Study Guide

CAPITULO : 1
PAGINA : 1
AIRBUS A-320 STUDY GUIDE FECHA : 10-ABR-00 (REV/00)
CAPITULO 1 - ABBREVIATIONS AND ACRONYMS
The following abbreviations and acronyms are used in the A-320 Flight Manual. While not all are
unique to this airplane, many are Airbus-specific, and are found within the Flight Manual text, as well
as airplane placards, and ECAM
ACP Audio Control Panel

ADIRS Air Data Inertial Reference System
ADM Air Data Module
ADR Air Data Reference
AFDS Autopilot Flight Director System
AFS Auto Flight System
AIDS Aircraft Integrated Data System
AIU Audio Interface Unit
AMU Audio Management Unit
APPU Asymmetry Position Pick-off Unit
A/THR Auto Thrust Function / Autothrottle System
BCL Battery Charge Limiter
BCDS BITE Centralized Data System
BITE Built-In Test Equipment
BMC Bleed Monitoring Computer
BSCU Brake Steering Control Unit
BTC Bus Tie Contactor
CBMS Circuit Breaker Monitoring System
CDU Control Display Unit
CFDIU Centralized Fault Data Interface Unit
CFDS Centralized Fault Display System
CIDS Cabin Inter-communication Data System
CPCU Cabin Pressure Controller Unit
CRC Continuous Repetitive Chime
CRT Cathode Ray Tube
CSCU Cargo Smoke Control Unit
CSD Constant Speed Drive
CSM/G Constant Speed Motor/Generator
CSTR Constraint
CVR Cockpit Voice Recorder
DA Drift Angle
DDRMI Digital Distance and Radio Magnetic Indicator
DFDR Digital Flight Data Recorder
DMC Display Management Computer
DMU Data Management Unit (AIDS)
DU Display Unit
ECAM Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitoring
ECB Electronic Control Box
ECP ECAM Control Panel
ECS Environmental Control System
ECU Engine Control Unit
EDP Engine Driven Pump
EEC Electronic Engine Control
EFCS Electronic Flight Control System
CAPITULO : 1
PAGINA : 2
EFIS Electronic Flight Instrument System

EIS Electronic Instrument System
EIU Engine Interface Unit
ELAC Elevator Aileron Computer
EVMU Engine Vibration Monitoring Unit
E/WD Engine/Warning Display
FAC Flight Augmentation Computer
FADEC Full Authority Digital Engine Control
FCDC Flight Control Data Concentrator
FCU Flight Control Unit
FDIU Flight Data Interface Unit
FDU Fire Detection Unit
FIDS Fault Isolation and Detection System
FMA Flight Mode Annunciator
FMGC Flight Management Guidance Computer
FMGS Flight Management Guidance System
FMS Flight Management System
FPA Flight Path Angle
FPPU Feedback Position Pick-off Unit
FPV Flight Path Vector
FQI Fuel Quantity Indicator
FRV Fuel Return Valve
FWC Flight Warning Computer
FWS Flight Warning System
GCU Generator Control Unit
GLC Generator Line Contactor
HCU Hydraulic Control Unit
HP High Pressure
IDG Integrated Drive Generator
IGN Ignition
IP Intermediate Pressure
IPC Intermediate Pressure Check Valve
IPPU Instrumentation Position Pick-off Unit
IRS Inertial Reference System
ISA International Standard Atmosphere
ISOL Isolation
LAF Load Alleviation Function
LGCIU Landing Gear Control Interlace Unit
LGPIU Landing Gear Position Indicator Unit
LNAV Lateral Navigation
LP Low Pressure
MCDU Multifunction Control Display Unit
N APU RPM (%)
ND Navigation Display
NWS Nose Wheel Steering
OPP Opposite
OPT Optimum
OVBD Overboard
OVHT Overheat
PCU Power Control Unit
CAPITULO : 1
PAGINA : 3
PHC Probe Heat Computer

PFD Primary Flight Display
PPOS Present Position
PPU Position Pick-off Unit
PTU Power Transfer Unit
RAT Ram Air Turbine
RCDR Recorder
RCVR Receiver
RMP Radio Management Panel
SC Single Chime
SD System Display
SDAC System Data Acquisition Concentrator
SDCU Smoke Detection Control Unit
SEC Spoiler Elevator Computer
SFCC Slat Flap Control Computer
SRS Speed Reference System
STAT INV Static Inverter
THS Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer
TLA Throttle Lever Angle
TO/GA Take Off/Go-Around
TRU Transformer Rectifier Unit
VNAV Vertical Navigation
WTB Wing Tip Brake
XFR Transfer
XTK Crosstrack
CAPITULO : 1
PAGINA : 4
CAPITULO 2 - COMMUNICATIONS
1) All communications radios are controlled:
A. From the audio control panels (ACPs)
B. By the F/O
C. From any one of the three radio management panels (RMPs).
2) Only _______ is functional in the emergency electrical configuration.
A. RMP 3
B. RMP 1
C. RMP1 and 3
3) The Cockpit Voice Recorder will record:
A. Direct conversations between crewmembers.
B. All aural cockpit warnings.
C. Communications over radio and intercom.
D. Passenger address system announcements (as long as one PA reception knob is selected
on).
E. All of the above
4) The cockpit voice recorder will automatically operate on the ground for _______ minutes after
electrical power is supplied to the airplane, or when at least _______ engine is operating.
5) When using the boom mike, oxygen mask mike, or hand mike, the PA key must be pressed
and held to use the aircraft PA system.
A. True
B. False
CAPITULO : 1
PAGINA : 5
6) When the ON voice key on an Audio Control Panel is pushed in, ADF and VOR ident signals
are inhibited.
A. True
B. False
7) With the INT/RAD switch of an Audio Control Panel (ACP) in the INT position and the sidestick
Transmit Switch in the Transmit position, you are transmitting on the:
A. Intercom at all times.
B. Radio selected by the transmission switch on the Audio Control Panel.
C. Radio selected by the reception knob on the Audio Control Panel.
8) To transmit and receive on the service interphone, the pilot must select the:
A. CAB reception knob and the ATT transmission key on the ACP.
B. CAB reception knob and the MECH transmission key on the ACP.
C. Service Int on the nose gear panel.
9) Illumination of the SEL indicator on a Radio Management Panel indicates:
A. the RMP has failed.
B. the VHF has failed.
C. the RMP is being tuned to a transceiver from another RMP.
10) On the ground, with the parking brake set, pressing the CVR ERASE switch for two seconds
causes erasure of the Cockpit Voice Recorder.
A. True
B. False
CAPITULO : 1
PAGINA : 6
ANSWERS - COMMUNICATIONS
1) C
2) B
3) E
4) five, one
5) A
6) A
7) B
8) A
9) C
10) A
CAPITULO : 1
PAGINA : 7
CAPITULO 3 - ELECTRICAL AND LIGHTING
1) The engine generators and APU generator are rated at _______ KVA.
A. 50
B. 90
C. 45
2) The number 1 AC bus channel normally supplies power to ___________, and to the
__________ bus which supplies power to the ____________ bus.
3) The normal priority for supplying electrical power to the AC busses is:
A. External power, engine generators, APU
B. APU, external power, engine generators
C. Engine generators, external power, APU
4) The BATTERY BUS is normally powered by:
A. DC BUS 2
B. DC bus 1 through a DC tie control relay.
C. DC bus 2 through a DC tie control relay.
5) The A-320 has _______ batteries in its main electrical system.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
CAPITULO : 1
PAGINA : 8
6) When no other power is available in flight, the static inverter converts _______ power to AC
power for the _______ bus, and _______ powers the _______ bus.
7) An AC ESS FEED switch located on the overhead panel shifts the power source for the AC
ESS bus from:
A. AC bus1 to AC bus 2
B. AC bus 1 to AC Grnd/Flt bus
C. AC bus 2 to AC bus 1
8) Which of the following AC busses can be powered by the emergency generator?
A. AC bus 1
B. AC bus 2
C. AC ESS bus / AC ESS SHED bus
9) The RAT is connected directly (mechanically) to the Emergency Generator
A. True
B. False
10) The emergency generator supplies power as long as:
A. The landing gear is down.
B. The RAT is deployed.
C. The landing gear is up.
11) In the emergency electrical configuration, after landing, the batteries automatically connect to
the DC BAT bus when speed decreases below _______ knots.
A. 50
B. 72
C. 100
CAPITULO : 1
PAGINA : 9
12) The BAT FAULT light will illuminate when:
A. Battery voltage is low
B. Charging current increases at an abnormal rate
C. Charging current decreases at an abnormal rate.
13). Do not depress the lDG DISCONNECT switch for more than _______ to prevent damage to the
disconnect mechanism.
A. 3 seconds
B. 10 seconds
C. 15 seconds
14) The IDG Fault light indicates:
A. An IDG oil overheat
B. IDG low oil pressure.
C. IDG has been disconnected
D. Either A or B
15) If normal electrical power is lost, essential cockpit lighting is maintained for the:
A. Captain's instrument panel.
B. Standby compass
C. Right dome light (provided the dome selector is not off).
D. All off the above.
16) All cabin signs come on automatically when the cabin altitude exceeds _______ feet,
regardless of the respective switch position.
A. 9,550
B. 10,000
C. 11,300
CAPITULO : 1
PAGINA : 10
ANSWERS - ELECTRICAL AND LIGHTINGS
1) B
2) TR 1, AC ESS, AC ESS SHED
3) C
4) B
5) B
6) BAT 1 DC, AC ESS bus, BAT2, DC ESS
7) A
8) C
9) B
10) C
11) C
12) B
13) A
14) D
15) D
16) C
CAPITULO : 1
PAGINA : 11
CAPITULO 4 - EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT
1) Cockpit crew oxygen is provided by:
A. A solid state chemical system.
B. A single high pressure bottle.
C. Individual high pressure bottles at each station.
2) Passenger oxygen is supplied by:
A. Individual high pressure bottles at each seat.
B. A single high pressure bottle in the lower fuselage.
C. A chemical generator system.
3) The passenger oxygen mask doors open automatically if the cabin altitude exceeds:
A. 9,550 ft.
B. 10,000 ft
C. 14,000 ft.
4) The passenger oxygen system is good for approximately:
A. 10 minutes
B. 22 minutes
C. 15 minutes
5) Above _______ the cockpit crew oxygen masks will provide 100% oxygen, regardless of the
position of the N/100% selector.
A. 28,000 ft.
B. 35,000 ft.
C. 39,000 ft.
CAPITULO : 1
PAGINA : 12
6) Cockpit crew oxygen can be turned off from the cockpit?
A. True
B. False
7) Crew oxygen pressure is displayed on the ECAM page:
A. DOOR/OXY
B. CRUISE
C. CAB PRESS
8) When crew oxygen pressure drops below _______ psi, an amber half frame appears to
indicate the possibility of low oxygen quantity.
A. 400
B. 1300
C. 1500
9) The overhead emergency lights and EXIT signs will automatically illuminate when the
EMERGENCY EXIT LIGHT selector is in ARM and which bus fails?
A. Normal AC Power
B. DC ESS SHED bus.
C. Ac bus 1.
D. All of the above
10) The SLIDE ARMED LIGHT illuminates white on the passenger cabin entry doors when:
A. The door is not armed.
B. The door is armed.
C. The control handle is operated with the slide armed.

CAPITULO : 1
PAGINA : 13
11) The ECAM will display a door not locked in:
A. Amber
B. Red
C. Green
12) Protective breathing equipment (PBE) units will provide approximately how many minutes of
oxygen?
A. 13
B. 15
C. 30
CAPITULO : 1
PAGINA : 14
ANSWERS - EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT
1) B
2) C
3) C
4) B
5) B
6) A
7) A
8) C
9) D
10) C
11) A
12) B
CAPITULO : 1
PAGINA : 15
CAPITULO 5 - ENGINES
1) The Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC) controls which of the following functions:
A. Fuel metering
B. Engine limits
C. Automatic and manual starting.
D. All of the above.
2) The FADEC is normally powered by:
A. The RAT
B. Its own magnetic alternator
C. The normal aircraft electrical system
3) The normal mode to set thrust is:
A. EPR.
B. N1
C. N2
4) During an automatic start sequence, selecting the ENG MASTER switch to on:
A. Closes the pack valves.
B. Initiates the start sequence.
C. Displays the ECAM engine page.
D. Both A and B
5) The FADEC has control during a manual engine start sequence except for:
A. The high pressure fuel valve.
B. The start valve.
C. An automatic abort.
CAPITULO : 1
PAGINA : 16
6) Which ignition systems are used during a manual start?
A. "A"
B. "B"
C. Both "A" and "B"
7) Continuous ignition is automatically provided during the following:
A. Flex or TO/GA thrust is selected on the ground.
B. ENG ANTICE switch is ON
C. Engine surge on stall occurs in flight.
D. Any of the above.
8) The A/THR is armed on the ground provided at least one FD is on by:
A. Setting the throttles to TO/GA.
B. Automatically at engine start.
C. With engines running, pressing the A/THR p/b manually.
9) If a throttle is set between two detents, the FADEC selects the rating limit:
A. determined by the throttle position.
B. corresponding to the higher mode.
C. corresponding to the lower mode.
10) When the A/THR system is in use:
A. The throttles move automatically according to FADEC commands.
B. The throttles can only be moved manually.
C. The throttles will move when the A/THR p/b is used.

CAPITULO : 1
PAGINA : 17
11) A/THR engagement is confirmed when "A/THR" is displayed in _______ in the right column of
the FMA.
A. Green
B. Blue
C. White
12) If an A/THR disconnect switch is pushed and held for more than _______ seconds, the A/THR
system is disconnected for the remainder of the flight, including the _______.
13) The FAULT light on the engine start and ignition panel illuminates in the event of an:
A. Automatic start abort.
B. A disagreement exist between the HP fuel valve position of FADEC channels A and B.
C. Either A or B
14) When the EPR mode is active in flight the primary engine indications show the EPR rating limit:
A. computed by the FADEC receiving the highest actual EPR.
B. computed by the FAD EC receiving the most advanced throttle position.
C. the average computed by both FADEC's.
15) The engine bleed pressure value in the start configuration becomes _______ below _______
psi when N2 exceeds _______ % with the engine start valve not closed, or when bleed over-
pressure is detected.
CAPITULO : 1
PAGINA : 18
ANSWERS - ENGINES
1) D
2) B
3) A
4) D
5) C
6) C
7) D
8) A
9) B
10) B
11) C
12) 15 seconds, Alpha Floor Protection
13) C
14) A
15) Amber, 21, 10
CAPITULO : 1
PAGINA : 19
CAPITULO 6 - FIRE PROTECTION
1) Engine fire loops are installed in the:
A. Pylon nacelle
B. Core
C. Fan
D. All the above
2) If a break in both engine fire loops occurs within _______ seconds of each other a _______ will
occur.
A. 10 sec./ a FIRE warning
B. 5 sec./ a FIRE DET FAULT message on ECAM
C. 5 sec./ a FIRE warning
3) The A320 has dual fire detector loops to ensure that a fault in one fire loop will not affect fire
detection capabilities.
A. True
B. False
4) If there is an APU fire in flight the APU:
A. Will automatically shut down and the fire bottle will discharge.
B. Must be shut down manually and the agent manually discharged.
C. Must be shut down manually but the fire bottle will discharge automatically.
5) Fire protection for the cargo compartments includes:
A. Two fire bottles, one for each compartment.
B. One single shot fire extinguisher for the aft compartment only.
C. Two single shot fire extinguisher agents which can be discharged to either compartment.
CAPITULO : 1
PAGINA : 20
6) The engine extinguishing agent switch is armed when:
A. The DISCH light is on.
B. The engine fire switch illuminates.
C. The engine fire switch is released out.
7) The APU test switch on the APU Auto Exting panel when pushed will:
A. Test APU fire warning.
B. Test auto extinguishing.
C. Test auto shutdown circuit and shut down an operating APU.
D. All the above.
8) When the APU FIRE SWITCH is released out, the:
A. Fire bottle is discharged.
B. Fuel HP valve is closed.
C. APU bleed and crossbleed valves are closed.
9) A DISCH light on either the engine or APU fire agent switches indicates:
A. The APU or engine FIRE switch has been pushed.
B. The extinguisher bottle has been discharged.
C. A fault has occurred in the respective fire bottle.
10) The GEN 1 LINE smoke light indicates:
A. A fire caused by number 1 generator.
B. Smoke in the avionics ventilation system.
C. Smoke in the cargo ventilation system.

CAPITULO : 1
PAGINA : 21
ANSWERS - FIRE PROTECTION
1. D
2. C
3. A
4. B
5. C
6. C
7. D
8. C
9. B
10. B
CAPITULO : 1
PAGINA : 22
CAPITULO 7 - FLIGHT CONTROLS
1) The A320 flight control surfaces are _______ controlled and _______ actuated.
A. Electrically, hydraulically
B. Mechanically, hydraulically
C. Electrically, electrically
2) What computer normally commands the operation of the elevators and horizontal stabilizer?
A. SEC 1
B. FAC 1
C. ELAC 2
3) Sidesticks provide electrical signals to the flight control computers, if both sidesticks are
operated:
A. The inputs cancel each other.
B. Both inputs are algebraically added.
C. The F/O input is overridden by the CAP input.
4) Roll control is achieved by:
A. Ailerons
B. Ailerons and rudder.
C. One aileron and four spoilers on each wing.
5) When the flaps are extended, the ailerons:
A. Go to the centering mode.
B. Pitch up 5 degrees.
C. Droop 5 degrees.
CAPITULO : 1
PAGINA : 23
6) If electrical power to a SEC fails:
A. The affected spoilers automatically retracts.
B. All spoilers automatically retract.
C. The affected spoilers remains in the last commanded position.
7) If angle of attack protection is active or flaps are in the configuration Full:
A. Speed brake extension is inhibited.
B. Aileron travel is reduced.
C. Speed brake extension travel is reduced.
8) Should the active elevator actuator fail, elevator control is:
A. Lost.
B. Maintained by the other actuator.
C. Reduced.
9) Two control surfaces that have mechanical backup are:
A. Elevator and rudder.
B. Horizontal stabilizer and rudder.
C. Speed brakes and rudder.
10) Horizontal stabilizer trim automatically resets to zero degrees after landing.
A. True
B. False
CAPITULO : 1
PAGINA : 24
11) Should both FACs fail, maximum rudder deflection can be obtained after the _______ are
extended.
A. Flaps
B. Slats
C. Gear
12) Automatic rudder trim is provided at the rate of _______, while the manual rudder trim rate is
_______ up to a maximum of _______.
13) Four hydraulically-operated wing tip brakes are installed to lock the flaps or slats in case of
_______, _______ or _______.
14) While on the ground in Roll Normal Law there is a direct relationship between sidestick
deflection and the corresponding aileron and spoiler deflection.
A. True
B. False
15) In Pitch Normal Law Flight Mode, pitch trim is:
A. Manual without the autopilot engaged.
B. Automatic as long as the autopilot is engaged.
C. Automatic with or without the autopilot engaged.
16) Automatic pitch trim is inhibited when:
A. Radio altitude is below 50 feet (100 feet with autopilot coupled).
B. Bank angle is greater than 33 degrees.
C. Load factor is less than 1G.
D. Both A and B
CAPITULO : 1
PAGINA : 25
17) In pitch normal law, the elevator control changes from the normal mode to a protection mode
when the angle of attack is greater than:
A. Alpha Max
B. Alpha Prot
C. Alpha Floor
18) TOGA thrust is provided regardless of throttle position when _______ engages the autothrottle
system.
A. Alpha Max
B. Alpha Prot
C. Alpha Floor
19) Roll control in NORMAL LAW is achieved with:
A. Ailerons and spoilers.
B. Ailerons, spoilers, and rudder.
C. Ailerons, spoilers 2-5, and rudder.
20) The purpose of the Load Alleviation Function is to:
A. Relieve wing structure loads by moving the ailerons.
B. Relieve wing structure loads by extending spoilers 4 and 5.
C. Help slow the airplane down.
D. Both A and B.
21) With the A320 in Pitch Alternate Law, roll is in _______ Law.
A. Direct
B. Normal
C. Alternate
CAPITULO : 1
PAGINA : 26
22) When the landing gear is extended, pitch alternate law:
A. Remains the same.
B. Degrades to pitch direct law.
C. Degrades to pitch backup law.
23) In Pitch Alternate Law, the low Speed stability (nose down command) can be overridden by the
sidestick.
A. True
B. False
24) In the event of a complete loss of electrical flight control signals, the airplane reverts to a
_______ mode.
A. Mechanical
B. Alternate Law
C. Alternate law
D. Abnormal Attitude law
25) To select speed brakes inflight:
A. Push down on the speed brake handle and move it forward.
B. Push down on the speed brake handle and move it aft.
C. Pull up on the speed brake handle and move it aft.

CAPITULO : 1
PAGINA : 27
ANSWERS - FLIGHT CONTROLS
1. A
2. C
3. B
4. C
5. C
6. A
7. A
8. B
9. B
10. A
11. B
12. 5deg/sec, 1deg/sec, 20 degs.
13. Asymmetry, overspeed, symmetrical runaway, uncommanded movement
14. A
15. C
16. D
17. B
18. C
19. C
20. D
21. A
22. B
23. A
24. A
25. B
CAPITULO : 1
PAGINA : 28
CAPITULO 8 - FUEL
1) There are _______ fuel pumps in each A320 fuel tank.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
2) Gravity feed to the engines is enabled from:
A. The wing and center tanks.
B. The center tank only.
C The wing tanks only.
3) Refueling is possible if the aircraft batteries are the only source of power.
A. True
B. False
4) With the center tank pump mode SEL switch in AUTO, the center tank pumps:
A. Run for two minutes after both engines are running.
B. Will not restart untill slats are retracted in flight.
C. Continue to run until five minutes after the center tank is empty.
D. All the above.
5) Fuel transfer from the outer compartment to the inner compartment of the wing tanks occurs
when the inner compartment quantity decreases to:
A. 250 kilograms
B. 750 kilograms
C. 5000 kilograms
CAPITULO : 1
PAGINA : 29
6) What indication will you see on the overhead fuel panel if the center tank has more than 250
kilograms of fuel and the left or right wing tank has less than 5,000 kilograms.
A. Auto feed fault.
B. Fuel imbalance.
C. Mode select fault.
D. Fuel - Auto feed fault.
7) The Fuel Used indication on ECAM is reset:
A. Manually by the pilot.
B. Automatically at engine start on the ground.
C. Automatically at electric power up of the aircraft.
8) The fuel quantity indication on ECAM for the outer cell is boxed amber if:
A. One transfer valve fails to open.
B. Outer cell fuel temperature is high.
C. Both transfer valves fail to open when inner cell is at low level.
9) An amber line appears across the last two digits of the ECAM FOB indication when:
A. Fuel quantity is unreliable.
B. The center tank pumps are switched off.
C. The center tank pumps have failed.
10) The fuel crossfeed valve is controlled by _______ motors.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
CAPITULO : 1
PAGINA : 30
ANSWERS - FUEL
1) B
2) C
3) A
4) D
5) B
6) C
7) B
8) C
9) A
10) B
CAPITULO : 1
PAGINA : 31
CAPITULO 9 - HYDRAULICS
1) Fluid can be transferred between hydraulic systems.
A. True
B. False
2) Which hydraulic systems have engine driven pumps?
A. Green and blue.
B. Green and yellow.
C. Blue and yellow.
3) The Load Alleviation Function (LAF) accumulators are pressurized by which hydraulic
systems?
A. Green and blue.
B. Green and yellow.
C. Blue and yellow.
4) The RAT pressurizes the Blue hydraulic system to approximately _______ psi.
A. 1500
B. 2500
C. 3000
5) The yellow system has how many pumps to provide pressure not counting the PTU?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
CAPITULO : 1
PAGINA : 32
6) The hand pump supplies yellow system pressure to the:
A. normal brakes.
B. passenger doors.
C. cargo doors.
7) The PTU is automatically activated when the differential pump pressure output between the
_______ and _______ systems is greater than _______ psi.
8) It is possible to pressurize the green hydraulic system on the ground via the PTU when the
parking brake is set.
A. True
B. False
9) Hydraulic power to flaps, slats, landing gear1 nose wheel steering, and the emergency
generator is cut off by _______ if system pressure drops below a predetermined value.
A. Leak measurement valves.
B. Priority valves.
C. Fire shutoff valves.
10) The Eng Pump Fault light extinguishes when the engine pump switch is selected to off except
for:
A. reservoir low level.
B. Pump low pressure.
C. An overheat.
11) With the airplane on the ground and the blue electric pump switch in AUTO, the blue pump will
be energized when:
A. One engine is running.
B. The BLUE PUMP OVRD switch has been pressed.
C. Both A and B.
CAPITULO : 1
PAGINA : 33
12) The PTU Fault light illuminates when the:
A. PTU is inoperative.
B. Green or yellow reservoir has low air pressure.
C. PTU pump has overheated.
13) The PUMP identification number on the ECAM HYD page becomes amber when:
A. System pressure is below 1450 psi.
B. N2 is below idle.
C. The reservoir level is low.
14) The _______ hydraulic system provides power for gear extension/retraction.
A. Yellow.
B. Blue
C. Green
15) As long as the landing gear lever is up a hydraulic safety valve closes to cut off the hydraulic
supply to the gear when the airspeed is:
A. Greater than 260 KIAS.
B. Greater than 230 KIAS.
C. Less than 260 KIAS.
16) The normal brake system uses _______ hydraulic pressure and the alternate brakes use
_______ system pressure, with _______ backup.
17) Autobraking is initiated by:
A. Strut compression.
B. Reverser action.
C. Ground spoiler extension command.

CAPITULO : 1
PAGINA : 34
18) The alternate brake system has the same capabilities as normal brakes except:
A. Anti-skid is inoperative.
B. Autobrakes are inoperative.
C. Both A and B.
19) When using the alternate brake system on accumulator pressure only, the accumulator
supplies:
A. Partial brakes.
B. At least seven full brake applications.
C. Alternate brakes with antiskid.
20) The maximum degrees of nosewheel steering available when using the handwheel is _______.
A. +/- 60
B. +/- 75
C. +/- 95
21) When using rudder pedals, the nose wheel steering angle is _______ until approximately
_______ knots. As speed increases, the angle decreases progressively to _______ degrees
_______ at knots.
22) The green DECEL light on the Autobrake switch illuminates when the actual airplane
deceleration corresponds to _______ % of the selected rate.
A. 80
B. 95
C. 100
CAPITULO : 1
PAGINA : 35
23) The brakes pressure indication on TRIPLE PRESSURE INDICATOR reads which system
pressure?
A. Yellow
B. Blue
C. Green
24) To extend the landing gear with the Gravity Extension Handcrank requires _______ turns of the
handle.
A. 3 counter-clockwise
B. 2 counter-clockwise
C. 3 clockwise
CAPITULO : 1
PAGINA : 36
ANSWERS - HYDRAULIC
1) B
2) B
3) B
4) B
5) C
6) C
7) Green, yellow, 500
8) A
9) B
10) C
11) C
12) B
13) B
14) C
15) A
16) Green, yellow, an accumulator
17) C
18) B
19) B
20) B
21) +/-6, 40, 0, 130
22) A
23) A
24) C
CAPITULO : 1
PAGINA : 37
CAPITULO 10 - ICE AND RAIN
1) lnflight, the _______ on each wing are anti-iced with pneumatic bleed air.
A. Slats
B. Flaps
C. Three outboard slats
2) When a pneumatic leak is detected, the wing anti-ice valves:
A. Close automatically.
B. Open automatically.
C. Remain in position.
3) When either engine anti-ice valve is open:
A. Maximum N1 is increased.
B. Minimum idle rpm is increased.
C. Minimum idle rpm is reduced.
4) Window heat operates at what power level in flight?
A. Low
B. High
5) Probe heat comes on automatically when:
A. The AC ESS bus is powered.
B. Electrical power is applied to the aircraft.
C. When at least one engine is running.

CAPITULO : 1
PAGINA : 38
6) On the ground the wing anti-ice valves will:
A. Open during a test sequence (30 seconds), provided pneumatic supply is available.
B. Not open at anytime.
C. Open any time the switch is pushed "ON".
7) The FAULT light on the wing ant-ice switch indicates:
A. Anti-ice valve position disagrees with selected position.
B. Low pressure is detected
C. Either A or B.
8) The ECAM will display WING A. ICE when the wing anti-ice switch is on.
A. True
B. False
9) The Fault light on the engine anti-ice switches indicates the valve:
A. is closed.
B. position disagrees with switch position.
C. is open.
CAPITULO : 1
PAGINA : 39
ANSWERS - ICE AND RAIN
1) C
2) A
3) B
4) B
5) C
6) A
7) C
8) A
9) B
CAPITULO : 1
PAGINA : 40
CAPITULO 11 - MISCELLANEOUS
1) The majority of the APU's system logic is performed by:
A. A bleed monitoring computer (BMC).
B. An electronic control box (ECB).
C. An APU master control box.
2) If fuel pressure to the APU is too low from the left wing or left center tank boost pumps,
pressure will be available:
A. From the APU fuel pump automatically.
B. From the APU fuel pump when selected "ON".
C. From gravity fed fuel.
3) The APU will enter a cool down cycle of up to two minutes before shutting down:
A. Everytime the APU is shut down.
B. If APU bleed air is being used.
C. If the APU is shut down using the APU Fire switcn.
4) The APU will automatically shut down and it's fire extinguisher will automatically discharge in
the event of an APU fire:
A. In the air.
B. On the ground.
C. Either A or B.
5) The A320 cargo doors can be operated by either an _______ or a _______ to pressurize the
_______ hydraulic system.
CAPITULO : 1
PAGINA : 41
6) The airplane galley busses are powered from:
A. The AC ESS bus.
B. The DC ESS bus.
C. The main AC busses.
7) The electronic centralized airplane monitoring (ECAM) system presents _______ and _______
data on _______ identical CRT displays.
8) An "STS" message will flash on the engine/warning display after engine shutdown to:
A. Alert maintenance.
B. Alert the crew.
C. Remind the crew to turn off the ECAM.
9) The system display (SD) has 12 different system pages that can be displayed:
A. Automatically
B. On crew demand.
C. Both A and B.
10) If the Upper ECAM screen fails, the E/WD data is:
A. Lost for the rest of the flight.
B. Automatically transferred to the lower screen
C. Manually transferred to the MC DU
11) If both ECAM screens fail or are switched off, the E/WD information is:
A. Automatically transferred to the Capt's PFD.
B. Lost for the rest of the flight.
C. Displayed on an ND using the ECAM/ND XFR switch.

CAPITULO : 1
PAGINA : 42
12) Actions to be carried out are shown in _______ on the ECAM E/WD.
A. Blue
B. Amber
C. Red
13) MEMO display is located on the:
A. MCDU
B. SD memo section
C. E/WD memo section
14) A "TO INHIBIT" or “LDG INHIBIT" memo is displayed in magenta to remind the crew:
A. The takeoff or landing is inhibited.
B. Most of the failure titles and associated checklists are suppressed.
C. All of the failure titles and associated checklists are suppressed.
15) A takeoff (T.O.) memo appears _______ after the second engine is started or, when the
_______ switch is pressed with one engine running.
16) The APU is available to supply bleed air and/or electrical power at:
A. 80%N
B. 85%N
C. 95%N
17) When the TO CONFIG key is pushed it:
A. Simulates takeoff power application.
B. Triggers a warning if the airplane is not properly configured.
C. Displays TO CONFIG NORMAL if airplane properly configured.
D. All the above.

CAPITULO : 1
PAGINA : 43
18) Following a failure of the ECAM control panel:
A. The ECAM is lost.
B. System pages can be displayed by pressing the ALL switch.
C. The ECAM pages automatically transfer to the ND.
19) The MASTER WARN lights:
A. Illuminate steady red for level 2 warnings.
B. Flash red for level 3 warnings.
C. Illuminate steady red for level 3 warnings.
20) All aural warnings associated with level 3 warnings can be cancelled any time the MASTER
WARNING light is pushed.
A. True
B. False
CAPITULO : 1
PAGINA : 44
ANSWERS - MYSCELLANEOUS
1) B
2) A
3) B
4) B
5) Electric pump, hand pump, yellow
6) C
7) Airplane engine, system, 2
8) A
9) C
10) B
11) C
12) A
13) C
14) B
15) 2 minutes, CONFIG TEST
16) C
17) D
18) B
19) B
20) B
CAPITULO : 1
PAGINA : 45
CAPITULO 12 - NAVIGATION
1) The A320 Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) consists of _______ identical display
units.
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
2) The three Display Management Computers (DMCS) acquire:
A. and process all input from airplane sensors and computers to generate the display images.
B. data for the display of alert messages, aural alerts, and voice messages.
C. data for ACARS messages.
3) The A320 has _______ Air Data Inertial Reference Units (ADIRU’s).
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
4) Present position, latitude and longitude, is entered into the ADIRS prior to each flight:
A. On the ADIRS CDU.
B. Via either MCDU.
C. Via the FMGC.
D. Either A or B.
5) GPWS aural and visual warnings can not be inhibited.
A. True
B. False
CAPITULO : 1
PAGINA : 46
6) The Flight Management and Guidance Computers (FMGCs) have three functions, flight
management.
A. ECAM control, flight guidance.
B. ECAM control, EIS control.
C. Flight guidance, flight augmentation.
7) There are three possible modes of FMGC operation: _______, _______, and _______.
8) Selection of the correct takeoff runway on the FMGC prior to each flight is necessary because:
A. The FADEC needs it to know how much to reduce the thrust for takeoff.
B. Selection of the correct runway insures proper pressurization.
C. Selection of the correct runway permits the FMGC to update its position at takeoff.
9) The two basic modes of flight guidance on the A320 are:
A. Slaved and coupled.
B. Managed and selected.
C. Manual and coupled.
10) The MANAGED mode of flight guidance is used for:
A. Lateral, vertical, and speed commands as selected on the FCU.
B. Lateral, vertical, and speed commands as determined by the FMGS.
C. Lateral, vertical, and speed profiles as determined by the FMGS.
11) Both autopilots can be engaged and active in any phase of flight.
A. True
B. False
CAPITULO : 1
PAGINA : 47
12. All navaids are normally autotuned by:
A. The FMGC
B. MCDU
C. ADIRU
13) VOR data can be displayed on:
A. Both NDs
B. The DDRMI
C. Both A and B
14) What is the preferred method of radio position updating for the FMGS?
A. VOR/DME
B. ILS/DME
C. DME/DME
15) Altitude alerting is automatically inhibited in flight when:
A. Slats are fully extended with the landing gear handle selected down.
B. Slats are retracted with the landing gear selected down.
C. G/S or FINAL APP modes are engaged during the approach.
D. Either A or C
16) The windshear function of the FAC's is independent of the flight director on/off switch.
A. True
B. False
CAPITULO : 1
PAGINA : 48
17) All PFD displays except attitude, speed, heading, altitude, and vertical speed are removed
when pitch attitude exceeds 25 degrees nose up or 13 degrees nose down.
A. True
B. False
18) Sidestick position and max. sidestick deflection are displayed on the ground on the PFD:
A. Continuously after aircraft power is applied.
B. After the first engine start.
C. On takeoff roll when power is applied.
19) The airspeed indication on the PFD starts at:
A. 100 kts.
B. 50 kts.
C. 30 kts.
20) The speed trend arrow on the PFD airspeed scale indicates the speed value that will be
attained in _______ seconds if the acceleration remains constant.
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
21) Radio Height is displayed on the PFD:
A. Below 2500'.
B. When the LOC or APPR p/b is pressed.
C. When a Decision Height is selected.

CAPITULO : 1
PAGINA : 49
22) The Armed Vertical Modes are displayed on the Flight Mode Annunciator on the second line in:
A. Blue or magenta.
B. Blue or green.
C. White
23) The Engaged Vertical Modes are displayed on the Flight Mode Annunciator on the first line in:
A. Green or Blue
B. Green or Magenta
C. Blue
24) ILS 1 information is displayed on _______ when operating in the rose ILS mode:
A. PFD 2 & ND 1
B. PFD 1 & ND 1
C. PFD 1 & ND 2
25) The ON BAT light on the ADIRS CDU illuminates:
A. Only when all IRU's are on battery power.
B. When an IRU fault is detected.
C. When one or more ADIRU's, are supplied by airplane battery only.
26) In the event of failure of the AIR DATA function of ADIRU 1 or 2, the affected displays can be
manually selected over to ADR 3 by the:
A. ECAM/ND transfer selector.
B. AIR DATA selector.
C. ATT HDG selector.

CAPITULO : 1
PAGINA : 50
27) When a double entry is needed on the MCDU (e.g. wind direction/speed: 270/110) the
separating slash must be used. The trailing entry of a pair must be preceded by a slash if it is
entered alone.
A. True
B. False
28) Box prompts on the MCDU indicate data:
A. Entry is optional for FMGS operation.
B. Entry is required for minimum FMGS operation.
C. will be filled in by the FMGS.
29) Dashes on the MCDU indicate data:
A. Entry is not allowed.
B. Is being calculated by the FMGC.
C. Either A or B
30) An FMGS message which requires immediate attention is displayed in:
A. Red
B. Amber
C. Magenta
31) If the FLEX TEMP is not entered on the Takeoff Page of the MCDU:
A. A FLX takeoff is still available, set power with the thrust levers.
B. The FMGS will enter it for you based on TAT.
C. A FLX takeoff is not available.

CAPITULO : 1
PAGINA : 51
32. Zero Fuel Weight is entered on:
A. Init B page.
B. Prog page.
C. Perf page.
33) If the SPD/MACH knob on the FCU is not pulled within a predetermined time to engage
selected speed:
A. The selection can be made at any time.
B. The selection is lost and dashes are re-displayed.
C. The selection is lost and the display goes blank.
34) When the altitude knob on the FCU is pulled:
A. The altitude is armed.
B. The current altitude is canceled.
C. OPEN CLIMB or DESCENT engages.
35) You can disengage the EXPEDITE mode by:
A. Pressing the EXPED switch on the FCU.
B. Engaging another vertical mode.
C. Either A or B.
36. The Standby Attitude indication will remain available for _______ minutes after total electrical
failure.
A. 5
B. 10
C. 22
CAPITULO : 1
PAGINA : 52
ANSWERS - NAVIGATION
1) B
2) A
3) B
4) D
5) B
6) C
7) DUAL, INDEPENDENT, SINGLE
8) C
9) B
10) C
11) B
12) A
13) C
14) C
15) D
16) A
17) A
18) B
19) C
20) B
21) A
22) A
23) A
24) C
25) C
26) B
27) A
28) B
29) B
30) B
31) C
32) A
33) B
34) C
35) B
36) A
CAPITULO : 1
PAGINA : 53
CAPITULO 13 - PNEUMATICS
1) Engine bleed air temperature is controlled by:
A. Engine oil.
B. A pre-cooler that uses fan air.
C. Conditioned air from the mixing unit.
2) If BMG # 1 fails, BMC # 2 takes over all monitoring functions except:
A. Engine 1 and APU leak detection.
B. Overheat detection.
C. Automatic crossbleed valve control.
3) Bleed air normally comes from the _______ of the engine.
A. High pressure stage.
B. Intermediate stage.
C. Low pressure stage.
4) In flight if the air pressure is insufficient even with the HP valve open:
A. The engine spools up automatically.
B. Engine power has to be increased by the pilot.
C. Push the High Pressure P/B on the ovhd panel.
5) The pressure regulating and shutoff valve will close if _______ pressure is _______ or
_______ airflow occurs
6) The crossbleed valve has two electric motors, one for the automatic mode and one for the
manual mode:
A. True
B. False
CAPITULO : 1
PAGINA : 54
7) The overheat detection system uses a single loop for:
A. The pylons and APU.
B. The wings and pylons.
C. The wings and fuselage.
8) The APU BLEED FAULT light illuminates amber for an APU:
A. overheat.
B. malfunction.
C. bleed leak.
9) The AUTO position of the X BLEED selector opens the crossbleed if:
A. An engine bleed valve is open.
B. The APU bleed valve is open.
C. When engine start is selected.
10) The engine bleed FAULT light will extinguish when the ENG BLEED switch is selected off:
A. even if the fault still exits.
B. and the failure has disappeared.
C. Either A or B.
11) Recirculation fans in the air conditioning system direct filtered cabin air to which area?
A. The pneumatic duct, upstream of the packs.
B. The avionics compartment.
C. The Mixing unit.

CAPITULO : 1
PAGINA : 55
12) Temperature regulation for the A320 is controlled by:
A. One zone controller and two pack controllers.
B. Two pack controllers and the BMC’s.
C. The BMC's.
13) If an air cycle machine (ACM) fails, the affected pack:
A. The ACM is inoperative.
B. Defaults to the last temperature selection.
C. Can be operated in the heat exchanger cooling mode.
14) Should both pack controllers fail, pack outlet temperature:
A. will go to full cold.
B. Stays at the present temperature.
C. Is controlled to 59 degrees F by the pack anti-ice valve.
15) Should both channels fail in a zone controller:
A. Temperature optimization is still available for that zone from another controller.
B. Temperature optimization and the backup mode are lost.
C. The pack is not affected.
16) The lavatory/galley extract fan operates:
A. Only on the ground.
B. Only in flight.
C. Continuously when electrical power is available.

CAPITULO : 1
PAGINA : 56
17) If bleed air is being supplied by the APU or if one pack fails, pack flow will go to what rate?
A. Low.
B. Medium.
C. High.
18) An amber Fault light in the HOT AIR p/b indicates:
A. Valve position disagrees with commanded position.
B. A duct overheat is detected.
C. Either A or B
19) What happens to the outflow valve when the RAM AIR switch is selected ON?
A. The outflow valve opens immediately.
B. The outflow valve opens if cabin differential pressure is less than 1 psi.
C. Normal outflow valve control is maintained.
20) When either the BLOWER or EXTRACT switches are in OVRD, air from the air conditioning
system is added to ventilation air.
A. True.
B. False
21) How many motors are available for the outflow valve?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
CAPITULO : 1
PAGINA : 57
22) Transfer between the two cabin pressure controllers is:
A. Accomplished with a switch overhead.
B. Automatic after landing or in case the operating controller fails.
C. Automatically at each takeoff.
23) The maximum cabin descent rate is limited in automatic to:
A. 300 ft/min.
B. 750 ft/min.
C. 1000 ft/min.
24) The third motor (manual) in the pressurization system is activated:
A. Automatically if both automatic motors fail.
B. In sequence after each landing.
C. When the CABIN PRESS MODE SEL switch is positioned to MAN.
25) When the cabin vertical speed exceeds _______ fpm, the vertical speed display on ECAM
_______.
CAPITULO : 1
PAGINA : 58
ANSWERS - PNEUMATICS
1. B
2. A
3. B
4. A
5. Upstream, low, reverse
6. A
7. A
8. C
9. B
10. B
11. C
12. A
13. C
14. C
15. B
16. C
17. C
18. C
19. B
20. A
21. C
22. B
23. B
24. C
25. 1800, flashes green

Study Guide

Uploaded by

Document Information

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Study Guide

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

CAPITULO : 1

CAPITULO 1 - ABBREVIATIONS AND ACRONYMS

ACP Audio Control Panel

EFIS Electronic Flight Instrument System

PHC Probe Heat Computer

1) All communications radios are controlled:

A. From the audio control panels (ACPs)

C. From any one of the three radio management panels (RMPs).

2) Only _______ is functional in the emergency electrical configuration.

3) The Cockpit Voice Recorder will record:

A. Direct conversations between crewmembers.

B. All aural cockpit warnings.

C. Communications over radio and intercom.

E. All of the above

A. Intercom at all times.

B. Radio selected by the transmission switch on the Audio Control Panel.

C. Radio selected by the reception knob on the Audio Control Panel.

C. Service Int on the nose gear panel.

9) Illumination of the SEL indicator on a Radio Management Panel indicates:

A. the RMP has failed.

B. the VHF has failed.

C. the RMP is being tuned to a transceiver from another RMP.

CAPITULO 3 - ELECTRICAL AND LIGHTING

A. External power, engine generators, APU

B. APU, external power, engine generators

C. Engine generators, external power, APU

4) The BATTERY BUS is normally powered by:

B. DC bus 1 through a DC tie control relay.

C. DC bus 2 through a DC tie control relay.

5) The A-320 has _______ batteries in its main electrical system.

B. AC bus 1 to AC Grnd/Flt bus

8) Which of the following AC busses can be powered by the emergency generator?

C. AC ESS bus / AC ESS SHED bus

9) The RAT is connected directly (mechanically) to the Emergency Generator

10) The emergency generator supplies power as long as:

A. The landing gear is down.

B. The RAT is deployed.

C. The landing gear is up.

12) The BAT FAULT light will illuminate when:

A. Battery voltage is low

B. Charging current increases at an abnormal rate

C. Charging current decreases at an abnormal rate.

14) The IDG Fault light indicates:

A. An IDG oil overheat

B. IDG low oil pressure.

C. IDG has been disconnected

A. Captain's instrument panel.

C. Right dome light (provided the dome selector is not off).

D. All off the above.

ANSWERS - ELECTRICAL AND LIGHTINGS

CAPITULO 4 - EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT

1) Cockpit crew oxygen is provided by:

A. A solid state chemical system.

B. A single high pressure bottle.

C. Individual high pressure bottles at each station.

2) Passenger oxygen is supplied by:

A. Individual high pressure bottles at each seat.

B. A single high pressure bottle in the lower fuselage.

C. A chemical generator system.

4) The passenger oxygen system is good for approximately:

6) Cockpit crew oxygen can be turned off from the cockpit?

7) Crew oxygen pressure is displayed on the ECAM page:

B. DC ESS SHED bus.

D. All of the above