Redeemer’s Secondary School.

Zone C Bolorunduro Emure- Ile, Owo. Ondo State, Nigeria.

HOLIDAY ASSIGNMENT FOR SSS TWO
MATHEMATICS
Instruction: Answer ALL questions. Show all workings to both objective and theory quesrions
SECTION A

1. Multiply 2.7 x 10-4 by 6.3 x 106 and leave (𝑐) 𝑦 − 3𝑥 − 11 = 0 (d) 𝑦 − 3𝑥 − 13 =

your answer in standard form. 0
(a) 17.0 x 103 (b) 1.70 x 103 10. Find the gradient of the line joining the point
(c) 1.701 x 103 (d) 17.01 x 103 (2, 3) and (6, -5).(a) -5 (b) -3 (c) -2
27𝑥 ×31−𝑥 (d) 2
2. If = 1, find the value of 𝑥.
92𝑥
1 1 11. What is the value of p if the gradient of the
(a) 1 (b) (𝑐) − (𝑑) -1 2
2 2 line joining (-1, p) and (p,4) is ?
3
3. Find the 6th term of the sequence: 2, 5, 10, 17,
(a) -4 (b) -2 (c) 2 (d) 10
26,…… (a) 37 (b) 48 (c) 50 2 2
12. Factorize 6𝑥 + 7𝑥𝑦 − 5𝑦
(d) 63
(a) (6𝑥 + 5)(𝑥 − 𝑦) (𝑏)(2𝑥 + 5𝑦)(3𝑥 −
4. Given that 3𝑥 + 7𝑦 = 1 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑥 − 7𝑦 =
𝑦)
19, then 𝑥 + 𝑦 =
(c) (3𝑥 + 𝑦)(2𝑥 − 𝑦) (𝑑)(3𝑥 + 5𝑦)(2𝑥 −
(a) -2 (b) -3 (c) 3 (d) 5
𝑦)
5. The length of a wall is given as 20m to 1s.f.
13. What must be added to the expression 𝑥 2 +
Calculate the possible percentage error in the
18𝑥 to make it a perfect square?
measurement.
(a) ±0.25% (b) ±10% (c) ±5% (d) (a) 3 (b) 9 (c) 36 (d) 81
±25% 14. Make s the subject of the relation:
𝑠𝑚2 𝑚𝑟𝑝
6. Adding 42 to a given positive number gives 𝑝=𝑠+ (𝑎) 𝑠 = (𝑏)𝑠 =
𝑛𝑟 𝑛𝑟+𝑚2
the same result as squaring the number. Find 𝑛𝑟+𝑚2 𝑛𝑟𝑝 𝑛𝑟𝑝
− (𝑐)𝑠 = (𝑑)𝑠 =
the number. (a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 13 𝑚𝑟𝑝 𝑚𝑟+𝑚2 𝑛𝑟+𝑚2

(d) 14 15. Using tables, evaluate 0.69272 correct to 3

7. Express 1975 correct to 2 significant figures. significant figures.
(a) 20 (b) 1,900 (c) 1,980 (d) (a) 0.480 (b) 0.479 (c) 0.48 (d)
2,000 0.048
2 3 5𝑥 16. The 6th term of an A.P is -10 and the 9th term
8. Simplify −𝑥 (𝑎)
1−𝑥 𝑥(1−𝑥) is -28. Find the common difference.
3𝑥 − 3 5𝑥 − 3 5𝑥 + 3 (a) -3 (b) -6 (c) 6 (d) 7
(𝑏) (𝑐) (𝑑)
𝑥(1 − 𝑥) 𝑥(1 − 𝑥) 𝑥(1 − 𝑥) 17. Find the number of terms in the Arithmetic
9. Find the equation of the line passing through Progression (A.P) 2, -9, -20, …, -141.
the point (4, -1) with gradient 3 (a) 11 (b) 12 (c) 13 (d) 14
(a) 𝑦 − 3𝑥 + 13 = 0 (𝑏)𝑦 + 3𝑥 + 13 = 0 18. 𝐴

2𝑥 0 𝐵

600
𝑥0
𝐸
 (a) 2.4% (b) 2.5% (c) 3.3%
(d) 3.5%
1
1 8 2
27. Simplify (16)−2 + (27)3
13 25 8 4
(a) (𝑏) (𝑐)1 (𝑑)4
36 36 9 9
From the diagram above, find x. 28. If 𝑝 = 𝑀𝑢𝑠𝑎 𝑖𝑠 𝑠ℎ𝑜𝑟𝑡, If 𝑞 =
(a) 300 (b) 400 (c) 550 (d) 600 𝑀𝑢𝑠𝑎 𝑖𝑠 𝑏𝑟𝑖𝑙𝑙𝑖𝑎𝑛𝑡, write in symbolic form,
19. In a circle of radius 13cm, calculate the the statement ‘’Musa is short and not
length of a chord which is 5cm from the brilliant”
centre of the circle. (a) 𝑝˅𝑞 (𝑏) 𝑝˅~𝑞
(a) 6cm (b) 10cm (c) 12cm (c) 𝑝˄~𝑞 (𝑑)𝑝˄𝑞
(d) 24cm 15𝑝−2𝑞
29. Given p:q = 9:5, evaluate
5𝑝+16𝑞
20. The bearing of Y from X is 1200. What is the
(a) -3 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 5
bearing of X from Y?
30. Find the value of x satisfying
(a) 300 (b) 1500 (c) 1900 (d)
0 𝑥 1 2𝑥 1
300 𝑄 − < +
2 3 5 6
330 𝑅 1
P (a) 𝑥 < 5 (𝑏)𝑥 > 7 (𝑐)𝑥 ≥ 5
2
𝑂 (d) 𝑥 < −5
31. A man is 55years old now. Five years ago he
760 was twice his sons age. How old is his son
𝑇 𝑆 presently? (a) 25 (b) 27 (c) 29
(d) 30
In the diagram above, O is the centre of the circle, 32. In the diagram, /SR/ = /QR/, < 𝑆𝑅𝑃 =
̅̅̅̅ is a diameter, <PQT = 330 and <TOS =
𝑅𝑇 65°𝑎𝑛𝑑 < 𝑅𝑃𝑄 = 48°, 𝑓𝑖𝑛𝑑 < 𝑃𝑅𝑄
760. Use the diagram to answer question 21 (a) 19°
and 22 (b) 25° 𝑆
21. Calculate the value of angle TRS (c) 45° P
(a) 330 (b) 380 (c) 710 (d) 1520 (d) 65° 480
22. Find the size of angle PRS. 650
(a) 380 (b) 710 (c) 760 (d) 1140
23. Find the range of values of 𝑥 for which 𝑄 𝑅
𝑥−3 𝑥+1 2 33
− ≤5 (𝑎) 𝑥 ≤ − (𝑏)𝑥 ≥
4 2 5
17 33 33
− (𝑐)𝑥 ≥ − (𝑑)𝑥 ≥ 33. The sum of the interior angles of a regular
5 5 5
0
24. A point 𝑷 is on the bearing 335 from a point polygon is 1800°. How many sides has the
𝑸. Find the bearing of 𝑸from 𝑷. polygon? (a) 8 (b) 10 (c) 12
(a) 250 (b) 650 (c) 1500 (d) 1550 (d) 16
25. Factorize 7 − 6𝑥 − 𝑥 2 3
34. If sin 𝜃 = 5, find tan 𝜃 for 0° < 𝜃 < 90°
(a) (𝑥 − 7)(1 − 𝑥) 4 3 5 1
(a) (𝑏) (𝑐) (𝑑)
(b) (𝑥 − 1)(𝑥 − 7) 5 4 8 2
(c) (𝑥 + 7)(1 − 𝑥) 35. Given that tan 𝑥 = 1, where 0° ≤ 𝜃 ≤
1−𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝑥
(d) (𝑥 − 1)(𝑥 + 7) 90°,evaluate
cos 𝑥
26. The simple interest on ₦80,000.00 for 5 years √2 1
3months is ₦10,500.00. At what rate per (a) 2√2 (𝑏)√2 (𝑐) (𝑑)
2 2
annum was the interest charged?
36. A ship sails 6km from point M on a bearing 45. Given that A is a point (6, 4) and B is (-5, -2).
of 24° and then 9km on a bearing of 106° Find the column vector of AB
to N. Find the distance of N from M. −8
(a) ( )
(a) 11.49km (b) 15.8km (c) 17km −5
−7
(d) 24.3km (b) ( )
−4
37. PQRS is a square. If X is the midpoint of PQ, −11
(c) ( )
calculate, correct to the nearest degree, −6
<PXS. (a) −13
(d) ( )
53° (𝑏)55° (𝑐)63° (𝑑)65° 5
3 −2
38. The angle of elevation of an aircraft from a 46. Given that 𝑢 = ( ) , 𝑣 = ( ),
4 5
point k on the horizontal ground is 30°. If the 4
𝑤 = ( ) , 𝑓𝑖𝑛𝑑 𝑢 + 𝑣 + 𝑤
aircraft is 800m above the ground, how far is −2
it from k? −3 5 3 −3
(a) ( ) (𝑏) ( ) (𝑐) ( ) (𝑑) ( )
7 7 12 11
(a) 400m (b) 692m (c) 924m
47. If the function 𝑓 is defined by𝑓(𝑥 + 2) =
(d) 1600m
2𝑥 2 + 7𝑥 − 6, find 𝑓(−1)
39. From a point R, 300m north of P, a man
(a) -10 (b) -9 (c) 5 (d) 11
walks eastwards to a place Q which is 600m
48. In the diagram below 𝐴𝐷 ̂ 𝐶 = 70°. Find
from P. Find the bearing of P from Q correct
to the nearest degree. 𝐶𝑋̂𝐵.
𝐶
(a) 026° (𝑏)045° (𝑐)210° (𝑑)240° A
40. Find the median of 2, 1, 0, 3, 1, 1, 4, 0, 1 460
X
and 2.
(a) 0.0 (b) 0.5 (c) 1.0 (d) 1.5 700 𝐵
41. A fair die is tossed twice. What is the
probability that a total sum of 8 would 𝐷
appear?
5 1 3 4
(a) (𝑏) (𝑐) (𝑑) (a) 84° (b) 70° (𝑐)64° (𝑑)46°
36 12 4 5
42. A bag contains 5 blue, 9 red and 7 yellow 49. If log10 5 = 0.699 and log10 3 = 0.477,
identical balls. If one ball is drawn at find without using tables log10 75.
random, find the probability of drawing a (a) 1.875 (𝑏)1.865 (𝑐)1.76 (𝑑)1.755
red or yellow ball. 50. The mean of 1, 3, 5, 7 and 𝑥 is 4. Find the
11
(𝑏)
16
(𝑐)
7
(𝑑)
9 value of 𝑥. (𝑎) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6
(a) 23 21 21 23 (d) 8
The table below gives the marks scored by
a group of students in a test.
Marks 0 1 2 3 4 5

Frequency 1 2 7 5 4 3

Use the table to answer question 43 and

44.
43. What is the median mark?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) NOTE: Show all workings for both
4 objective and theory
44. What is the probability of selecting a student
from the group that scored 2 or 3?
1 5 7 6
(a) (𝑏) (𝑐) (𝑑)
11 22 22 11
 THEORY
SECTION A
Answer all questions in this section
1. (a) Solve for x in the equation
2𝑥 3 1 3𝑥
− = −
3 4 2 4
(b) Bisi lives 5km from the school. She walks 1km at 4km/h and travels the rest of the way by bus
at 16km/h. What is the average speed for the whole journey?
2. (a) Illustrate the following statement in a venn diagram:
All good biology students in a school are in general science class.

(b) Use the diagram to determine whether or not the following are valid conclusions from the given
statement.

I. Jane is in the general science class therefore she is a good Biology student.
II. Kenneth is not a good Biology student, he is not in General science class,
III. Festus is not in the General science class therefore he is not a good Biology student.
2 3
3. (a) Solve (3𝑥 − 5) − (2𝑥 − 3) ≤ 3
3 5
(b) A girl walks 8km from a point P to a point Q on a bearing of 065°. She then walks to a point R,
a distance of 15km on a bearing of 146°
(i) sketch the diagram of his movement
(ii ) Calculate, correct to the nearest kilometre, the distance PR.
4. (a) In Δ BAC, AC = 6cm, BC = 15cm and <A = 120°. Find <B.
(b) Two angles are complementary, with the second angle being two less than three times the smaller
angle where 0° ≤ 𝜃 ≤ 90°.Determine the angles.

5. In the diagram below, PR and PQ are two tangents to a circle with centre O. Find the angles
label x, y and w.

𝑜 𝑦0 𝑃
700 𝑤0
0
𝑥
𝑆
𝑅

SECTION B
6. (a) Sketch the graph of the following points A(4,1) , B(1,5) , C(-2, 1). Then draw ΔABC and
find the area.
 −6 4
(b) In Δ PQR, ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑃𝑄 = ( ) 𝑎𝑛𝑑 ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑃𝑅 = ( ). If M is the mid-point of PQ, express ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑅𝑀 as a
8 −9
column vector.
2
7. (a) What is the value of p, if the gradient of the line joining (-1, p) and (p, 4) is 3?
(b) Using completing the square method, solve the equation
3𝑥 2 − 8𝑥 − 3 = 0
8. (a) Using a ruler and a pair of compasses only construct.
(i) a triangle of XYZ in which /YZ/ = 8cm, <XYZ = 60° and <XZY = 75°. Measure /XY/
(ii) the locus of 𝑙1of the points equidistant from Y and Z
(iii) the locus 𝑙2 of the points equidistant from YX and YZ

(b) Measure /QY/, where Q is the point of intersection of 𝑙1and 𝑙2 .

9. (a) Copy and complete the table below for 𝑦 = 3𝑥 2 − 5𝑥 − 6

𝑥 -3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3 4

𝑦 = 3𝑥 2 − 5𝑥 − 6 36 -6 -8 6

(b) Using a scale of 2cm of 2cm to represent 1unit along the x-axis and 2cm to represent 5units
along the y – axis. Draw the graph of 𝑦 = 3𝑥 2 − 5𝑥 − 6

(c) (i) on the same axes draw the graph of 𝑦 + 2𝑥 + 3 = 0

(ii) Determine the roots of the equation.

(d) from the graph, find the (i) range of x for which 3𝑥 2 − 5𝑥 − 6 < 0

(ii) root of the equation 3𝑥 2 − 5𝑥 − 26 = 0

1
10. The probability that a seed germinating is 3. If three of the seed are planted, what is the
probability that

(a) none germinate

(b) at least one will germinate

(c)only one will germinate?

11. The weights, to the nearest kilograms, of a group of 50 Secondary school students are given
below.65 70 60 46 61 55 59 63 68 53

47 53 72 53 67 62 64 70 57 56

73 56 48 51 58 63 65 62 49 64

53 59 63 50 48 72 67 56 61 54

66 52 49 62 71 58 53 69 63 59
 (a) Prepare a grouped frequency table with class intervals of 45 – 49, 50 – 54, 55 – 59 etc.
(b) Using an assumed mean of 62 or otherwise, calculate the mean and the standard deviation
of the grouped data, correct to one decimal place.
3𝑝+4𝑞
12. (a) If = 2, find p:q
3𝑝−4𝑞
(b) Given that x, (x-2), (2x-1) are in G.P. find the
(i) values(s) of x
(ii) sequence
(iii) possible values(s) of the 8th term of the G.P.
13. Using a scale of 2cm to 2 units on each axis, draw two perpendicular axes OX and OY for
−5 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 5 𝑎𝑛𝑑 − 6 ≤ 𝑦 ≤ 6 on a graph sheet.
(a) Draw on the same graph sheet, labelling all the vertices clearly together with their
coordinates:
(i) Triangle PQR are vertices P(-3, 3), Q(-1, -2) and R(3, -1);
(ii) Triangle UVW with coordinates U(-2,6), V(0,1) and W(4, 2).
(b) Deduce the transformation that moves triangle PQR onto triangle UVW.
(c) Draw, labelling all the vertices together with the coordinates:
(i) The image U1V1W1 of triangle UVW under the rotation of 1800about the origin, where
𝑈 → 𝑈1 , 𝑉 → 𝑉1, and 𝑊 → 𝑊1
(ii) The image U2V2W2 of triangle U1V1W1 under a reflection in the line x = 0, where
𝑈1 → 𝑈2 ,𝑉1 → 𝑉2 , and 𝑊1 → 𝑊2

ENGLISH LANGUAGE

PART A: ESSAY WRITING

SECTION A
Answer one question from this section. All questions carry equal marks. Your answer should not be less
than 450 words.
1. Your oldest brother, who is living and working in the city, has not been discharging his
responsibilities to the family. Write to him, discussing at least the areas in which he has been found
wanting and urging him to turn over a new leaf.
2. Write an article for publication in the science magazine on the topic: ‘Science and Technology in
National Development’.
3. Write a letter to the Honourable Minister of Agriculture on ways to boost agriculture in the country.
4. The topic of an essay competition organized by the Young Writers Club for final year students is
‘Our traditional marriage system is more suitable for the present generation of Nigerians than the
English system.’ Write your entry for or against the topic.
5. Write a story to illustrate the saying: A stitch in time saves nine.
 SECTION B
COMPREHENSION
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions on it.

I have learnt to exercise caution in whenever I say or do since the episode on the Garawa-Baruwa Road.
I had arrived at the Garawa Police Station with my driver to lodge a serious protest against the officers who
had accosted us on the road. My car had been dangerously overtaken by another which pulled up before us,
forcing us to a halt. In a flash, four uniformed men had alighted, each one carrying a pistol. One of them had
grabbed my driver’s shirt and slapped him several times. Angered by this uncivilized behaviour, I had got
out and challenged the men. They alleged that my driver had broken several road traffic regulations and they
tried to seize my car ignition key. I had stood my ground, refusing to let the key to be surrendered. Several
harsh words were exchanged between them and me. They had manhandled me, trying to shove me aside, but
I firmly resisted. The brawl lasted above fifteen minutes and suddenly they rushed to their car and sped off.
Their uncivilized behaviour had so infuriated me that I had decided to report the incident to the
Divisional Police Officer at Garawa. Back we turned, and made the station in twenty minutes. Angrily, I had
demanded to see the boss immediately. The junior officers accorded me due regard as a traditional chief and
led me to report the incident calling the young police officers rather rude names.
Calmly the D.P.O. listened. Apart from nodding his head occasionally as I ranted on, he said
nothing. I had expected him to apologize for his boys’ action. But he didn’t. Instead what he said stunned
me. ‘Chief,’ he said calmly, ‘I’m surprised that up till now you’ve not realized that you ran into armed
robbers in police uniform. I thought you would have heard of their recent operations in this area. Did you
not hear of how they killed Chief Koku?’
Disarmed, mouth agape, I sank into the chair which I had earlier on rejected. The sudden realization
of how confidently I had marched on death’s ground sent cold shivers through my body. For the first time
since the encounter I began to perspire.
(a) Who did the writer take the uniformed men for?
(b) What gave the writer enough boldness to resist the men?
(c) What was the intention of the four uniformed men?
(d) Why was the police chief surprised at the writer’s ignorance?
(e) Why did the writer perspire after the police officer’s explanation?
(f) “I had stood my ground”
(i) What type of figurative expression is this?
(ii) What does it mean?
(g) “… which I had earlier rejected.”
(i) What grammatical name is given to this expression as it is used in the
passage?
(ii) What is its function?
(h) For each of the following words, find another word or phrase that means the
same and which can replace it as it is used in the passage:
(i) caution
(ii) pulled up
(iii) brawl
(iv) infuriated
 (v) regard
(vi) agape

SECTION C
SUMMARY
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions on it.

I have thought seriously about it for long. Why do some people have to be condemned to the abyss
of penury no matter how persistently they struggle against poverty? Come to think of it, there are so many
physically agile men, well-educated, with robust health, who eternally languish in penury’s dark cell. And
yet, there are others who, for doing next to nothing, without taxing either their minds or bodies much,
remain darlings of the goddess of wealth. In all my years of searching for an explanation, I have only a very
weak solution.
Most men who are condemned to the chasm of destitution have their parentage to blame. This first
factor is perhaps the harshest in deciding where a person belongs. To be born into a family of appallingly
poor parents is to have to wage a losing battle against many wicked enemies. There is malnutrition to
contend with, and then comes illiteracy or poor education. With poor feeding and ignorance forever trailing
one, diseases soon catch up. And with these foes forever near, a serious pursuit of a meaningful profession
can be ruled out. One has fallen into the class of hewers of wood.
Then, there is the factor of making a choice. Watch it, that man who appears to be an incurable
failure at work may not be lazy, may indeed be zealously hard-working. His crime may be that he is in a
wrong profession; he made a wrong choice. Some men are destined to be engineers, they went into music;
some destined to be teachers, veered into medicine. Once such a man becomes fully trained in a profession,
he cannot beat a retreat. And he remains a helpless mediocrity in that profession.
Then there is also the factor of the choice of associates. One cannot choose one’s parents, but one
can choose a wife, friends, business associates, and the like. This is where the mystery lies—you can make a
choice, but cannot know in advance exactly how your choice will treat you. To choose a devil for a wife is
to be sentenced to life-long anguish; the association will colour every aspect of one’s life endeavours, from
education and social life to business. And to be yoked with an incurable fraud as a business partner may
bring one down for life.
Of course, being daring is decisive to. To scale the heights demands courage, being adventurous.
One might be highly intelligent and particularly hard-working, but without the readiness to take chances,
one’s potentialities may never be given expression. Most of the paupers among us are, in reality, potential
successes—if only they can be a little more daring in taking advantage of situations around them.
Finally, there is the will-power. Most men are easily defeated by initial failures. They give up very
easily. Lack of will-power is the greatest enemy of success. Think of a man like Abraham Lincoln for
instance. He failed at almost every human endeavour he tried his hand at—law, business, even politics.
Undaunted, he tried the presidency. Not only did he win, he is among America’s best known figures today.
He is one man who would have remained down there at the bottom of the pit had he given up.

(a) In one sentence, summarize the central idea of the passage.

(b) In five sentences, one for each, summarize the reasons why most men remain poor.
 PART B: OBJECTIVE TEST
Section A
From the list of words lettered A to D in each of the following, choose the one that is most nearly opposite
in meaning to the underlined word.

1. Industrious workers should be promoted and ……….. ones should be dismissed.

A. indolent B. dishonest C. inactive D. sluggish
2. While some people ……….. jollof rice, others enjoy it.
A. rebuff B. abhor C. ignore D. condemn
3. The haughty, and the ……….., are usually unpopular.
A. friendly B. carefree C. timid D. humble
4. Rather than heed the advice, the children ……….. it.
A. defied B. countered C. ignored D. spurned
5. Parents should persuade their children to do chores, not ……….. them.
A. implore B. coerce C. enjoin D. cajole
6. Rather than accept the blame, the manager ……….. the accusation.
A. criticized B. refused C. addressed D. denied

Section B
From the list of words lettered A to D, choose the word that best completes each of the following sentences.

7. The judge restrained the landlord from …………… the tenant.

A. sacking B. ejecting C. dismissing D. punishing
8. Many children are suffering from ………… because of poor feeding.
A. maltreatment B. meningitis C. conjunctivitis D. malnutrition
9. Mosquito parasites have become ……….. to quinine.
A. resistant B. immune C. opposed D. defiant
10. The unionists ……….. the meeting with the management.
A. rejected B. hindered C. boycotted D. banned
11. The company failed to pay up the loan because it had become ……….. .
A. corrupt B. bankrupt C. inefficient D. unreliable
12. The elders advised the priest to confine himself to his …………… duties.
A. pastoral B. sacrilegious C. angelic D. divine

Section C
From the list of options lettered A to D, choose the interpretation which you consider most appropriate for
each sentence.

13. We heard that Baba has served time. This means that Baba has
A. always been punctual. B. been the timekeeper.
C. been to prison. D. been a faithful servant.
14. Mary and I have never seen eye to eye on politics. This means that we have never
A. agreed on politics. B. engaged in politics.
C. discussed politics. D. benefitted from politics.
15. Helen has always been a wet blanket. This means that Helen
A. always gets wet. B. betrays her friends.
 C. interacts freely with other people. D. stops others from enjoying themselves.
16. The new policy has come under fire. This means that the policy is
A. generating controversy. B. being criticized.
C. being scrutinized. D. causing a riot.
17. He is at the crossroads of his life. This means that it is time for him to
A. make a very important decision. B. retrace his steps.
C. make peace with everyone. D. take his studies seriously.

Section D
From the list of words lettered A to D in each of the following, choose the one that is nearest in meaning to
the underlined word.

18. I think children are more robust than adults.

A. healthy and strong B. pleasant and cheerful C. vital and dependable D. plump and curvy.
19. The new law was meant to mitigate the people’s suffering.
A. restrain B. moderate C. stop D. alleviate
20. The judge is incorruptible. A. consistent B. honest C. responsible D. outspoken
21. Whatever my boss decides is irrevocable. A. final B. true C. necessary D. enforced
22. The printer took a cursory look at the document. A. quick B. long C. puzzled D. careful
23. It is not safe to engage in clandestine deals. A. secret B. exclusive C. unimportant
D. doubtful

Section E
From the list of words lettered A to D, choose the word or group of words that best completes each of the
following sentences.

24. The test seemed ……….. simple that we thought we would all pass. A. too B. very C. so D.
much
25. In the olden days, people gave cowries ……….. food.
A. on exchange for B. in exchange of C. in exchange for D. on exchange with
26. The man tried to cash in ……….. the boy’s ignorance. A. by B. at C. on D. with
27. Adamu studied very hard ……….. passing the examination.
A. with a view to B. with the view of C. with a view of D. with the view to
28. When I came home, my mother asked me if I ……….. .
A. ate B. was eating C. have eaten D. had eaten
29. Uncle Richard invited Naza and ……….. to his house. A. me B. I C. myself D.
she
30. I suppose it’s high time we ……….. attention to our studies.
A. pay B. are paying C. paid D. should pay
31. Children often try to live up ……….. their parents’ expectations. A. in B. by C. to D.
on
32. He ……….. be fat, but he is still smart. A. may B. could C. can D. might
33. The students had no choice ……….. to do as they had been commanded.
A. even B. but C. rather D. only
34. I just couldn’t ……….. what he was saying.
A. make do B. make out C. make up D. make by
35. The men were charged ……….. murder. A. of B. for C. with D. on
36. We had to look ……….. the word in the dictionary. A. with B. on C. at
D. up
37. Each of the winners ……….. to receive five thousand dollars.
A. are B. is C. have D. were
38. The ……….. of the various dailies attended the conference.
A. Editors-in-Chiefs B. Editors’-in-Chief C. Editors-in-Chief D. Editor’s-in-Chief
39. ……….. of the five boys was able to show me the way to the zoo.
A. None B. Neither C. Any D. Some
40. The newly married couple are not-------with each other
A. getting B. getting along C. getting through D. getting fine
41. Ibrahim is gradually----------his problems
A. pulling over B. pulling off C. pulling through D. pulling out
42. Jide was absent from the meeting yesterday
A. didn’t he? B. isn’t it? C. wasn’t it? D. wasn’t he?
43. He got into trouble in an attempt to conceal the truth-----------me
A. to B. against C. for D. from
44. He was accompanied-------------his friend to the party
A. with B. by C. over D. around
45. My father said he once saw a snake-----a chicken
A. having swallowing B. Swallowed C. being swallowed D. swallowing
46. Mary-------passed the examination without the extra lessons she had
A. mighty not B. couldn’t have C. would not D. will not
47. Many people are now used to----------without lunch
A. have gone B. be going C. going D. go
48. --------- round the house, I observed that there were more broken louvers than had been
reported A. moved B. in moving C. to move D.
moving
49. The beleaguered soldiers skillfully-------- themselves out of trouble
A. dispatched B. catapulted C. maneuvered D. proceeded

Section F
In the following passage, the numbered gaps indicate missing words. Against each number in the list below
the passage, four options are given lettered A to D, choose the word that is the most suitable to fill
numbered gaps in the passage.

Mrs. Agu decided to —50— her friend. She picked up her —51— and —52— her friend’s —53—.
There was no response. However, after a few trials she discovered from the —54— that she was not in
—55— and so, the —56— could not go —57—. That was surprising because she had bought some —58—
cards the previous day and did not —59— any call. However, she could not remember —60— them into her
phone.
A B C D
50. connect ring stir wake
51. card mobile line set
52. received dialled inserted scrolled
53. handset call number phone
54. operator receiver caller subscriber
55. credit money account fund
 56. tone phone sound call
57. on in through out
58. application recharge calling dialing
59. make try receive register
60. billing fixing loading applying

PART C: TEST OF ORALS

Instruction: Answer ALL questions
SECTION 1
Choose from the options lettered A – D the one that has the same vowel sound as the one represented by the
underlined letter(s).
1. Souvenir a. survey b. debut c. south d. douse
2. Altitude a. owl b. hall c. inflammable d. austerity
3. Weapon a. will b. settee c. wear d. weal
4. Dare a. their b. dear c. world d. sphere
5. Gross a. loss b. odour c. ton d. two
6. Earth a. heart b. air c. fork d. scourge
7. Cool a. pull b. flood c. cook d. prove
8. Lure a. law b. short c. tour d. loose
9. Thief a. tick b. bread c. team d. receive
10. Cousin a. bought b. bout c. mother d. plough

SECTION 2
From the words lettered A – D, choose the word that has the SAME CONSONANT SOUND(S) as the one
represented by the letters underlined.
11. Chalet a. champion b. statue c. nature d. brochure
12. Hang a. hinge b. tinge c. song d. singe
13. Honey a. vehicle b. here c. heir d. vehement
14. Though a. wealthy b. smooth c. healthy d. breadth
15. Garb a. thumbb. limb c. stab d. climb
16. Fad a. adjust b. adjective c. adjourn d. double
17. Lump a. pain b. coup c. receipt d. corps
18. Gaze a. debris b. routes c. ways d. corpse
19. Judge a. grandeur b. vision c. measure d. mirage
20. Fact a. indict b. impact c. function d. diction

SECTION 3
From the words lettered A-D, choose the one that has the correct stress. An example is given below:
Example: Education
a. E-du-ca-tion b. e-DU-ca-tion c. e-du-CA-tion d. e-du-ca-TION
The correct answer is C because the main stress of the word ‘education’ is on the third syllable. Now,
answer the questions that follow:
21. presidency a. PRE-si-den-cy b. pre-SI-den-cy c. pre-si-DEN-cy d.
pre-si-den-CY
22. autocratic a. AUT-o-cratic b. aut-O-cra-tic c. aut-o-CRA-tic d. aut-o-cra-TIC
23. facilitate a. FA-cil-i-tate b. fa-CIL-i-tate c. fa-cil-I-tate d. fa-cil-i-TATE
24. constitution a. CON-sti-tu-tion b. con-STI-tu-tion c. con-sti-TU-tion d. con-sti-tu-TION
25. inconvenience a. IN-con-ve-ni-ence b. in-CON-ve-ni-ence c. in-con-VE-ni-ence c.
in-con-ve-NI-ence

SECTION 4
In the following options lettered A-D, all the words except one have the same stress pattern. Identify the
one with the different stress pattern. An example is given below:
Example: a. ago b. above c. again d. butter
Option A, B, C are all stressed on the second syllable while option D is the only one stressed on the first
syllable. So ‘D’ is the correct answer.
Now answer the questions that follow:
26. a. attention b. dramatic c. frequent d. inform
27. a. Clever b. lazy c. paper d. postpone
28. a. terror b. unless c. colonial d. behind
29. a. eternity b. establish c. disobey d. furnish
30. a. important b. desperate c. replace d. fanatic

SECTION 5.
Choose from the options lettered A – D the one that is best answered by the statement containing the
stressed word, which is written in CAPITAL LETTERS.
31. The police caught FIVE of the robbers yesterday.
a. Did the police release five of the robbers yesterday?
b. Did the neighbours catch five of the robbers yesterday?
c. Did the police catch all the robbers yesterday?
d. Did the police catch five of the robbers last week?
32. Nigeria is the largest PRODUCER of petroleum in Africa.
a. Is Ghana the largest producer of petroleum in Africa?
b. Is Nigeria the largest importer of petroleum in Africa?
c. Is Nigeria the largest producer of petroleum in the world?
d. Is Nigeria the largest producer of cocoa in Africa?
33. Stella passed the Cambridge examination at the THIRD attempt.
a. Did Nicki pass the Cambridge examination at the third attempt?
b. Did Stella fail the Cambridge examination at the third attempt?
c. Did Stella pass the UME at the third attempt?
d. Did Stella pass the Cambridge examination at the first attempt?
34. MY tailor makes nice dresses.
a. Did my tailor make nice dresses?
b. Does my seamstress make nice dresses?
c. Does my tailor make nice suits?
d. Does your tailor make nice dresses?
35. She DISCOURAGES my mother.
a. Did she discourage my mother?
b. Does he discourage his mother?
c. Does she encourage my mother?
d. Does she discourage her mother?
SECTION 6
Choose from the options lettered A – D the one that contains the sound represented by the given phonetic
symbol. An example is given below:
Example: /ai/
a. Boy b. buoy c. high d. bait
The correct answer is C because only ‘high’ contains the sound represented by the given phonetic symbol.
Now answer the questions that follow:
36. /i:/ a. elite b. famine c. forfeit d. parley
37. /ei/ a. pellet b. bouquet c. banquet d. racket
38. /au/ a. goat b. lounge c. home d. known
39. /dʒ/ a. regime b. forge c. barrage d. beige
40. /t/ a. depot b. bristlec. thyme d. chalet

CHEMISTRY
INSTRUCTION: Answer all questions in this section
1. How many unpaired electrons are there in an atom of an element with the following electronic
configuration: 1S2, 2S2 , 2P6? (a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 6
2. Element X with electronic configuration 2, 8, 2 and element Y with electronic configuration 2, 8, 7 are
likely to combine by: (a) Metallic bonding (b) covalent bonding (c) Electrovalent bonding
(d) Dative bonding
3. What will happen when more heat is applied to the following system at equilibrium?
X2+ 3Y2 2XY3, ∆H = -xKj/mol (a) The yield of XY3 will increase (b) More of XY3 will
decompose (c) More of X2 will react (d) the forward reaction will go to completion
4. What is the expression for the equilibrium constant (Kc) for the following reaction?
[𝑁𝑂2] 2 [2𝑁𝑂] 2 [𝑁2 ]+[𝑂2] [𝑁𝑂] 2
N2+ O2 2NO (a) (𝑏) [𝑁2][𝑂2] (𝑐) (𝑑) [𝑁2][𝑂2]
𝑁2 2[𝑁𝑂]2
5. Equal amounts of marble chips are reacted with 100cm3of hydrochloric acid of different concentrations,
if all the marble chips reacted, which of the following remained the same in each case?(a)Average rate
of evolution (b) Total mass of gas evolved during the reaction (c) Time taken for the reaction to reach
completion (d)Initial reaction rates
6. 2AB2 + B2 2AB3, ∆H = -xKJ/molThe forward reaction will be favoured by (a) A
decrease in pressure (b)An increase in pressure (c) A decrease in temperature (d) An introduction of a
positive catalyst
7. A reaction is endothermic if: (a) the reaction vessel feels cool during the reaction (b) Enthalpy change
is negative (c) Bond forming energy exceeds bond breaking energy (d) Heat of formation of
reactants exceeds heat of formation of products.
8. If the solubility of KHCO3is 0.4 mol/dm3 at room temperature, calculate the mass of KHCO3 in 100cm3
of solution at this temperature.[KHCO3 = 100 g/mol] (a) 4.0g (b) 0.4g (c) 40g (d) 45g
9. What volume of carbon (IV) oxide is produces at s.t.p when 2.5g of calcium trioxocarbonate (IV) reacts
with excess acids according the following formula CaCO3 + 2HCl →CaCl2 + H2O + CO2
(A) 0.56 dm3 (b) 0.5dm3 (c) 0.65dm3 (d) 0.6 dm3
10. How many moles of limestone will be required to produce 5.6g of calciumoxide [Ca = 40, C = 12, O =
16] (a) 0.1 mole (b) 0.2 mole (c) 2.0mole (d) 0.12 mole
11. When a salt is added to its saturated solution the salt; (a) Dissolves and the solution becomes super
saturated (b) Dissolves and the solution becomes unsaturated (c) Precipitates and the solution remains
unchanged (d) Dissolves and crystals are formed.
12. Two metallic ions commonly present in hard water are (a) Ca2+ and Zn2+ (b) Cu2+ and Na2+
(c) Mg2+ and Ca2+ (d) Fe2+ and Na+
13. Which of the following processes is not involved in the treatment of water for town
supply?(a)Chlorination (b) Coagulation (c) Dehydration (d) Sedimentation
14. Which of the following gases make up the largest percentage of the atmospheric air?(a)Carbon (IV)
Oxide (b) Hydrogen (c) Nitrogen (d) Noble gases
15. 14.8g of a salt Z dissolved in 250cm3 of distilled water give a concentration of 0.8mol/dm3. Calculate
the molar mass of the salt Z(a)13.5 g/mol (b) 18.5 g/mol (c)47.4 g/mol (d)74.0 g/mol
16. The mixture of gases used in a photographer’s flash tube is(a)argon and Krypton (b)Krypton and
Xenon (c)Helium and Argon (d)Argon and Xeon
17. How many neutron(s) are there in hydrogen atom?(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
18. Hydrogen is readily released when dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with(a)Au (b) Cu (c) Na (d) Ag
19. Amphoteric oxides are oxides which(a)React with water to form acids (b) React with water form alkali
(c) Show neither acid nor basic properties (d) React with both acids and alkalis
20. One of the following is not a component of liquefied air(a)Nitrogen (b) Oxygen (c) Hydrogen
(d) Noble gases
21. Halogen are good (a) Oxidizing agents (b) Reducing agents (c) Solvents (d) Drying agents
22. A quantity of air was passed through a weighed amount of alkaline pyrogallol. An increase in the
weight of the pyrogallol would result from the absorption of (a) Nitrogen (b) Argon (c) Oxygen (d)
Carbon (IV) oxide
23. Which of the following gases is lighter than air? (a)CO2 (b) SO2 (c) HCl (d) NH3
24. Which of the following halogen is solid at room temperature?(a)Bromine (b) Chlorine (c) Iodine (d)
Fluorine
25. Which of the following molecules is not a linear shape(a)CO2 (b) O2 (c) NH3 (d) HCl
26. Chorine is prepared industrially by the electrolysis(a)Sodium hydroxide (b) Concentrated NaOH (c)
Brine (d) H2SO4
27. The allotrope of sulphur that is stable below 96oC(a)Monoclinic (b) Plastic (c) Amorphous
(d) Rhombic
28. In the reaction SO2 + O2 SO3. The catalyst used is (a)Platinum (b) Nickel (c) Vanadium (v)
oxide (d) finely divided iron
29. The extraction of Sulphur is by(a)Contact process (b) Frasch process (c) Solvay process (d) Haber
process
30. Which of the following metals is the strongest reducing agent?(a)Sodium (b) Silver (c) Potassium (d)
Copper
31. Consider the following equation;Cr2O72-+ 14H++6e-→2Cr3++7H2O. The oxidation number of chromium
changes from (a) -2 to +3 (b) -2 to +6 (c) +6 to +3 (d) +7 to -6
32. The oxidation number of phosphorus in PO43- is (a)+1 (b) +2 (c) +3 (d) +5
33. Consider the following reaction equation:SO42-(aq)+2H+ (aq) + Xe-→SO32-(aq) +H2O (l). The value of X in
the equation is?(A) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 6
34. Given that Eo Cu2+/Cu = +0.34VEoAg+/Ag = + 0.84VCalculate the value of Eo for the cell(A) 0.05V (b)
+0.50V (c) +1.18V (d) 11.8V
35. The preferential discharge of ions during electrolysis is influenced by the(a)Mechanisms of electrolysis
(b) Electrolytic reactions (c) Nature ofthe electrodes (d) Type of electrolytic cell
36. Which of these is a redox reaction?(a)AgNO3 + KCl →AgCl + KNO3(b) HNO3 + NaOH→ NaNO3 +
H2O (c) CaCO3→CaO + CO2 (d) 2H2S + SO2 → 2H2O + 3S
37. Consider the following equation; Br2+ 2KI →2KBr +I2 Bromine is acting as?(a)An oxidizing agent (b)
a reducing agent (c) An acid (d) a base
38. What is the total number of moles of electrons transferred from the aluminium atoms to the hydrogen
ions in the equation?2Al + 6H+→2Al3++ 3H2(a)3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6
39. A metal which can be used as a sacrificed anode for preventing corrosion of a length of iron pipe is
(a)Copper (b) Magnesium (c) Silver (d) Lead
40. If the overall reaction in a cell is Mg + Cu2+→ Mg2++ Cu, Its symbolic representation would
be(a)Mg/Mg2+//Cu2+/Cu (b) Mg/Mg2+//Cu/Cu (c) Cu2+/Cu // Mg2+ /Mg (d) Mg/Mg2+//Cu/Cu2+
41. Which of the following reactions is exemplified by rusting of iron?
(a)Decomposition (b) Displacement reaction (c) Neutralization (d) Redoxreaction
42. Which of these compounds exhibit resonance?(a)Benzene (b) Ethanol (c) Butyne (d) Propylene
43. Which of the following raw material is used in the plastic industry?
(a)Ethene (b) Methane (c) Sulphur (d) Hydrogen
44. Ethene is produced from ethanol by(a)Decomposition (b) Hydrolysis (c) Dehydration
(d) Ozonolysis
45. When substance X was added to a solution of bromine water, the solution becomes colourless. X is
likely to be (a) Propane (b) Butane (c) Propyne (d) Propanol
46. Consecutive members of an alkane homologous series differs by (a) CH (b) CH2 (c) CH3 (d) CnH2n+2
47. Which of the following compound is a tertiary alkanol(a) Ethanol (b) 2-methyl butan-2-ol
(c)3-methyl penta-2-ol (d)Propan 1-ol
48. Which of the following alkenes has the highest boiling point?(a)Propane (b) Hexane (c) Pentane (d)
Heptane
49. Propene undergoes mainly addition reactions because it is (a) A covalent compound
(b) A hydrocarbon (c) unsaturated (d) a gas
50. Which of the following exhibits cis-trans isomerism?(a)C4H10 (b) C6H14 (c) C2H2Br2 (d) C2H5Br
51. When a heavy fraction of petroleum is heated at high temperature a low boiling liquid is obtained. This
process is known as?(a)Fractional distillation (b) Polymerization (c) Cracking (D) Refining
52. Calculate the single electrode potential for copper metal in contact with 0.10moldm-3 Cu2+ solution.
Given that E0 Cu2+/Cu = +0.34V at 250c (a) 0.34V (b) 0.31V (c) 0.034V (d) 3.4V
53. What happens to the conductivity of anelectrolyte as its concentration reduces? It (a) Increases (b)
Decrease (c) Unaffected (d) Reduces to Zero
54. The reaction that takes place at the cathode compartment during the electrolysis of CuSO4 solution
is(a)Cu2+ +2e-→Cu (b) 2H+ +2e-→ H2 (c) Cu→ Cu2+ + 2e- (d) Cu2+ + SO42-→CuSO4
55. What current in amperes will deposit 5.4g of Aluminium in 2 hours [Al=27, 1F= 96500C](a) 2.0 (b)
4.0 (c) 6.0 (d) 8.0
56. What volume of oxygen measured at s.t.p would be liberated by passing a current of 10A through
acidified water for 965s?(A) 5.60dm3 (b) 0.560dm3 (c) 11.2dm3 (d) 1.12dm3
57. The reaction between alkanes and the halogens is (a) Polymerization (b) Oxidation (c) Addition (d)
Substitution
58. The common feature of reaction at the cathode is that(a)Electrons are produced (b) Ions are oxidized (c)
Reduction is involved (d) The electrolyte is diluted
59. The IUPAC name of C(CH3)4 is (a)4-methylbutane (b) 1,2,3,4-Tetramethylbutane (c) Methyl propane
(d) 2,2-dimethyl propane
60. The solubility of alkanolin water is due to(a) Their covalent nature (b) Hydrogen bonding
(c) Their low boiling point (d) their low freezing point

ESSAY
SECTION 1
1(a) (i) State the periodic law
(ii) List 2 periodic properties of an element which generally increase across the period in the periodic table
(b) (I) Write two types of hardness of water and name one salt that cause each type.
(ii)Using equation only, describe how hardness of water can be removed by boiling.
(c) (I) According to collision theory, explain briefly how temperature can affect the rate of a chemical
reaction.

(ii). Consider the following equation Fe + H2SO4 → FeSO4 + H2

Calculate the mass of unreacted iron when 5.0g of iron reacts with 10cm3 of 1.0 mol/dm3 of H2SO4. [Fe=
56.0]

2(a) Name two gases that are denser than air.

(b) Group the following oxides as stated below: l.SO2 ll.Na2O lll. CaO IV. N20 V. Al2O3
VI. CaO2

Acidic Oxides Basic Oxides Amphoteric Peroxides Neutral Oxides

Oxides

(c)(i) Name two stages involved in the industrial preparation of oxygen and nitrogen
(ii)State four (4) general properties of halogens
(d)(i) Write the name given to the industrial preparation of the following compounds: l. H2SO4 II. NH3
(ii)With an equation only, describe the action of H2SO4 as a dehydrating agent

SECTION 2
3(a) Define the following in terms of electron transfer;
(i). Oxidation(ii) Reducing agent
(b). Calculate the oxidation number of S in Na2S2O3[1½ marks]
(c). Copper (II) tetraoxosulphate (VI) solution was electrolyzed using copper electrodes
(i). State the ions present in the solution
(ii). Write the equation for the reaction at each electrode.
(iii). If platinum anode is used to replace copper in (c) (i) above, name the product formed at the anode.
(d). (i). Write two (2) applications of electrolysis
 (ii). Classify each of the following as strong electrolyte, weak electrolyte and non-electrolyte:
Potassium iodide solution, Methylbenzene, Aqueous ammonia, and cane sugar
4 (a)(i) State one major difference between the following pairs:
l. Primary cell and Secondary cell
ll. Electrolytic cell and electrochemical cell
(b).(i) Draw the sixth member of the alkene
(ii).Calculate the relative molecular mass of the sixth member of the alkene
(c). an electrolytic cell is constructed with copper and silver electrodes
(i). State which of the electrodes will be the I. Cathode ll. Anode
(ii). State your reason for your answer in c (ii) above
(iii). State the type of reaction occurring at each electrode
(iv). Write a balanced equation for the overall cell reaction
(d). what mass of silver would be liberated from a solution of by the same quantity of electricity that
liberates 0.32g of copper? [1F=96500C, Ag=108, Cu=63.5]
5(a) (i) Define the following terms:
I. Standard hydrogen electrode II. Functional group
(ii) Write the structure of 1, 3 – dichloro-2-methyl pent-2-ene
(b)(i) Classify the following alkanols into primary, secondary and tertiary alkanols.
I. CH3CH2CH(OH)CH3
II. CH3CH2OH
III. (CH3)3COH
(ii) Which of the following structure is represent in 5b (i) above can be oxidized to;
I. alkanoic acid II. Alkanone
(c)(i) Name the type of reaction represented by the following equation:

I CH3Cl + Cl2 CH2Cl+HCl

II C2H5OH Conc. H2SO4 C2H4 + H2O

III C2H4 + Cl2 C2H4Cl2

(d)The diagram below represent an electrolytic cell used for the purification of copper
(i) Which of the electrodes I and II increases in mass during theelectrolysis?
 (ii) Give reasons for your answers
(iii) State with reasons, the site of oxidation
(iv) Identify III
(v) Explain why its colour does not change in intensity during the
electrolysis

PHYSICS
PAPER 2
1. A projectile is launched with a velocity of 42ms–1 at an angle of 300to the horizontal. If the time of
flight is 4.2 s, calculate the maximum attainable height. [ g = 10 ms–1 ]
2. Two forces 30N and 40N act at right angles to each other. Determine by scale drawing the magnitude
and direction of the resultant force, using a scale of 1cm to 5N.
3. A uniform bar AB is balanced on a knife edge which is 60cm from B by a mass of 22g which hangs at
C 10cm from A as illustrated in the diagram below. Calculate the mass of the bar.
0cm 10cm 40cm 100cm
A B
C
22g

4. Sketch a diagram of a simple pendulum performing simple harmonic motion and indicate positions of
maximum potential energy and kinetic energy.
5. Explain the flowing terms: i. Wavelength ii. Frequency iii. Amplitude.
[3marks]
6. State three characteristics of images formed in a plane mirror
7. Drive the relationship F = ma, where F is the force applied, m is the mass of the object and a is the
acceleration.

8. a. Define wave and list five properties of waves

(b) The equation y = A sin(ωt - kx) represents a plane wave travelling in a medium along the
x-direction, y being the displacement at the point x at time t.
i. Given that x is in meters and t is in seconds, state the units of k and ω
𝜔
ii. What physical quantity does 𝑘 represent? Justify your answer.
iii. State whether the wave is travelling in the positive or negative x-direction
c. What is meant by
i. Critical angle
 ii. Total internal reflection b. under what conditions does total internal
reflection occur
d. A concave mirror of radius of curvature 20 cm produces an inverted images 3 times the size of an
object placed on and perpendicular to the axis. Calculate the positions of the object and image.
[15 marks]

9ai. State two similarities and two differences between the human eye and the camera.

aii. Define heat capacity.

aiii. List two effects of heat on a substance.
b. A copper ball of mass 650g at a temperature of 850⁰c was quickly transferred to a copper
calorimeter of mass 300g containing 500g of water at 40⁰c. Calculate the final temperature of the
mixture. (take specific heat capacity of water as 4200JKg-1K and copper as 400JKg-1 K-1)

ci. Mention three characteristics of sound waves and factors affecting each.

cii. Mention two applications of echo

d. With the aid of a diagram describe node and antinode as applied to stationary waves
[15marks]

10a. Define refraction of wave

(b) (i) Copy the diagram above

(ii) On the copied diagram, sketch the pattern of the waves immediately after passing through
the opening.
(c) A diverging lens of focal length 18.0m is used to view a shark that is 90.0m away from the lens. If
the image formed is 1.0m long, calculate the:
I. image distance
II. Length of the shark
(d) A man can only read a book clearly at 100 cm. What is the type of lens that will correct this defect?
What is the focal length of the lens?

11.a. Explain the terms: i. Uniform acceleration ii. Average speed.

b. A body at rest is given an initial uniform acceleration of 8.0m/s2 for 30s after Which the acceleration
is reduced to 5.0m/s2 for 30s. The body maintains the speed attained for 50s after which it is brought to
rest in 20s. Draw the velocity-time graph of the motion using the information given above.
Using the graph, calculate the:
i. maximum speed attained during the motion.
ii. total distance travelled during the first 60s;
iii. average speed during the same interval as in (ii).
 𝑀.𝐴
c. Show that efficiency,𝜀, of a machine is 𝜀 = × 100%
𝑉.𝑅

12. (a) (i) Define the term linear momentum (ii)State the law of conservation of linear momentum
(b) A man whose mass is 80 kg stands on a spring weighing machine inside an elevator. What is the reading
of the weighing machine when
(i) The elevator starts to ascend with an acceleration 2.0 msˉ1?
(ii) The elevator is moving with a uniform velocity?
(iii) The elevator is coming to rest with a retardation of 4.0 msˉ1?
(c). A screw jack, 25% efficient and having a screw of pitch 0.4 cm is used to raise a load
through a certain height. If in the process the handle turns through a circle of radius 40
cm, calculate the
(i) Velocity ratio of the machine
(ii) The Mechanical advantage of the machine
(iii) Effort required to raise a load of 1000N with the machine. (Take π=
3.14)
(d) Describe an experiment to show that sound require a material medium of Propagation

OBJECTIVE

1. A travelling wave is given by the equation, y = 0.03 Sin (2.2 𝑥 − 3.5t) where y and 𝑥 are in metres and t
is in seconds. Find the amplitude and the wavelength. (A) A=0.03m, =2.86m (B) A=1.2 m. λ =
3m (C) A=2m, λ =2.6m (D) A=7m, =2.86m

2. A travelling wave is given by the equation, y = 5sin(0.8𝜋𝑥 – 2.5𝜋t) where y and 𝑥 are in metres and t is
in seconds. The frequency of the waveis ------ (A) 1.25𝐻𝑧 (B) 0.25𝐻𝑧 (C) 2.5𝐻𝑧 (D) 5.0𝐻𝑧

3. If the direction of travel of the wave is the same as the direction of vibration of the medium, the wave is
(A) Adverse (B) transverse wave (C) long wave (D) Longitudinal wave

4. Which of the following is not a property of longitudinal waves? (A) Interference (B) Reflection
(C) Refraction (D) polarization

5. The amplitude of a wave is the (A) distance travelled by the wave in a complete cycle of its motion.
(B) Maximum displacement of the wave particle from the equilibrium position (C) separation of two
adjacent particles vibrating in phase. (D) distance between two successive troughs of the wave.

6. Which of the following is not an electromagnetic wave? (A) Wave propagated in stretched string.
(B) Gamma rays (C) Radio waves (D) ultraviolet waves

7. What is the magnitude of the resultant of these forces 6N and 8N acting act an angle 1800 to each
other? (A) 9.0N (B) 2 N (C) 11.1N (D) 13.5N

8. What is the kinetic energy of a particle of mass 4.0 x 10-5kg and moving at a speed of 4.7 x 104m/s?
(A) 9.0 J (B) 20 J (C) 11.1 J/S (D) 44.18 KJ
9. A ball of mass M fell from a height H to the ground. Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) The mass changes as it falls to the ground (b) The weight changes as it falls to the ground (c) The
velocity is zero at the middle (d) The velocity is maximum as it is about to hit the ground

10. Whenever an opaque object blocks light rays, …… is formed. (a) yellow light (b) green light(c) shadow
(d) white light

11. A diverging lens has a focal length of 15.0cm. An object is positioned 30cm in front of the lens. The
image distance is ….. (A) 10 cm behind the lens (B) 12 cm behind the lens (C) 8cm
in front of the lens (D) 15 behind the lens cm

12. The critical angle for glass-air boundary is 41.14ᵒ . What is the refractive index of glass ? (A) 3.30
(B) 1.52 (C) 2.0 (D) 1.6

13. The horizontal floor of a water reservoir appears to be 3.0m deep when viewed vertically from above.
If the refractive index of water is 1.35, calculate the real depth of the reservoir. A.2.35m B. 4.05m
C.1.00m D. 0.35m

14. A converging lens has a focal length of 15cm. Determine its power. A. +6.67.0D B.+0.2D
C.-20.0D D. -0.2D

15. Long-sightedness (hypermetropia) can be corrected by using (A) plane mirror (B) diverging lens
(C) curved mirror (D) a converging lens

16. Eyes can see object close to it but not object too far from it. Light ray from distant object converges in
front of the retina. The eye defect is … (A) Long-sightedness (B) short-sightedness (C)
Presbyopia (D) Astigmatism

17. Calculate the focal length of a lens needed by a woman whose near point is50cm from her eyes,
assuming that the least distance of distinct vision for a normal eye is 25cm

(A) 50 cm (B) 12 cm (C) 16 cm (D) 9 cm

18. Similarities between the human eye and camera includes the following except… (A) The human eye is
impregnated with black pigment within while the camera consists of a light-tight box painted black
inside (B) Both have converging lens systems to focus light from an external object (C) The iris in
human eye performs the same function as diaphragm in camera. (D) both are biological organs.
19. Accommodation is the ability of the eye lens… (A) to focus objects at different distances onto the
retina(B) to focus objects at different distances onto the cornea (C) ) to focus objects at different
distances onto the pupil (D) ) to focus objects at different distances onto the camera
20. In a regular reflection the angle of incidence must be equal to the angle of …. (A) Refraction
(B) diffraction (C) minimum deviation (D) reflection
21. The radius of curvature for a concave mirror is 20cm. what is the image distance if the object distance
is 12cm? (A) 60cm (B) 50cm(C) 20cm (D) 30cm

22. One these is not a mechanical wave….(A) water wave (B) sound wave (C) string wave (D) X-rays
23. Light can pass through these objects except….(A) translucent objects (B) opaque objects
(C) transparent object (D) plane glass block

24. 60°C equivalent in Fahrenheit are ---- (A) 140°F (B) 160°F (C) 120°F (D) 102°F

25. Two plane mirrors are inclined at angle 60°. What is the number of images formed? (A) 5 (B) 14 (C) 9
(D) 7

26. The S.I units of period, frequency and amplitude of a wave are ----, ---- and ---- respectively.
(A) hertz, second and centimeter. (B) Second, meter and hertz (C) meter, hertz and second (D)
second, hertz and metre.

27. The period of a wave is 0.022second. Calculate its wavelength if its speed is 330m/s.(A) 6.6m
(B) 7.26m (C) 4.0m (D) 3.3m

28. The period of a wave is 0.005 seconds. Calculate its frequency if its speed is 330m/s.(A)
6.6m (B) 5.0m/s (C) 4.0sec (D) 200 Hertz

29. A periodic pulse travels a distance of 20.0m in 4.00s. If the frequency is 2.0 x 103Hz, calculate the
wavelength .(A) 2.5 x 10-3m (B) 1.0 x 10-2m (C) 2.0 x 10-2m (D) 1.0 x 102Hz

30. If the direction of propagation of the particles of the wave is perpendicular to the direction of
vibration of the medium, the wave is …… (A) Adverse (B) transverse wave (C) long wave (D)
Longitudinal wave

31. The diagram below shows a waveform in which energy is transferred from A to B in a time of 2.5 x
10-3s. Calculate the frequency of the wave.

A B

(A) 2.0 x 103Hz (B) 1.0 x 103Hz (C) 8.0 x 102Hz (D) 1.0 x 10-3Hz

32. A fish appears to be 2.5 m below the surface of a pond when viewed directly from above. How far
below the surface of the pond is the fish? (Refractive index of water = 1.33)

(A) 2.66m (B) 3.33m (C) 4.6m (D) 4.8m

33. The wavelength of red light in air is 7 x 10 -7m. (a) What is its wavelength in a glass of refractive
–7 –7
index 1.5. (A) 4.7 x 10 m (B) 8.7 x 10 m (C) 9.70 (D) 300

34. An object is placed directly below a glass block of thickness 3.0 cm. Calculate the lateral displacement
of the object if the refractive index of the glass is 1.5 (A) 2.66cm (B) 3.0cm (C) 4.6cm (D) 1.0cm
 35. The image of a pin formed by a diverging lens of focal length 10cm is 5cm from the lens. Calculate
the distance of the pin from the lens (A) 10cm (B) 3.0cm (C) 4.6cm (D) 4.8cm

36. The refractive index of glass is 1.5. What is the critical angle for glass-air boundary?(A) 10.9·
(B) 13.5· (C) 44.0· (D) 41.8·

37. One of these is a condition for total internal reflection to occur… (A) Light must travel from an
optically denser medium to an optically less dense medium (B) Light must travel from an optically
dense medium to an optically dense medium (C) Light must travel from an optically less dense medium
to an optically less dense medium (D) light must travel from air to air.

38. Total internal reflection occurs in the following except… (A) Periscope (B) Mirage (C) Optical
fibers (D) plane mirror

ac
. b

t/s

39. Which of the following statement is incorrect about the graph above? (A) a is the amplitude (B)
distance between c and b is a wavelength (C) there are two wavelengths on the graph (D) the graph
represents sound wave

Compression
rarefaction

40. The wave diagram above is a typical example of …. (A) transverse wave (B) long and high wave
(C) visible light wave (D) sound wave

41. Which of these optical instruments do not make use of a lens? (a) projector (b) periscope
(c) microscope (d) telescope.
42. A magnifying glass has a of focal length 5.50 cm. what is the power of the lens? (a) 0.5 dioptre
(b) 18.18 dioptre (c) 1.5 dioptre (d) 2.0 dioptre
43. Which of following is a correct statement about a compound microscope? (a) the magnification which
can be unlimited (b) the image produced by the eyepiece is real (c) the eyepiece has a longer focal
length than the objective (d) none of the above
44. The ability of the eye to focus objects at different distance is called --- (a) power (b) accommodation
(c) normal vision (d) persistence of vision
45. Which of these parts of a camera corresponds to the retina of the human eye? (a) shutter (b) film
(c) diaphragm (d) focusing ring
46. The image obtained with a converging lens is upright and three times the height of the object. If the
focal length of the lens is 20 cm, what is the position of the object? (a) 13.3 cm (b) 26.7cm (c) 40.0
cm (d) 80.0 cm
47. Which of these lenses can be used to correct myopia? (a) double focal lens (b) concave lens (b) convex
lens (d) converging lens
48. Which of these eye defects is as a result of uneven curvature of one or both surface of the eye lens?
(a) myopia (b) hypermetropia (c) presbyopia (d) astigmatism
49. Presbyopia is an eye defect that result from ---- (a) weak ciliary muscle (b) short eye ball (c) loss of
sphericity of the eye ball (d) long eye ball
50. Rays of light parallel and close to the principal axis of a concave lens will ---- after refraction from the
lens. (a) appear to diverge from the centre of curvature (b) converge to the principal focus (c) appear to
diverge from the principal focus (d) converge to the optic centre
51. The image of an object at infinity will be formed by a converging lens at --- (a) the centre of curvature
(b) optic centre (c) infinity (d) principal focus
52. Why does sound from an enclosed bell jar gradually fade away as the jar is gradually evacuated? (a) the
sound is forced out (b) the pressure in the jar is reduced (c) sound requires a material medium for it
propagation (d) the sound wave is absorbed by the inner wall
53. In string instruments like guitar, high pitch notes are obtained from strings that are --- (a) thin and long
(b) thin and short (c) thick and long (d) thick and short
54. The velocity ratio and efficiency of a system of pulleys are 6 and 80% respectively. How much effort is
required to lift a load of mass 1200N with this system? (a) 250N (b) 1566.N (c) 679.4N (d) 169.6N
55. A sounding tuning fork is brought near the open end of a pipe containing air and the loudness of the sound
is observed to increase. This observation is due to ---
(a) an echo (b) resonance (c) interference (d) reverberation
56. A projectile is fired from the ground level with a velocity of 500m/s at 300 to the horizontal. Determine
the range.(g=10m/s) (a) 21650.6m (b) 1566.m (c) 679.4m (d) 169.6m
57. The fundamental frequency of a wire 80 cm long is 200Hz. If the tension is 36 N, the mass per unit
length in kgm-1 of the wire is about --- (a) 3.51 x 10 -4 kg/m(b) 2.8 x 10-4 (c) 1.4 x 10-4 kg/m (d) 1.2 x
10-4.kg/m
58. A copper ball of mass 0.05kg cools from a temperature of 80℃ to 40℃. Calculate the quantity of heat
loss. (SHC of copper is 400 Jkg-1k-1) (a) 800J (b) 25 (c) 50J (d) 75J
59. The following are example of vectors except ---- (a) moment (b) pressure in gas (c) tension (d)
viscosity
60. What is the magnitude of the resultant of these forces 6N and 8N acting act an angle 900 to each other?
(a) 9.0N (b) 10.0 N (c) 11.1N (d) 13.5N
 BIOLOGY
1. Effective control of natural resources by man is described as (A) Utilization (B)
Evaluation (C) Conservation (D) Integration
2. The following natural resources are renewable except (A) water (B) Crude oil
(C) Air (D) Soil (e) Plants.
3. One of the methods of ensuring conservation of natural resources may be by (A)
bush burning (B) felling of tree (B) mechanized farming (D) establishment of
forest reserve
4. The need for preserving and conserving natural resources is most urgent these
days due to _____ (A) fast depletion of natural forest resources (B) high rate of
corruption (C) low prices of materials from the forest (D) bad government
policies
5. One of these is not a benefit of conservation of natural resources (A) poor
patronage by tourists to waterfalls (B) great scientific value (C)
preservation of natural beauty (D) sustained availability of resources
6. The stomata of a leaf performs the same function as (A) spiracles of insects (B)
trachea of toads (C) pharynx of man (D) liver of man
7. Which of the following organisms lacks a reproductive organ? (A)
Chlamydomonas (B) Toad (C) Pride of Barbados (D) Cockroach
8. The collective name for the female parts of the flower is (A) gynoecium (B)
androecium (C) ovary (D) stigma
9. Which of the following processes removes CO2 from the atmosphere? (A)
respiration (B) photosynthesis (C) transpiration (D) combustion
10. If the petals of a flowering plant are removed, which of the following processes
is likely to be affected? (A) transpiration (B) pollination (C) germination (D)
photosynthesis
11. Which of the following organisms has homodont dentition? (A) rabbit (B) lizard
(C) man (D) dog
12. In a food chain, each stage in the chain is a (A) chain level (B)web level (c )
trophic level (D) consumption level
13. Carbon is added to the atmosphere by the following process except (A)
Respiration (B) burning (C) photosynthesis (D) volcanic eruption
14. The role of bacteria in the nitrogen cycle includes the following except (A)
fixing atmospheric nitrogen (B) converting ammonia to nitrites (C) converting
nitrites to nitrates (D) converting carbohydrates to carbon dioxide
15. The gas produced during decomposition of matter is (A) Hydrogen sulphide
(B) carbon monoxide (C) chlorine (D) oxygen
16. Pneumatophores are essential for (A) nutrition (B) movement (C) breathing (D)
growth
17. An example of saprophytic relationship is a / an (A) vulture feeding on decaying
meat (B) mushroom growing on decaying vegetation (C) boy eating stale bread
(D) earthworm feeding on decaying vegetation
18. A characteristics feature of plant parasite is the (A) possession of hold fasts (B)
possession of rhizoids (C) development of hanging roots (D) development of
haustoria
19. The part of a leguminous plant where bacteria like Rhizobium can be found is
(A) at the nodes of the stem (B) at the internodes (C) in the root noodles (D) in
the spongy mesophyll
20. Which of the following is not an example of commensalism (A) epiphytes
growing on stem of large plant (B) bacteria living in the large intestine of human
 (C) association between remora and shark (D) tape-worm living in the small
intestine
21. The distribution of plants in a rain forest is governed mainly by ……..(A)
amount of sunlight (B) rainfall pattern (C) soil type (D) vegetation
22. All these are ecological factors affecting all habitats except …… (A) Humidity
(B) rainfall (C) temperature (D) wind
23. The Sahel savanna is found in …….. State of Nigeria (A) Akwa Ibom (B) Kogi
(C) Plateau (D) Zamfara
24. The kind of teeth used for tearing food material is (A) canine (B) incisor (C)
molar (D) premolar
25. Which of the following essential substances is contained in vegetables? (A)
Chlorophyll (B) glucose (C) mineral salts (D) carbon dioxide.
26. The type of nutrition shown by spirogyra is (A) symbiosis (B) holophytic (C)
holozoic (D) chemosynthetic.
27. Which of the following food substances would produce a translucent mark
when rubbed on a white paper? (A) Potato (B) beans (C) mango (D) groundnut
28. If an enzyme works best in an acid medium, in which of the following parts of
the human gut is the pH best for enzyme activities? In the (A) ileum,pH 9.0 (B)
stomach,pH 2.0 (C) duodenum, pH 7.0 (D) mouth cavity; pH 8.0
29. The first step in carrying out ecological studies in a terrestrial habitat is (A)
quadrant sampling (B) mapping the area (C) collection of organisms (D)
measuring abiotic factors
30. _____ is a vitamin which can be synthesized by the skin of babies using sun light
(A) vitamin A (B) vitamin K (C) vitamin D (D) vitamin C
31. Fish cannot survive on land because it has (A) a body covered with scales (B) a
stream lined body (C) no lungs (D) no walking appendages.
32. Improper sewage disposal could be dangerous for the following reasons except
(A) the smell of carelessly disposed sewage water is most undesirable (B) the
spread of gastro- intestinal diseases are enhanced (C) resultant outbreak of
water borne diseases. (D) There would be little space for disposal of wastes.
33. Which of the following is the tolerance range for most animals? (A) 0o-100oC (B)
-5-35oC (C) 0o-42oC (D) 0o-45oC
34. Which of the following is incorrect (A) a specie can only be found in area having
its range of tolerance (B) variation in abiotic factors are responsible for
distribution of a species (C) an ecological niche is also known as biomes (D) the
ability of an organism to withstand extreme variation in environment is tolerance
35. Mature male gametes in a fish are stored in the ________ (A) Gall bladder (B)
Urethra (C) Seminal vesicle (D) Urethra
36. One of these is false (A) soil is polluted by clearing refuse dumps (B) oil spillage
cripples economic life of fishermen (C)water pollution is dangerous to water
supply (D) noise pollution may cause restlessness.
37. Which of the following adapts tad-pole to aquatic life? (A) presence of sharp
claws (B) presence of external gills (C) presence of spines (D) possession of
short beak
38. Which of the following pest control methods involves the use of pest enemies?
(A)cultural method (B) biological method (C) physical method (D) chemical
method
39. Which of the following is affected by black pod disease? (A) oil palm (B) rubber
(C) cocoa (D) cowpea
40. Which of the following diseases is caused by a virus? (A) mosaic (B) brown
spot (C) black pod (D) anthracnose
41. A seed of a flowering plant can best be described as (A) radical and plumule
(B) the developed ovule (C) the embryo and endosperm (D) developed ovary
42. The main reason for the conservation of wild life is to (A) create national parks
for recreation (B) maintain ecological balance in communities (c ) prevent
hunters from being cruel to animals (D)save some species from extinction
43. Pests are important to man because (A) they are rich source of protein (B) they
contribute greatly to soil fertility (C) they affect valuable agricultural produce
(D) they reproduce profusely
44. Parts usually attacked by pests do not include this (A) pith (B) stems (C) leaves
(D) roots
45. Which of the following crops is attacked by stem-boring pests? (A) mango (B)
cassava (C) maize (D) yam
46. Fertilization takes place inside the---------- (A) uterus (B) ovaries (C) fallopian
tube (D) vagina
47. An example of an invertebrate plant pest is ______ (A) adult housefly (B) aphids
(C) mosquito (D) butterfly
48. Which of the following vertebrate is not a known pest of plants (A) Dog (B)
birds (C) Squirrel (D) rabbit
49. Which of the following vertebrates is mostly viviparous? (A) Amphibians (B)
Mammals (C) Fishes (D) Reptiles
50. Which stages of the life cycle of insect pests causes the least damage to crops (A)
Nymph and Adult (B) Pupa and Larva (C) Larvae and Adult
(D) egg and Nymphs.
51. Pest control involves the following except (A) reduction of pest population (B)
protection of crops (C) good knowledge of life cycle of
pests (D) increasing crop yield
52. The type of placentation found in orange is (A) axile (B) marginal (C) parietal
(D) free central
53. The use of sterile male technique is relevant in the _______ (A) study of the sex
of insects (B) study of the population of insect (C) chemical method of pest
control (D) modern means of pest control
54. Which of the following part of the flower holds the anther? (A) Style (B) petals
(C) filament (D) receptacle
55. All are types of ovary except (A). Superior (B). Inferior (C). Half inferior
(D). Half superior
56. This is not a part in the structure of the female gamete in mammals (A) Nucleus
(B) Plasma membrane (C) Mitochondria (D) Polar bodies
57. The function of the prostrate gland in the male reproductive system of mammals
is (A) Storage of sperm (B) Pathway for sperm (C) Secretion of chemicals to
energize cells (D) produce sperm cells
58. The male gametes are produced and stored in the testes which are found in the
scrotal sacs outside the body due, to the consideration of: (A) Light (B) humidity
(C) Pressure (D) Temperature
59. The process by which flowers produce fruit without the process of fertilization is
called (A) viviparity (B) parthenocarpy (C)
propagation (D) metamorphosis
60. The female sex hormones Oestrogen and Progesterone are produced by the-
______________ (A) fallopian tubes (B) womb (C) vulva (D) Ovaries
 SECTION B: (ESSAY)

1(a)(i) Explain the term conservation of natural resources.

(ii) State four factors responsible for the decline of the abundance and variety of
wild life.

(b)Explain briefly the following terms (i) endangered species (ii) extinct organisms.

(c)State four ways by which forest reserves can be conserved.

2. (a) Distinguish between pollination and fertilization in plants.

(b) State two features which ensure cross pollination in plants.

(c) (i) Name four agents of pollination you know.

(ii) State four features of wind pollinated flowers.

3. (a) What is homeostasis?

(b) Outline four functions of the liver and explain any two.

(c) Name and briefly explain any four liver diseases.

4.(a) Make a diagram 8 – 10 cm long of the male gamete of a mammal.

(b) (i) Mention four (4) differences between the male and the female reproductive
organs.

(ii) What is the function of the Nucleus in the male and female gametes?

5. (ai) State;

(i) three structural differences;

(ii) three structural similarities; between the alimentary canal of a

grasshopper and a bird.

(b) Mention four materials transported in;

(i) animals;

(ii) plants.