Q Bank Diagnosis Team

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1.

Which of the followings not considered the cause of increasing the


destruction of white blood cells?
A. Hypersplenism.
B. Autoantibodies against WBCs (as in SLE).
C. Renal failure.
D. Viral infections as measles, hepatitis A, HIV.

2. The normal prothrombin Time (PT) is:


A. 11-13 sec.
B. 15-19 sec.
C. 11-19 sec.
D. 19-25 sec.

3. Which of the followings not considered the cause in prolonged


bleeding time?
A. Thrombocytopenia.
B. Paget’s disease.
C. Aspirin therapy.
D. Uremia.

4. The normal value of hemoglobin in adult male is:


A. 17 ± 2.5 mg/ dI.
B. 15± 2.5 gm / dl.
C. 12± 2.5 gm / dl.
D. 13 ± 2.5 gm / dl.
5. The hemoglobin level increased in:
A. Anemia
B. Polycythemia
C. Thrombocytopenia
D. Erythrocytopenia
6. The hemoglobin level decreased in:
A. Anemia
B. Polycythemia
C. Thrombocytopenia
D. Erythrocytopenia

7. The normal adult Total White blood cells:


A. 4000 – 11000/mm
B. 150 000- 450 000/mm
C. 1500- 4000/mm
D. 10 000-15 000/mm
8. The normal percentage of neutrophils to the total white blood cell
count:
A. 10-20%
B. 60-70%
C. 50 %
D. 30-40%
9. The increased numbers of the white blood cells considered:
A. Leukocytosis
B. Leukopenia
C. Erythrocytopenia
D. Erythrocytosis
10. The decreased numbers of the white blood cells considered:
A. Leukocytosis
B. Leukopenia
C. Erythrocytopenia
D. Erythrocytosis
11. The normal Platelet count:
A. 450 000- 500 000 cells/mm3
B. 150,000- 400,000 cells / mm3.
C. 4000-11000 cell/mm3
D. 6500-7000 cell/mm3

12. The normal Red Blood Cell count:


A. 4.5- 5.5 million /mm3
B. 6.5-7.5 million /mm3
C. 2.5-3.5 million/mm3
D. 1-1.5 million/mm3

13. The Red blood cell count (more than 6.5 million /mm3) considered:
A. Polycythemia
B. Thrombocytopenia
C. Normal
D. Erytherocytopenia

14. The Red blood cell count (less than 4 million /mm3) considered:
E. Polycythemia
F. Thrombocytopenia
G. Normal
H. Erytherocytopenia

15. Hess test (Tourniquet test) is used to test:


A. Platelet function
B. Platelet count
C. Platelet aggregation
D. Capillary fragility

16. In Tourniquet test : if the number of petechiae appearing on the


forearm within an area of a circle 1 inch in diameter is more than
10 petechiae, that means:
A. Increased capillary fragility
B. Increased bleeding time
C. Increased clotting time
D. Increased platelet aggregation
17. To test platelet function we can use:
A. Duke method
B. Hess test
C. Test paper strips
D. Total platelet count
18. Duke method is used to test:
A. Platelet function
B. Platelet count
C. Platelet aggregation
D. Capillary fragility
19. Normal values of serum alkaline phosphatase is
A. 0.0 3 – 1.3 King - Armstrong units / dl
B. 0. 3 – 1.3 King - Armstrong units / dl
C. 3 - 13 King - Armstrong units / dl
D. 30 - 130 King - Armstrong units / dl
20. The blood urea nitrogen level decreased in
A. Decreased liver function
B. decreased kidney function
C. Metastatic carcinoma to bone.
D. Paget’s disease
21. Glycosylated hemoglobin reflects the average of control blood
glucose over last:
A. 80 days
B. 90 days
C. 100 days
D. 110 days
22. Normal serum value of bilirubin is
A. 0.3 - 1 g/d
B. 0.3 - 1 g/dl
C. 0.3 - 1 mg/d
D. 0.3 - 1 mg/dl
23. The normal level Blood urea nitrogen is:
A. 5 - 25 mg /dl.
B. 5 - 35 mg /dl.
C. 5 - 45 mg /dl.
D. 5 - 55 mg /dl.
24. The serum uric acid level increase in case of:

A. Leukemia
B. Myocardial infarction
C. Metastatic carcinoma to bone.
D. Paget’s disease.
25. The normal value of serum uric acid level is:
A. .025 – 0.08 mg/dI.
B. 0.25 -0. 8 mg/dI.
C. 2.5 - 8 mg/dI.
D. 25 - 80 mg/dI.
26. Biopsy is important for diagnosis of:
A. Major Aphthous ulcer
B. Recurrent intraoral herpes.
C. Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
D. Malignant ulcer
27. Oral Brush Biopsy is
A. A non reliable, invasive and simple chair side procedure to determine
if an oral lesion is benign or potentially harmful. Pre-cancerous and
early stage oral cancerous lesions can be determined.
B. A reliable non invasive and simple chair side procedure to determine if
an oral lesion is benign or potentially harmful. Pre-cancerous and early
stage oral cancerous lesions can be determined.
C. A reliable, invasive and simple chair side procedure to determine if an
oral lesion is benign or potentially harmful. Pre-cancerous and early
stage oral cancerous lesions can be determined.
D. D.A reliable non-invasive and simple chair side procedure to
determine only benign oral lesions but not pre-cancerous and early
stage oral cancerous lesions
28. Biopsy is contraindicated if:
A. When we do not have enough information to make a diagnosis.
B. The traumatic lesions if resolved after removal of the cause
C. Diagnosis of persistent lesion of unknown etiology.
D. Diagnosis of suspected malignant lesions
29. Biopsy is indicated if:
A. Deep lesions near a vital structure
B. Diagnosis of persistent lesions that are failing to respond to
treatment
C. Significant hemorrhage in case of a vascular lesion
D. Difficult access with the risk of damage to neighboring
structures
30. Excisional biopsy is:
A. Complete removal of the lesion when it is not larger than 1 cm
in diameter
B. Large lesions, larger than 1cm
C. Should include the junction with surrounding normal tissue.
D. Multiple tissue samples may be required
31. All of the following are correct about Fine Needle Aspiration
Biopsy EXCEPT:
A. Simplicity of technique (it can be easily performed on an outpatient
basis using a local anesthetic),
B. Greater patient acceptance
C. May be used for vesiculo-erosive disease
D. Less risk of delayed wound healing and infection than with incisional
or excisional biopsy.

32. All of the following is correct about Oral Exfoliative Cytology


EXCEPT:
A. A negative report does not ensure the absence of malignancy
B. A definitive diagnosis cannot be made.
C. A positive report of malignancy or of suspicion of malignancy
should always be followed up by a biopsy.
D. Provide definitive diagnosis of suspected malignant lesions
33. All of the following is correct about incisional biopsy EXCEPT:
A. Multiple tissue samples may be required (i.e., serial biopsy).
B. The sample should be taken from the most severely affected
area
C. Should be taken from small lesions less than 1cm in diameter
D. Necrotic areas generally should be avoided because they will
not be diagnostic.
34. All of the following is correct about punch biopsy EXCEPT:
A. Punch biopsies are used for either incisional or excisional
biopsy of a small lesion
B. Should be taken from accessible site (tongue, buccal mucosa).
C. Painless procedure can be done without local anesthetic
D. May be used for vesiculo-erosive disease and to minimize
postsurgical discomfort.

35. Which of following investigative procedure would be performed in


a 60 year old male presenting with a non-healing ulcer on the
buccal mucosa of the right side with size > 2cm. Patient also has a
history of tobacco chewing for last 20 years. The ulcer has not
responded to local measures. The clinical suspects the ulcer to be
squamous cell carcinoma?

A. Excisional biopsy
B. Incisional biopsy
C. Exfoliative cytology
D. Needle aspiration
36. The development of new linear skin lesions on lines of trauma or
injury is called:
A. Kobner’s phenomena
B. Raynaud's phenomena
C. Sweet’s Syndrome
D. . Drier’s disease

37. A 70 year old non smokers gardener presents with crusting of


lower lip for the last 4-5 years, what the most probable diagnosis?
A. Frictional keratosis
B. Actinic chelitis
C. Stomatitis nicotina
D. Chelitis glandularis

38. Oral hairy leukoplakia is associated with HIV infection with


decreasing CD4 counts. The causative agent in oral hairy
leukoplakia:
A. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
B. Cytomegalo virus
C. Herps Semplix Virus
D. Herps Zoster Virus

39. All of the following are hereditary white lesions EXCEPT:


A. Witkop’s disease
B. Cannon’s disease
C. Darier’s disease
D. Psoriasis

40. All of the following lesions covered with a white pseudo-membrane


EXCEPT:
A. Aspirin burn
B. ANUG
C. Parulis
D. . Oral Thrush

41. All of the following are normal anatomical variation of the oral
mucosa EXCEPT:
A. Leukodema
B. Fordyces granules
C. White sponge nevus
D. Linea Alba Buccalis

42. The following are the indications for biopsy EXCEPT for:
A. Any lesion that persists for more than 2 weeks with no apparent
etiology
B. Any inflammatory lesion that does not respond to local treatment
after 10-14 days
C. Persistent hyperkeratotic changes in surface tissues
D. Any lesion that regress after removal its cause
43. A 2cm discrete, white lesion of the buccal mucosa has not cured
after elimination of all local irritations. The most appropriate
management would be to:
A. Cauterize it
B. Apply toluidine blue staining
C. Perform an incisional biopsy
D. Refer patient to family physician

44. A smooth, elevated, red patch devoid of filiform papillae, located


in the midline of the dorsum of the tongue immediately anterior to
the circumvallate papillae is indicative of :
A. . Benign migratory glossitis.
B. Median rhomboid glossitis.
C. A granular cell tumor.
D. Iron deficiency anemia.

45. A patient has an asymptomatic, white patch on the oral mucosa.


Which of the following methods of examination is most likely to
lead to a diagnosis?
A. Exfoliative cytology
B. Biopsy
C. Culture
D. Application of methylene blue

46. Denture stomatitis can be associated with:


A. Xerostomia.
B. Inadequate denture hygiene.
C. Ill-fitting dentures.
D. All of the above.
47. The microscopic study of cells scraped from the surface of a lesion
is called:
A. Incisional biopsy
B. Excisional biopsy
C. Exfoliative cytology
D. Punched biopsy

48. All of the following are common causes of a white appearance of


mucosa EXCEPT:
A. Acantholysis
B. Hyperkeratosis
C. Acanthosis
D. Leukoedema

49. History of drug administration is associated with all of the


following EXCEPT:

A. Lichenoid lesions
B. Acute erythematous candidiasis
C. Actinic chelitis
D. Systemic lupus eryhtematosis

50. Dysphagia may be associated with all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Atrophic & erosive lichen planus.


B. Recurrent herpes labialis
C. Oral submucous fibrosis.
D. Squamous cell carcinoma.

51. History of Excessive Smoking and tobacco is associated with all of


the following EXCEPT:

A. Stomatitis nicotina
B. Leukoplakia
C. Erosive lichen planus
D. Smoker’s patch on the lower lip

52. A 40 year old male presents with a painless white area on the
tongue adjacent to broken lower right 5 for the last two weeks, the
most probable clinical diagnosis is:
A. Traumatic ulcer
B. Frictional keratosis
C. Smoker’s keratosis
D. Squamous cell carcinoma

53. A 5 year-old girl presents with white spots distributed on buccal


mucosa, soft palate, tongue, and lips. The lesions can be wiped off
with a tongue blade reveal an erythematous base. Which could be
the most probable clinical diagnosis?

A. Acute moniliasis.
B. Witkop’ disease.
C. Cannon’s disease.
D. Stevens-Johnson syndrome
54. Angular cheilitis associated with all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Iron deficiency anemia


B. Vitamin B12 deficiency
C. Metallic restorations
D. Ill-fitting dentures

55. All of the following diseases cause intra-oral white lesions with
extra-oral manifestations EXCEPT:
A. Syphilis
B. Hereditary benign intraepithelial dyskeratosis
C. White folded gingivostomatitis
D. Homogenous Leukoplakia

56. An autoimmune disease with multiorgan involvement


characterized by the production of numerous autoantibodies
directed against erythrocytes, leukocytes, platelets, coagulation
factors??
A. Lichen Planus
B. Systemic Lupus Erythematousus
C. Psoriasis
D. Graft Versus Host Disease
57. A 55 year-old female present with clinical symptoms of burning
sensation in the oral cavity even while eating non-spicy food. She
had also history of diabetes mellitus and hypertension, for which
she was taking medication also. Intra-oral examination revealed
grayish white lesions present bilaterally over the buccal mucosa.
What would be the most probable clinical diagnosis?
A. Pemphigus
B. Lichen planus
C. Psoarsis
D. Erythema multiform

58. A 24 year old female gives history of betel quid chewing presents
clinical symptoms of reduced mouth opening and burning
sensation while eating spicy foods. Intra oral examination reveals
palpable fibrotic bands and blanching of the hard palate,
shrunken and deviated uvula, hypertrophic masseter muscle.
Which of following condition is most likely the cause of above
symptoms?
A. Oral leukoplakia
B. Oral lichen planus
C. Oral submucous fibrosis
D. Scleroderma

59. Which of the following conditions is least likely to be associated or


progress into oral squamous cell carcinoma?
A. Erythroplakia
B. Leukoedema
C. Leukoplakia
D. Plummer Vinson syndrome
60. An autoimmune disease with multiorgan involvement
characterized by the production of numerous autoantibodies
directed against erythrocytes, leukocytes, platelets, coagulation
factors??
E. Lichen Planus
F. Systemic Lupus Erythematousus
G. Psoriasis
H. Graft Versus Host Disease

61. The clinical feature of Stomatitis nicotina is


A. Raised yellowish white rings around red dots on dorsum surface
of tongue
B. Raised yellowish white rings around red dots on posterior
hard palate
C. Diffuse white batch on soft palate
D. Hyperkeratosis on anterior hard palate
62. A 5 year-old girl presents with clinical features of fever, gingival
bleeding and extensive oral ulceration in the oral cavity. There is
no relevant past medical history. Which could be the most
probable clinical diagnosis

A. Recurrent aphthous stomatitis


B. Herpes zoster infection
C. Herpes simplex infection
D. Candidal infection
63. A 45 year-old female gives chief complaint of recurrent oral
ulcerations along with corneal ulcerations. Intra-oral biopsy of the
ulcer was performed. Histopathological slide of the biopsy
specimen reveals sub-epithelial vesicles. What would be the most
probable diagnosis?
A. Mucous membrane pemphigoid
B. Pemphigus vulgaris
C. Lichen planus
D. Psoarsis

64. A 35-year-old homosexual man, presented with a 2-week history


of a solitary ulcerated plaque on the dorsal aspect of the tongue.
He had an otherwise unremarkable past medical history. The
ulcerated plaque was indurated on palpation and measured 2.0 cm
in diameter, what is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Primary syphilitic chancre of the tongue
B. TB ulcer
C. Erythema multiform
D. Systemic Lupus Erythematousus
65. Chronic multiple ulcers preceded by vesiclulobollous lesions
affecting skin and mucous membrane
A. Varicella zoster virus infection
B. Coxsackie virus infection
C. Behcet’s disease
D. Pemphigus vulgaris
66. All of the following ulcers are single ulcer EXCEPT:
A. Traumatic ulcer
B. Malignant ulcer
C. Bullous pemphigoid
D. Tuberculosis ulcer
67. Acute oral ulcerations due to bacterial infection associated with
punched out lesions, severe pain, bad odor and bad taste are most
probably:
A. Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
B. Acute intra oral herpes
C. Erythema multiform
D. Systemic Lupus Erythematousus
68. Single chronic painful indurated ulcer occur most commonly on
the tongue due to bacterial infection:
A. Chancer
B. TB ulcer
C. Malignant ulcer
D. Major aphthus ulcer
69. The patient in this case is a 55 y.o. female who has been on steroids
and antibiotics for over two weeks because of a pulmonary
infection. The white lesions observed in this patient were easily
removed with a tongue blade leaving a raw bleeding surface. These
white lesions are most likely which of the following?
a) atrophic (erythematous) candidiasis
b) pseudomembranous candidiasis
c) chemical burns
d) ANUG
70. Which of the following disease entities may commonly manifest a
positive nikolsky sign?
a) Pemphigous vulgaris
b) Lichen planus reticular type
c) Erythema multiform
d) all of the above

71. Which of the following clinical features is more consistent with a


diagnosis of recurrent aphthous ulcers, minor type than with
recurrent herpes simplex infection?
a) lesions occur most frequently on non keratinized tissue
b) lesions occur most frequently on keratinized tissue
c) initial lesion begins as a vesicle
d) all of the above

72. Which of the following is the most common type of oral mucosal
ulcer?
A. Traumatic ulcer
B. TB ulcer
C. Herpes labialis
D. Intra oral herpes
73. Which of the following is considered to be an oral precancerous
condition?
a) leukoplakia
b) erythroplakia
c) oral submucous fibrosis
d) all of the above
74. The patient in this case indicated that she had had similar lesions
at the same site previously and that they healed in a couple of
weeks. This solitary lesion was described as quite painful. Which
of the following lesions should head your list of differential
diagnoses?
a) recurrent herpes simplex infection
b) recurrent aphthous ulcer
c) ectopic geographic tongue
e) erythema multiforme minor
75. Acute visicullobollous lesions affecting the skin and mucous
membrane and not associated with viral nor bacterial infection
associated with periods of recurrence and exacerbation:
A. Erythema multiform
B. Pemphigus valgaris
C. Mucous membrane pemphigoid
D. Bollous pemphigoid

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