)
64. Expanded from of TBU is__________( Tread brake unit)
65. The limit of flat spot on wheel is___________(50 mm)
66. If flat spot on wheel is exceeds 50 mm, then__________( Dressing is done before
turning)
Mechanical Bits -GM LOCOMOTIVE
1) Which type of diesel engine model is fitted in GM Locomotive _______ (710 G3B)
2) W hat is the hours power of WDG4 locomotive ______ (4000 HP)
3) What is the model designation of WDG4 locomotive ______ (GT46 MAC)
4) Which type of diesel engine is fitted in GM locomotive _____ (Modified Two stroke)
5) What is the compression ratio of the GM locomotive _______ (16:1)
6) What is the full speed RPM of the GM locomotive Engine ______ (904 RPM)
7) How much the minimum speed of the GM locomotive engine without LIR (low idle relay)
______ (269 RPM)
8) How much the minimum speed of the GM locomotive engine with LIR ______ (200 RPM)
9) What is the lube oil capacity in system of GM loco? ______ (950 Liters)
10) What is the fuel tank capacity in the GM locomotive ______ ( 6000 Liters)
11) What is the coolent water capacity in the GM Locomotive _____ (1045 Liters)
12) Capacity of sand box in the WDG4 Locomotive _____ (15 Ft3/ box)
13) What is the minimum continues speed of the WDG4 Locomotive ______ (22.5 Kmph)
14) What is the maximum speed of the WDG4 locomotive ______ (120 Kmph)
15) Which type suspension of bogie fitted in the GM locomotive ______ (Double suspension)
16) In the fuel oil system which type of injectors provided in the GM locomotive _______ (Unit
injectors)
17) In the two stroke engine the cylinder head of the engine equipped with ______ (Only Exhaust
valves)
18) In the GM locomotive the Turbo charger is driven by _______ (Gear Train & Exhaust gas)
19) In the WDG4 locomotive engine how much lube oil pumps used ______ (Four)
20) In the GM locomotive the air compressor is ______ (Water cooled )
21) In the WDG 4 locomotive the coolant used in compressor is _____ (Engine coolant )
22) Air compressor the lube oil sump capacity is _________(10 Liters )
23) Air compressor in the GM locomotive is _____ (Two stage)
24) How many brake cylinders are used per bogie _____ (04 Nos )
25) Which type of bogie is used in GM locomotive _____ (High tensile cast steel )
26) In GM locomotive Air brake is controlled by _______ (Computer)
27) Air brake system in WDG4 loco is ______ (CCB-KNORR)
28) In GM locomotive the first schedule carried out after _____ (Three month)
29) TM pinion and bull gear ratio in WDG4 loco is _____ (17:90 )
30) Total weight of WDG4 loco is _____ ( 129 Tones )
Precision Instruments, Tools and Gauges
01. The least count of a vernier outside micrometer is

a) 0.10mm
b) 0.01mm
c) 0.001mm
d) 0.0001mm [c]
02. On which part of the vernier height gauge, are the main scale division graduated
a) Vernier plate
b) Beam
c) Fine adjusting unit
d) Base [b]
03. While measuring with vernier bevel protractor, which part is used normally as reference surface
a) Stock
b) Blade
c) Dial
d) Disc [a]
04. On which part of the vernier bevel protractor, are the main scale division graduated
a) Stock
b) Blade
c) Dial
d) Disc [d]
05. The value of each vernier scale division of vernier bevel protractor is
a) 1°
b) 5′
c) 1°-55′
d) 2° [c]
06. The value of each main scale division of vernier bevel protractor is
a) 1°
b) 5′
c) 1°-55′
d) 2° [a]
07. The least count of a universal bevel protractor is

a) 0.5′
b) 5′
c) 5”
d) 5° [b]
08. The least count of a vernier depth gauge is
a) 0.10mm
b) 0.01mm
c) 0.20mm
d) 0.02mm [d]
09. Vernier depth gauge is used for measuring

a) External dimension
b) Internal dimensions
c) Step, depth of blind hole
d) Pitch diameter [c]
10. The least count of vernier height gauge is

a) 0.01mm
b) 0.02mm
c) 0.05mm
d) 0.10mm [b]
11. Which laying out, the vernier height gauge must be used on the
a) Machine bed
b) Any flat surface
c) Surface plate
d) Vee block [c]
12. The size of a vernier height gauge is specified by

a) Width of the beam
b) Height of the beam
c) Weight of the height gauge
d) Size of the scriber [b]
13. While marking with a vernier height gauge, the work piece is generally
a) Supported by an angle plate
b) Supported by another workpiece
c) Held by one hand
d) Held without support [a]
14. The smallest inside micrometer has the graduation marked on the sleeve to a range of
a) 10mm
b) 12mm
c) 13mm
d) 25mm [c]
15. The least count of vernier bevel protractor is

a) 1′
b) 5′
c) 10′
d) 25′ [b]
16. The least count of metric micrometer is
a) 0.01mm
b) 0.05mm
c) 0.10mm
d) 0.50mm [a]
17. In which of the following micrometer, the graduation on thimble and sleeve are in reverse
direction to that of outside micrometer
a) Inside micrometer
b) Depth micrometer
c) Tube micrometer
d) Flange micrometer [b]
18. The value of the smallest division on sleeve of a metric outside micrometer is
a) 0.50mm
b) 1.00mm
c) 1.50mm
d) 2.00mm [a]
19. The least count of a vernier caliper is

a) 0.10mm
b) 0.01mm
c) 0.05mm
d) 0.02mm [d]
20. Micrometer work on the principal of

a) Screw
b) Bolt
c) Stud
d) Nut & bolt [d]
21. Metric outside micrometer has a threaded spindle with a pitch of

a) 0.5mm
b) 0.25mm
c) 1.00mm
d) 1.50mm [a]
22. Which one of the following instruments is used for checking large internal diameter
a) Small hole gauge
b) Telescopic gauge
c) Pluge gauge
d) Snap gauge [b]
23. A taper ring gauge is used for checking

a) External taper
b) Internal taper
c) External threads
d) Internal threads [a]
24. Thread ring gauge is used for checking
a) External threads
b) Internal threads
c) External diameter of cylindrical job
d) Internal diameter of jobs [a]
25. Gauges are made of

a) Mild steel
b) Alloy steel
c) Cast steel
d) Cast iron [c]
26. Taper plug gauge is used for checking

a) Taper holes
b) External diameter of cylindrical parts
c) Internal diameter of cylindrical parts
d) Diameter of straight holes [a]
27. A plain ring gauge is used for checking

a) Taper holes
b) External diameter of cylindrical parts
c) Internal diameter of cylindrical parts
d) Major diameter of external threads [b]
28. A plug gauge which has its “Go” and “No Go” sizes on the same end is known as
a) Single ended plug gauge
b) Double ended plug gauge
c) Progressive plug gauge
d) Continues plug gauge [c]
29. Which one of the following gauges is used to align the lathe tool with the work
a) Try square
b) Centre gauge
c) Thread gauge
d) Straight edge [b]
30. Which one of the following gauges is used to check the threading tool of lathe for accuracy on
the 60° angle
a) Screw pitch gauge
b) Thread plug gauge
c) Centre gauge
d) Thread ring gauge [c]
31. Centre gauge is used for

a) Chec the profile of thread
b) Checking the fit of thread
c) Checking the pitch of the thread
d) Set lathe tool at correct centre height [d]
32. A feeler gauge is used for
a) Adjusting the parts for play
b) Checking gap between matting part
c) Checking radii of jobs
d) Cheking accuracy of holes [b]
33. Clearance between matting part is measured by

a) Caliper gauge
b) Feeler gauge
c) “Go” gauge
d) Dial gauge [b]
34. In an adjustable snap gauge, two adjustable jaws are provided on

a) Both sides
b) One side
c) One in each side
d) None of the above [b]
35. Which one of the following grade of gauge is used for checking the parts made by an operator
in the workshop
a) Workshop gauge
b) Inspection gauge
c) Reference gauge
d) None of the above [a]
36. Which one of the following gauge is used for checking cylinder, which are not kept in vertical
or horizontal position
a) Pilot gauge
b) Snap gauge
c) Ring gauge
d) Plug gauge [a]
37. In a taper plug gauge the “Go” and “No Go” size are denoted by a step on
a) The same side
b) The either side
c) The both sides
d) Separately [a]
38. Fixed type snap gauge have “Go” and “No Go” ends
a) The same side
b) The either side
c) The both sides
d) Separately [a]
39. At what standards temperature are the gauge kept in the section
a) 10°C
b) 20°C
c) 10°F
d) 20°F [b]
40. 20. “Go” side of the plug gauge will have the diameter equal to
a) Actual size of the job
b) Basic size of the job
c) Minimum size of the job
d) Maximum size of the job [c]
41. For general use in workshop slip gauge of which grade are used
a) Grade – 0
b) Grade – 1
c) Grade – 2
d) None of the above [c]
42. The accuracy of reference gauge is

a) 0.05mm
b) 0.01mm
c) 0.001mm
d) 0.0001mm [c]
43. As per Indian standards a special set of slip gauge is used consisting of
a) 81 pieces
b) 112 pieces
c) 120 pieces
d) 130 pieces [b]
44. Grade-1 slip gauges are used in

a) Workshop by operator
b) Inspection room
c) Either ‘a’ or ‘b’
d) Neither ‘a’ nor ‘b’ [b]
45. Hardness of slip gauges should be

a) More than 63 HRC
b) 58 HRC
c) 55 HRC
d) 50 HRC [a]
Work place safety
01. What is the purpose of environmental legislation?

a) To regulate the production of hazardous substances.
b) To specify the methods that must be used for storing hazardous substances.
c) To protect humans and the environment against hazardous substances.
d) All the above. [c]
02. What can the government’s Health and Safety Inspection Service do when they see an offence?
a) Impose a requirement and/or make a report of the offence.
b) Give the management a reprimand, suspend the work and withdraw the VCA (SCC)
certificate.
c) Appoint an official to coordinate the work, give a warning and impose a requirement.
d) All the above. [a]
03. Which factor has a direct impact on the risks associated with work?
a) The supervision exercised by the client.
b) The Health and Safety Plan (H&S Plan).
c) The workplace.
04. What is the objective of a task risk analysis?
a) To control the risks associated with the work.
b) To prepare for the proper execution of the work.
c) To eliminate all risks.
05. Who should you notify right away about an accident?
a) The immediate supervisor.
b) The government’s Health and Safety Inspection Service.
c) The medical department.
06. What is an example of safe behaviour at the workplace?
a) Speaking to others about unsafe actions.
b) Never using hazardous substances.
c) Always wearing hearing protection.
07. What is the best way to avoid tripping at the workplace?
a) Make sure the floor is uneven.
b) Have the floor cleaned extra often.
c) Make sure the workplace is tidy.
08. What is one of the employee’s obligations?
a) Do not change protective devices and use them in the correct way.
b) Supervise high-risk activities.
c) Maintain an accident register.
d) None of the above. [a]
09. What colours are used on signs for firefighting equipment?
a) Black pictogram on a yellow background.
b) White pictogram on a green background.
c) White pictogram on a red background.
10. What are blanking flanges used for?

a) For shutting valves or pressure valves in storage tanks.
b) For moving pipework when working on storage tanks.
c) To shut off supply lines to storage tanks.
11. What is one purpose of a work permit?

a) It allows the Arbodienst (Occupational Health and Safety Service) to determine whether the
employees involved need to undergo an examina
examination.
b) All those involved in the work must consult about the safe execution of the work.
c) The government’s Health and Safety Inspection Service can check which activities are
performed.
d) All the above. [b]
12. What does this sign mean?
(white symbol on a blue background)
a) The use of fall protection equipment is mandatory.

b) Watch out for falling objects.
c) Keep fall protection equipment ready for use.
13. What must be included in a company emergency plan?

a) The substances and processes on the site that can cause emergency situations.
b) When evacuation drills are to be held.
c) The phases of dealing with emergency situations.
14. Hazardous substances are classified by category. What are some of these categories?
a) Flammable - corrosive - harmless.
b) Harmful - carcinogenic - suffocating.
c) Explosive - highly/extremely flammable - harmful.
d) None of the above. [c]
15. What is the best way of limiting exposure to toxic substances?
a) By always having the same person work with the toxic substance.
b) By using another, non-toxic
toxic substance.
c) By training employees in working with toxic substances.
16. One of the following pictograms is displayed on the packaging of a substance. What is one
characteristic of this substance?
(black symbol on orange background) (black

black symbol on white background with red border)
a) Highly flammable.
b) Oxidising.
c) Corrosive.
17. Which substance is an organic solvent?

a) Water.
b) Mercury.
c) White spirit.
18. What is the LEL (Lower Explosion Limit) (onderste explosiegrens) of a gas?
a) The highest concentration of the gas at which an explosion can occur.
b) The lowest concentration of the gas at which an explosion can occur.
c) The lowest measurable concentration of the gas.
19. What is the first thing you should do if you discover a fire?
a) Ensure your own safety.
b) Alert the police.
c) Alert the fire department.
20. What is an explosion-hazardous

hazardous environment?
a) An environment with too much gas and too little air.
b) An environment where many explosions happen.
c) An environment in which an explosive mixture can arise.
21. Which of the following is a risk associated with permanently installed grinders?
a) The grinding stone can bite into the material.
b) Due to the low rpm, the grinding stone can come off its shaft.
c) The grinding stone can disintegrate.
22. Is the earthing of double insulated electric hand tools permitted?

a) This only permitted with the employer’s approval.
b) No, this is not permitted.
c) Yes, this is permitted.
d) None of the above. [b]
23. Which rule, among others, applies to a crane?

a) A crane must carry a CE marking.
b) A crane must carry a VCA (SCC) quality mark.
c) A crane must not be higher than 23 metres.
24. What is one of the rules that applies to the use of chains?
a) Always work in pairs.
b) Completely screw in the shackle pins.
c) Grease the chain before hoisting.
25. Which rule applies to the use of a manual hoist?

a) You must always load the hook on its point.
b) A manual hoist must never be overloaded.
c) A manual hoist may only be loaded in a vertical position.
26. Are you allowed to increase the counterweight on a forklift?

a) No, this is never permitted.
b) Yes, this is permitted at any time.
c) Yes, this is permitted by at most 10% of the counterweight.
27. How should an acetylene bottle be positioned during welding?

a) The bottle must be positioned at an angle of at least 30° with the floor.
b) The bottle must always be in an upright position.
c) The bottle may be laid down on the floor.
28. How can you prevent falling hazards at the edge of a workfloor?
a) By placing warning signs at the edge of the workfloor.
b) By putting proper barriers at the edge of the workfloor.
c) By giving the workers proper instruction at the start of the work.
29. What is the best safety provision for a floor opening?
a) The floor opening must be properly lit.
b) Sufficient warning signs must be placed around the floor opening.
c) The floor opening must be covered with materials capable of carrying heavy loads.
30. Hazards can arise during excavations due to the fact that there are many cables and pipelines
buried in the ground. This is why ‘rules for careful excavation’ have been established. What is
one of these rules?
a) Never dig in areas where cables or pipelines are known to be buried in the ground.
b) When using an excavator always use a toothed excavator bucket.
c) First manually dig trial trenches close to the specified location of the cables or pipelines.
31. Which of the following is mandatory when working from a safety cage at height?
a) The safety cage must be suspended from a chain or a steel cable.
b) Everyone in the safety cage must have a walkie-talkie.
c) Everyone in the safety cage must wear a safety harness attached to the safety cage.
32. You are spray painting in a confined space. Why do you have to ventilate this space?
a) In order to remain below 10% of the LEL (Lower Explosion Limit) (onderste explosiegrens).
b) In order to remain below the LEL (Lower Explosion Limit) (onderste explosiegrens).
c) In order to remain below 50% of the LEL (Lower Explosion Limit) (onderste explosiegrens).
33. What affects the size of an electric current passing through the human body?
a) The body temperature.
b) The resistance of the ground or floor.
c) The length of the exposure.
34. Why is insulation used for electrical conductors?

a) To limit the consequences of a short circuit.
b) To prevent contact with live parts.
c) To prevent damage.
35. What is a risk associated with static electricity?

a) Static electricity can cause non-conductive materials to catch fire.
b) Static electricity can result in a spark which could cause an explosion.
c) Static electricity carries virtually no risk.
d) All the above. [b ]
36. What is important for manually lifting an object standing on the ground?
a) That your feet are spread out as far as possible.
b) That you lift with a straight back and bent knees.
c) That after you have lifted the object you can turn it sideways.
37. What must you do with your PBM’s (personal protective equipment)?
a) Have your name put on it.
b) Have an expert inspect it after every use.
c) Take proper care of it.
38. What hazard do safety goggles protect against?

a) Heat.
b) Dust.
c) Strong light.
39. What is impossible for gloves to protect against?

a) Hazardous substances.
b) Cold or heat.
c) Rotating parts.
40. What rule applies to the use of protective clothing?

a) Replace your clothing once a year.
b) Immediately repair or replace torn/worn clothing.
c) Immediately replace torn/worn clothing at your own cost.
Fire prevention Measures and Fire Fighting
01. If a cream coloured band is located over the fire extinguisher, it indicates that the fire
extinguisher is which of the following?
a. Water
b. Dry Powder
c. Foam
d. Carbon Dioxide [c]
02. Which type of fire extinguish do you use to fight an electrical fire if a carbon dioxide
extinguisher is unavailable?
a. Water
b. Wet Chemical
c. Foam
d. Dry Powder [d]
03. A water fire should be on fires started by which of the following materials?
a. Materials such as gasoline that are highly flammable
b. Materials made up of combustible metals
c. Fires caused by electricity
d. Materials such as paper, textiles, wood and other solid materials. [d]
04. __________ fire extinguishers are specifically designed in order to tackle a class F fire.
1. Carbon Dioxide
2. Wet Chemical
3. Foam
4. Water [b]
05. If there is a black coloured band above the fire extinguisher; what does the colour of the
band tell you?
a. That this extinguisher is a wet chemical fire extinguisher
b. That this extinguisher is a carbon dioxide fire extinguisher
c. That this extinguisher is broken and should not be used
d. That this extinguisher contains flammable materials [b]
06. Titanium and aluminium materials can be classified under which of the following
categories?
a. Category A
b. Category C
c. Category D
d. Category B [c]
07. Which of the following colours allows you to identify a foam fire extinguisher?
a. Blue
b. Red
c. Yellow
d. Cream [d]
08. Which of the following colours can be found in a band above a wet chemical fire
extinguisher?
a. Yellow
b. Cream
c. Blue
d. Red [a]
09. You should avoid using _________________ fire extinguishers when extinguishing a fire
in a confined space.
a. Dry Powder Fire Extinguishers
b. Water Fire Extinguishers
c. Foam Fire Extinguishers
d. Wet Chemical Fire Extinguishers [a]
10. Which of the following fire extinguishers would you use in order to extinguish an
electrical fire?
a. Water Fire Extinguisher
b. Foam Fire Extinguisher
c. Wet Chemical Fire Extinguisher
d. Carbon Dioxide Fire Extinguisher [d]
11. While you are using a fire extinguisher containing to carbon dioxide; what happens to the
nozzle?
a. It becomes extremely hot
b. It becomes warm
c. It becomes slightly cold
d. It becomes extremely cold [d]
12. A dry powder fire extinguisher can be found with a _______________ band above it.
a. Yellow
b. Blue
c. Black
d. Cream [b]
13. Which of the following types of fire extinguishers have a yellow band above it?
a. Foam
b. Water
c. Wet Chemical
d. Carbon Dioxide [c]
14. Class A materials do not include which of the following?

a. Wood Materials
b. Propane Materials
c. Plastic Materials
d. Paper Materials [b]
15. A dry powder fire extinguisher has a ________ band located above it.
a. Cream
b. Blue
c. Yellow
d. Red [b]
16. The fire assembly point can be best described as:

a. Where the fire extinguishers are stored
b. An area that has a high risk for fires to occur
c. An area where you are required to assemble in the event of a fire
d. An area you are required to avoid in the event of a fire [c]
17. When you see a fire on the worksite, what is the first thing you should do
a. Sound the fire alarm
b. Tell you, manager
c. Try and put the fire out
d. Grab your tools and quickly exit the area [a]
18. Which of the following types of materials is responsible for fueling a Class A fire?
a. Oils that you typically cook with
b. Flammable liquids
c. Electrical Equipment
d. Wood, plastic, paper, and other kinds of solid materials [d]
19. Where should you go if you hear the fire alarm going off?
a. To the supervisor’s office in order to inform him what is happening
b. To the fire assembly point
c. To the break room to make sure everyone got out
d. Home, the work day is over [b]
20. Fires that are fueled by _________ require you to use water fire extinguishers in order to
fight them.
a. Live electricity
b. Gasoline, kerosene, and other flammable liquids
c. Solid materials; such as wood, paper, and textile
d. Propane, butane, and other flammable gases [c]
21. A band of ____________ is displayed above a fire extinguisher that contains carbon
dioxide.
a. Yellow
b. Red
c. Black
d. Cream [c]
22. Fire extinguishers that contain _____ have a red band located above them.
a. Carbon Dioxide
b. Water
c. Foam
d. Wet Chemicals [b]
23. Which of the following is correct when it comes to the type of fire extinguishers you
should avoid while fighting a fire in a confined space?
a. Carbon Dioxide and Dry Powder Fire extinguishers should not be used
b. Carbon Dioxide and Water Fire Extinguishers should not be used
c. Water and Dry Powder Fire extinguishers should not be used
d. Only a Dry powder fire extinguisher should not be used. [a]
24. Why is it important that you tend the nozzle when you have finished using a fire
extinguisher containing carbon dioxide?
a. Because the nozzle gets extremely hot making it impossible to use
b. This is not a requirement
c. Because the nozzle gets warm, making it impossible to use
d. Because the nozzle gets extremely cold, making it impossible to use. [d]
25. When do you go to the fire assembly point?
a. When discussion about fire safety is taking place
b. When the fire alarm goes off
c. If you are the first one to see the fire
d. When practicing using the different types of fire extinguishers [b]
26. At what point do you sound the fire alarm?
a. After you try to extinguish it
b. As soon as you see it
c. After talking with your supervisor
d. After you grab all tools from the site [b]
27. The area you must assemble in the event of the fire is called:
a. The Fire Safety Meeting Spot
b. There is no specific name
c. The Fire Assembly Point
d. The supervisor’s office [c]
28. Water fire extinguishers have a _________ located above them?
a. Red coloured band
b. Blue coloured band
c. Black coloured band
d. Green Colored band [a]
29. When fighting and electrical fire, which of the following should not be used?
c. Dry Powder Fire Extinguisher
d. Neither A nor B should be used [d]
30. A hot permit allows you to:
a. Carry out work that can potentially cause a fire
b. To work on a worksite containing extreme temperatures
c. Gives you the authority to start a fire on the worksite
d. Allows you to practice fire drills on the worksite [a]
31. What class of fire was a wet chemical fire extinguisher specifically designed to fight?
a. Class A fires
b. Class D Fires
c. Class F Fires
d. Class B Fires [c]
32. Who has the authority to pull the fire alarm after discovering a fire on the worksite?
a. Only the manager can activate the fire alarm
b. Anyone who has seen a fire can activate the fire alarm
c. Only the health and safety rep can activate the fire alarm
d. Only the owner can activate the fire alarm [b]
33. You should use a Dry Powder fire extinguisher in order to fight in an electrical fire, only
in the event of ________.
a. A carbon dioxide fire extinguisher is unavailable
b. A foam fire extinguisher is unavailable
c. You should never use a dry powder fire extinguisher on an electrical fire
d. A water fire extinguisher is unavailable [a]
34. Wet Chemical fire extinguishers were specifically designed in order to tackle ______
a. A class A fire
b. A class B Fire
c. A Class D Fire
d. A Class F Fire [d]
35. Which of the following materials can be classified under Category D?

a. Titanium
b. Aluminum
c. Propane
d. Both A & B [d]
36. Which of the following is true about dry powder fire extinguishers?
a. You should avoid using them in confined spaces
b. They are the best choice for electrical fires
c. You should only use them in confined spaces
d. There is a black band above them [a]
37. Wood, plastic, and paper are which of the following:

a. Class B Materials
b. Class C Materials
c. Class A Materials
d. Class F Materials [c]
38. Wood, plastic, paper and other solid materials are typically the culprits for ___________.
a. A Class F fire
b. A Class B fire
c. A Class A fire
d. A Class C fire [c]
39. What type of fire extinguisher should you use in order to extinguish a fire caused by solid
materials, such as wood, paper or textile?
a. Carbon Dioxide
b. Water
c. Foam
d. Wet Chemical [b]
40. After using a carbon dioxide fire extinguisher, the nozzle gets extremely cold. This is a
sign that:
a. You should not use it
b. It is safe to continue
c. The materials inside are running low
d. None of the above [a]
41. What type of permit is needed in order to carry out work that could potentially result in a
fire breaking out on the work site?
a. A fire permit
b. A hot permit
c. A work permit
d. No permit is needed [b]
42. In the event of a fire, everyone is responsible for:

a. Informing the supervisor of what is happening
b. Pulling the fire alarm if they see a fire
c. Making sure everyone gets to the fire assembly point safely
d. None of the above [b]
43. The following image shows which type of fire extinguisher?

a. Foam Fire Extinguisher
b. Carbon Dioxide Fire Extinguisher
d. Wet Chemical Fire Extinguisher [a]

d. Carbon Dioxide Fire Extinguisher [c]

a. Dry Powder Fire Extinguisher
b. Water Fire Extinguisher
c. Carbon Dioxide Fire Extinguisher
d. Foam Fire Extinguisher [d]

a. Dry Powder Fire Extinguisher
c. Carbon Dioxide Fire Extinguisher
d. Foam Fire Extinguisher [c]
a. Foam Fire Extinguisher
b. Carbon Dioxide Fire Extinguisher
d. Wet Chemical Fire Extinguisher [d]
48. What type of fire extinguisher would you use on a fire that is categorised as a Class F
Fire?
a. Carbon Dioxide Fire Extinguishers
d. Dry Powder Fire Extinguisher [c]
49. What does the following health and safety sign indicate?
a. The location of the fire alarm
b. The location of the fire extinguisher
c. Which way to exit
d. Do not press the button [a]
50. What does the following health and safety sign indicate?
a. Indicates the item is flammable
b. Indicates the item could cause an explosion
c. Indicates the item is toxic
d. Indicates that the item contains irritants [a]
51. Which of the following activities are considered “hot work”?

a. Welding
b. Cutting
c. Grinding Ferrous Metals
d. All of the Above [d]
52. It is needed for a fire:

a. Fuel
b. Oxygen
c. Heat
d. All of the Above [d]
53. The acronym for proper use of a fire extinguisher is:

a. PAST
b. PASS
c. PALS
d. None of the Above [b]
54. Which THREE of the following are key elements of a fire safety management system?
i) Maintenance Plan
ii) Staff Training Plan
iii) Fire Action Plan
iv) Fire Access Plan
a) i, ii, iii
b) i, ii, iv
c) i, iii, iv
d) ii, iii, iv [a]
55. When should you use a fire extinguisher?

a. When the fire is between you and the phone
b. When the fire is between you and an exit door
c. When the fire is confined to a small area
d. When the room is filled with smoke [c]
56. It is easy to remember how to use a fire extinguisher if you can remember the acronym PASS,
which stands for _______________ [Pull, Aim, Squeeze, and Sweep]
57. How often should fire alarms be tested?

a) Once a week.
b) Once a year.
c) Once every 12 hours.
d) Once a month. [a]
Working of Stores
Stocked Items, Non-stocked Items, Non-moving Items, Impressed Items, Self Life Items
01. Stock which provide for an emergency in case of default by the suppliers and also to take care
of fluctuations in consumptions, is known as
a. Emergency stock
b. Buffer stock
c. Ordinary stores
d. Custody stock [b]
02. Outstanding quantities against all live purchase orders are termed as
a. Covered dues
b. Uncovered dues
c. In process dues
d. Dead dues [a]
03. Convener of the tender committee in stores purchases is the

a. Technical member
b. Accounts member
c. Mechanical member
d. Stores member [d]
04. GM’s power of purchase of imported stores is

a. Rs. 25 crores
b. Rs. 50 crores
c. Rs. 75 crores
d. Rs. 40 crores [b]
05. For safety items PO vetting is required for value more than ________ [Rs. 8 lakhs.]
06. The powers of COS for direct purchase of stores is limited to Rs_____ [Rs. 15 crores.]
07. Powers of COS to approve limited tender is case of emergency is restricted to

Rs_______________ [Rs. 2 crores.]
08. Money allotted for purchase of stock items is called

a) Purchase money
b) Purchase balance
c) Purchase suspense
d) Purchase grant [d]
09. The register maintained by store accounts for stores budget control is called [Liability register]
10. The detailed distribution of budget allotment made to railway administrations is contained in
a) Yellow book
b) Green book
c) Pink Book
d) White Paper [c]
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS IN ESTABLISHMENT MATTERS
1. Conversion of one kind of leave into another shall be considered, if received within _______
days.
A.10 days B. 20 days C. 30 days D. 40 days
2. Leave ordinarily begins on the day on which transfer of charge is effected and ends on the day
preceding that in which _________.
A) Resumed B) Returning C) Reported D) None of the above.
3. CL shall not be combined with any other kind of leave since it is not a _____.
A) Recognized leave B) On Duty C) Absent from duty D) None
4. No Railway Servant shall be granted leave of any kind for a continuous period exceeding
_________.
A) 5 years B) 4 years C) 3 years D) 2 years
5. Railway Servant is entitled for credit of _________ days of LAP in a year

A) 15 B) 30 C) 25 D) 60
6. Leave on average pay is credited in advance in 2 installments of 15 days each on the first day
of ____ and _______ every calendar year.
A) 1st Jan/1st July B) 1st June / 1st Dec C) 2ndJan/3rdJune D) 1stJuly/5th July
7. Ordinarily the maximum leave on average pay (LAP) that may be granted at a time to a railway
servant shall be _______ days.
A) 50 B) 70 C) 120 D) 180
8. In the year of appointment, LAP shall be credited to the leave account of an employee at the
rate of ____ days for each completed calendar month of service.
A) 0 B) 5 C) 2 ½ D) 4
9. A permanent/temporary Railway Servant shall be entitled to leave on half average pay(LHAP)

of _______ days in respect of each completed year of service.
A) 20 days B) 30 days C) 80 days D) 10 days
10. The amount of leave on half average pay that can be availed of in one spell shall be limited to
________.
A) 20 months B) 24 months C) 36 months D) 90 days
11. In the year of appointment, LHAP shall be credited to the leave account of an employee at the
rate of ____ days for each completed calendar month of service.
A) 4/3 B) 2/5 C) 5/3 D) 5/5
12. Leave not due is debited against the ________ leave he is likely to earn subsequently after
resuming to duty.
A) LAP B) Hospital leave C) LHAP D) LWPD
13. Encashment of LAP upto _____________ days shall not exceed in entire career
A) 30 days B) 60 C) 20 D) 10
14. A railway servant while in service can encash LAP upto ______ days at a time in 2 years block
period.
A) 40 B) 10 C) 45 D) 15
15. A female Government servant with less than 02 children may be granted maternity leave for .
A) 100 B) 135 C) 180 D) 160
16. CCL for 730 days shall be granted to female railway/single male employee for _________
A) First 2 minor children B) Any number of children C) Only one child D) None
17. Maximum of the paternity leave is _____days and shall be availed within_____ months.
A) 15 days/6months B) 1day/3months C) 2days/5months D) 11days/ 12months
18. Not less than _____days of CCL can be availed at a time.

A) 3 B) 10 C) 5 D) 11
19. _________ leave is granted to a Railway servant who is disabled by injury inflicted or caused
in or in consequence of due performance of his official duty or in consequence of his official
position.
A) Work related illness and injury leave(WRILL) B) LAP C) LHAP D) Hospital
20. Railway servant who is under WRILL is not entitled to earn __________.
A) SP.CL B) CL C) LAP/LHAP D) None of above.
21. Full pay and allowances shall be granted on account of WRILLis for _____ .
A) 24 months B) Entire period of Hospitalization and Six months Beyond hospitalization
C) 32 months D) 40 months
22. Period of Study Leave for technical course shall be granted to Railway servants is
A) 24 months B 12 months C 36 months D 21 months
23. Period of Study Leave for medical PG/PHD course shall be granted to Railway servants is
A) 24 months B) 12 months C) 36 months D) 21 months
24. In a year ______ days of CL is entitled to an employee appointed in an open line staff.
A) 10 days B) 11 days C) 15 days D) None.
25. As per Hours of Employment Rule employees are classified into ________ number of
categories.
A) Four B) Three C) Two D) Six
26. What is the statutory limit of hours of employment of Intensive Category employee in a week?
A) 60 Hrs B) 45 Hours. C) 75 Hrs D) 54 Hrs.
27. What is the statutory limit of hours of employment of Continuous Category employee in a
week?
28. What is the statutory limit of hours of employment of EI Category employee?

A) 60 Hrs in a week B) 45 Hours in a week. C) 75 Hrs in a week D) 54 Hrs. in a week
29. Standard Hours of duty of Continuous category of employees is _____ hrs in a week.
30. Waiting Room Bearer comes under ________________ Classification

A) Intensive category B) Essentially Intermittent C) Continuous D) Excluded
31. Weekly Hours of duty including P&C of continuous category of employees is------ Hrs.
32. In the case of Continuous category of employees more than _________ hrs of duty is Long on.
A) 6 Hrs B) 12/14 Hours. C) 10 Hrs D) 8 Hrs
33. ___________ is empowered to classify the employment of Railway Servant

A) DRM B) Head of the Railways (GM) C) UPSC D) Rly Board
34. Weekly rest for Essentially Intermittent workers is ____________ hrs including a full night in
bed.
A) 22 consecutive hrs B) Not less than 30 consecutive hrs
C) 24 consecutive hrs D) Equal to 30 consecutive hrs
35. Weekly rest of Intensive category of employees is ___________ hrs.

A) 22 consecutive hrs B) Not less than 30 consecutive hrs
C) 24 consecutive hrs D) Equal to 30 consecutive hrs
36. In which category Railway employees employed in confidential related work are
Classified?
A) Essentially Intermittent B) Intensive category C) Continuous D) Excluded
37. Maximum how many breaks can be there in a split shift?

A) Two. B) Three C) Four D) Single
38. After how many hours of rest an EI category employee can again be called for duty in a day?
A) 6 Hrs B) 12/14 Hours. C) 10 Hrs D) 8 Hrs.
39. After how many hours of rest an Intensive category employee can again be called for duty in a
day?
A) 6 Hrs B) 12/14 Hours. C) 10 Hrs D) 8 Hrs.
40. Within how many days Compensatory Off can be sanctioned?

A) 30 days B) 60 days C) 45 days D) No limit
41. Rough Assessment Job Analysis is conducted for ----------hrs?
42. For the Railway servants performing split duty, the number of spells of duty shall not exceed
____and the number of breaks shall be limited to ____;
A) Three and Two B) Three and four C) Two and four D) None of the above.
43. Appeal against classification of employment can be made to________

A) General Manager B) DRM C) Regional Labour Commissioner
D) Branch Officer.
44. The document which shows employee’s daily hours of duty, weekly rest and break
between spells of duty besides other necessary particulars is called
A) Duty Chart B) Roster C) Attendance register D) Overtime Allowance Register
45. Appointment of Regional Labour Commissioner is made through:

A) Railway Board B) Human Resource Ministry C) Labour Ministry D) Collector
46. The category of employment in which the employee does not get any rest or very little rest in
his duty hours is called:
A) Intensive B) Continuous C) Essentially Intermittent D) Excluded
47. Allowance that is given to Railway servant for performing duty beyond prescribed hours of
employment:
(A) Travelling Allowance (B) Dearness Allowance
(C) Overtime Allowance (D) None among these.
48. Number periods of rest given to running staff in a month if one period of rest is 30 hrs:
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
49. Number periods of rest given to running staff in a month if one period of rest is 22 hrs:
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 5 (D) 4
50. Appeal against the orders of Regional Labour Commissioner can be made to Secretary to the
Govt of India Ministry of Labour within ______ days.
(A) 30 (B) 60 (C) 90 (D) 180
51. What is theweekly hours of duty of the Railway servants other than Gateman ‘C’
Caretaker of Rest Houses, Chowkidar, Saloon Attendant, who have not been given
Railway accommodation and their residence is 1.0 Km away from the place of work?
A. 60 Hrs B. 45 Hours. C. 72 Hrs D. 54 Hrs.
52. Duty period between 22.00hrs to 06.00hrs is treated as Night duty and paid Night duty
allowance (NDA) at hourly rate equal to_______
A) (Basic pay+ DA)/200 B) (Basic pay+ DA)/100. C) (Basic pay)/200 D. None.
53. Which method of Job Analysis is adopted generally for correct classification of employment?
A) Factual Job Analysis B) Rough assessment C) Issuance of certificate D) None
54. CTG is granted to the railway servant who is transferred on administrative grounds if transfer
between stations is ------Kms
A) 20 kms . B) 30 kms C) 50 Kms D) 8 Kms
55. CTG shall be granted at the rate of ___________ of last months basic pay
A) 100% B) 80% C) 75% C) 180%
56. The Railway servants (Discipline & Appeal) Rules came into force on ________.
A) 1968 B) 1972. C) 1966 D) 1978.
57. ________form is used for placing a Railway employee under suspension.

A) SF-5 B) SF-11 C) SF-1 D) SF-2
58. Suspension is a ------------under D&A Rules, 1968.

A) Penalty B) Not a penalty C) Major penalty D) Minor penalty
59. Rule No.____of the Railway servants (Discipline & Appeal) Rules deals with
Suspension.
A) 6 B) 7 C) 5 D) 1
60. ________form is used for Deemed Suspension

A. SF-5 B. SF-4 C SF-1 D. SF-2
61. Rule No. ------of The Railway servants (Discipline & Appeal) Rules deals with Penalty.
A) 6 B) 7 C) 5 D) 1
62. ________ form is used for imposition of Minor Penalty.

A) SF-5 B) SF-4 C) SF-1 D) SF-11
63. Compulsory Retirement/Removal/ Dismissal is a ------------under D&A Rules, 1968.

A) Penalty B) Not a penalty C) Major penalty D) Minor penalty
64. ________ form is used for imposition of Major Penalty.

A) SF-5 B) SF-4 C) SF-1 D) SF-2
65. Major Penalty shall not be imposed on Railway Servant without conducting _______
A) Meeting B) Inquiry. C) Election D) Selection.
66 Rule No. 9 of The Railway servants (Discipline& Appeal) Rules deals with Procedure for
imposing ___________ penalty.
A) Major B) Minor C) Suspension D) Revoke of Suspension.
67. ________ form is used for nomination of Inquiry Officer.

A) SF-5 B) SF-7 C) SF-1 D) SF-2
68. ________ form is used to appoint a Presenting Officer.

A) SF-8 B) SF-4 C) SF-1 D) SF-2
69. __________________ equal to leave on half salary, will be drawn in case the employee is
under suspension.
A) Dearness Allowance B) Subsistence Allowance C) Suspension Allowance
70. As per rule 17 of DAR rules No appeal lies against any order of an _____________ nature
or of the nature of step in aid of the final disposal of a disciplinary proceedings.
A) Minor Penalty B) Major Penalty C) Interlocutory D. None
71. The appeal against an order of the Disciplinary Authority can be preferred by the Appellant
in his __________
A) Own name. B) Disciplinary Authority. C) Appellate Authority D) GM
72. The appeal shall be preferred to any higher authority other than the -----------.
A) Disciplinary Authority. B) DRM C) Appellate Authority D) GM
73. Rule 25 of the RS(D&A) Rules deal with _____________.

A) Review B) Appeal C) Revision D) Witness
74. Rule 25.A of the RS(D&A) Rules deal with _____________.

A) Review. B) Appeal C) Explanation. D) Witness
75. An authority not lower than ___________________ shall impose the penalties of
Dismissal/Removal/Compulsory retirement.
A) Disciplinary Authority. B) GM C) Appellant Authority D) Appointing Authority
76. The disciplinary proceedings should be ------------------on the death of the charged
employee.
A) Closed immediately B) Continued C) Temporarily closed D) None
77. What is the time limit for submission of written statement of defence by the delinquent
Railway Servant?
A. 6 B. 7 C. 5 D. 10
78. If the charge is unauthorized absence, _________ can be one of the witnesses.
A) Attendance Register B) Medical Certificate C) Co- employee. D) None
79. Appeal shall be entertained unless preferred within _________ days.

A) 100 B) 10 C) 30 D) 45
80. Dispute between workmen and workmen which is connected with the employment or non-
employment is called---------.
A) Industrial Dispute B) Personal Dispute C) Trade Union dispute D) All
81. Labour Courts are established under the ------------------------

A) ID Act, 1947 B) PD Act C) Trade Union Act, 1926 D) All
82. As per ID Act 1947, "--------------" means the termination by the employer of the service of a
workman for any reason whatsoever, otherwise than as a punishment inflicted by way of
disciplinary action.
A. Retrenchment B. closure C. layoff D. lock out
83. Which among the following is/are true regarding Industrial Disputes? [Sec 2(k)] An
"Industrial dispute" means any dispute or difference.
1) Between employers and workmen
2) Between employers and employers
3) Between workmen and workmen
A. 1, 2 B.1, 2 &3 C. 2, 3 D. None
84. In the case of any industrial establishment in which 100 or more workmen are employed on any
day in the preceding 12 months, the appropriate Government, may by general or special order
require the employer to constitute a ___________.
A. Works Committee B. Labour court C. Tribunal D. Arbitrators
85. As per ID Act, no person employed in a public utility service shall go on strike, in breach of
contract without giving to the employer notice of strike, within before striking or within
----------- of giving such notice.
A.6 weeks/ 14 Days B. 5 weeks/ 12 Day C. 8 weeks/ 10 days D. 3 weeks/ 3days
86. As per the Payment of Wages Act, 1936 no wage-period shall exceed --------days
A. 15 B. 20 C. 25 D.30 days
87. Staff Benefit Fund (SBF) works for the benefit of ----------- Railway Employees.
A. Gazetted. B. Non Gazetted C. Trade unions D. All the above
88. Permanent Negotiating Machinery functions in __________ tier system in Indian Railways.
A. Three B Four C. Five D. Six
89. ____ number of meetings held at Divisional PNM level with periodicity of 2 months.
90. ____ number of meetings held at Zonal PNM level with periodicity of 3 months
91. ____ number of meetings two with each Federations will be held at Board PNM level per year.
92. Issues not settled in Railway Board PNM shall be referred to ___________
A. Adhoc Tribunal B. Labour Court C. High Court D. Parliament
93. JCM Refers to --------------

A. Joint Consultative Machinery B. Joint Common Machinery
C. Joint Collective Machinery. D. Joint Constructive Machinery.
94. In Railways, JCM function in --------- levels.

A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D.7
95. In N-JCM __________ will act as Chairman
A. Speaker of LokSabha B. Cabinet Secretary C. PMO D. Governor
96. Chairman of D-JCM is ____________

A. Member Staff B. CRB C. Member Traffic D. Member Infrastructure
97. Participation in illegal strike amounts to__________

A. Dies-non B. LWP C. LHAP D. Break in service
98. PREM refers to _____________

A. Participation of Railway Employees in Management
B. Participation of Railway Employees in Manufacturing
C. Participation of Railway Employees in Maintenance
D. Participation of Railway Employees in Modernization
99. PREM functions in __________ levels.

A. 3 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8
100. PREM meetings at Railway Board level is chaired by __________

A. CRB B. Member Staff C. Member Rolling Stock D. Member Traction
101. Workman Compensation Act re-named as________

A. Employee Compensation Act B. Employer Compensation Act
C. Employment Compensation Act D. None
102. EC Act provide __________ for injury/Death by accident on duty

A. Treatment B. Compensation C. Conviction D. none
103. As per EC Act there are _____&___ types of disablements

A. Small/Big B. Partial/Total C. Simple/Major D. none
104. Employer is not liable for compensation if injury is due to _____

A. Influence of drinks/drugs B. Willful disobedience of rules
C. Willful removal of safety gadgets D. All the above
105. The compensation amount shall be deposited with _________

A. Bank B. Employees account C. Labour Commissioner D. None
106. Exgratialumpsum compensation is paid to the families of railway employees _

A. Who die in harness in performance of bonafide official duties
B. Who die in harness in performance of non-official duties
C. Who die in service
D. None
107. Exgratia Lumpsum amount paid for death occurring due to accident in course of performance of
duties is ______________
A. 25 lakhs B. 30 lakhs C. 20 lakhs D. 35 lakhs
108. Pension is paid to ________ Railway Servants on retirement from service
A. Pre 1-1-2004 appointed employees B. Post 1-1-2004 employees
C. Appointed on or after 1-1-2004 D. None
109. Pension is subject to _________

A. Future good conduct B. Future bad conduct C. both A&B D. none.
110. Superannuation Pension is paid who retires with minimum _____ qualifying service
A. 10 B. 20 C. 30 D. 32
111. Amount of Pension shall not be paid less than____ of last month’s pay at the time of
Retirement with effect from 1-1-2006
A. 20% B. 30% C. 40% D. 50%
112. ____ days of both LAP & LHAP are entitled for encashment of leave at the time of
Retirement
A. 50 B. 300 C. 250 D. 125
113. Maximum amount of gratuity shall not be more than ____

A. 20 lakhs B. 30 lakhs C. 40 lakhs D. 60 lakhs
114. Compassionate allowance shall be sanctioned to ________ by competent authority

A. Railway Servant who is removed/dismissed B. Railway servant on voluntary retirement
C. Superannuation D. None
115. Minimum pension as per 7th PC is _________

A. 7000 B. 4500 C. 9000 D 3500
116. Deposit linked Insurance Scheme is linked with ---------- and paid to his ____ subject to
maximum of 60,000
A. Balance of PF of deceased Employee / family \
B. Service of deceased Employee / family
C. Nil balance of PF of deceased Employee / family
D. None
117. The maximum amount of Pension that can be commuted is ___.

A.30% of pension B. 40% of pension C. 20% of pension D. 50% of pension
118. The family pension shall not be less than _________% of the minimum of the scale held by the
employee at the time of retirement/death.
A. 50% B.30% C 35% D. 60%
119. The enhanced family pension shall not be less than _________% of the minimum of the Scale
held by the employee at the time of retirement/death.
A. 50% B.30% C 35% D. 60%
120. Pensioner would be entitled restore his commuted pension after expiry of ___ years
A.20 B. 12 C 15 D 16
121. PRCP are admissible to Railway Servant retired after putting in __ years of service.
A.20 B. 12 C 15 D 16
122. Railway Servant with minimum of -----of qualifying service are entitled for Voluntary
Retirement, by giving three months advance notice.
A. 30 years B. 10 years C. 33 years D. 20 years
123. ----- amount of Fixed Medical Allowance is paid to the opted pensioner/ Family Pensioner per
month w.e.f. 01.07.2017
A. Rs.1000 B. Rs.3000. C. Rs.2500 D. Nil
124. Gratuity is paid @ ¼ months pay per each completed half year of the service subject to a
maximum of ------- months’ pay or Rs.20 lacs, whichever is less
A. 15 times B. 12 times C. 20 times D. 16 ½ times.
125. Period of Retention of Railway Quarters on account of missing of Railway Servant is upto
___ Months.
A. 24 B 36 C. 12 D. None.
126. The rate of contribution to join RELHS for Level 7 to Level 11 employees as per the 7th Pay
Commission shall be last month's basic pay drawn or _______amount whichever is lower.
A.Rs.78, 000 B. Rs.30, 000. C. Rs.1, 20,000 D. 54,000
Establishment Matters (DAR, Conduct, Pass and HOER)
1. कार्यनियोजनघंटेकेनियमानुसारकर्मचारियोंके ---------श्रेणीमेंवर्गीकृतकियागयाहै. As per Hours of Employment

Rule employees are classified into ________ number of categories.
A. Four चार B. Three तीन C. Two दो D. Six छह
2. इन्टेंसिवश्रेणीकेकर्मचारियोंकेलिएसप्ताहमें,नियोजनकेघंटोंकीसंवध
ै ानिकसीमा -------है.What is the statutory
limit of hours of employment of Intensive Category employee in a week?
A. 60 Hrs घंटे B. 45 Hours.घंटे C. 75 Hrs घंटे D. 54 घंटे
3. प्रतीक्षालयकाबेयरर ------------- श्रेणीकेअंतर्गतआताहै.Waiting Room Bearer comes under

________________ Classification
A. इंटेसिवश्रेणी Intensive category B. Essentially Intermittent अनिवार्यतसविरामी C.
Continuous अविरामी D. Excluded छूटप्राप्त
4. पीऔरसीसहितअविरामीश्रेणीकेकर्मचारियोंकेलिए ---------- घंटेसाप्ताहिककार्यघंटेहोतेहैं.Weekly Hours of duty

including P&C of continuous category of employees is------ Hrs.
A. 60 Hrs घंटे B. 45 Hours.घंटे C. 72 Hrs घंटे D. 54 Hrs.घंटे
5. अविरामीश्रेणीकेकर्मचारियोंकेमामलेमें ------------ सेअधिककीड्यूटीलांग-आनकहलातीहै.In the case of

Continuous category of employees more than ____________ hrs of duty is Long on.
A. 6 Hrs घंटे B. 12/14 Hours.घंटे C. 10 Hrs घंटे D. 8 Hrs घंटे
6. रेलसेवककेनियोजनकोवर्गीकृतकरनेकाप्राधिकार-------------- कोहै. ___________ is empowered to classify

the employment of Railway Servant
A. DRM मंरप्र
े B. Head of the Railways (GM)महाप्रबंधक
C. UPSC यूपीएससी D. Rly Board रेलवेबोर्ड
7. अनिवार्यतसविरामीकर्मियोंकेलिएबिस्तरमेंपूरीरातसहित -----------घंटोंकासाप्ताहिकविश्रामहोताहै. Weekly rest

for Essentially Intermittent workers is ____________ hrs including a full night in bed.
A. 22 consecutive hrs 22 निरंतरघंटे
B. Not less than 30 consecutive hrs. 30 निरंतरघंटोंसेकमनहीं
C. 24 consecutive hrs निरंतरघंटे
D. Equal to 30 consecutive hrs30 निरंतरघंटोंकेबराबर
8. प्रतिपूरकछुट्टीकितनेदिनकेअंदरलेलेनीचाहिए.
Within how many days Compensatory Off can be sanctioned?
A. 30 days दिन B. 60 days दिन C. 45 days दिन D. no limit कोईसीमानहीं
9. जाँबविश्लेषणकारफमूल्यांकन ------- घंटेकेलिएकियाजाताहै.
Rough Assessment Job Analysis is conducted for ----------hrs?
A. 6 Hrs घंटे B. 24 Hours.घंटे C. 10 Hrs घंटे D. 8 Hrs घंटे.
10. Appeal against classification of employment can be made to________-

कर्मचारियोंकेवर्गीकरणसेसंबधि
ं तअपील -------- सेकीजासकतीहै.
A. General Manager महाप्रबंधक B. DRM मंरप्र
े C. Regional Labour
Commissioner क्षेत्रीयश्रमआयुक्त D. Branch Officer.शाखाअधिकारी
प्रलेखजिसमेंकर्मचारियोंकेदैनिककार्यघंटे,साप्ताहिकअवकाशऔरकार्यघंटोंके
बीचअंतरालऔरअन्यआवश्यकविवरणहोताहैकहलाताहै
A. Duty Chart डयूटीचार्ट B. Roster रोस्टर
C. Attendance register उपस्थितिरजिस्टर. D. Overtime Allowance Register समयोपरिभत्तारजिस्टर
12. नियोजनकेसहीवर्गीकरणकेलिएनौकरीविश्लेषणकीकौनसीपद्धतिसामान्यतअपनायीजातीहै. Which method of Job

Analysis is adopted generally for correct classification of employment?
A. नौकरीकावास्तविकविश्लेषण Factual Job Analysis B.रफमूल्यांकन Rough assessment
C. प्रमाणपत्रजारीकरनाIssuance of certificate D. None कोईनहीं
13. यदिकोईकर्मचारीवैधानिकसीमाकेबादकार्यकरताहैतोउसेकिसदरपरसमयोपरिभत्तादिया जाताहै.

At what rate OTA will be given if any employee works beyond Statutory Limits?
A.वेतनकादोगुनाAt 2 times the pay. B.वेतनकातीनगुना At 3 times the pay.
C.वेतनकाडेढगुना At 1½ times the pay. D.वेतनकापांचगुना At 5 times the pay.
14. रेलसेवक (अनुशासनिकऔरअपील) नियमवर्ष -------- मेंलागूहुए.

The Railway servants (Discipline & Appeal) Rules came into force on ________.
A. 1968 B. 1972. C 1966 D. 1978.
15. कर्मचारीकोनिलंबनाधीनरखनेकेलिए -------------फार्मप्रयोगमेंलायाजाताहै.

________form is used for placing a Railway employee under suspension.
A. एसएफ-5 SF-5 B.एसएफ-11 SF-11 C. एसएफ -1 SF-1 D. एसएफ-2 SF-2
16. रेलसेवक (अनुशासनिकऔरअपील) नियमकानियम------- शास्तिसेसब ं ंधितहै.

Rule No.------of The Railway servants (D & A) Rules deals with Penalties.
A. 6 B. 7 C. 5 D. 1
17. अनुशासनिकऔरअपीलनियम,1968 केअनुसारअनिवार्यसेवानिवृत्त/सेवासेहटाना/निलंबितकरना -- है.

Compulsory Retirement/Removal/ Dismissal is a ------------under D&A Rules, 1968.
A. शास्तिPenalty B. शास्तिनहींहै. Not a penalty C. बडीशास्ति Major penalty
D. छोटीशास्तिMinor penalty
18. रेलसेवक (अनुशासनिकऔरअपील) नियमकीनियमसं. 9 --------- शास्तिअधिरोपितकरनेसेसबं ंधितहै. Rule
No. 9 of The Railway servants (Discipline & Appeal) Rules deals with Procedure for
imposing ___________ penalty.
A. बडीMajor B. छोटी Minor C. Suspension निलंबन
D. Revoke of Suspension.निलंबनवापसलेना
19. यदिकर्मचारीनिलंबनाधीनहोताहै,तबअर्धवेतनपरछुट्टीकेबराबर --------

आहरितकियाजाएगा__________________ equal to leave on half salary, will be drawn in case
the employee is under suspension.
A. महंगाईभत्ताDearness Allowance B. निर्वाहभत्ता Subsistence Allowance
C. निलंबनभत्ताSuspension Allowance
20. अनुअनिनियमकेनियम 17 केअनुसार --------- स्वरूपके किसी आदेशयाअनुशासनिक कार्यवाहीके अंतिम

निपटारे केकिसी चरणकेसमर्थनमें अपीलनहींकरसकता है. As per rule 17 of DAR rules No appeal lies
against any order of an _____________ nature or of the nature of step in aid of the final
disposal of a disciplinary proceedings.
A. छोटीशास्तिMinor Penalty B. बडीशास्ति Major Penalty
C. इंटरल्यूकोटरीInterlocutory D. कोईनहींNone
21. अनुशासनिकप्राधिकारीकेकिसीआदेशकेविरुद्धअपीलअपेलेंटद्वाराउसके -------- मेंदीजातीहै.

The appeal against an order of the Disciplinary Authority can be preferred by the Appellant in
his __________
A. स्वयंकेनामपर Own name. B. अनुशासनिकप्राधिकारी Disciplinary Authority.
C. अपीलीयप्राधिकारी Appellate Authority D. महाप्रबंधक GM
22. ---------- केअलावाकिसीउच्चतरप्राधिकारीकोअपीलकीजासकतीहै.The appeal shall be preferred to any

higher authority other than the -----------.
A. अनुशासनिकप्राधिकारीDisciplinary Authority. B. मंडलरेलप्रबंधक DRM
C. अपीलीयप्राधिकारी Appellate Authority D. महाप्रबंधक GM
23. रेलसेवक (अनुअनि) नियमकानियम 25 ----- सेसंबधि ं तहै. Rule 25 of the RS (D&A) Rules deal with
_____________.
A. समीक्षाReview. B. अपील Appeal C. पुनरीक्षाRevision. D. गवाही Witness
24. रेलसेवक (अनुअनि) नियमकेनियम 25 ए ---- सेसंबधि ं तहै. Rule 25.A of the RS (D&A) Rules deal with
_____________.
A. समीक्षाReview. B. अपील Appeal C. स्पष्टीकरण Explanation. D. गवाही Witness
25. आरोपितकर्मचारीकीमुत्युकेबादअनुशासनिककार्ऱवाईको -------------- कियाजानाचाहिए.The disciplinary
proceedings should be ------------------on the death of the charged employee.
A. तुरतं बंद Closed immediately B.जारीरखा Continued C. अस्थाईरुपसेबंद Temporarily
closed D. None इनमेंसेकोईनहीं
26. जांच-पडतालअधिकारीकोनामितकरनेकेलिए ---------- फार्मप्रक्तकियाजाताहै. ________ form is used for
nomination of Inquiry Officer.
A. एसएफ—5 SF-5 B. एसएफ—7 SF-7 C. एसएफ--1 SF-1 D. एसएफ---2 SF-2
27. यदिआरोपअप्राधिकृतरुपसेअनुपस्थितरहनेकालगाहोतो -------- एकसाक्ष्यहोसकताहै. If the charge is
unauthorized absence, _________ can be one of the witnesses.
A. उपस्थितिरजिस्टर Attendance Register B. चिकित्साप्रमाणपत्र Medical Certificate
C. सहकर्मीCo- employee. D. कोईनहींNone
28. अपीलको ------------ दिनकेअंदरदीजानीचाहिए. Appeal shall be entertained unless preferred within
_________ days.
A. 100 B. 10 C. 30 D. 45
29. रेलकर्मचारीजो ------- वर्षकीसेवापूरीकरतेहउ

ैं न्हें -------- कीअनुमतिहै.
Post Retirement Complimentary Pass are admissible to Railway Servant retired after putting
in __ years of service.
A.20 B. 12 C 15 D 16
30. What is Pass as per Railway Servants Pass Rules 1986.?

(A) Pass is a Privilege. (B) To travel in Railway
(C) An authority given by Railway to a Railway employee or to a Person authorizing him to
travel in a train gratuitously. (D) None of these.
31. Family means.

(A)Wife, Husband, Son/Step sons under the age of 21 years and wholly dependent.Bonafide
student of any recognized University. Unmarred daughter of any age whether earning or not,
dependent widow daughter. Railway Doctor’s certified invalid son daughter of any age.
(B)Wife, Husband, son/Step son/Son-in-law/mother-in-law/daughter of any age.
(C)Husband, Wife/Widow mother/son/Step son of any age/Daughter of any age.
(D)Husband/Wife/Sons/Daughters of any age/Mother-in-law, if father is not alive.
32. How many sets of P.T.O. are issued to the Railway employees?
(A) 6 sets both for Gazetted and Non-Gazetted every year from the date of appointment.
(B) 4 sets both for Gazetted and Non-Gazetted every year from the date of appointment.
(C) 3 sets both for Gazetted and Non-Gazetted every year from the date of appointment.
(D) 6 sets for Gazetted and 4 sets for Non-Gazetted.
33. How many sets of School Pass issued to Railway employee?

(A) 6 sets or 3 half sets per year. (B) 4 sets or 6 half sets per year.
(C) 3 sets or 6 half sets. per year. (D) 5 sets per year.
34. Oflate validity for a Privilege Pass/PTO is ?

(a) 3 months (b) 4 months (c) 2 months (d) 5 months
35. Attendants of Pass Holder is:-

(A)Part time servant. (B)Servant (C)Full time paid servant. (D)Any person.
36. Irregularity for use of Passes may be condoned by

(A) CPO (B) GM (C) CME (D) COM
37. The colour of the First Class A Pass is _________ in colour.

A. White B. Pink C. Green. D. Yellow.
38. When dependents are included in a Pass/PTO number persons entitled to be include in Pass/
PTO shall be.
A. All Family members + 2 dependents. B. 5 member’s only
C. 6 members only. D. Any number of Family members + 3dependents
39. How many sets of PTOs is/ are a license Holder coolie is entitled in a calendar year?
A. One (IInd/Sleeper) B. Two(IInd/Sleeper) C. Three(IInd/Sleeper) D. Nil
40. Which rule of Railway Service (Conduct) Rules 1966 states that every railway servant shall at
all times” Maintain absolute integrity,Maintain devotion to duty and Do nothing which is
unbecoming of a railway servant
A. Rule 3 (i) (ii) and (iii) B. Rule 3-B C. Rule 3-C D. Rule 3-D
41. Prohibition of sexual harassment of working women defined in ____of Railway servants
(Conduct) Rules, 1966.
A. Rule 3-A B. Rule 3-B C. Rule 3-C D. Rule 3-D
42. Demonstration and Strikes defined in _____of Railway servants(Conduct) Rules

A. Rule 7 B. Rule 4 C. Rule 5 D. Rule 6
43. As per Railway servants(Conduct) Rules, 1966 a Railway servant holding Group C post can
accept gift worth Rs ___ on occassions such as weddings anniversaries funerals or other religious
functions:
A. Rs 25000/- B. Rs 7500/- C. Rs 15000/- D. Rs 500/-
44. Rule 13-A of Railway servants (Conduct) Rules deals with ___
A. Subscription B. Dowry C. Indebtedness D. Gifts
45. Rule_of Railway servants(Conduct) Rules, 1966 speaks about a Railway servant subletting of
Railway accommodation
A. 15(A) B. 15(B) C. 15(C) D. 15(D)
46. Rule____ of Railway servants (Conduct) Rules, 1966 speaks about a Railway servant possessing
movable, immovable and valuable property
A.15 B.16 C.17 D.18
47. An employee can be taken up for bringing outside political influence in service matters in terms
of __________ of Rly. Service conduct Rules.
A. Rule 17 B. Rule 14 C. Rule 20 D. Rule 6
48. Rule____ of Railway servants(Conduct) Rules, speaks about Consumption of intoxicating Drinks
& Drugs
A. Rule 17 B. Rule 14 C. Rule 20 D. Rule 22.
49. In case of loss of IInd class Privilege Pass ------ amount has to be levied as fine.
A.Rs. 5 B.Rs.10 C.Rs. 15 D. Rs. 25
50. When a Railway servant has availed all passes due to him in a current calendar year, _____
number of set of passes/PTO may be issued for journeys commencing in the next year only by
debiting to the next year’s pass account.
A. One B. Two C. Three D Four
Key for Estt MCQs 1 to 50
Q.N Answ Q.N Answ Q.N Answ Q.N Answ Q.N Answ
o. er o. er o. er o. er o. er
1 A 11 B 21 A 31 A 41 C
2 B 12 A 22 A 32 B 42 A
3 B 13 A 23 C 33 C 43 B
4 D 14 A 24 A 34 D 44 B
5 C 15 C 25 A 35 C 45 A
6 B 16 A 26 B 36 B 46 D
7 C 17 C 27 A 37 A 47 C
8 A 18 A 28 D 38 B 48 D
9 B 19 B 29 A 39 B 49 A
10 C 20 C 30 A 40 A 50 A
HOER
1. As per Hours of Employment Rule employees are classified into ________ number of
categories.
A. Four B. Three C. Two D. Six
2. What is the statutory limit of hours of employment of Intensive Category employee in a week?
3. What is the statutory limit of hours of employment of Continuous Category employee in a

week?
A. 60 Hrs B. 45 Hours. C. 75 Hrs. D. 54 Hrs.
4. What is the statutory limit of hours of employment of EI Category employee?

A. 60 Hrs in a week B. 45 Hours in a week. C. 75 Hrs in a week D. 54 Hrs. in a week
5. Standard Hours of duty of Continuous category of employees is _____ hrs in a week.

6. Waiting Room Bearer comes under ________________ Classification

A. Intensive category B. Essentially Intermittent C. Continuous D. Excluded
7. Weekly Hours of duty including P&C of continuous category of employees is------ Hrs.
8. In the case of Continuous category of employees more than ________ hrs of duty is Long on.
A. 6 Hrs B. 12/14 Hours. C. 10 Hrs D. 8 Hrs
9. ___________ is empowered to classify the employment of Railway Servant

A. DRM B. PCPO if delegated by GM C. UPSC D. Rly Board
10. Weekly rest for Essentially Intermittent workers is ________ hrs including a full night in bed.
A. 22 consecutive hrs. B. Not less than 30 consecutive hrs.
C. 24 consecutive hrs. D. Equal to 30 consecutive hrs.
11. Weekly rest of Intensive category of employees is ___________ hrs.

A. 22 consecutive hrs B. Not less than 30 consecutive hrs
C. 24 consecutive hrs D. Equal to 30 consecutive hrs
12. In which category Railway employees employed in confidential related work are Classified?
A. Essentially Intermittent B. Intensive category C. Continuous D. Exclude
13. Maximum how many breaks can be there in a split shift?

A. Two. B. Three C. Four D. Single
14. After how many hours of rest an EI category employee can again be called for duty in a day?
A. 6 Hrs B. 12/14 Hours. C. 10 Hrs D. 8 Hrs.
15. After how many hours of rest an Intensive category employee can again be called for duty in a
day?
A. 6 Hrs B. 12/14 Hours. C. 10 Hrs D. 8 Hrs.
16. Within how many days Compensatory Off can be sanctioned?

A. 30 days B. 60 days C. 45 days D. No limit
17. Rough Assessment Job Analysis is conducted for ---------- hrs?

A. 6 Hrs B. 24Hours. C. 10 Hrs D. 8 Hrs.
18. What is the period of Handing over &Taking over time allowed to TTE at the originating and
destination station of a train?
A. 45 minutes before the departure of the train and 15 minutes after reaching the
destination station.
B. 30 minutes before the departure of the train and 15 minutes after reaching the destination
station.
C. 15 minutes before the departure of the train and 15 minutes after reaching the destination
station.
D. None of the above.
19. Appeal against classification of employment can be made to________-
A. General Manager B. DRM C. Regional Labour Commissioner
D. Branch Officer.
A. Duty Chart B. Roster C. Attendance register
D. Overtime Allowance Register
21. Appointment of Regional Labour Commissioner is made through:

A. Railway Board B. Human Resource Ministry C. Labour Ministry D. Collector
22. The category of employment in which the employee does not get any rest or very little rest in
his duty hours is called:
A. Intensive (B) Continuous (C) Essentially Intermittent (D) Excluded
23. Allowance that is given to Railway servant for performing duty beyond prescribed hours of
employment:
(A) Travelling Allowance (B) Dearness Allowance
(C) Overtime Allowance (D) None among these.
24. Appeal against the orders of Regional Labour Commissioner can be made to Central
Labour Commissioner within ______ days.
A) 30 (B) 60 (C) 90 (D) 180
25. What is the weekly hours of duty of the Railway servants other than Gateman ‘C’
Caretaker of Rest Houses, Chowkidar, Saloon Attendant, who have not been given
Railway accommodation and their residence is 1 .0 Km away from the place of work?
26. Duty period between 22.00hrs to 06.00hrs is treated as Night duty and paid Night duty
allowance (NDA) at hourly rate equal to_______
A. (Basic pay+ DA)/200 B. (Basic pay+ DA)/100. C. (Basic pay)/200 D. None.
27. Which method of Job Analysis is adopted generally for correct classification of employment?
A. Factual Job Analysis B. Rough assessment C. Issuance of certificate D. None
28. HOER provisions are dealt in which chapter of Indian Railway Act 1989
A. Chapter V B. Chapter IX C. Chapter IV D. Chapter XIV
29. Loco Inspector is classified as ___________ under HOER.

A. Continuous B. Excluded C. Essentialli Intermittent D. Intensive
30. Credit given for Engine attendance before departure and after arrival at engine shed is
A. 30 & 45 minutes B. 25 & 30 minutes C. 45 & 15 minutes D. None
31. Credit for Train attendance for goods trains before departure and after arrival are.
A. 30 & 30 minutes. B. 45& 15 minutes C. 30 & 15 minutes D 45 & 30
32. Credit for accompanying engine on trail______ of time spent is given

A. Full credit B. ½ credit C. 1/4th credit D. 3/4th credit
33. Credit for accompanying dead engines ______ of time spent is given
A. Full credit B. ½ credit C. 1/4th credit D. 2/3rd credit
Leave and Pass rules
1. A railway employee can avail maximum -------------- period of days at a stretch in the form of leave.
2. Railways servants liberalized leave rules are came into force from-------
A) 01.02.1949 B) 01.10.1950 C) 01.09.2008 D) 31.08.2000
3. For workshop employees, how many Casual Leaves are eligible in a calendar year?
A) 11 B) 08 C) 10 D) 12
4. Maximum No. of Leave on Average Pays can be accumulated by a railway employee in entire service?
A) 150 B) 200 C)300 D) 250
5. A railway employee can avail maximum -------------- LAPs at a stretch

A) 100 B) 120 C) 150 D)180
6. A railway employee can encash Maximum ---------- no. of LAPs while in service.
A) 180 B) 60 C) 100 D) 120
7. In every calendar year how many LHAPs will be credited in regular employee account?
A) 10 B) 20 C) 30 D)15
8. A railway employee can avail maximum -------------- period of days at a stretch in the form of LHAPs.
A) 12 months B) 18 months C) 24 months D) 36 months
9. A railway employee who completed minimum 1 year regular service can avail Maximum ------------------
No. days as Leave Not Due at a stretch.
10. Regarding Extraordinary Leave which is applicable in the following?

A) Not counted for Service B) Employee would not get salary C) Leaves will not be credited D)
All of these
11. To avail Study Leave minimum regular service required is ---------

12. Study leave can be availed maximum at a stretch ----------- .

A) 2 years B) 1 year C) 3 years D) 6 months
13. A male railway employee can avail ------------ no. of days as Paternity Leave up to two surviving
children.
14. A female railway employee can avail ------------ no. of days as Maternity Leave up to two surviving
children.
15. Female railway employee can extend Maternity leave in medical reasons up to -------------- period by
combining other type of leaves.
A) 1 year B) 2 years C) 6 months D) 1 year 6 months
16. A female railway employee can avail maximum ---------- days in entire service in case of miscarriage.
17. A railway employee can avail ---------------- no. of days in a calendar year to participate in NCC & NSS
programmes.
18. In which of the following is not comes under Special casual Leave.
A) Natural calamity days B) Blood donation day C) Civil obstruction days D) Urgent personnel
work
19. A male employee can avail ------------- No. of working days when he himself under gone for sterilization
operation.
A) 7 B) 9 C) 5 D) 10
20. A female employee can avail ------------- No. of working days when she herself under gone for
sterilization operation.
B) 7 B) 9 C) 5 D) 10
21. Child Care Leave facility is extended for ------------------ in 7 th pay commission.
A) Female employee B) single Male employee C) Group D employee D) Group A Officer
22. A single male employee can avail maximum -------- spells of child care leave in a year.
A) 3 B) 5 C) 7 D) 2
23. A single female employee can avail maximum -------- spells of child care leave in a year.
A) 3 B) 5 C) 7 D) 6
24. Minimum ------------ no. days has to apply in one spell of Child care leave.
A) 3 B) 5 C) 7 D) 6
25. In Child care leave, out of 730 days in entire service, second 365 days employee will get ---------------- %
of salary for month.
A) 75 B) 60 C) 80 D) 50
26. Which portal is used for railway employees for online application of passes?
A) CRIS B) UMID C) RESS D) HRMS
27. Minimum regular service is required for railway employees to get eligibility for post retirement
complimentary passes.
28. Group C employee is eligible for ---------- sets of Post retirement complimentary passes after
completion of 20 years regular service.
A) 3 B) 2 C) 1 D) Nil
29. ____________ pass has been issued for children of employee who are studying outstation in hostel.
A) School cheque B) school card C) special D) Privilege
30. ____________ Pass has been issued for children of employee who are making daily service from
residential place to school place.
B) School cheque B) school card C) special D) Privilege
31. ____________ Single journey passes per year per child has been issued for children of employee who
are studying out station in hostel.
A) 5 B) 3 C) 6 D) 8
32. Widow pass facility was introduced from -----------------

A) 12.03.1987 B) 10.12.1986 C) 01.02.1990 D) 31.08.1980
33. -------------- No. of dependants are allowed in privilege pass of a railway employee.
A) 03 B) 05 C) 02 D) 04
34. If railway employee added any dependant in his pass application --------------- No. of persons are
allowed in pass.
A) 06 B) 04 C) 05 D) 03
35. The privilege pass, issued to Level 6 employee is called as -------- pass.
A) First class B) First Class A C) Second class D) Second Class A
36. In AILTC ----------- of passes/year to be surrendered once in four years in case of Group C & D
employees.
A) 3 sets B) 2 sets C) 6 sets D) 1 set
37. Attendant facility can be utilized from ---------------- and above employees.
A) Level 4 B) level 5 c) level 6 D) level 8
38. With On duty pass, in Mail/Express trains, how many persons can travel in case of level 6 and above
non-gazetted employees
A) One B) two C) one + attendant D) Three
39. With privilege pass in Mail/Express trains how many persons can travel in case of level 6 and above
non-gazetted employees
A) All eligible members B) 5 only C) 6 only D) No limit
40. In case of Group C & D employees how many sets of privilege passes have been issued up to 5 years of
service?
A) Self only B) 1 set C) 3 sets D) 4 sets
41. With privilege pass in Rajadhani /Duranto type special trains, level 6 and above non gazetted employee
in 2AC how many persons are entitled?
A) Not eligible B) 2 only C) One only D) All eligible members
42. In HRMS portal, the employee user ID contains ----

A) 6 English alphabets B) 6 numerical digits C) 8 English alphabets D) 8 numerical digits
43. Group A & B officers are eligible for ------------- no. of sets of privilege passes per calendar year.
A) 3 sets B) 5 sets C) 6 sets D) 4 sets
44. Group A & B officers are eligible for ------------- no. of sets of post retirement complimentary passes per
calendar year.
A) 3 sets B) 5 sets C) 6 sets D) 4 sets
45. Half set of P.T.O validity period is -------

A) 5 months B) 3 months C) 4 months D) 2 and half month
46. Year ending passes validity period is up to ---------

A) 31st December B) 30th September C) 30th May D) 30th April
47. Advance pass can be availed on or after -------------

A) 1st August B) 1st July C) 1st October D) 1st September
48. The privilege pass eligibility for step son of railway employee is --------
A) Not eligible B) up to 33 yrs C) up to 21 yrs D) up to 18 yrs
49. The privilege pass eligibility for daughter of railway employee is --------
A) Not eligible B) up to 33 yrs C) up to 21 yrs D) up to marriage
50. The income limit for dependent to get eligibility in pass is ------------
A) 9,000/month B) 10,000/month C) 15% basic pay of employee D) both A & C but whichever is
more
Answer Sheet
Q.No. Answe Q.No. Answer

r
1 D 26 D
2 A 27 C
3 B 28 B
4 C 29 A
5 D 30 B
6 B 31 C
7 B 32 A
8 C 33 C
9 B 34 C
10 D 35 A
11 C 36 A
12 B 37 C
13 B 38 A
14 C 39 A
15 B 40 B
16 C 41 C
17 D 42 A
18 D 43 C
19 C 44 A
20 D 45 A
21 B 46 C
22 A 47 D
23 D 48 C
24 B 49 D
25 C 50 D
GENERAL BIT BANK
1. Indian railway institute of electrical engineering is situated at ………………. (Nasik).

2. Indian railway institute of transport management is situated at ………………. (Lucknow).
3. Indian railway institute of civil engineering is situated at ………………. (Pune).
4. Indian Railway institute of mechanical and electrical engineering is situated at ------- (Jamalpur)
5. Apprentices are also eligible for paternity/maternity leaves. True or false (True).
6. Leave is not a ………………. (Right).
7. ………………. Is not a penalty (Suspension).
8. As for official language rule – 1976, India is divided into three regions………………. (A, B, C).
9. Total number of railway stations on Indian railway is ………………. (7092).
10. In case of transfer, admissible joining time is ………………. If actual distance between old and new HQ is more than
………………. (12 days, 1000 km).
11. In case of transfer, admissible joining time is ………………. If actual distance between old and new HQ is 1000 km or
less. (10 days).
12. In case of transfer, admissible joining time is ………………. If actual distance between old and new HQ is more than
………………. (15 days, 2000 km).
13. ………………. Is to be issued for revocation of suspension order (SF-4).
14. ………………. Is to be issued for imposition of major penalty. (SF-5).
15. DAR shall not apply to any member of ………………. .(All India service/R.P.F)
16. There are ………………. Rules under DAR 1968.(31)
17. ………………. Is to be issued for imposition of minor penalty. (SF-11)
18. A railway servant placed under suspension, is eligible for ……………. Allowance. (Subsistence)
19. Plan head- 17 is covers ………………. . (Computerization)
20. Plan head -33 covers ………………. . ( Signal and tele-communication works)
21. DRF stands for ………………. . (Depreciation Reserve Fund)
22. At division level the ………………. Is the officer in-charge of the building.(DRM)
23. If an employee works more than maximum number of hours fixed, he would be entitled for over time at
………………. the ordinary rates of wages. (Double)
24. No pension is paid for service less than ……………….(10 years)
25. When the employment is terminated, wages shall be paid before the expiry of the ………………. after termination.
(2nd day)
26. The employee is not permitted to take up ………………. During the period of leave.(Any employment)
27. An employee shall be deemed to have been suspended, if he remains in police custody for exceeding -----------
hours.(48 hours)
28. Within ………………. daysthe employee should submit his explanation in the case of minor penalty.(10 days)
29. Supervisory staff comes under ………………. Category.(Excluded)
30. Capital budget is used for ……………….(Assets/infrastructure development)
31. Railway board expenditure comes under demand no ……………….(01)
32. Plan head-21 is for……………….(Rolling stock)
33. Amenities for staff come under plan head………………..(52)
34. Indian railway institute of signal engineering & telecommunication (IRISET) is situated at ……………….
(Secunderabad)
35. Children below the age of ………………. Should not be employed in a factory or workshop.(15)
36. “Occupational disease” comes under ………………. Of WCA.(Schedule III)
37. The workshop staff will be entitled for ……………….in a year including ………………. National holidays.(15 holidays,03)
38. The no.of restricted holidays permittedfor employees working in administrative office is ------(02)
39. ……………….types of pass are there in Indian railways.(07)
40. During suspension period ………………. Will not be sanctioned.(Leave)
41. During suspension period resignation will be………………. Normally.(Accepted)
42. Withholding of passes or PTO or both is a ………………. (Minor penalty)
43. Withholding of promotion for a specific period is a ………………. (Minor penalty)
44. Wages shall be paid on a ………………. (Working day)
45. ISO is a ………………. Non government body.(Independent)
46. The staff is entitled for ………… % of pay and allowance during suspension.(50% of pay)
47. ………………. Is used for appointment of an enquiry officer. (SF-7)
48. ………………. Is used when using a charge sheet in case of common proceedings.(SF-10)
49. Common proceeding charge sheets are issued in case where ………………. employeesare involved for the same
offence.(two or more )
50. ………………. May be allowed with free luggage allowance admissible on privilege pass.(Motor cycle, cycle, scooter)
51. LAP can be ………………. Or ……………….to holidays.(Prefixed, Suffixed)
52. LAP has to availed after ………………..(Prior sanction)
53. ……………….can be granted for half day.(CL)
54. CL cannot be combined with anyother leave except ……………. . (Compensatory CL/ SCL)
55. Total no. Of CL can be availed at a time is ……………. (No limit)
56. The family pension is calculated ……………. Of last basic pay drawn by the employee. (30%)
57. Minimum service required for post-retirement complementary passes is ---------- (20 years)
58. Group – C employee with service of 20 years and above gets …………… complementary passes per year.(02)
59. Gazetted officer with service of 20 years and above gets …………… complementary passes per year.(03)
60. Group – D employee with service of 20 years and above gets …………… complementary passes per year.(02)
61. Leave not due can be granted during entire service to a permanent employee is maximum ……………. (360 days)
62. Railway servant, who takes CL, while on tour, is not entitled to draw daily allowances for the ……………. (Availed
leave period)
63. Total no of Child Care Leave that can be availed in entire service is ……………. (730 days)
64. Travelling allowance is admissible to railway servants, when they travelled on tour beyond a radius of ………. (8 km)
65. If absence from HQ does not exceed 6 hours the …………… “TA” is admissible. (30%)
66. If absence from HQ is between 6-12 hours the …………… “TA” is admissible.(70%)
67. If absence from HQ is above 12 hours the …………… “TA” is admissible. (100%)
68. …………… will have the powers to sanction of daily allowance at the rates beyond the first 60 days.(HOD)
69. Rate of daily allowances for railway servants, from level 9 to 11 is ……………. (Rs.900)
70. Rate of daily allowances for railway servants, from level 6 to 8 is ……………. (Rs.800)
71. Rate of daily allowances for railway servants,from level 1 to 5 is……………. (Rs. 500)
72. The daily allowance shall automatically increase by …………… when DA on the revised pay structure goes up by
…………… . (25%,50%)
73. National Holiday allowance for level 6 to 8 non-gazetted staff is --------- (Rs.630)
74. Children education allowance and hostel subsidy at the revised monthly rates are Rs. …………… to Rs. ……………
respectively per child.(Rs.2250,Rs.6750)
75. TA for Level 1 to 8 in 7th CPC in A1/A cities/towns is ……………. (Rs. 3600+DA)
76. TA for Level 1 to 8 in 7th CPC in other places is ……………..( Rs. 1800 +DA)
77. Night duty allowance for Level-6 (GP 4200) in 7 th CPC is -------- (Rs.141.65)
78. Night duty allowance for Level-7 (GP 4600) in 7 th CPC is -------- (Rs.143.80)
79. For participation in sports events …………… leave will be granted.(Special casual leave)
80. …………… is granted to railway servant transferred in public interest to enable him a new post either at same
station or at a new station.(Joining time)
81. Decode ENIAC …………… . (Electronic Numeric Integrator and Calculator)
82. 1 kb is equivalent to …………… bytes.(1024)
83. Deleted files are stored in the …………… , until it is emptied. ( Recycle bin)
84. The default page margins can be changed by going to …………… from the file menu. (Page set up)
85. To input a special symbol not present in the keyboard, you will go to the symbol option from the …………… menu.
( Input)
86. To enter a text in a power point slide you should be in the …………… view. (Design)
87. Readymade slide design in power point are called…………… . (Templates)
88. In excel, …………… are labeled as A,B,C . (Columns)
89. The intersection of a row and a column in a spread sheet is called …………… . (Cell)
90. A spread sheet with levels and formulas field in for a specific application is called a …………… . (Template)
91. Moving from one site to another on the internet is called …………… . (Surfing)
92. Links from one page to another on the WWW are called …………… . (Hyperlinks)
93. You need a software called a…………… to access website.(Browser)
94. To unscramble a message in the process of …………… . (Decryption )
95. A …………… is a program that replicated itself and spread from one computer to another. (Worm)
96. When any web page is saved, it is automatically give the extension …………… . (HTML)
97. If a system has the capability of organizing, processing and retrieving data, it can be called a …………… management
system.(Database)
98. …………… view helps to enter and display data and insert, delete, rename or move a field in an existing table.
(Datasheet)
99. You can search records in a data base by using the …………… records option. (Filtering)
100. …………… key in a table uniquely identifies each record in a table. (Primary)
101. Full form of HTML …………… . (Hyper text markup language)
102. An HTML document should begin with a …………… tag. (Opening)
103. The process of opening multiple windows at same time is called …………… . (Multi tasking)
104. The process of breaking and tampering with computer system is called …………… . (Hacking)
105. The process of scrambling messages to make it unreadable is called …………… . (Encryption)
106. Copying another person’s work and presenting it as one’s own work is known as …………… . (Plagiarism)
107. Decode JPEG ……………. (Joint photographic experts group)
108. Small picture elements on a computer screen are called ……………. (Pixels)
109. The head of mechanical department at Zonal level is …………… . (PCME)
110. The head of mechanical department at Railway Board is …………… . (Member Rolling Stock)
111. The first train was introduced between …………… . (Thane to Boribunder)
112. The first train was introduced on Indian soil on …………… . (16 thapril 1853)
113. The present RKM is around …………… .(68000 approx)
114. South central railway consists of …………… divisions. (6)
115. The longest train Himsagar express travels between …………… . (Jammu to kanyakumari)
116. RITES stands for…………… . (Rail india technical economic services limited)
117. CFI stands for -------- (Consolidated Fund of India)
118. RRSK stands for ------ (Rashtriya Rail SanrakshaKosh)
119. South Central Railway spread over …………… states. (6)
120. Indian railways divided into …………… zones.(17)
121. National Academy of Indian Railways (NAIR) is situated at …………… . (Vadodara)
122. IRIMEE is situated at …………… . (Jamalpur)
123. IRPSM stands for ____ (Indian Railways Projects Sanctions and Management)
124. ICMS stands for ____ (Integrated Coaching Management System)
125. Son, up to the age of …………… is included in a pass. (21)
126. Maximum leave that can be granted at a stretch is…………… . (5 years)
127. During leave period employee should not take up any …………… . (Employment)
128. Present leave rules are governed by …………… . (Liberalized leave rules 1949)
129. Liberalized leave rules come into effect from …………… . (01.02.1949)
130. Maximum LAP that can be availed at a time is …………… . (180 days)
131. No. Of direct workers required is calculated by dividing total hours by …………… . (267)
132. …………… % of leave reserve is added to the DW, in man power planning. (12.5%)
133. List of the occupational disease are given in the ---------- schedule of ECA (Schedule-III)
134. In case of injury to cover under WCA, it must cause a temporary disablement for a period of atleast …………… days.
(03)
135. Minimum compensation for death under ECA---------------(Rs.120000)
136. Minimum compensation for permanent total disablement under ECA-------(Rs. 140000)
137. Wage limit for the purpose of calculation of compensation under ECA is …………… .(Rs.8000)
138. Relevant factor of ECA depends on …………… . (Age of employee)
139. % loss of earning capacity of a work man for various types of injuries is indicated in the ------------ schedule of WCA
(01)
140. --------- schedule of WCA indicates the list of persons included in the category of the workman and entitled for the
payment of compensation (Schedule -2)
141. Employer’s pleas are not applied in case of …………… of the workman. (Death)
142. Paternity leave period is …………… . (15 days)
143. ½ day LAP is sanctioned to workshop staff for …………… and …………… staff. (Artisan,Group-D)
144. After completing his studies under study leave an employee should serve for atleast …………… years.(03)
145. School staff is eligible for …………… LHAP in a year.(20 days)
146. …………… is issued incase of minor penalties. (SF-XI)
147. …………… is issued in case of major penalties. (SF-V)
148. LHAP is sanctioned on the grounds of …………… . (Medical certificate)
149. Option of 4 sets of PTO’s are came into effect from …………… . (12-03-1987)
150. Employees appointed after 1987 are eligible for …………… sets of PTO’s. (4 sets)
151. Employees working in shifts are not eligible for …………… CL. ( Half day)
152. Leave not due can be sanctioned -------- days in one’s entire carrier (360)
153. Censure is …………… penalty. (Minor)
154. SF-V is issued along with …………… of charges. (Article)
155. Statutory hours for intensive category are …………… hours per week. (45)
156. Statutory hours for essential intermittent category are …………… hours per week. (75)
157. Statutory hours for continuous category are …………… hours per week.(54)
158. Rest hours of an employee under intensive category are …………… hours per week. (30)
159. Rest period of an employee under essential intermittent is …………… hours per week. (24)
160. Enquiry officer is appointed by …………… authority. (Disciplinary)
161. …………… counselor argues on behalf of delinquent employee. (Defense)
162. TTE, Guards comes under …………… category. (Continuous)
163. Expansion of HOER is …………… . (Hours of employment regulation)
164. …………… is responsible for payment of wages. (Employer)
165. For how many workers a first-aid box is to be maintained …………… . (More than 150)
166. For how many workers an ambulance is to be maintained …………… . (More than 500)
167. When canteen facility should be provided …………… . (More than 250 are employed)
168. Shelter, rest room and lunch room are provided when more than …………… are employed. (150)
169. The maximum number of hours an adult workers should work in a week is …………… . (48)
170. What is the minimum spread over time included rest ? …………… . (10.5)
171. Women worker should not be employed to work between …………… to …………… hours. (7PM,6AM)
172. Crèche is provided when more than …………… women workers are employed. (30 women)
173. A welfare officer is appointed when more than …………… workers are employed.(500)
174. The maximum wage period is …………… . (1 month)
175. By what time wages are to be paid, in case of less the 1000 are employed?…………… . (7 th day)
176. By what time wages are to be paid in case of 1000 or more are employed? …………… . (10 thday)
177. Minimum family pension is …………… . (Rs.9000)
178. The minimum service required for sanction of pension is …………… . (10 years)
179. The maximum amount of pension that can be commuted is …………… . (40%)
180. Pensioner would be entitled to have commuted portion of pension restored to them on expiry of …………… from
the date of requirement. (15 years)
181. The qualifying service required for pensionable staff to accept voluntary retirement is …………… years. (20)
182. The dearness relief is payable on …………… pension. (Full)
183. Maximum amount of gratuity payable to retired railway employee is Rs. …………… . (10 lakh)
184. The number of clauses in ISO 9001:2015 is …………… . (10)
185. The HQ’s of ISO are at …………… . (Geneva)
186. Full form of ISO …………… . (International organization for standardization)
187. ISO speaks about …………… improvement. (Continual)
188. The full form of QMS …………… . (Quality management system)
189. ISO 9001:2015, clause – 1 tells about …………… . (Scope)
190. Plan head – 41 covers …………… . (M&P)
191. SRSF stands for …………… . (Special railway safety fund)
192. …………… is the sanctioning authority for work more than 1 crore. (Railway board)
193. The validity of M&P item sanctioned by the railway board is …………… years. (5)
194. A amount of replacement of over aged equipment is taken from …………… . (DRF)
195. When a project of works program is likely to increase then …………… estimate is submitted. (Revised)
196. All the works costing less than…………… of various departments is included in law book. (2.5 crores)
197. DRM’s power for sanction of work of value upto ……………. (30 lakh)
198. Plan head – 53 covers ……………. (Passenger amenities)
199. Demand no. – 16 related to …………… category. (Works demand)
200. Green book contains information about …………… . (SRSF)
201. At zonal level, works program is delivered in the form of …………… .(LSWP)
202. List of approved works book is delivered at …………… level. (Zonal)
203. Plan head – 42 is for …………… . (Workshops and production units)
204. All preliminary and final works program are sanctioned by the parliament in the form of …………… . (Pink book)
205. Rolling stock program for 3 years is known as …………… . (Bulk RSP)
206. Bulk RSP has to be approved by …………… . (Railway Board)
207. SRSF is published in …………… book. (Green)
208. Bulk RSP is listed in …………… book. (Pink)
209. Plan head no. For rolling stock program is …………… . (2100)
210. GM’s power for sanction of works program of value upto …………… . (1 crore)
211. All the works costing above …………… crores of various departments are included in pink book. (2.5 crore)
212. Nodal officer for works program is …………… . (Chief engineer)
213. Nodal officer for M&P program is …………… . (CME)
214. SF-I is issued for …………… . (Suspension)
215. SF-II is issued for …………… . (Deemed Suspension)
216. PIO for RTI Act at Divisional level is ---------- (Sr.DPO)
217. Maximum period to get information under RTI Act is -------- (Within 30 days)
218. For whom the RTI is not applicable ______ (Foreigners)
219. PIO for RTI Act in Zonal Level is --------- (PCPO)
220. ----- is the largest Zone in Indian Railways(Eastern Railway)
221. EMD stands for ---------------(Earnest Money Deposit)
222. EMD is----- % of estimated tender value up to Rs.1 Crore. (2%)
223. Estimated tender value is more than One crore, EMD will be --- ( Rs.2 Lakhs +1/2% of Balance above Rs. One Crore
subject to maximum of Rs.1 Crore)
224. GCC stands for ---( General Conditions of Contract)
225. In Tenders and Contracts, PVC stands for --- (Price Variation Clause)
226. In Tenders and Contracts, SD stands for ---(Security Deposit)
227. Security Deposit for each work should be ----- % of the contract value (5 ).
228. The successful bidder should give a performance guarantee amounting ---- of Contract Value. (5%)
229. In Tenders and Contracts, SVC stands for ------- (Statutory Variation Clause)
230. ISO 14000 tells about --------System requirement.( Environment Management)
231. ----------is a psychological act which attracts the workers to do more(Motivation)
232. Upward communication is from -------- to ----------(Workers , Management)
233. Downward communication is from --------- to ---------(Management, Workers)
234. Annual report of the industry is a ----------channel of communication (Downward)
235. Grievance / complaint procedure is a ---------channel of communication (Upward)
236. Giving punishment is --------type of motivation (Negative)
237. Giving more responsible job is ----------type of motivation(Positive)
238. Internal motivation and freedom are -------------of the employee(Internal motives)
239. Internal motivation starts from the------ needs of the individual (Ego)
240. Leader should have ------ and ---------(Faith and Respect)
241. In fixed delivery contract ---------------is fixed (Rate, Quantity & delivery period).
242. Late tenders are those tenders which are received after ---------time (Opening).
243. Delayed tenders are those tenders received between ----------time (Closing & Opening).
244. In-active items are those items which have no issues for ---- months (12)
245. Railway servant holding Group’C’ post shall not accept the gifts exceeding the value of Rs------ (7,500)
246. Stores budget is a part of demand no --------- (16)
247. The plan head for stores suspense is _____(PH-71)
248. In case of rate contract ______ is stipulated (Only Rate)
249. IREPS stands for ____ (Indian Railways Electronic Procurement system)
250. Head of the department at zonal level is ---------- (SDGM)
251. S1313 form is used for -------- (To draw the stores other than imprest stores)
252. --------- Form is used for drawing stock items other than imprest stores(S1313)
253. --------- Form is used to draw the imprest stores (S1830)
254. ‘SEIRI’ means _________ (Sort)
255. ‘SEITON’ means _______ (Set in order/Simplify)
256. ‘SEISO’ means __________ (Shine/sweeping/cleaning)
257. ‘SEIKETSU’ means __________ (Standardise)
258. ‘SHITSUKE’ means ____________ (Sustain)
259. ‘KAIZEN’ means ___________ (Continuous improvement)
260. MMIS stands _______ (Material Management Information System)
261. “iMMIS” stands for___________ (Integrated materials management information system)
262. GeM stands for________(Government e-Market place)
263. GeM is meant for________ (facilitate online procurement of common use Goods & Services required by
various GovernmentDepartments / Organizations / PSUs.)
264. GeM aims at_______ (to enhance transparency, efficiency and speed in public procurement)
265. Expand WRIL ______ ( Work Related Illness and Injury Leave)
266. Expand AIMS in the context of railway accounts --------- (Accounts Information Management System)
267. Expand IPAS in the context of railway accounts --------- (Integrated Payroll & Accounting System)
268. Expand IRPSM _______(Indian Railways Projects Sanctions and Management)
269. Expand CMS _______(Crew Management System)
270. Expand IRIS _______(International Railway Industry Standard)
271. Expand AEBAS ______ (Aadhar Enabled Bio-Metric Attendance System)
Questions and Answers on Rajbhasha for Departmental Examinations
1) On which date, Part XVII of the Constitution was passed in Parliament?

A) 14.09.1949. B) 14.09.1950
C) 14.09.1963 D) 14.09.1976
2) When was the Official Languages Act 1963 passed?

A) 10.05.1949 B) 10.05.1963
C) 10.05.1952 D) 10.05.1969
3) When was the Official Languages Act 1963 amended?
A) 1976 B) 1963 C) 1964 D) 1967
4) When is ‘Hindi Day’ celebrated every year?

A) September 14 B) January 26
C) September 24 D) February 14
5) What is the Official Language of Arunachal Pradesh?

A) Hindi B) Urdu C) English D) Kashmiri
6) From when did the Section 3(3) of Official Languages Act take effect?
A) 26 February 1966 B) 26 January 1965
C) 26 January 1972 D) 26 January 1959
7) In which state, Sections 6 & 7 of Official Languages Act 1963 do not apply?
A) Tamilnadu B) Telangana
C) Delhi D) Jammu & Kashmir
8) In which states, Urdu has been declared as Official Language?

A) Tamilnadu & Kerala B) Andhra Pradesh & Bihar
C) Uttar Pradesh &Haryana D) Jammu Kashmir & Delhi.
9) Please mention the states coming under ‘B’ Region.

A) Gujarat, Maharashtra, Punjab, Chandigarh, Dadra & Nagar Haveli and
Daman & Diu
B) Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Tamilnadu
C) Madhya Pradesh, Kerala, Odisha
D) Jammu Kashmir, Delhi, Rajasthan
10) When was the Official Language Rules passed?

A) 1981 B) 1963 C) 1976 D) 1952
11) Which Article comes under Part-VI?
A) Article 209 B) Article 370 C) Article 375 D) Article
210
12) In which year, Hindi (Parliament) Section was established in Railway Board?
A) In/ the year 1960 B) In/ the year 1956
C) In/ the year 1976 D) In/ the year 1977
13) How many Hindi courses are prescribed for Central Govt. employees?
A) 4 B) 3 C) 5 D) 6
14) Who is the Chairman of Central Hindi Committee?

A) Prime Minister B) Chief Minister
C) Education Minister D)Finance Minister
15) When was the present Parliamentary Committee on Official Language constituted ?
A)January 1956 B) January 1976
C) January 1977 D) January 1982
16) How many members are there in the Parliamentary Committee on Official Language?
A)70 B) 40 C) 50 D)30
17) At present, how many Sub-Committees are there in the Parliamentary Committee on
Official Language?
A) 3 Sub-Committees B) 2 Sub-Committees
C) 01 Sub-Committees D) None of the above
18) What is the periodicity of the meeting of Town Official Language

Implementation Committee?
A) Once/ in 2 months B) Once/ in 3 months
C) Once/ in 5 months D) Once/ in 8 months
19) How many times is the Regular Hindi examination conducted in a year?
A) 1 Times B) 3 Times C) 4 Times D) 2 Times
20) In which months, Regular Hindi examinations are conducted ?

A) August &September B) June &July
C) May & November D) December & April
21) Who are all the employees classified under Category ‘A’?
A)Those employees whose mother tongue is Hindi or Hindustani or its
dialect.
B) Those employees whose mother tongue is Bengali
C) Those employees whose mother tongue is Guajarati
D) Those employees whose mother tongue is Tamil
22) Who are all the employees classified under Category ‘C’?
A) Those employees whose mother tongue is Marathi, Gujarati,
Bengali, Oriya or Assamese.
B) Those employees whose mother tongue is Telugu
C) Those employees whose mother tongue is kannada
D) Those employees whose mother tongue is Bengali
23) What is the lumpsum award for passing Pragya?

A) Rs 2800/- B) Rs 2400/- C) Rs 3200/- D)Rs 4600/-
24) What is the Cash Award amount for the first prize under Collective Cash award
Scheme
A) Rs 1500/- B) Rs 2000/- C) Rs 1000/- D) Rs 5000/-
25) What is the Cash Award amount for the second prize under Collective Cash award
Scheme
A) Rs.1000/- B) Rs.1500/- C) Rs 1200 /- D) Rs.1600 र/-
26) What is the language of Indian union?
A) Hindi in devinagiri script
27) Which group of official language comes under Andaman and

nicobar islands?
A) Region B B)Region A C) Region D) A and B are correct
28) Who was the First Chairman of the Committee which was formed on the recommendation of
the Official Language Commission?
A) Shri.B.G.Keira B) Shri.D.Ambedkar C) Shri. G.B.Pant. D) Smt.Sarojini Naidu
29) As per the Constitution, who is translating the statutory rules, regulations and orders?
A) Law Ministry B)Home Ministry C)Ministry of Defence D) Ministry of Human resource
30) Which Article comes under Part-VI?

A) Article 210 B)Article 370 C) Article 375 D)Article 290
31) Who chaired the First Railway Hindi Salahkaar Samiti constituted in 1973 ?
A) Shri.Lalit Narayan Mishra B) Shri.Rajender Kumar C)Shri.R.K.Narayan D) Shri.Abdul Kalam
32) In which year, Hindi (Parliament) Section was established in Railway Board ?
A) In/ the year 1960 B) In/ the year 1980 C) In/ the year 1970 D) In/ the year 1962
33) What are the states that come under Region ‘A’
Bihar, Jharkhand, Delhi, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Rajasthan, Uttar
Pradesh, Uttaranchal and Andaman & Nicobar Island group.
34) What are all the states that come under Region ‘C’ ?
Region ‘C’ means the States and Union Territories other than those referred to in Region ‘A’ and ‘B’.
Tamilnadu, Kerala, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, West Bengal, Goa, Jammu & Kashmir, Assam,
Nagaland, Meghalaya, Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Tripura, Mizoram, Manipur, Union Territory of
Pondicherry and Lakshadweep
35) What is the scheme implemented by Railway Board for doing work in Hindi ?
A) Rajbhasha Individual Cash Award Scheme
B) Rajiv Gandhi Award
C)Rajbhasha Shield
D)Home ministry individual medal
36) Who is the Chairman of Central Hindi Committee?

A)Chief Minister B)Prime Minister C) Home minister D) President
37) Which Committee reviews the progress made in the propagation of Hindi in a particular
Ministry/Department ?
A) Hindi Salahkaar Samiti
B)Hindi Rules Committee
C)Home ministry Committee
D) Rajbhasha Committee
38) When was the present Parliamentary Committee on Official Language constituted ?
A) January 1956 B)January 1976 C) January 1986 D) January 1977
39) At present, how many Sub-Committees are there in the Parliamentary Committee on Official
Language?
A)3 Sub-Committee B)2 Sub-Committee C)1 Sub-Committee D)None of the above
40) What is the periodicity of the meeting of Town Official Language Implementation Committee?
A) Once in 3/months B) Once in 2/months C)Once in 4/Months D) Once in 6 months
41) Who prepares the Annual Programme on Official Language?

A) Ministry of Home Affairs
B) Ministry of Railways
C) Parliamentary Committee
D) City official Language Committee
42) What are the Hindi courses prescribed for Central Govt.employees ?
Prabodh, Praveen & Pragya
43) What are the training facilities available to a Central Govt. employee to get trained in the Hindi
courses?
A) Regular, Intensive, Correspondence and Private
B) Intensive course
C)Correspondence
D)Regular
44) How many times are the Regular Hindi examination conducted in a year?
A) 4 B)2 C)3 D)5
45) In which months, Regular Hindi examinations are conducted?
A) May & November B) June &July C) August & September D) December & April
46) What is the Cash Award amount for the third prize under Collective Cash award Scheme?
A) 800 B)1000 C)1200 D)None of the above
47) How many second prizes are given in a year for writing more than 10,000 words in one unit?
A)4 B)3 C)5 D)10
48) What is the lumpsum award for passing Hindi Typewriting Examination by private study?
A)1600 B) 1400 C)1300 D)1100
49) What is the Foreign Language included in the Eight Schedule?
A)Hindi B) Bengali C)Bhojpuri D)Nepali
50) Who all are eligible for Personal Pay?
passing Pragya Examination organized by the HTS of the Central Government or on passing the
prescribed exam. Duly securing the specified % of marks for certain categories by the Central
Government.

Questions and Answers Bank on Rajbhasha
I. CONSTITUTIONAL PROVISIONS OF OFFICIAL LANGUAGE
1. What is the Official Language of Union of India?

Hindi in Devanagari Script
2. Which form of numerals are to be used for official purposes of the Union?
International form of Indian numerals
3. Which part of the Constitution contains provisions regarding Official Language?

Part XVII
4. On which date Part XVII of the Constitution was passed in Parliament?

14.09.1949
5. How many chapters are there in Part XVII of the Constitution?
4 Chapters
6. How many articles are there in the Part XVII of the Constitution?
9 Articles
7. What are all the nine Articles covered under Part XVII of the Constitution?
Article 343 to 351
8. In which part and in which article of the constitution provision regarding the language to be used
for Transaction of business in Parliament exists?
Article 120 of Part V
9. In which part and in which article of the constitution provision regarding the language to be used for
transaction of business in State Legislatures exists?
Article 210 of Part VI
10. Which article of the constitution contain provision regarding the language to be used in courts etc.?
Article 348 & 349
11. Which article of the constitution contain provision regarding the official language of Union of India?
Article 343 & 344
12. Which article of the constitution contain provision regarding the official language of States?
Article 345
13. As per Article 343(1) of the constitution when Hindi became the official language of the Union of
India?
26.01.1965
14. Name the articles of the constitution which in their provisions contain reference to Eighth Schedule
of the constitution?
Article 344(1) & 351
1
15. In which part of the constitution are the articles 343-351, that gives information about
Official Language available?
Part XVII (In the Seventeenth Part)
16. At present how many languages are enlisted in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution?
Twenty-two
17. When the Constitution was adopted, how many languages were included in the Eighth Schedule
initially? Fourteen
18. In which year Maithili, Bodo, Dogri and Santhali were added to the Eighth Schedule later?
2003
19. In which year Sindhi was added to the Eighth Schedule?

1963
th
20. In which year Nepali, Konkani & Manipuri were added to the 8 Schedule?
1992
th
21. Which one is the foreign language included in the 8 Schedule?
Nepali
22. Which is the Official Language of Arunachal Pradesh?

English
23. When was Official Language Act 1963 passed?

10.05.1963
24. when did the section 3(3) of the Official Language Act take effect?
26 January 1965
25. When was the official Language Act, 1963 was amended?
1967
26. How many sections are there in the Official Language Act 1963, as amended in the year 1967?
9 Sections
27. Name the sections of Official Languages Act 1963(as amended in 1967) which are not applicable to
Jammu & Kashmir?
Section 6 & 7
28. With which section 7 of Official Language Act,1963 is concerned?

It is concerned with optional use of Hindi or other Official Language in Judgements in High Courts.
29. Why was the Official Languages Act 1963 passed?

For making provision regarding continued use of English along with Hindi even after 1965
30. When was Resolution on Official Language passed by Parliament?

18.01.1968
31. When was Official Languages Rules passed?

1976
2
32. When was Official Languages Rules amended?
1987
33. Into how many Regions Indian states have been classified, according to Official Languages Rules?
Three Regions
34. What are all the 3 Regions as classified under Official Languages Rules?
A, B & C Region
35. How many States and Union Territories are there in Region ‘A’?
9 States & 1 NCT Delhi, 1 Union Territory.
36. How many States and Union Territories are there in Region ‘B’?
States & 2 Union Territory
37. When is “Hindi Day” celebrated every year?

th
14 September
38. Which are the states that come under Region ‘A’?
States: (i) Uttar Pradesh (ii) Uttaranchal (iii) Bihar (iv)Jharkhand (v) Haryana
(vi)Himachal Pradesh (vii)Madhya Pradesh (viii)Chhattisgarh
(ix) Rajasthan
Union Territory: (i) Andaman & Nicobar Island group
NCT: (i) Delhi
39. Which are the states that come under Region ‘B’?
States: (i) Maharashtra (ii) Gujarat (iii) Punjab
Union Territory: (i) Chandigarh (ii) Daman and Diu and
(iii) Dadar and Nagar Haveli
40. Which are the states that come under Region ‘C’?
States: (i) Karnataka (ii) Tamilnadu (iii) Kerala (iv) Andhra Pradesh (v)
Telangana (vi) Odisha (vii)West Bengal (viii)Goa (ix)Jammu and
Kashmir (x) Assam (xi) Nagaland (xii) Meghalaya (xiii) Arunachal
Pradesh (xiv) Sikkim (xv) Tripura (xvi)Mizoram (xvii) Manipur
Union Territory: (i) Puducherry (ii) Lakshadweep
41. Who is responsible for the compliance of provisions of Official Languages Act and rules?
Administrative Head of each Central Government Office
42. Which Ministry takes important decisions pertaining to Official Language?

Ministry of Home Affairs
43. According to Official Languages Rules, Tamilnadu falls under which region?
Region ‘C’
44. According to Official Languages Rules, Andaman & Nicobar Islands fall under which region?
Region ‘A’
45. Which are the Union Territories classified under Region "B”?
Chandigarh, Daman & Diu, Dadar and Nagar Haveli
3
46. States in which Urdu has been declared as one of the Official Language?
Telangana, Bihar, Jharkhand, Uttar Pradesh and Delhi.
47. Who was the Charmian of the First Official Language Commission?
Shri Bal Gangadhar Kher
48. Who was the First Chairman of the Committee Which was formed on the recommendation of the
Official Language Commission?
Shri Govind Ballabh Pant
49. Who was the First Chairman of the Parliamentary Committee on Official Language constituted in the
year 1976?
The then Home Minister Shri Om Mehta
50. Who chaired the First Railway Hindi Salahakaar Samiti constituted in 1973?
Shri Lalit Narayan Mishra
51. As per the Constitution, who is translating the Statutory Rules, Regulations and Orders?
Law Ministry
52. Which was the Main Language and Co-Official Language used for the Official Purpose of the Union
of India up to 1965?
English was the Main Language and Hindi was the Co-Official Language.
53. Which Committee of the Committee on Parliament on Official Language prepared the Draft?
Drafting & Evidence Sub-Committee of the Committee of Parliament on Official Language.
40. In which year the post of Hindi Assistant was created in Railway Board in compliance of President’s
order?
In the General Branch of Railway Board in the year 1952.
41. In which year, Hindi (Parliament) Section was established in Railway Board?
In the year 1960.
42. In which year, the Hindi Translation of Railway Budget was prepared and who was the Railway
Minister?
In the year 1956, Late Shri Lal Bahadur Shastri.
II. COMMITTEES ON OFFICIAL LANGUAGE

1. Who is the Chairman of Central Hindi Samiti (Committee)?
Prime Minister
2. The Central Hindi Samiti (Committee) comes under which Ministry?

The Ministry of Home Affairs
3. After Independence, initially which Ministry was entrusted the duty of training Central Government
Staff in Hindi?
Education Ministry.
4. Which committee review the progress made in the propagation of Hindi in a particular
4
5. When was the Parliamentary Committee on Official Language constituted?
January 1975
6. How many members are there in the Parliamentary Committee on Official Language?
30 Members
7. How many Lok Sabha members are there in the Parliamentary Committee on Official Language?
20 Members
8. How many Rajya Sabha members are there in the Parliamentary Committee on Official Language?
10 Members
9. At present, how many Sub-Committees are there in the Parliamentary Committee on Official
Language?
3 Sub-Committees
10. Which Sub-Committee of Parliamentary Committee on Official Language, inspects the offices
of Railway Ministry?
nd
2 Sub-Committee
11. What is the expansion for OLIC used by Dept. of Official Language?
Official Language Implementation Committee
12. What is the main duty of Official Language Implementation Committee?

To review the progressive use of Hindi
13. Who is the Chairman of the Divisional Official Language Implementation Committee?
Divisional Railway Manager (DRM)
14. Who is the Chairman of the Zonal Official Language Implementation Committee?
General Manager/SWR/UBL
15. Who is made as the Chairman of the Town Official Language Implementation Committee
Constituted? in major cities?
Senior most Central Govt. Officer of the City
16. Who is the Chairman of the Town Official Language Implementation Committee functioning in
Hubballi City?
General Manager of South Western Railway
17. What is the periodicity of the meetings Official Language Implementation Committee?
Once in 3 months
18. What is the periodicity of the meetings of Town Official Language Implementation Committee?
Once in 6 months
19. What is the periodicity of the meetings Hindi Salahkar Samiti?

Twice in a year.
20. Who prepares Annual Programme on Official Language?

Ministry of Home Affairs
5
21. What is the periodicity for the reconstitution of Official Language Implementation Committees
constituted at Stations/Offices? Once in Three years
22. What is the honorarium given to the OLIC part-time Clerk for looking after the work relating to
Official Language Implementation Committees constituted at Stations/Offices?
Rs.300/-per month
23. How much amount can be spent for the supply of coffee, biscuits to the members present in the
Official Language Implementation Committees meetings conducted at Stations/Offices?
Rs.30/- per member
24. Who is responsible for the violation of Section 3(3) of Official Language Rules, 1963?
The Officer signing such Documents.
25. The Question Papers of departmental examination must be provided in which languages?
Hindi and English, bilingual form.
26. The Annual Programme on Official Language is prepared by whom?

The Ministry of Home Affairs, Department of Official Language.
27. Why are the Central Government staff given Hindi Training?
In order to facilitate them to do their Official Work in Hindi.
28. Who are eligible for training in Hindi Workshop?

All staff and Officers who possess working knowledge/proficiency in Hindi.
III. HINDI TRAINING

1. How many Hindi courses are prescribed for Central Govt. employees?
Four
2. What are all the four Hindi courses, prescribed for Central Govt. employees?
Prabodh, Praveen, Pragya and Parangat
3. Which is the elementary Hindi course prescribed for Central Govt. employees?
Prabodh
4. Which is the final Hindi course prescribed for Central Govt. employees?
Pragya
5. What are all the training facilities available to a Central Govt. Employee to get trained in these Hindi
courses?
Regular, Intensive, Correspondence & Private
6. What is the duration of each Hindi course? (Except Intensive Training)

Six months
6
7. How many times Hindi examinations (except Intensive Training) are conducted in a year?
Two Times.
8. What are all the months in which Hindi examinations are usually conducted?
May & November
9. How long is the Prabodh course conducted under Intensive Training?

25 Working Days
10. How long is the Praveen course conducted under Intensive Training?
20 Working Days
11. How long is the Pragya course conducted under Intensive Training?
15 Working Days
12. Who are eligible to be trained in the above Hindi courses?
All the Central Govt. employees in Group ‘C’ & above Service
13. What is the minimum qualification required to be eligible to attend Hindi Typewriting examination?
A pass in Praveen Course of Hindi Teaching Scheme, or its equivalent standard
14. Who conducts the Hindi examinations for Central Govt. employees?
Hindi Teaching Scheme under Department of Official Language
15. In accordance with the Hindi Teaching Scheme, into how many categories the Central Govt.
employees have been classified? What are they?
Four. They are A, B, C & D
16. Who are all the employees classified under Category "A”?
Whose mother tongue is Hindi or Hindustani or its dialect.
17. Who are all the employees classified under Category "B”?
Whose mother tongue is Urdu, Punjabi, Kashmiri, Pushto, Sindhi or other allied language.
18. Who are all the employees classified under Category "C"?
Whose mother tongue is Marathi, Guajarati, Bengali, Oriya, or Assamese
19. Who are all the employees classified under Category "D"?
Whose Mother Tongue is South Indian Language or English.
20. Name the Category of employee for whom Hindi training is not required?
Category "A"
21. In which course a Category "B" employee, defined under Hindi Teaching Scheme required to be
trained?
Pragya course
22. From which course a Category "C" employee, defined under Hindi Teaching Scheme required to be
trained?
Praveen course
23. From which course a Category "D" employee, defined under Hindi Teaching Scheme required to be
trained?
Prabodh course
7
IV. INCENTIVES GIVEN FOR PASSING HINDI EXAMINATIONS
1. What are all the incentives given for passing Hindi Examinations?
Cash Award, Lumsum Award & Personal Pay
2. When will an employee become eligible for Cash Award for passing Hindi Examinations?
On obtaining 55% or above marks in written examination
3. When will an employee become eligible for Cash Award for passing Hindi Typewriting
Examination?
On obtaining 90% or above marks
4. When will an employee become eligible for Cash Award for passing Hindi Stenography
Examination?
On obtaining 88% or above marks
5. What is the amount of Cash Award for Passing Prabodh with 55% or more but less than 60% of
marks?
Rs.400
6. What is the amount of Cash Award for Passing Prabodh with 60% or more but less than 70% of
marks?
Rs.800
7. What is the amount of Cash Award for Passing Prabodh with 70% or more marks?
Rs.1600
8. What is the amount of Cash Award for Passing Praveen with 55% or more but less than 60% of
marks?
Rs.800
9. What is the amount of Cash Award for Passing Praveen with 60% or more but less than 70% of
marks?
Rs.1200
10. What is the amount of Cash Award for Passing Praveen with 70% or more marks?
Rs.1800
11. What is the amount of Cash Award for Passing Pragya with 55% or more but less than 60% of
marks?
Rs.800
8
12. What is the amount of Cash Award for Passing Pragya with 60% or more but less than 70% of
marks?
Rs.1600
13. What is the amount of Cash Award for Passing Pragya with 70% or more marks?
Rs.2400
14. What is the amount of Cash Award for Passing Hindi Typing with 90% or more but less than 95%
of marks?
Rs.800
15. What is the amount of Cash Award for Passing Hindi Typing with 95% or more but less than 97%
of marks?
Rs.1600
16. What is the amount of Cash Award for Passing Hindi Typing with 97% or more marks?
Rs.2400
17. What is the amount of Cash Award for Passing Hindi Stenography with 88% or more but less than
92% of marks?
Rs.800
18. What is the amount of Cash Award for Passing Hindi Stenography with 92% or more but less than
95% of marks?
Rs.1600
19. What is the amount of Cash Award for Passing Hindi Stenography with 95% or more marks?
Rs.2400
20. Who are all eligible for Lumpsum Award?

Operational & Open line staff who pass Hindi examination through private
efforts 21. What is the amount of Lumpsum Award for passing Prabodh course?
Rs.1600
22. What is the amount of Lumpsum Award for passing Praveen course?
Rs.1500
23. What is the amount of Lumpsum Award for passing Pragya course?
Rs.2400
24. What is the amount of Lumpsum Award for passing Hindi Typewriting exam?
Rs.1600
25. What is the amount of Lumpsum Award for passing Hindi Stenography Exam?
Rs.3000
26. Who are all eligible for Personal Pay?
Employees who pass the Hindi course prescribed for their Designation
9
27. What is the minimum percentage of mark to be obtained by an employee to become eligible for
Personal Pay, for whom the prescribed course is Prabodh or Praveen?
55% marks in written examination
28. What is the minimum percentage of mark to be obtained by a Gazetted Officer, in Pragya course to
become eligible for Personal Pay?
60% marks in written examination
29. What is the amount of Personal Pay given for passing prescribed Hindi course?
Personal Pay equivalent to one increment for a period of 12 months
30. What is the Personal Pay given for passing Hindi Stenography, to a Stenographer whose mother
tongue is not Hindi?
Personal Pay equivalent to two increments for a period of 12 months
31. Why training in Hindi is imparted to Central Government Officers/Employees?

By which they can do their day-to-day official work in Hindi
32. Is there any special training facility available to make the Hindi knowing officer/staff to do their day-
to-day work in Hindi?
This is being imparted in the Hindi Workshops
33. Who are eligible to undergo training in Hindi Workshops?

All Class III & Gazetted staff who has working knowledge/proficiency in Hindi.
V. AWARDS GIVEN FOR DOING OFFICIAL WORK IN HINDI
1. What is the name of the scheme introduced by Railway Board for doing official work in Hindi?
Rajbhasha Individual Cash Award Scheme
2. How many employees/officers are awarded under Railway Board's Rajbhasha Individual Cash
Award Scheme from South Western Railway every year?
Five
3. What is the amount of prize money given under Rajbhasha Individual Cash Award Scheme?
Rs.1500
4. How many prizes are given under Collective Cash Award Scheme for doing official work in Hindi?
Three
5. To whom Collective Cash Award is given?

The department, which do progressive use of Hindi in the Official work
6. What is the amount of First prize, given under Collective Cash Award Scheme?
Rs.9000 (6xRs.1500)
7. What is the amount of Second prize, given under Collective Cash Award Scheme?
Rs.6000 (5xRs.1200)
10
8. What is the amount of Third prize, given under Collective Cash Award Scheme?
Rs.4000 (5xRs.800)
9. How many First prizes are given for writing more than 10,000 words in Hindi, in a year?
Two
10. How many Second prizes are given for writing more than 10,000 words in Hindi, in a year?
Three
11. How many Third prizes are given for writing more than 10,000 words in Hindi, in a year?
Five
12. What is the amount of prize money for First prize, given for writing more than 10,000 words in
Hindi in a year?
Rs.5000
13. What is the amount of prize money for Second prize, given for writing more than 10,000 words in
Hindi in a year?
Rs.3000
14. What is the amount of prize money for Third prize, given for writing more than 10,000 words in
Hindi in a year?
Rs.2000
15. What is the additional weightage given to a Non-Hindi speaking employee for assessing awards
under 10,000 words Award Scheme?
Weightage up to 20%
16. In which region of the Non-Hindi speaking participants be given ‘Grace Marks’ for participating in
Hindi Essay/Elocution/Noting & Drafting competitions.?
‘C’ Region
17. What is the percentage of Grace Marks given to a Non-Hindi speaking employee who is participating
in Hindi Essay, Elocution and Noting & Drafting Competitions?
10% of the Total Marks obtained.
18. What is percentage of questions relating to Official Language policy and Rules should be asked in
departmental examinations?
10% marks out of the total prescribed marks.
19. Is it mandatory to answer the questions relating to Official Language policy (Hindi) In Departmental
Examinations?
No./It is Optional.
20. Is it mandatory to prepare Departmental Examination Question Papers in Hindi along with English?
Yes.
21. Are candidates allowed to opt Hindi Medium in oral test or viva-voce conducted for departmental
selection.
Yes.
22. What is the quantum of Hindi Typing work to be done by a Typist/Steno to become eligible for
Hindi Incentive Allowance?
5 notes in Hindi in a day or 300 notes in Hindi in a quarter
11
23. What is the amount of Incentive Allowance given to a Stenographer?
Rs.240/- per month
24. What is the amount of Incentive Allowance given to a Typist?

Rs.160 per month
25. What is the name of the award given for writing original books in Hindi on technical Railway
Subjects?
Lal Bahadur Shastri Technical Puraskar
26. What is the name of the award given for writing Hindi poetry books?
Mythili Sharan Gupta Puraskar
27. What is the name of the award given for writing Hindi Novel & Story books?
Premchand Puraskar
Cash Awards for above Questions 25, 26 & 27 Prizes: Ist Prize: 15,000/-
IInd Prize: 7000/-
IIIrd Prize: 3300/-
28. Which Award is given to a Zonal Railway/Productions Unit situated in Region ‘A’ ‘B’& ‘C’ for best
record in a year for Propagation and use of Hindi?
st nd
Railway Minister’s Rajbhasha Shield & Trophy respectively for 1 and 2 place.
29. Which award is given to a Adarsh Division situated in Region ‘A’ & ‘B’ for best record in a year
for Propagation and use of Hindi?
Acharya Mahaveer Prasad Running Shield.
30. Which award is given to a Adarsh Division situated in Region ‘C’ for best record in a year
for Propagation and use of Hindi?
Acharya Raghuveer Running shield.
31. What award is given to a Adarsh Station/Workshop situated in Region ‘C’ for best record in a year
for
Propagation and use of Hindi?
Rail Mantri Rajbhasha Shield+Rs.7000/-
VI. IMPLEMENTATION OF OFFICIAL LANGUAGE
1. What is the target fixed for letters in Hindi sent from ‘C’ region to ‘A’ ‘B’ and ‘C’ region?
55%
2. What is the target fixed in Annual Programme for writing noting in Hindi?
30%
3. What is the Target fixed in Annual Programme for letters received in Hind to be answered in Hindi?
100%
12
4. What is the significance of Section 3(3) of O.L. Act?
The documents that are to be issued in bilingual form are mentioned in the Section 3(3) of OL Act.
5. What is the target fixed for documents coming under Section 3(3) of O.L. Act?
100%
6. Who is responsible to ensure that the documents coming under Section 3(3) are issued in bilingual
form?
The Authority signing on such documents.
7. In which form the General Orders (Office Orders, Allotment orders, Memorandum, Circular etc.) are
to be issued?
In Hindi & English bilingual form
8. In which form the letter received in Hindi should be replied to?
9. In which form Application/Appeal/Representative made or signed in Hindi should be replied to?

In Hindi only
10. In which form Office/Station Name boards, sign boards, Designation Boards and Forms used by
public are to be prepared?
Trilingual Form (Regional Language, Hindi & English)
11. In which order of languages the Name boards, sign boards, and Designation boards should be
exhibited?
12. In which order forms used by Public are to be prepared?
13. In which order of languages the Station Announcements are to be made?

14. In which language Roof Boards of Coaches are to be exhibited?

15. In which proportion the Roof Boards are to be displayed?

Equal proportion of all the languages.
16. In which form Panel Boards of Train are to be exhibited?

17. In which form Name Badges are to be prepared?

Hindi & English – Bilingual Form
18. In which form subject on the Files/Registers are to be written?

19. In which form Rubber Stamps are to be prepared?

20. In which form Standard Forms (which are not used by public) are to be printed?
13
21. In which form Manuals, Codes and other literatures on Procedures are to be printed?
22. In which form Letter Heads and Visiting Cards are to be printed?
23. In which form Train Time-Tables are to be printed?

24. In which form Invitations are to be issued?

Regional language, Hindi & English – Trilingual Form
25. In which form Telephone Directories are to be prepared?

Hindi & English – Diglot Form
26. In which order inscription on Govt. Vehicles, Walls & Furniture are to be written?
27. In which order Name and Designation Boards kept on conference tables are to be exhibited?
28. In which order Minutes and Agenda-Notes are to be prepared?

29. According to Annual Programme, in which order Advertisement (Tender Notice etc.) of Central
Offices are to be published in News Papers?
30. In which order Reservation Charts of Trains are to be prepared and displayed?
31. According to Official Language policy, what is to be ensured while purchasing Computer System?
Facility to do Hindi & English Data Entry
32. When ‘World Hindi Day’ is observed?

On 10 January.
33. When was first time ‘World Hindi Day’ is observed?

10 January, 2006
34. Why “Hindi Day/Divas” is celebrated every year?

To create awareness of Official Language
35. Why Hindi Libraries are opened in various Offices and /Stations?
To propagate Hindi through books and Magazines.
36. What is the amount of honorarium given to Part Time OLIC Part Time clerk?
Rs.300 per month.
14
Question Bank on Knowledge of Quality Standards – ISO 9000, 14000, 18000
01. According to ISO, the quality system is the organizational structure, responsibilities, procedures,
processes, and resources for implementing quality management.
a) True
b) False [a]
02. 2. Which of the following must not be a characteristic of a quality system?
a) It must be well-understood
b) Products or services actually do satisfy customer expectations
c) Emphasis on problem prevention
d) It must be ineffective [d]
03. A quality system is involved in all phases from initial identification to final satisfaction of
requirements and meeting customer satisfaction.
a)True
b) False [a]
04. Which of the following is not an advantage of implementing a quality system that conforms to
ISO standards?
a) Improvement in employee involvement

b) Improvement in housekeeping
c) Improvement in customer satisfaction
d) Inefficient decision making [d]
05. Which of the following cannot be considered a reason for implementing a quality system that
conforms to ISO standards?
a) Improvement in safe working

b) Reduction in customer complaints
c) Increased inspection efforts
d) Decreased inspection efforts [c]
06. Which of the following represents India in ISO?
a) PFRDA
b) FSSAI
c) BIS
d) BCCI [c]
07. Which is the latest ISO 9001 version in the ISO 9000 family?
a) ISO 9001:1994
b) ISO 9001:2000
c) ISO 9001:2008
d) ISO 9001:2015 [d]
08. Which of the following is/are the advantage(s) of using the ISO 9001 standard?
a) Organizing processes [d]
b) Improving the efficiency of processes
c) Continuous improvement
d) Organizing processes, improving the efficiency of processes, and continuous improvement
09. Which is the only standard in the ISO 9000 family to which organizations can certify?
a) ISO 9000
b) ISO 9001
c) ISO 14000
d) ISO 9004 [b]
10. Which ISO standard provides guidelines for auditing management systems?
a) ISO 19011:2018
b) ISO 9000:2015
c) ISO 9001:2015
d) ISO 9004:2018 [a]
11. Which ISO 9000 family standard provides the fundamentals and vocabulary for quality
management systems?
a) ISO 19011:2018
b) ISO 9000:2015
c) ISO 9001:2015
d) ISO 9004:2018 [b]
12. Which is the latest ISO 9000 version in the ISO 9000 family?
a) ISO 9000:1987
b) ISO 9000:2000
c) ISO 19011:2018
d) ISO 9000:2015 [d]
13. Which ISO standard provides guidance to achieve sustained success and the continuous
improvement of an organization?
a) ISO 19011:2018
b) ISO 9000:2015
c) ISO 9001:2015
d) ISO 9004:2018 [d]
14. Which of the following is not a quality management principle on the basis of which ISO
9000:2015 and ISO 9001:2015 are based on?
a) Customer focus
b) Leadership
c) Customer dissatisfaction
d) Evidence based decision making [c]
15. ISO 14000 standards are for the _________

a) Quality Management System
b) Environmental Management System
c) Administration
d) Supply chain [b]
16. In which year did the ISO create the ISO 14000 family of standards?
a) 1956
b) 1966
c) 1978
d) 1996 [d]
17. Which is the first environmental management system standard?

a) BS 7750
b) ISO 9000
c) ISO 9001
d) ISO 9004 [a]
18. In which year did the current revision of ISO 14001 get published?
a) 2010
b) 2011
c) 2015
d) 2016 [c]
19. Which one of the following is not within the purview of ISO 14000 family of standards?
a) Environmental management system
b) Environment auditing
c) Life-cycle assessment
d) Quality management system [d]
20. Which one of the following does not belong to the area of Organization Evaluation Standards in
ISO 14000 series?
a) Environmental management system

b) Environmental auditing
c) Environmental performance evaluation
d) Environmental labels and declarations [d]
21. 8. Which of the following pair of ISO 14000 standards fall under the category of Environmental
Management System?
a) ISO 14001 and ISO 14004

b) ISO 14010 and ISO 14001
c) ISO 14011 and ISO 14001
d) ISO 14011 and ISO 14004 [a]
22. Which of the following pair of ISO 14000 standards fall under the category of Environmental
Auditing?
a) ISO 14001 and ISO 14004

b) ISO 14010 and ISO 14011
c) ISO 14011 and ISO 14001
d) ISO 14012 and ISO 14004 [b]
23. Which ISO 14000 series standard refers to the guidelines on Environmental Performance
Evaluation?
a) ISO 14001
b) ISO 14004
c) ISO 14010
d) ISO 14031 [d]
24. Which of the following pair of ISO 14000 standards fall under the category of Environmental
Labelling?
a) ISO 14001 and ISO 14004

b) ISO 14010 and ISO 14011
c) ISO 14020 and ISO 14021
d) ISO 14012 and ISO 14020 [c]
25. Which of the following pair of ISO 14000 standards belong to the category of Environmental
Labelling?
a) ISO 14022 and ISO 14023

b) ISO 14001 and ISO 14004
c) ISO 14001 and ISO 14021
d) ISO 14012 and ISO 14020 [a]
26. Which of the following pair of ISO 14000 standards belong to the category of Life Cycle
Assessment?
a) ISO 14041 and ISO 14023

b) ISO 14041 and ISO 14004
c) ISO 14040 and ISO 14041
d) ISO 14040 and ISO 14020 [c]
27. Which of the following pair of ISO 14000 standards fall under the category of Life Cycle
Assessment?
a) ISO 14041 and ISO 14023

b) ISO 14041 and ISO 14004
c) ISO 14042 and ISO 14043
d) ISO 14040 and ISO 14020 [c]
28. ISO 18000 is issued for -----

a) Personal health and safety
b) Company’s health and safety
c) Occupational health and safety
d) Society’s health and safety [c]
Total Quality Management
01 Malcolm Baldrige national quality award is for (MBNQA)

a) Total Quality Management
b) International Standard Organization
c) Total Productive Maintenance
d) Total Quality Control [a]
02 The process mapping is a ____________ diagram.

a) Data flow
b) Work flow
c) Circular
d) Audit [a]
03 Control chart is a
a) Process monitoring tool
b) Process control tool
c) Both (a) and (b)
04 The objective of ISO-9000 family of Quality

a) Customer satisfaction.
b) Employee satisfaction.
c) Skill enhancement.
d) Environmental issues. [a]
05 Total Quality Management (TQM) focuses on

a) Employee
b) Customer
c) Both (a) and (b)
06 Which of the following is responsible for quality objective?

a) Top level management.
b) Middle level management.
c) Frontline management.
d) All of the above. [a]
07 The following is (are) the machine down time.

a) Waste
b) No material
c) Breakdown
d) All of the above. [d]
08 TQM & ISO both focuses on
a) Customer
b) Employee
c) Supplier
d) All of the above. [a]
09 According to Deming, Quality problems are

a) Due to management.
b) Due to method
c) Due to machine
d) Due to material [a]
10 While setting Quality objective, _______ to be considered.

a) Material quality
b) Customer need
c) Market demand
d) All of the above [b]
11 ________helps organization reduce employee

a) Job design
b) Training & development
c) Wage revision
d) all of the above [b]
12 CMM stands for

a) Capability maturity model
b) Capability monitoring model
c) Capability measuring model
d) Capability matching model [a]
13 While setting quality objective __________ to be considered.

a) Customer need.
b) Organizational need.
c) Supplier need.
d) Worker need. [a]
14 Which of the following is for environment.

a) ISO-9000
b) ISO-14000
c) ISO-26000
d) ISO-31000 [ b]
15 P-D-C-A stands for

a) Plan-Do-check-Act
b) Plan-Do-correct-Act
c) Proceed-Do-check-Act
d) Proceed-Do-correct-Act [a]
16 What is ISO?
a) Indian Organization for Standard.
b) Internal Organization for Standard
c) International Organization for Standard
d) Non of the above [c]
17 EMS stands for

a) Environmental Management System
b) Employees Management System
c) Engineering Management System
d) Equipment Management System [a]
18 For Cpk (Process capability index) value of 1.33, the PPM is

a) 1
b) 63
c) 2700
d) 45500 [b]

1668583121322-JE-Mech. LDCE Question Bank

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ALCO LOCOMOTIVE QUESTION BANK

AIR BRAKE SYSTEM OF ALCO LOCO

A. Loco comes to idle and nothing else happens

3. PATB buzzer blows when

A. AFI needle is above 60

4. Unit of Air Flow Indicator (AFI) is

5. Function of Air vacuum proportionate valve is in Diesel locos for

6. How many position setting of C3 W distributor valve has

A. Two position setting

7. On operating D-1 emergency which pressure drops

8. How many braking position of A-9 valve have..

10. Air supply for horn is from.

11. Permissible leakage of vacuum in train pipe is

13. HB-5 relay valve is fitted in which type of brake system

A. Air Brake loco

14. In 28 VB control valve the vacuum of train pipe comes at

A. Above big diaphragm

15. Above C2- relay diaphragm air pressure comes from

18. H-5 valves operates when BP pressure drops upto (kg/cm2)

A. Vacuum will drop to zero

21. R-6 relay valve is fitted in loco for

23. The standard Colour of humidity indicator in air dryer is

24. Air dryer starts functioning, when MR pressure reaches to (PSI)

A. Should remain same in one minute

A. Vacuum will not be shown in gauge

29. By increasing HS-4 pressure (vacuum/air) action will happen

A. Vacuum will drop

30. Auto drain valve blows during

31. Feed valve is charged from

A. From SA-9 valve

A. VA-1B control valve and VA –1 release valve

A. H-5 relay valve

A. Loco will come to idle

36. 28 LV brake system is functional in.............

A. Air brake loco

37. 28 LAV1 brake system is functional in............

A. Air brake loco

40. How many numbers of positions MU2B valve have

42. Conjunction brakes in IRAB System is applied by

44. Calibration of Air Flow measuring valve is adjusted at which at reading

45. Vacuum test plate hole dia is (in mm)

46. When does auto drain check valve operates

A. At the time of loading of compressor

A. C-2 relay valve

A. C-2 relay valve defective

50. Exhaust choke size of C-2 relay valve is (in mm)....

55. While keeping lead/trial switch in trail ER pressure is

A. ER Pressure is less than 1 kg/cm2

56. Air supply to power contractor is from

58. BP pressure remains on which port of VA-1B control valve

A. Minimum reduction position

A. From A-9 valve

64. In creation of vacuum which valve comes into function

A. SA-9 brake valve

66. To operate sander valve the air supply is received from

Air Brake System Answer Sheet

2. During which stroke both valves closed

4. In WDM3D Locomotive, how many crank pins are on crankshaft?

5. In WDM3D Loco, how many thrust bearing are used

6. In WDG3A Locos, how many thrust bearing are used?

7. The size of Engine Crank Pin is (in inch)

8. Clearance between crankshaft journal & bearing is (in inch)......

10. Size of Main Bearing journals is (in inch).................

13. How many teeth are in split gear