Mcqs

Lect 11
1. What does each flow have in the discussed system to prevent hogging and allow differential loss probabilities?
- a) Dedicated server
- b) Logical queue
- c) Load balancer
- d) Shared memory
**Answer: b) Logical queue**
2. In the discussed system, how is the transmission rate calculated?

- a) C bits/sec for each flow
- b) C bits/sec allocated equally among all flows
- c) C bits/sec for the entire system
- d) C bits/sec divided by the number of non-empty queues
**Answer: d) C bits/sec divided by the number of non-empty queues**
3. Which algorithm is used to simulate a fluid flow system in the discussed context?
- a) Fluid Dynamics Algorithm
- b) Ideal Queueing Algorithm
- c) Fair Queueing Algorithm
- d) Dynamic Flow Simulation Algorithm
**Answer: c) Fair Queueing Algorithm**
4. What does WFQ stand for in the context of packet networks?

- a) Weighted Fair Queueing
- b) Weighted Fast Queueing
- c) Well-Formed Queueing
- d) Wideband Frequency Queueing
**Answer: a) Weighted Fair Queueing**
5. Which algorithm is commonly used for policing traffic flows in packet networks?
- b) Leaky Bucket Algorithm
- c) Token Bucket Algorithm
- d) Round Robin Algorithm
**Answer: b) Leaky Bucket Algorithm**
6. What is the purpose of the Leaky Bucket Algorithm?

- a) To regulate token transfer
- b) To simulate fluid flow in queues
- c) To negotiate contracts between flows
- d) To monitor and control traffic flows
**Answer: d) To monitor and control traffic flows**
7. What is the primary function of a token bucket in traffic policing?

- a) To store packets temporarily
- b) To regulate the flow of tokens
- c) To shape incoming traffic
- d) To negotiate QoS contracts
**Answer: c) To shape incoming traffic**
8. How does the Leaky Bucket Algorithm handle non-conforming packets?

- a) Discard them
- b) Tag them for lower priority
- c) Delay their transmission
- d) Buffer them for later transmission
**Answer: a) Discard them**
9. Which parameter determines the maximum allowable burst arrival in the Leaky Bucket Algorithm?
- a) Leak rate
- b) Bucket depth
- c) Packet length
- d) Interarrival time
**Answer: b) Bucket depth**
10. What does the token rate regulate in token bucket traffic policing?
- a) Packet transmission rate
- b) Token generation rate
- c) Packet arrival rate
- d) Token consumption rate
**Answer: a) Packet transmission rate**
11. How does the Token Bucket Algorithm handle packets with insufficient tokens?
- a) Delay their transmission
- b) Buffer them temporarily
- c) Discard them
- d) Tag them for lower priority
**Answer: c) Discard them**
12. What determines how much burstiness is allowed into the network in the Token Bucket Algorithm?
- a) Token rate
- b) Packet length
- c) Bucket depth
- d) Token generation rate
**Answer: c) Bucket depth**
13. Which mechanism is used to ensure QoS delivery as long as the source conforms to the contract?
- a) Policing
- b) Shaping
- c) Admission control
- d) Packetization
**Answer: a) Policing**
14. What is the role of the Leaky Bucket Traffic Shaper?

- a) To negotiate QoS contracts
- b) To buffer incoming packets
- c) To smooth out surges in arrivals
- d) To regulate token transfer
**Answer: c) To smooth out surges in arrivals**
15. What is the primary function of the Leaky Bucket Traffic Shaper?
- a) To discard non-conforming packets
- b) To negotiate traffic contracts
- d) To monitor network traffic
16. Which parameter in the Leaky Bucket Algorithm corresponds to the nominal interarrival time?
- a) Leak rate
- b) Bucket depth
- c) Packet length
- d) Token rate
**Answer: c) Packet length**
17. In the Token Bucket Algorithm, what determines whether a packet is conforming or non-conforming?
- a) Bucket depth
- b) Packet size
- c) Token rate
- d) Packet length
**Answer: b) Packet size**
18. What is the function of the Leaky Bucket Algorithm with variable packet size?
19. Which parameter in the Leaky Bucket Algorithm determines the rate at which tokens are consumed?
- a) Bucket depth
- b) Packet length
- c) Leak rate
- d) Token rate
**Answer: d) Token rate**
20. What does the leak rate correspond to in the Leaky Bucket Algorithm?
- a) Maximum burst size
- b) Packet size
- c) Token generation rate
- d) Average contracted rate
**Answer: d) Average contracted rate**
21. How does the Leaky Bucket Algorithm handle overflow situations?
- a) By delaying packet transmission
- b) By discarding packets
- c) By increasing the bucket depth
- d) By buffering packets temporarily
**Answer: b) By discarding packets**


- a) Tostore packets temporarily
- a) Discard them
- a) Leak rate
- b) Bucket depth
- c) Packet length
- c) Discard them
- a) Token rate
- b) Packet length
- c) Bucket depth
- a) Policing
- b) Shaping
- d) Packetization

**Answer: c) To smooth out surges in arrivals**
33. What is the primary function of the Leaky Bucket Traffic Shaper?
- a) To discard non-conforming packets
- d) To monitor network traffic
34. Which parameter in the Leaky Bucket Algorithm corresponds to the nominal interarrival time?
- a) Leak rate
- b) Bucket depth
- c) Packet length
- d) Token rate
**Answer: c) Packet length**
35. In the Token Bucket Algorithm, what determines whether a packet is conforming or non-conforming?
- a) Bucket depth
- b) Packet size
- c) Token rate
- d) Packet length
**Answer: b) Packet size**
36. What is the function of the Leaky Bucket Algorithm with variable packet size?
37. Which parameter in the Leaky Bucket Algorithm determines the rate at which tokens are consumed?
- a) Bucket depth
- b) Packet length
- c) Leak rate
- d) Token rate
**Answer: d) Token rate**
38. What does the leak rate correspond to in the Leaky Bucket Algorithm?
- a) Maximum burst size
- b) Packet size
- c) Token generation rate
- d) Average contracted rate
**Answer: d) Average contracted rate**
39. How does the Leaky Bucket Algorithm handle overflow situations?
- a) By delaying packet transmission
- b) By discarding packets
- c) By increasing the bucket depth
- d) By buffering packets temporarily
**Answer: b) By discarding packets**


- a) To store packets temporarily
- a) Discard them
- a) Leak rate
- b) Bucket depth
- c) Packet length
- c) Discard them
- a) Token rate
- b) Packet length
- c) Bucket depth
- a) Policing
- b) Shaping
- d) Packetization

Answer: c) To smooth out surges in arrivals

Lect 10
1. In FIFO queueing, what happens when the buffer is full?
- a) Incoming packets are queued in a separate buffer.
- **b) Oldest packets are discarded.**
- c) New packets are queued after the buffer is expanded.
- d) Packet transmission is paused until space is available.
2. What does RED stand for in networking?

- a) Rapid Early Detection
- **b) Random Early Detection**
- c) Reliable Early Detection
- d) Reduced Early Dropping
3. How does RED improve network performance?

- a) By increasing loss probability for all sources.
- b) By discarding packets only when the buffer is full.
- **c) By marking offending packets and reducing loss for cooperating sources.**
- d) By prioritizing high-priority packets over low-priority ones.
4. What is the primary goal of HOL priority queueing?

- a) To provide equal service to all packets.
- b) To minimize packet loss in the network.
- **c) To service high-priority packets until the buffer is empty.**
- d) To discard packets randomly to maintain fairness.
5. What issue can arise when high-priority packets surge in HOL priority queueing?
- **a) Low-priority queue saturation**
- b) High-priority packet discard
- c) Bandwidth shortage for all packets
- d) Buffer overflow due to excessive prioritization
6. Which type of priority queueing provides differential Quality of Service (QoS)?

- a) FIFO
- b) HOL
- c) RED
- **d) Fair Queueing**
7. In the context of scheduling, what does "Earliest Due Date" refer to?
- a) The timestamp of packet arrival.
- **b) The deadline assigned to each packet.**
- c) The priority level of the packet.
- d) The order of packet transmission.
8. What is the purpose of Fair Queueing or Generalized Processor Sharing?

- a) To allocate bandwidth equally among all packets.
- b) To prioritize packets based on their content.
- c) To minimize packet delay in the network.
- **d) To prevent packet hogging and allow differential loss probabilities.**
9. Which algorithm is used in Fair Queueing to compute finishing times for packets?
- a) FIFO
- b) Round Robin
- c) Earliest Due Date
- **d) Generalized Processor Sharing**
10. How does WFQ contribute to providing Quality of Service in packet networks?
- a) By discarding packets randomly.
- b) By prioritizing high-priority packets.
- **c) By ensuring fairness in bandwidth allocation.**
- d) By minimizing buffer size for efficient transmission.
Sure, here are the next 10 questions:
11. What is the primary function of a buffer in packet switching?

- **a) To store packets temporarily during transmission.**
- c) To discard packets randomly to manage congestion.
- d) To regulate the flow of packets in the network.
12. Which mechanism is employed in FIFO queueing to manage congestion?

- **a) Random Early Detection**
- b) HOL Priority Queueing
- c) Weighted Fair Queueing
- d) First-In, First-Out discipline
13. How does Random Early Detection (RED) improve network performance?
- a) By dropping packets randomly to reduce congestion.
- **c) By marking offending packets to cooperate with TCP sources.**
- d) By providing differential Quality of Service to different packet flows.
14. In HOL priority queueing, what happens when the high-priority queue is empty?
- a) Low-priority packets are dropped.
- **b) Low-priority packets are given priority.**
- c) High-priority packets are discarded.
- d) The transmission link is paused until the queue refills.
15. Which type of queueing provides differential Quality of Service?

- a) FIFO
- b) RED
- **c) HOL**
- d) Fair Queueing
16. What is the main objective of Earliest Due Date scheduling?

- **a) To prioritize packets based on their due dates.**
- c) To ensure fair bandwidth allocation.
- d) To reduce packet delay for high-priority packets.
17. How does Fair Queueing allocate bandwidth among different packet flows?
- a) Equally among all flows
- b) Based on packet size
- **c) Proportionally to flow weight**
- d) Randomly to prevent packet hogging
18. Which algorithm is used in Fair Queueing to approximate fluid flow from queues?
- a) FIFO
- b) Round Robin
19. What is the primary purpose of RED in packet networks?

- a) To prioritize high-priority packets.
- **b) To minimize packet loss.**
- c) To regulate packet flow.
- d) To discard packets randomly.
- a) Low-priority packets are given priority.
- b) High-priority packets are discarded.
- **c) Low-priority packets are dropped.**
- d) The transmission link is paused.

- a) FIFO
- b) RED
- c) HOL
22. What is the purpose of Weighted Fair Queueing?

- c) To prevent packet hogging.
- **d) To provide fair bandwidth allocation.**
- a) Equally among all flows.
- b) Based on packet size.
- **c) Proportionally to flow weight.**
- d) Randomly to prevent packet hogging.


- a) FIFO
- b) RED
- c) HOL


31. What is the primary goal of HOL priority queueing?

- a) To provide equal service to all packets.
- **c) To service high-priority packets until the buffer is empty.**
- d) To discard packets randomly to maintain fairness.
32. What issue can arise when high-priority packets surge in HOL priority queueing?
- **a) Low-priority queue saturation**
- b) High-priority packet discard
- c) Bandwidth shortage for all packets
- d) Buffer overflow due to excessive prioritization
33. Which type of priority queueing provides differential Quality of Service (QoS)?
- a) FIFO
- b) HOL
- c) RED
34. In the context of scheduling, what does "Earliest Due Date" refer to?
- a) The timestamp of packet arrival.
- **b) The deadline assigned to each packet.**
- c) The priority level of the packet.
- d) The order of packet transmission.
35. What is the purpose of Fair Queueing or Generalized Processor Sharing?

- c) To minimize packet delay in the network.
- **d) To prevent packet hogging and allow differential loss probabilities.**
36. Which algorithm is used in Fair Queueing to compute finishing times for packets?
- a) FIFO
- b) Round Robin
37. How does WFQ contribute to providing Quality of Service in packet networks?
- a) By discarding packets randomly.
- b) By prioritizing high-priority packets.
- **c) By ensuring fairness in bandwidth allocation.**
- d) By minimizing buffer size for efficient transmission.
38. What is the primary function of a buffer in packet switching?

- **a) To store packets temporarily during transmission.**
- c) To discard packets randomly to manage congestion.
- d) To regulate the flow of packets in the network.
39. Which mechanism is employed in FIFO queueing to manage congestion?

- **a) Random Early Detection**
- b) HOL Priority Queueing
- c) Weighted Fair Queueing
- d) First-In, First-Out discipline
40. How does Random Early Detection (RED) improve network performance?
- a) By dropping packets randomly to reduce congestion.
- **c) By marking offending packets to cooperate with TCP sources.**
- d) By providing differential Quality of Service to different packet flows.
- a) Low-priority packets are dropped.
- **b) Low-priority packets are given priority.**
- c) High-priority packets are discarded.
- d) The transmission link is paused until the queue refills.

- a) FIFO
- b) RED
- c) HOL

- a) Equally among all flows
- b) Based on packet size
- **c) Proportionally to flow weight**
- d) Randomly to prevent packet hogging


- a) FIFO
- b) RED
- c) HOL


Lect 9
1. What type of networks are discussed in the lecture?
a) Packet-switching networks
b) Circuit-switching networks
c) Hybrid networks
d) All of the above
Answer: b) Circuit-switching networks
2. In circuit-switching networks, how is a connection established?

a) Through packet routing
b) Through network signaling
c) Through data transmission
d) Through frequency modulation
Answer: b) Through network signaling
3. What is the purpose of LATA in the context of telephone networks?

a) Local Area Telephone Access
b) Long-distance Access Transport Area
c) Local Access & Transport Area
d) Localized Analog Telephone Association
Answer: c) Local Access & Transport Area
4. Which component connects the telephone to the telephone switch in a local loop?
a) Distribution cable
b) Feeder cable
c) Pedestal
d) Serving area interface
Answer: d) Serving area interface
5. What is the advantage of Fiber-to-the-Curve over Fiber-to-the-Home?

a) Higher bandwidth
b) Lower cost
c) Longer distance
d) Faster speed
Answer: b) Lower cost
6. Which technology is used to convert from 2-wire to 4-wire connections in telephone networks?
a) Fiber optics
b) DSL
c) Hybrid transformers
d) Echo cancellers
Answer: c) Hybrid transformers
7. What does ISDN stand for?

a) Integrated Services Digital Network
b) International Switching Data Network
c) Internet Service Delivery Network
d) Integrated Switching & Data Network
Answer: a) Integrated Services Digital Network
8. What is the data rate of a Basic Rate Interface (BRI) in ISDN?

a) 64 kbps
b) 128 kbps
c) 256 kbps
d) 512 kbps
Answer: a) 64 kbps
9. What are SPC switches in telecommunication?

a) Signal Processing Control switches
b) Stored-Program Control switches
c) Service Provisioning Control switches
d) System Performance Control switches
Answer: b) Stored-Program Control switches
10. What protocol stack is used in Signaling System 7 (SS7)?

a) TCP/IP
b) OSI model
c) ISDN
d) MTP/SCCP/TCAP/ISUP
Answer: d) MTP/SCCP/TCAP/ISUP
11. How are signaling messages exchanged between switch processors?

a) Through modems
b) Through processors
c) Through signaling messages
d) Through protocols
Answer: c) Through signaling messages
12. What is the role of an STP in a signaling network?

a) Signal Processing
b) Signal Transfer Point
c) Service Transfer Point
d) Signal Transport Protocol
Answer: b) Signal Transfer Point
13. Which layer of the Signaling System Protocol Stack ensures the delivery of messages to signaling nodes?
a) SCCP
b) MTP level 3
c) MTP level 2
d) MTP level 1
Answer: b) MTP level 3
14. What is the primary objective of Traffic Management in packet networks?

a) Maximize traffic congestion
b) Minimize packet loss
c) Ensure fair distribution of bandwidth
d) Optimize network performance
Answer: d) Optimize network performance
15. What is the primary function of a scheduler in Traffic Management?

a) Determine packet routing
b) Control access mechanisms
c) Allocate network resources
d) Monitor network performance
Answer: c) Allocate network resources
16. Which switching type allows for light-in, light-out operation without optical-to-electronic conversion?
a) Space-Division switching
b) Time-Division switching
c) Hybrid switching
d) Pure Optical switching
Answer: d) Pure Optical switching
17. Which type of switch is used to provide separate physical connections between inputs and outputs?
a) Crossbar switch
b) Time-slot interchange switch
c) Multistage switch
d) Fiber-optic switch
Answer: a) Crossbar switch
18. What is the primary purpose of Traffic Engineering?

a) To control traffic lights
b) To manage vehicular traffic
c) To optimize network resources
d) To design road networks
Answer: c) To optimize network resources
19. Which traffic management level involves matching traffic flows to available resources?
a) Packet level
b) Flow level
c) Flow-aggregate level
d) Aggregate level
Answer: b) Flow level
20. What is the main drawback of FIFO Queueing in packet networks?

a) Inability to provide differential QoS
b) Excessive buffering
c) High latency
d) Unfairness in resource allocation
Answer: a) Inability to provide differential QoS
21. What is the purpose of Transmission Discipline in packet Queueing?

a) To prioritize certain packets
b) To manage packet transmission order
c) To discard packets when the buffer is full
d) To allocate bandwidth to different flows
Answer: b) To manage packet transmission order
22. What is the primary objective of Fair Queueing algorithms?

a) To maximize throughput for high-priority packets
b) To ensure every packet gets equal treatment
c) To minimize latency for low-priority packets
d) To balance fairness and efficiency in packet transmission
Answer: d) To balance fairness and efficiency in packet transmission
23. Which technique is used in Traffic Management to control the number of flows allowed in the network?
a) Packet dropping
b) Rate-control
c) Admission control
d) Buffer management
Answer: c) Admission control
24. What is the primary role of a Clos switch in a telecommunications network?
a) To route packets between network nodes
b) To manage traffic flows within a network
c) To provide non-blocking switching capability
d) To control access to network resources
Answer: c) To provide non-blocking switching capability
25. What is the significance of the Clos Non-Blocking Condition?

a) It ensures that all packets are delivered without interference
b) It guarantees that there are enough crosspoints in a switch to prevent blocking
c) It defines the maximum number of connections a switch can handle simultaneously
d) It determines the minimum number of crosspoints required for a non-blocking switch
Answer: d) It determines the minimum number of crosspoints required for a non-blocking switch
26. What is the advantage of Time-Slot Interchange (TSI) Switching?

a) It allows for simultaneous transmission of multiple packets
b) It enables dynamic reordering of packets at the switch
c) It reduces latency by prioritizing certain packets
d) It increases bandwidth by compressing data packets
Answer: b) It enables dynamic reordering of packets at the switch
27. In Time-Share the Crossbar Switch, how is the interconnection pattern of the space switch configured?
a) It remains constant over time
b) It changes with every packet transmission
c) It adapts based on traffic load
d) It is determined by the network administrator
Answer: c) It adapts based on traffic load
28. What is the primary advantage of Pure Optical Switching?

a) Lower cost compared to traditional switches
b) Higher reliability due to absence of electronic components
c) Greater scalability and flexibility in network design
d) Faster data transmission speeds
Answer: b) Higher reliability due to absence of electronic components
29. Which component determines the maximum delay and loss probability in FIFO Queueing?
a) Buffer size
b) Packet length
c) Transmission rate
d) Arrival rate
Answer: a) Buffer size
30. What is the primary purpose of Traffic Engineering at the Flow-Aggregate Level?
a) To optimize individual packet transmissions
b) To route traffic flows efficiently across the network
c) To provide differential QoS to different traffic flows
d) To control the overall traffic load in the network
Answer: b) To route traffic flows efficiently across the network
31. Which protocol stack is used in Signaling System 7 (SS7)?

a) TCP/IP
b) OSI model
c) ISDN
d) MTP/SCCP/TCAP/ISUP
Answer: d) MTP/SCCP/TCAP/ISUP
32. What is the primary function of an STP in a signaling network?
a) Signal Processing
b) Signal Transfer Point
c) Service Transfer Point
d) Signal Transport Protocol
Answer: b) Signal Transfer Point
33. Which layer of the Signaling System Protocol Stack ensures the delivery of messages to signaling nodes?
a) SCCP
b) MTP level 3
c) MTP level 2
d) MTP level 1
Answer: b) MTP level 3
34. What is the primary objective of Traffic Management in packet networks?

a) Maximize traffic congestion
b) Minimize packet loss
c) Ensure fair distribution of bandwidth
d) Optimize network performance
Answer: d) Optimize network performance
35. What is the primary function of a scheduler in Traffic Management?

a) Determine packet routing
b) Control access mechanisms
c) Allocate network resources
d) Monitor network performance
Answer: c) Allocate network resources
36. Which switching type allows for light-in, light-out operation without optical-to-electronic conversion?
a) Space-Division switching
b) Time-Division switching
c) Hybrid switching
d) Pure Optical switching
Answer: d) Pure Optical switching
37. Which type of switch is used to provide separate physical connections between inputs and outputs?
a) Crossbar switch
b) Time-slot interchange switch
c) Multistage switch
d) Fiber-optic switch
Answer: a) Crossbar switch
38. What is the primary purpose of Traffic Engineering?

a) To control traffic lights
b) To manage vehicular traffic
c) To optimize network resources
d) To design road networks
Answer: c) To optimize network resources
39. Which traffic management level involves matching traffic flows to available resources?
a) Packet level
b) Flow level
c) Flow-aggregate level
d) Aggregate level
Answer: b) Flow level
40. What is the main drawback of FIFO Queueing in packet networks?
a) Inability to provide differential QoS
b) Excessive buffering
c) High latency
d) Unfairness in resource allocation
Answer: a) Inability to provide differential QoS
41. What is the purpose of Transmission Discipline in packet Queueing?

a) To prioritize certain packets
b) To manage packet transmission order
c) To discard packets when the buffer is full
d) To allocate bandwidth to different flows
Answer: b) To manage packet transmission order
42. What is the primary objective of Fair Queueing algorithms?

a) To maximize throughput for high-priority packets
b) To ensure every packet gets equal treatment
c) To minimize latency for low-priority packets
d) To balance fairness and efficiency in packet transmission
Answer: d) To balance fairness and efficiency in packet transmission
43. Which technique is used in Traffic Management to control the number of flows allowed in the network?
a) Packet dropping
b) Rate-control
c) Admission control
d) Buffer management
Answer: c) Admission control
44. What is the primary role of a Clos switch in a telecommunications network?

a) To route packets between network nodes
b) To manage traffic flows within a network
c) To provide non-blockingswitching capability
d) To control access to network resources
Answer: c) To provide non-blocking switching capability
45. What is the significance of the Clos Non-Blocking Condition?

a) It ensures that all packets are delivered without interference
b) It guarantees that there are enough crosspoints in a switch to prevent blocking
c) It defines the maximum number of connections a switch can handle simultaneously
d) It determines the minimum number of crosspoints required for a non-blocking switch
Answer: d) It determines the minimum number of crosspoints required for a non-blocking switch
46. What is the advantage of Time-Slot Interchange (TSI) Switching?

a) It allows for simultaneous transmission of multiple packets
b) It enables dynamic reordering of packets at the switch
c) It reduces latency by prioritizing certain packets
d) It increases bandwidth by compressing data packets
Answer: b) It enables dynamic reordering of packets at the switch
47. In Time-Share the Crossbar Switch, how is the interconnection pattern of the space switch configured?
a) It remains constant over time
b) It changes with every packet transmission
c) It adapts based on traffic load
d) It is determined by the network administrator
Answer: c) It adapts based on traffic load
48. What is the primary advantage of Pure Optical Switching?
a) Lower cost compared to traditional switches
b) Higher reliability due to absence of electronic components
c) Greater scalability and flexibility in network design
d) Faster data transmission speeds
Answer: b) Higher reliability due to absence of electronic components
49. Which component determines the maximum delay and loss probability in FIFO Queueing?
a) Buffer size
b) Packet length
c) Transmission rate
d) Arrival rate
Answer: a) Buffer size
50. What is the primary purpose of Traffic Engineering at the Flow-Aggregate Level?
a) To optimize individual packet transmissions
b) To route traffic flows efficiently across the network
c) To provide differential QoS to different traffic flows
d) To control the overall traffic load in the network
Answer: b) To route traffic flows efficiently across the network
Lect 8
1. **What is the purpose of setup channels in a cellular network?**

- A) To transmit voice data
- B) To establish call connections and handoffs
- C) To broadcast cell identity information
- D) To authenticate mobile devices
- **Answer: B) To establish call connections and handoffs**
2. **During an incoming call to a mobile unit, what role does the MSC (Mobile Switching Center) play?**
- A) Selects the setup channel
- B) Broadcasts call requests on all setup channels
- C) Forwards the reply from the mobile unit to the BSS
- D) Establishes a call to the PSTN
- **Answer: D) Establishes a call to the PSTN**
3. **What triggers a handoff in a cellular network?**

- A) Mobile device authentication
- B) Signal strength below a threshold
- C) MSC relocation
- D) Broadcast channel synchronization
- **Answer: B) Signal strength below a threshold**
4. **What is the purpose of roaming in cellular networks?**

- A) To increase signal strength
- B) To enable international calling
- C) To facilitate call handoffs
- D) To use service outside the home region
- **Answer: D) To use service outside the home region**
5. **Which component is responsible for managing radio resources in a GSM network?**

- A) Base Transceiver Station (BTS)
- B) Mobile Switching Center (MSC)
- C) Base Station Controller (BSC)
- D) Home Location Register (HLR)
- **Answer: C) Base Station Controller (BSC)**
### GSM Signaling Standard
6. **Which type of channel is used for voice transmission in GSM?**

- A) Common Control Channel (CCCH)
- B) Broadcast Channel (BCH)
- C) Traffic Channel (TCH)
- D) Random Access Channel (RACH)
- **Answer: C) Traffic Channel (TCH)**
7. **What is the function of the Frequency Correction Channel (FCCH) in GSM?**

- A) To provide synchronization information
- B) To transmit cell-specific information
- C) To correct frequency errors in mobile devices
- D) To allocate traffic channels
- **Answer: C) To provide synchronization information**
8. **Which channel transmits cell-specific information such as location area identity in GSM?**
- A) Slow Associated Control Channel (SACCH)
- B) Broadcast Control Channel (BCCH)
- C) Paging Channel (PCH)
- **Answer: B) Broadcast Control Channel (BCCH)**
9. **What is the primary function of the Paging Channel (PCH) in GSM?**

- A) To broadcast cell identity information
- B) To transmit voice data
- C) To establish connections to mobile units
- D) To send call notifications to mobile devices
- **Answer: D) To send call notifications to mobile devices**
10. **Which channel is used by mobile devices to request connection in GSM?**

- A) Dedicated Control Channel (DCCH)
- C) Random Access Channel (RACH)
- D) Traffic Channel (TCH)
- **Answer: C) Random Access Channel (RACH)**
11. **Which channel is used to assign a dedicated control channel in response to a request via RACH in GSM?**
- A) Paging Channel (PCH)
- B) Access Grant Channel (AGCH)
- C) Slow Associated Control Channel (SACCH)
- D) Fast Associated Control Channel (FACCH)
- **Answer: B) Access Grant Channel (AGCH)**
12. **What is the purpose of the Standalone Dedicated Control Channel (SDCCH) in GSM?**
- B) To provide synchronization information
- C) For call signaling setup
- D) To broadcast cell identity information
- **Answer: C) For call signaling setup**
13. **Which channel is used to inform the mobile station of power level changes in GSM?**
- A) Fast Associated Control Channel (FACCH)
- B) Slow Associated Control Channel (SACCH)
- D) Broadcast Control Channel (BCCH)
- **Answer: B) Slow Associated Control Channel (SACCH)**
14. **Which channel is used for handover by temporarily reallocating speech slots in GSM?**
- A) Dedicated Control Channel (DCCH)
- B) Standalone Dedicated Control Channel (SDCCH)
- C) Fast Associated Control Channel (FACCH)
- D) Slow Associated Control Channel (SACCH)
- **Answer: C) Fast Associated Control Channel (FACCH)**
15. **What is the function of the Cell Broadcast Channel (CBCH) in GSM?**
- B) To broadcast cell identity information
- C) To provide synchronization information
- D) To broadcast messages from a service center to mobile stations
- **Answer: D) To broadcast messages from a service center to mobile stations**
16. **Which channel is used by mobile devices to transmit voice data in GSM?**
- A) Traffic Channel (TCH)
- C) Control Channel (CCH)
- D) Paging Channel (PCH)
- **Answer: A) Traffic Channel (TCH)**
17. **Which channel provides a reference frequency for mobile stations in GSM?**
- A) Frequency Correction Channel (FCCH)
- B) Synchronization Channel (SCH)
- C) Broadcast Control Channel (BCCH)
- **Answer: A) Frequency Correction Channel (FCCH)**
18. **What information does the Broadcast Control Channel (BCCH) transmit in GSM?**
- A) Voice data
- B) Cell-specific information
- C) Authentication parameters
- D) Call notifications
- **Answer: B) Cell-specific information**
19. **Which channel is used for broadcasting time and frequency synchronization information in GSM?**
- A) Slow Associated Control Channel (SACCH)
- B) Fast Associated Control Channel (FACCH)
- C) Frequency Correction Channel (FCCH)
- D) Synchronization Channel (SCH)
- **Answer: D) Synchronization Channel (SCH)**
20. **What is the purpose of the Random Access Channel (RACH) in GSM?**
- B) To request connection
- D) To provide synchronization information
- **Answer: B) To request connection**
21. **Which channel is responsible for sending the permanent International Mobile Subscriber Identity (IMSI) or the
temporary Mobile Subscriber Identity when a connection arrives to a mobile station in GSM?**
- A) Traffic Channel (TCH)
- B) Paging Channel (PCH)
- C) Standalone Dedicated Control Channel (SDCCH)
- **Answer: B) Paging Channel (PCH)**
22. **What is the primary function of the Access Grant Channel (AGCH) in GSM?**
- A) To assign traffic channels for voice transmission
- B) To allocate frequency resources for synchronization
- C) To assign standalone dedicated control channels in response to requests
- D) To provide synchronization information to mobile stations
- **Answer: A) To assign traffic channels for voice transmission**
23. **Which channel is used for the establishment and maintenance of connections to mobile stations in GSM?**
- A) Common Control Channel (CCCH)
- B) Dedicated Control Channel (DCCH)
- C) Traffic Channel (TCH)
- D) Broadcast Channel (BCH)
- **Answer: B) Dedicated Control Channel (DCCH)**
24. **What type of information does the Slow Associated Control Channel (SACCH) transmit in GSM?**
- A) Location area identity
- B) Voice data
- C) Power level changes
- D) Cell-specific information
- **Answer: C) Power level changes**
25. **Which channel is responsible for informing the mobile station about the frame number of the cell and Base Station
Identification Code (BSIC) in GSM?**
- A) Broadcast Control Channel (BCCH)
- B) Frequency Correction Channel (FCCH)
- C) Synchronization Channel (SCH)
- D) Standalone Dedicated Control Channel (SDCCH)
- **Answer: C) Synchronization Channel (SCH)**
26. **What is the function of the Cell Broadcast Channel (CBCH) in GSM?**
- B) To provide synchronization information
- D) To broadcast messages from a service center to mobile stations
- **Answer: D) To broadcast messages from a service center to mobile stations**
27. **Which channel is used by mobile stations to request connection in GSM?**

- A) Access Grant Channel (AGCH)
- B) Standalone Dedicated Control Channel (SDCCH)
- D) Fast Associated Control Channel (FACCH)
- **Answer: C) Random Access Channel (RACH)**
28. **What type of information does the Broadcast Control Channel (BCCH) transmit in GSM?**
- A) Voice data
- B) Cell-specific information
- C) Authentication parameters
- D) Call notifications
- **Answer: B) Cell-specific information**
29. **Which channel provides a reference frequency for mobile stations in GSM?**
- A) Frequency Correction Channel (FCCH)
- B) Synchronization Channel (SCH)
- C) Broadcast Control Channel (BCCH)
- **Answer: A) Frequency Correction Channel (FCCH)**
30. **What information does the Slow Associated Control Channel (SACCH) transmit in GSM?**
- A) Voice data
- B) Location area identity
- C) Power level changes
- D) Cell-specific information
- **Answer: C) Power level changes**
Lect 7
1. **What is an isotropic antenna?**

- A) An antenna that radiates energy in a single direction.
- B) An antenna that radiates energy equally in all directions.
- C) An antenna that radiates energy in a directional pattern.
- D) An antenna that does not radiate any energy.
- **Answer: B**
2. **What is the radiation pattern of an isotropic antenna?**

- A) Circular
- B) Linear
- C) Spherical
- D) Elliptical
- **Answer: C**
3. **What does the total power at the receiver antenna depend on?**
- A) Distance from the transmitter only
- B) Effective area of the receiver antenna only
- C) Distance from the transmitter and effective area of the receiver antenna
- D) Power of the receiver
- **Answer: C**
4. **How is the effective area of an isotropic antenna defined?**

- A) \( \frac{\lambda^2}{2\pi} \)
- B) \( \frac{\lambda^2}{8\pi} \)
- C) \( \frac{\lambda^2}{4\pi} \)
- D) \( \frac{\lambda^2}{16\pi} \)
- **Answer: C**
5. **Which formula represents the power density at a distance \(d\) from an isotropic antenna?**
- A) \( \frac{P_{Tx}}{4\pi d^2} \)
- B) \( \frac{P_{Tx}}{2\pi d^2} \)
- C) \( \frac{P_{Tx}}{4\pi d} \)
- D) \( \frac{P_{Tx}}{2\pi d} \)
- **Answer: A**
6. **Which decade saw the introduction of spectrum regulation to deal with interference?**
- A) 1900s
- B) 1920s
- C) 1930s
- D) 1940s
- **Answer: C**
7. **What was the primary use of mobile telephone service in the 1940s?**
- A) Commercial broadcasting
- B) Police and ambulance services
- C) Personal communication
- D) Military operations
- **Answer: B**
8. **What limits the number of users in old radio systems?**
- A) Limited power
- B) Limited frequency channels
- C) Large coverage areas
- D) Small antennas
- **Answer: B**
9. **What is frequency reuse in cellular systems?**

- A) Using the same frequency band for all cells
- B) Using different frequencies for adjacent cells
- C) Increasing power levels to reduce interference
- D) Decreasing power levels to reduce interference
- **Answer: B**
10. **What does handoff ensure in cellular communication?**

- A) Call initiation
- B) Call termination
- C) Continuity of the call as the user moves between cells
- D) Increasing signal power
- **Answer: C**
11. **What determines the cell coverage in a cellular network?**

- A) Transmitter power
- B) Receiver sensitivity
- C) Antenna height
- D) All of the above
- **Answer: D**
12. **What does the reuse factor represent in cellular networks?**

- A) The number of cells using the same frequency
- B) The number of users per cell
- C) The number of channels available per cell
- D) The total number of frequencies available
- **Answer: A**
13. **Which reuse factor has the smallest interference among cells?**
- A) 3
- B) 4
- C) 7
- D) 9
- **Answer: D**
14. **How is the number of simultaneous users in a cellular network calculated?**

- A) Number of users per channel * number of channels per cell * number of cells
- B) Number of cells * number of channels per cell
- C) Total number of channels / reuse factor
- D) Coverage area / cell area
- **Answer: A**
15. **What happens when the reuse factor is small in cellular systems?**
- A) More channels per cell
- B) More subscribers
- C) More interference
- D) All of the above
- **Answer: D**
16. **What does the receiver antenna effective area depend on in an isotropic antenna system?**
- A) Wavelength of the signal
- B) Distance from the transmitter
- C) Power of the transmitter
- D) Frequency of the signal
- **Answer: A**
17. **In a cellular network, what does setting up a call in a new cell and tearing down the old one refer to?**
- A) Handoff
- B) Roaming
- C) Frequency hopping
- D) Power control
- **Answer: A**
18. **Which technology allows adjacent cells to use the same frequencies?**
- A) FDMA
- B) TDMA
- C) CDMA
- D) GSM
- **Answer: C**
19. **What is the purpose of controlling power transmission levels in cellular networks?**
- A) To minimize inter-cell interference
- B) To maximize signal strength
- C) To reduce the number of cells
- D) To increase the number of channels
- **Answer: A**
20. **What was a significant limitation of the old mobile telephone service?**
- A) Limited number of channels
- B) High cost
- C) Complex technology
- D) Poor coverage
- **Answer: A**
21. **How is the received power \(P_{Rx}\) calculated in an isotropic antenna system?**
- A) \( \frac{P_{Tx} A_{Rx}}{4\pi d^2} \)
- B) \( \frac{P_{Tx} A_{Rx}}{2\pi d^2} \)
- C) \( \frac{P_{Tx} A_{Rx}}{4\pi d} \)
- D) \( \frac{P_{Tx} A_{Rx}}{2\pi d} \)
- **Answer: A**
22. **What defines the maximum distance at which a mobile can receive a signal from the transmission tower?**
- A) Cell coverage
- B) Frequency reuse
- C) Handoff procedure
- D) Receiver sensitivity
- **Answer: A**
23. **What happens to bit rate per channel when interference increases?**
- A) Increases
- B) Decreases
- C) Remains the same
- D) Fluctuates
- **Answer: B**
24. **What factor affects the reuse factor in cellular networks?**

- A) Frequency bandwidth
- B) Cell size
- C) Number of users
- D) Interference levels
- **Answer: D**
25. **What type of antenna cannot actually be built but is used as a theoretical model?**
- A) Directional antenna
- B) Dipole antenna
- C) Isotropic antenna
- D) Parabolic antenna
- **Answer: C**
26. **What is the pattern of energy radiation from an isotropic antenna?**

- A) Focused beam
- B) Conical shape
- C) Uniform sphere
- D) Elliptical shape
- **Answer: C**
27. **Which aspect of cellular networks allows for the increase in the number of users?**
- A) Higher power transmission
- B) Smaller cell size
- C) Frequency reuse
- D) Single frequency use
- **Answer: C**
28. **What is the effect of a larger reuse factor?**

- A) More interference
- B) More channels per cell
- C) Fewer channels per cell
- D) Higher bit rate
- **Answer: C**
29. **Which term describes the process of managing the transition between different cells?**
- A) Roaming
- B) Switching
- C) Handoff
- D) Frequency hopping
- **Answer: C**
30. **What component in the equation \(P(d) = \frac{P_{Tx}}{4\pi d^2}\) denotes the transmitter power?**
- A) \(P(d)\)
- B) \(P_{Tx}\)
- C) \(d\)
- D) \(\pi\)
- **Answer: B**
31. **What does \(A_{Rx}\) represent in the context of isotropic antennas?**
- A) Transmitter area
- B) Receiver area
- C) Effective area of the receiver antenna
- D) Total area of the antenna
- **Answer: C**
32. **Which of the following is a key advantage of using an isotropic antenna as a theoretical model?**
- A) High gain
- B) Simple design
- C) Uniform radiation pattern
- D) Low cost
- **Answer: C**
33. **What principle is used to minimize interference in cellular networks?**

- A) High power transmission
- C) Larger cell size
- D) Increased bandwidth
- **Answer: B**
34. **Which factor does NOT influence the cell coverage area?**
- A) Transmitter power
- B) Receiver sensitivity
- C) Frequency of operation
- D) Number of users
- **Answer: D**
35. **What was the primary challenge with early mobile telephone systems?**
- A) Too many users
- B) Lack of frequency regulation
- C) Limited number of radio channels
- D) High interference levels
- **Answer: C**
36. **In the frequency reuse pattern shown, how many groups are the frequencies divided into?**
- A) 3
- B) 4
- C) 7
- D) 12
- **Answer: C**
37. **What is one of the key benefits of frequency reuse in cellular networks?**
- A) Increased power levels
- B) Reduced number of cells
- C) More efficient use of the spectrum
- D) Simplified network design
- **Answer: C**
38. **What is the relationship between cell size and the number of users in a cellular network?**
- A) Larger cells accommodate fewer users
- B) Smaller cells accommodate fewer users
- C) Larger cells accommodate more users
- D) Cell size does not affect the number of users
- **Answer: A**
39. **What is the main purpose of spectrum regulation introduced in the 1930s?**
- A) Increase the number of channels
- B) Decrease power levels
- C) Manage interference
- D) Improve signal quality
- **Answer: C**
40. **What does the term 'Erlang' refer to in cellular networks?**

- A) A unit of frequency
- B) A unit of power
- C) A unit of traffic intensity
- D) A unit of signal strength
- **Answer: C**
41. **How is the reuse factor calculated in cellular systems?**

- A) \(N = i^2 + ik + k^2\)
- B) \(N = 2i + k\)
- C) \(N = i + 2k\)
- D) \(N = i^2 + 2k\)
- **Answer: A**
42. **What is one disadvantage of a small reuse factor?**

- A) Fewer channels per cell
- B) More interference
- C) Larger cell size
- D) Less interference
- **Answer: B**
43. **Which decade saw the commercial introduction of radio broadcast services?**
- A) 1900s
- B) 1920s
- C) 1930s
- D) 1940s
- **Answer: B**
44. **What is the theoretical effective area of an isotropic antenna?**

- A) \( \frac{\lambda^2}{4\pi} \)
- B) \( \frac{\lambda^2}{2\pi} \)
- C) \( \frac{\lambda^2}{8\pi} \)
- D) \( \frac{\lambda^2}{16\pi} \)
- **Answer: A**
45. **Which of the following statements is true about isotropic antennas?**

- A) They have a directional radiation pattern.
- B) They can be physically built and used.
- C) They radiate energy equally in all directions.
- D) They are used in high-gain applications.
- **Answer: C**
46. **Which component in cellular systems helps to manage frequency interference?**

- A) High power transmission
- C) Larger antennas
- D) Increased bandwidth
- **Answer: B**
47. **Why is power control important in cellular networks?**

- A) To maximize the number of cells
- B) To minimize inter-cell interference
- C) To reduce the number of users
- D) To increase signal quality
- **Answer: B**
48. **What determines the cell area in a cellular network?**

- A) Transmitter power and receiver sensitivity
- B) Number of users
- C) Frequency reuse pattern
- D) Spectrum bandwidth
- **Answer: A**
49. **What is the primary function of the handoff process in cellular communication?**
- A) Increase power transmission
- B) Minimize interference
- C) Maintain call continuity
- D) Reduce cell size
- **Answer: C**
50. **Which decade saw the demonstration of radio telephony?**

- A) 1900s
- B) 1920s
- C) 1930s
- D) 1940s
- **Answer: A**
Multiplexing
1. **What does FDM stand for?**
- a) Frequency Division Multiplexing
- b) Frequency Domain Modulation
- c) Fast Data Multiplexing
- d) Frequency Data Modulation
- **Answer: a) Frequency Division Multiplexing**
2. **In FDM, channels are divided into:**

- a) Time slots
- b) Frequency slots
- c) Data packets
- d) Signal strengths
- **Answer: b) Frequency slots**
3. **A requirement for FDM to work properly is:**

- a) Synchronization
- b) Guard bands
- c) Pulse stuffing
- d) Time slots
- **Answer: b) Guard bands**
4. **Which of the following uses FDM?**

- a) Digital telephone systems
- b) AM or FM radio stations
- c) Computer networks
- d) Optical fiber communication
- **Answer: b) AM or FM radio stations**
5. **The function of guard bands in FDM is to:**

- a) Increase channel capacity
- b) Separate adjacent channels
- c) Reduce signal strength
- d) Synchronize signals
- **Answer: b) Separate adjacent channels**
### Time-Division Multiplexing (TDM)

6. **What does TDM stand for?**
- a) Time Domain Multiplexing
- b) Time-Division Modulation
- c) Time-Division Multiplexing
- d) Time Data Modulation
- **Answer: c) Time-Division Multiplexing**
7. **In TDM, channels are divided into:**

- a) Frequency slots
- b) Time slots
- c) Data packets
- d) Signal strengths
- **Answer: b) Time slots**
8. **Which type of TDM requires framing?**
- a) Synchronous TDM
- b) Asynchronous TDM
- c) Frequency-Division Multiplexing
- d) Pulse-Code Modulation
- **Answer: a) Synchronous TDM**
9. **In synchronous TDM, if a device has no data to transmit:**

- a) Its time slot is skipped
- b) Its time slot remains empty
- c) Another device uses its time slot
- d) The data is buffered for later transmission
- **Answer: b) Its time slot remains empty**
10. **Which of the following uses TDM?**

- a) AM radio stations
- b) TV stations in air or cable
- c) Digital telephone systems
- d) Analog telephone systems
- **Answer: c) Digital telephone systems**
### Synchronous TDM

11. **In synchronous TDM, each frame has a:**
- a) Variable number of time slots
- b) Fixed number of time slots
- c) Variable number of frequency slots
- d) Fixed number of data packets
- **Answer: b) Fixed number of time slots**
12. **In synchronous TDM, devices transmit data:**

- a) Randomly
- b) Simultaneously
- c) In their assigned time slots
- d) Based on priority
- **Answer: c) In their assigned time slots**
13. **In synchronous TDM, if a device does not have anything to transmit, its time slot:**
- a) Is given to another device
- b) Remains empty
- c) Is used for synchronization
- d) Is skipped
- **Answer: b) Remains empty**
14. **What happens in synchronous TDM when the number of time slots per frame equals the number of inputs?**
- a) Efficient bandwidth utilization
- b) Increased data loss
- c) Poor synchronization
- d) Increased data buffering
- **Answer: a) Efficient bandwidth utilization**
15. **In synchronous TDM, a frame is:**

- a) A collection of data packets
- b) A single time slot
- c) A collection of time slots
- d) A single frequency slot
- **Answer: c) A collection of time slots**
### Asynchronous TDM

16. **In asynchronous TDM, time slots are allocated:**
- a) Equally to all devices
- b) Based on device priority
- c) On demand
- d) Randomly
- **Answer: c) On demand**
17. **In asynchronous TDM, the number of time slots per frame is:**
- a) Equal to the number of inputs
- b) Smaller than the number of inputs
- c) Larger than the number of inputs
- d) Variable
- **Answer: b) Smaller than the number of inputs**
18. **In asynchronous TDM, sent slots must have:**

- a) Guard bands
- b) Synchronization signals
- c) Labels
- d) Empty spaces
- **Answer: c) Labels**
19. **Asynchronous TDM is also known as:**

- a) Frequency Division Multiplexing
- b) Statistical TDM
- c) Synchronous TDM
- d) Pulse Code Modulation
- **Answer: b) Statistical TDM**
20. **Asynchronous TDM aims to:**

- a) Maximize bandwidth usage
- b) Minimize latency
- c) Reduce complexity
- d) Ensure equal time slots for all devices
- **Answer: a) Maximize bandwidth usage**
### T-Carrier System

21. **The basic unit for TDM in digital telephone systems is:**
- a) PCM voice channel
- b) AM radio channel
- c) FM radio channel
- d) Fiber optic channel
- **Answer: a) PCM voice channel**
22. **A single PCM voice channel operates at:**

- a) 8 kbps
- b) 64 kbps
- c) 128 kbps
- d) 256 kbps
- **Answer: b) 64 kbps**
23. **The bit rate of a T-1 carrier is:**
- a) 1.544 Mbps
- b) 2.048 Mbps
- c) 6.312 Mbps
- d) 44.736 Mbps
- **Answer: a) 1.544 Mbps**
24. **How many voice channels does a T-1 carrier combine?**

- a) 12
- b) 24
- c) 48
- d) 96
- **Answer: b) 24**
25. **The bit rate of each T-1 frame is calculated as:**

- a) 8000 frames/sec x (1 + 8 x 24) bits/frame
- b) 4000 frames/sec x (1 + 8 x 24) bits/frame
- c) 8000 frames/sec x (1 + 4 x 24) bits/frame
- d) 4000 frames/sec x (1 + 4 x 24) bits/frame
- **Answer: a) 8000 frames/sec x (1 + 8 x 24) bits/frame**
### Digital Hierarchy

26. **The North American digital hierarchy includes:**
- a) DS0, DS1, DS2, DS3, DS4
- b) E1, E2, E3, E4
- c) T1, T2, T3, T4
- d) PCM, FM, AM, FDM
- **Answer: a) DS0, DS1, DS2, DS3, DS4**
27. **A DS1 channel has a bit rate of:**

- a) 64 kbps
- b) 1.544 Mbps
- c) 6.312 Mbps
- d) 44.736 Mbps
- **Answer: b) 1.544 Mbps**
28. **A DS3 channel has a bit rate of:**

- a) 6.312 Mbps
- b) 44.736 Mbps
- c) 274.176 Mbps
- d) 1.544 Mbps
- **Answer: b) 44.736 Mbps**
29. **The European digital hierarchy is based on:**

- a) 24 PCM channels
- b) 30 PCM channels
- c) 32 PCM channels
- d) 40 PCM channels
- **Answer: b) 30 PCM channels**
30. **The bit rate of an E1 channel is:**
- a) 1.544 Mbps
- b) 2.048 Mbps
- c) 6.312 Mbps
- d) 8.448 Mbps
- **Answer: b)
2.048 Mbps**
### Synchronization and Bit Slips

31. **Digital streams cannot be kept perfectly:**
- a) Modulated
- b) Synchronized
- c) Demodulated
- d) Encoded
- **Answer: b) Synchronized**
32. **Bit slips occur due to:**

- a) Data corruption
- b) Clock mismatches
- c) Power failures
- d) Guard bands
- **Answer: b) Clock mismatches**
33. **Pulse stuffing is used to:**

- a) Increase data rate
- b) Avoid data loss due to slips
- c) Enhance signal strength
- d) Synchronize guard bands
- **Answer: b) Avoid data loss due to slips**
34. **In pulse stuffing, the output rate is:**

- a) Less than the sum of input rates
- b) Equal to the sum of input rates
- c) Greater than the sum of input rates
- d) Not related to input rates
- **Answer: c) Greater than the sum of input rates**
35. **Pulse stuffing format involves:**

- a) Variable-length frames
- b) Fixed-length master frames
- c) Time-division multiplexing
- d) Frequency-division multiplexing
- **Answer: b) Fixed-length master frames**
### Miscellaneous
36. **Multiplexing allows for:**
- a) Higher transmission costs
- b) Sharing a transmission channel by several connections
- c) Increased interference
- d) Decreased channel capacity
- **Answer: b) Sharing a transmission channel by several connections**
37. **Significant economies of scale in multiplexing are achieved by:**
- a) Using more wires
- b) Combining many signals into one
- c) Increasing the number of poles
- d) Decreasing signal strength
- **Answer: b) Combining many signals into one**
38. **Implicit or explicit information is required to:**

- a) Synchronize the channels
- b) Demultiplex the information flows
- c) Increase data rate
- d) Enhance signal strength
- **Answer: b) Demultiplex the information flows**
39. **Digital transmission in backbone networks typically uses:**

- a) FDM
- b) TDM
- c) Pulse-code modulation
- d) Amplitude modulation
- **Answer: b) TDM**
40. **The North American digital hierarchy’s DS2 channel operates at:**
- a) 1.544 Mbps
- b) 6.312 Mbps
- c) 44.736 Mbps
- d) 274.176 Mbps
- **Answer: b) 6.312 Mbps**
41. **The European E3 channel operates at:**

- a) 8.448 Mbps
- b) 34.368 Mbps
- c) 139.264 Mbps
- d) 64 Kbps
- **Answer: b) 34.368 Mbps**
42. **Clock synchronization issues in digital streams can lead to:**

- a) Increased data rates
- b) Bit slips
- c) Reduced guard bands
- d) Enhanced signal strength
- **Answer: b) Bit slips**
43. **Pulse stuffing ensures synchronization by:**

- a) Adding redundant bits
- b) Reducing bit rate
- c) Increasing frame length
- d) Deleting data bits
- **Answer: a) Adding redundant bits**
44. **A master frame in pulse stuffing contains:**

- a) Only data bits
- b) Only synchronization signals
- c) Both data and signaling bits
- d) Only redundant bits
- **Answer: c) Both data and signaling bits**
45. **Multiplexing in digital communication helps in:**

- a) Decreasing transmission speed
- b) Increasing the number of required wires
- c) Efficient utilization of channel capacity
- d) Reducing data accuracy
- **Answer: c) Efficient utilization of channel capacity**
### True or False

46. **In TDM, time slots can overlap for different signals.**
- a) True
- b) False
- **Answer: b) False**
47. **Pulse stuffing is used in both synchronous and asynchronous TDM.**

- a) True
- b) False
48. **The DS3 channel in the North American hierarchy carries a bit rate of 6.312 Mbps.**
- a) True
- b) False
49. **Asynchronous TDM is more efficient in bandwidth utilization compared to synchronous TDM.**
- a) True
- b) False
- **Answer: a) True**
50. **Guard bands are required in TDM to separate time slots.**

- a) True
- b) False
sohnet
1. **What are the frame synchronization octets in SONET?**

- A) B1, B2
- B) H1, H2
- C) A1, A2
- D) K1, K2
- **Answer: C**
2. **What bit patterns do the A1 and A2 octets use for frame synchronization?**
- A) A1 = 1111 0100, A2 = 0001 1000
- B) A1 = 1111 0110, A2 = 0010 1000
- C) A1 = 1110 0110, A2 = 0011 1000
- D) A1 = 1111 0111, A2 = 0010 1100
- **Answer: B**
3. **What is the purpose of the J0 octet in SONET?**

- A) Frame synchronization
- B) Parity checking
- C) Section trace
- D) Protection switching
- **Answer: C**
4. **Which octet in SONET is used for parity checking on the previous frame?**
- A) B1
- B) B2
- C) H1
- D) K1
- **Answer: A**
5. **What do the H1, H2, and H3 octets in SONET indicate?**

- B) Pointer action
- C) Parity checking
- D) Protection switching
- **Answer: B**
6. **What is the function of the K1 and K2 octets in SONET?**

- C) Pointer action
- D) Automatic protection switching
- **Answer: D**
7. **How many octets are there per frame in SONET?**

- A) 810
- B) 900
- C) 1024
- D) 1280
- **Answer: A**
8. **What is the bit rate of an STS-1 frame in SONET?**
- A) 64 kbps
- B) 155.52 Mbps
- C) 51.84 Mbps
- D) 622.08 Mbps
- **Answer: C**
9. **How many rows are there in a SONET frame?**

- A) 8
- B) 9
- C) 10
- D) 12
- **Answer: B**
10. **Which overhead is processed at every SONET node?**

- A) Path Overhead (POH)
- B) Transport Overhead (TOH)
- C) Section Overhead (SOH)
- D) Line Overhead (LOH)
- **Answer: B**
11. **Which octet is used to verify the connection between section entities in SONET?**
- A) A1
- B) A2
- C) J0
- D) B1
- **Answer: C**
12. **How is bit error monitoring performed in SONET?**

- A) Using BIP-8 over the current frame
- B) Using BIP-8 over the previous frame
- C) Using CRC-32 over the current frame
- D) Using CRC-32 over the previous frame
- **Answer: B**
13. **What is the purpose of the E1 and E2 octets in SONET?**

- B) Orderwire communication
- D) Payload data
- **Answer: B**
14. **What does the F1 octet in SONET represent?**

- A) Orderwire communication
- C) User channel
- D) Path trace
- **Answer: C**
15. **What function do the D1, D2, and D3 octets serve in SONET?**
- C) Network management
- D) Path trace
- **Answer: C**
16. **How many nodes can there be on a SONET ring using the K1 and K2 octets?**
- A) 8
- B) 16
- C) 32
- D) 64
- **Answer: B**
17. **What is the purpose of the S1 octet in SONET?**

- B) Synchronization status
- D) Path trace
- **Answer: B**
18. **What does the M0/M1 octet indicate in SONET?**

- C) Error status of the received signal
- D) Path trace
- **Answer: C**
19. **What does the pointer in the H1 and H2 octets indicate?**

- A) The location of the first octet of the SPE
- B) The end of the SONET frame
- C) The frame synchronization pattern
- D) The error status of the received signal
- **Answer: A**
20. **How many bits are used in the pointer field of the H1 and H2 octets?**
- A) 4 bits
- B) 10 bits
- C) 16 bits
- D) 24 bits
- **Answer: B**
21. **Which octet is used to carry a payload octet during a negative pointer adjustment in SONET?**
- A) H1
- B) H2
- C) H3
- D) K1
- **Answer: C**
22. **What is the purpose of stuffing in SONET?**

- A) To synchronize frames
- B) To manage clock differences
- C) To check parity
- D) To trace the path
- **Answer: B**
23. **Which type of stuffing is used when the input is faster than the output in SONET?**
- A) Negative byte stuffing
- B) Positive byte stuffing
- C) Both positive and negative byte stuffing
- D) No stuffing is required
- **Answer: A**
24. **Which type of stuffing is used when the input is slower than the output in SONET?**
- A) Negative byte stuffing
- B) Positive byte stuffing
- C) Both positive and negative byte stuffing
- D) No stuffing is required
- **Answer: B**
25. **What is the purpose of octet interleaving in SONET?**

- A) To synchronize frames
- B) To combine multiple STS-1 frames into an STS-n frame
- C) To trace the path
- D) To manage clock differences
- **Answer: B**
26. **How many columns are there in the transport overhead of a SONET STS-1 frame?**
- A) 1 column
- B) 2 columns
- C) 3 columns
- D) 4 columns
- **Answer: C**
27. **What is the primary purpose of concatenated payloads in SONET?**

- A) To manage clock differences
- B) To combine smaller payloads into a larger unit
- C) To trace the path
- D) To check parity
- **Answer: B**
28. **Which octets indicate if there is concatenation in SONET?**

- A) A1, A2
- B) H1, H2, H3
- C) B1, B2
- D) K1, K2
- **Answer: B**
29. **What is the bit rate of an OC-3c signal in SONET?**

- A) 149.760 Mbps
- B) 155.52 Mbps
- C) 622.08 Mbps
- D) 2488.32 Mbps
- **Answer: A**
30. **What is the bit rate of an OC-48c signal in SONET?**

- A) 155.52 Mbps
- B) 622.08 Mbps
- C) 2.3961 Gbps
- D) 9.5846 Gbps
- **Answer: C**
1. **What is the function of the A1 and A2 octets in SONET?**

- A) Parity checking
- B) Frame synchronization
- C) Section trace
- D) Path trace
- **Answer: B**
2. **What does the J0 octet in SONET verify?**

- C) Section trace
- D) Path trace
- **Answer: C**
3. **Which octet in SONET is used for bit error monitoring on the previous frame?**
- A) B1
- B) B2
- C) H1
- D) K1
- **Answer: A**
4. **What is the role of the H1 and H2 octets in SONET?**

- B) Pointer action
- D) Path trace
- **Answer: B**
5. **Which octets are used for automatic protection switching in SONET?**

- A) A1, A2
- B) B1, B2
- C) H1, H2
- D) K1, K2
- **Answer: D**
6. **What is the primary function of the B1 octet in SONET?**

- B) Parity checking on the previous frame
- C) Path trace
- D) Pointer action
- **Answer: B**
7. **What does the B2 octet in SONET check?**

- B) Line parity
- C) Section trace
- D) Path trace
- **Answer: B**
8. **What is the function of the F1 octet in SONET?**
- A) Orderwire communication
- C) User channel
- D) Path trace
- **Answer: C**
9. **Which octets in SONET are intended for network management messages?**

- A) D1, D2, D3
- B) H1, H2, H3
- C) K1, K2
- D) B1, B2
- **Answer: A**
10. **What is the purpose of the S1 octet in SONET?**

- D) Path trace
- **Answer: B**
11. **What does the M0/M1 octet indicate in SONET?**

- C) Error status of the received signal
- D) Path trace
- **Answer: C**
12. **Which octet in SONET is used to send a payload octet during a negative pointer adjustment?**
- A) H1
- B) H2
- C) H3
- D) K1
- **Answer: C**
13. **What is the function of the K1 and K2 octets in a SONET ring?**

- C) Automatic protection switching
- D) Pointer action
- **Answer: C**
14. **What is the role of the H1, H2, and H3 octets in SONET?**
- B) Pointer action
- D) Path trace
- **Answer: B**
15. **What is the function of the D4-D12 octets in SONET?**

- B) Line parity
- C) Data communication channel (DCC) for network management
- D) Path trace
- **Answer: C**
16. **Which octet indicates the synchronization status in SONET?**

- A) S1
- B) M0/M1
- C) J0
- D) F1
- **Answer: A**
17. **What is the purpose of the B3 octet in SONET?**

- A) Parity checking on the path level
- B) Parity checking on the line level
- C) Frame synchronization
- D) Path trace
- **Answer: A**
18. **Which octet is used for section trace in SONET?**

- A) A1
- B) J0
- C) B1
- D) H1
- **Answer: B**
19. **What is the function of the G1 octet in SONET?**

- B) Path status
- D) Pointer action
- **Answer: B**
20. **What is the role of the Z3 and Z4 octets in SONET?**

- A) Reserved for future use
- C) Path trace
- D) Parity checking
- **Answer: A**
21. **Which octet in SONET is used for connection verification in the path layer?**
- A) J1
- B) J0
- C) B1
- D) H1
- **Answer: A**
22. **What is the function of the C2 octet in SONET?**

- B) Path signal label
- D) Pointer action
- **Answer: B**
23. **What is the purpose of the Z5 octet in SONET?**
- A) Reserved for future use
- C) Path trace
- **Answer: A**
24. **What is the function of the H4 octet in SONET?**

- A) Multiframe indicator
- D) Path trace
- **Answer: A**
25. **Which octet in SONET is used for orderwire communication?**

- A) E1
- B) E2
- C) F1
- D) J0
- **Answer: A**
26. **What is the role of the E2 octet in SONET?**

- C) Orderwire communication
- D) Path trace
- **Answer: C**
27. **Which octet is used to indicate the status of the path layer in SONET?**
- A) S1
- B) G1
- C) J0
- D) F1
- **Answer: B**
28. **What is the purpose of the N1 octet in SONET?**

- A) Network Operator Channel for Virtual Tributaries (VCs)
- C) Path trace
- **Answer: A**
29. **What does the E1 octet in SONET signify?**

- C) Orderwire communication
- D) Path trace
- **Answer: C**
30. **Which octet is responsible for indicating a path signal label in SONET?**
- A) C2
- B) J1
- C) B3
- D) H4
- **Answer: A**
1. **What is the primary role of transport networks?**
- a) Providing local area network connectivity
- b) Supporting high-speed connections for large-scale communication
- c) Serving as an internet service provider
- d) Managing personal computer networks
- **Answer:** b) Supporting high-speed connections for large-scale communication
2. **Which of the following is an example of a high-speed connection in transport networks?**

- a) STS-1
- b) OC-192
- c) Both a and b
- d) None of the above
- **Answer:** c) Both a and b
3. **How many voice calls can one OC-48 connection support?**

- a) 783
- b) 32000
- c) 64000
- d) 48000
- **Answer:** b) 32000
4. **What component is considered the heart of existing transport networks?**

- a) Routers
- b) Switches
- c) ADMs (Add-Drop Multiplexers)
- d) Firewalls
- **Answer:** c) ADMs (Add-Drop Multiplexers)
5. **In a linear ADM topology, how are ADMs connected?**

- a) In a ring fashion
- b) In a star fashion
- c) In a linear fashion
- d) In a mesh fashion
- **Answer:** c) In a linear fashion
6. **What does 1+1 Linear APS provide?**

- a) Simultaneous transmission over diverse routes
- b) Single route transmission
- c) No redundancy
- d) Manual switching only
- **Answer:** a) Simultaneous transmission over diverse routes
7. **What is the main advantage of 1:N Linear APS?**

- a) Higher complexity
- b) Less bandwidth efficiency
- c) More bandwidth efficiency
- d) No protection against faults
- **Answer:** c) More bandwidth efficiency
8. **How does traffic flow in a two-fiber unidirectional path switched ring (UPSR)?**
- a) Clockwise only
- b) Counter-clockwise only
- c) Clockwise for working traffic and counter-clockwise for protection traffic
- d) In both directions simultaneously for both working and protection traffic
- **Answer:** c) Clockwise for working traffic and counter-clockwise for protection traffic
9. **Which of the following is a property of UPSR?**

- a) High complexity
- b) Low complexity
- c) High bandwidth efficiency
- d) Good for high-speed backbone networks
- **Answer:** b) Low complexity
10. **What is a key feature of four-fiber bidirectional line switched rings (4-BLSR)?**
- a) Unidirectional transmission
- b) No protection against failures
- c) Bidirectional transmission
- d) Low complexity
- **Answer:** c) Bidirectional transmission
11. **What is a significant challenge of managing ring topologies?**

- a) Simplicity in bandwidth management
- b) Distance limitations on ring size
- c) Unlimited transmission rates
- d) Lack of redundancy
- **Answer:** b) Distance limitations on ring size
12. **What do SONET cross-connects in a mesh topology provide?**

- a) Rigid connectivity
- b) Fixed routing paths
- c) Flexibility and efficiency
- d) Limited restoration schemes
- **Answer:** c) Flexibility and efficiency
13. **What technology is evolving from SONET to improve transport networks?**

- a) Ethernet
- b) WDM (Wavelength Division Multiplexing)
- c) DSL
- d) ADSL
- **Answer:** b) WDM (Wavelength Division Multiplexing)
14. **What does WDM combine into a common fiber?**

- a) Multiple digital signals
- b) Multiple wavelengths
- c) Multiple electrical signals
- d) Multiple copper wires
- **Answer:** b) Multiple wavelengths
15. **What is a key requirement for all-optical backbone networks using WDM?**
- a) Manual restoration schemes
- b) Low reliability
- c) Protection schemes for high reliability
- d) Single wavelength transmission
- **Answer:** c) Protection schemes for high reliability
16. **What drives the fluctuating traffic patterns in transport networks?**
- a) Static user activity
- b) Random events only
- c) Human activity patterns
- d) Continuous system failures
- **Answer:** c) Human activity patterns
17. **What is a typical challenge on outlier days like Christmas for transport networks?**
- a) Decreased traffic
- b) Normal traffic levels
- c) Surges in traffic
- d) System shutdowns
- **Answer:** c) Surges in traffic
18. **What does traffic concentration help to achieve in transport networks?**

- a) Permanent resource availability
- b) Cost-effective meeting of call requests
- c) Elimination of call blocking
- d) Uninterrupted service at all times
- **Answer:** b) Cost-effective meeting of call requests
19. **What statistical model is used for call request arrival in transport networks?**
- a) Normal distribution
- b) Binomial distribution
- c) Poisson arrival process
- d) Uniform distribution
- **Answer:** c) Poisson arrival process
20. **What does the Erlang B formula calculate in transport networks?**

- a) Data transfer rates
- b) Call duration times
- c) Blocking probability
- d) Signal quality
- **Answer:** c) Blocking probability
21. **What is the utilization in transport networks?**

- a) The number of users
- b) The average number of trunks in use
- c) The total available bandwidth
- d) The call blocking rate
- **Answer:** b) The average number of trunks in use
22. **In SONET, what does an SPE stand for?**

- a) Synchronous Path Element
- b) Synchronous Payload Envelope
- c) Synchronous Packet Exchange
- d) Synchronous Protection Element
- **Answer:** b) Synchronous Payload Envelope
23. **What is the primary function of SONET ADMs?**

- a) To increase network speed
- b) To manage network security
- c) To insert and drop tributaries
- d) To encode data
- **Answer:** c) To insert and drop tributaries
24. **Which topology offers better flexibility and efficiency than ring topologies in SONET?**
- a) Star topology
- b) Bus topology
- c) Mesh topology
- d) Tree topology
- **Answer:** c) Mesh topology
25. **What is one of the main purposes of protection switching in SONET networks?**
- a) To reduce latency
- b) To enhance data throughput
- c) To provide high reliability
- d) To increase signal quality
- **Answer:** c) To provide high reliability
26. **What is a consequence of a single fault in a 1:N Linear APS system?**

- a) Complete system failure
- b) Immediate manual repair needed
- c) Automatic switch to a protection route
- d) Permanent traffic disruption
- **Answer:** c) Automatic switch to a protection route
27. **Which feature of 4-BLSR makes it suitable for high-speed backbone networks?**
- a) Low bandwidth efficiency
- b) Spatial re-use
- c) Unidirectional transmission
- d) Lack of redundancy
- **Answer:** b) Spatial re-use
28. **What does the term 'tributary' refer to in SONET networks?**

- a) A primary data channel
- b) A high-speed optical fiber
- c) A secondary data channel inserted or dropped by ADMs
- d) A network switch
- **Answer:** c) A secondary data channel inserted or dropped by ADMs
29. **How does a 1:1 Linear APS differ from a 1+1 Linear APS?**
- a) 1:1 has no redundancy, while 1+1 is fully redundant
- b) 1:1 carries preemptible traffic on the protection line, while 1+1 does not
- c) 1:1 is unidirectional, while 1+1 is bidirectional
- d) 1:1 provides manual switching, while 1+1 provides automatic switching
- **Answer:** b) 1:1 carries preemptible traffic on the protection line, while 1+1 does not
30. **Why is managing many rings in a SONET network complex?**

- a) Because of simple bandwidth management
- b) Due to unlimited transmission rates
- c) Because increasing transmission rate in one span affects all equipment in the ring
- d) Because of minimal redundancy requirements
- **Answer:** c) Because increasing transmission rate in one span affects all equipment in the ring
31. **What is the main advantage of using WDM (Wavelength Division Multiplexing) over traditional SONET networks?**
- a) Simpler network management
- b) Higher data compression rates
- c) Higher bandwidth by combining multiple wavelengths into a common fiber
- d) Reduced need for optical fibers
- **Answer:** c) Higher bandwidth by combining multiple wavelengths into a common fiber
32. **What does "STS" in STS-1 stand for?**

- a) Synchronous Transport Signal
- b) Synchronous Transmission System
- c) Synchronous Telecommunication System
- d) Synchronous Transport System
- **Answer:** a) Synchronous Transport Signal
33. **How quickly can SONET signaling restore transport connections in the event of a failure?**
- a) Within 1 second
- b) Within 10 seconds
- c) Within 100 milliseconds
- d) Within 50 milliseconds
- **Answer:** d) Within 50 milliseconds
34. **What is a key property of SONET ring topologies?**

- a) They are always unidirectional.
- b) They provide fast path protection.
- c) They do not support any form of redundancy.
- d) They are typically used only for low-speed networks.
- **Answer:** b) They provide fast path protection.
35. **What type of protection is used in a two-fiber unidirectional path switched ring (UPSR)?**
- a) Span protection
- b) Link protection
- c) Path protection
- d) No protection
- **Answer:** c) Path protection
36. **Which factor limits the size of SONET rings?**

- a) The number of ADMs
- b) The distance that the ring can cover
- c) The number of clients
- d) The number of routers
- **Answer:** b) The distance that the ring can cover
37. **In traffic management, what is the primary goal of traffic concentration?**
- a) To maximize the number of active calls
- b) To ensure call requests are always met
- c) To provide resources cost-effectively
- d) To eliminate all call blocking
- **Answer:** c) To provide resources cost-effectively
38. **What does the term "Poisson arrival process" describe in the context of network traffic?**
- a) The pattern of call terminations
- b) The random nature of call request arrivals
- c) The sequence of data packets
- d) The fixed interval of call requests
- **Answer:** b) The random nature of call request arrivals
39. **In the Erlang B formula, what does the variable 'a' represent?**
- a) The number of trunks
- b) The call request arrival rate
- c) The offered load in Erlangs
- d) The blocking probability
- **Answer:** c) The offered load in Erlangs
40. **What is one disadvantage of SONET ring topologies compared to mesh topologies?**
- a) Higher complexity
- b) Easier bandwidth management
- c) Distance limitations on ring size
- d) More flexible restoration schemes
- **Answer:** c) Distance limitations on ring size
41. **Which of the following is a characteristic of 4-BLSR networks?**

- a) Low bandwidth efficiency
- b) High complexity and signaling requirements
- c) Unidirectional transmission
- d) Suitable for lower-speed access networks
- **Answer:** b) High complexity and signaling requirements
42. **What does "ADM" stand for in the context of SONET?**

- a) Add-Drop Multiplexer
- b) Advanced Data Manager
- c) Automated Data Multiplexer
- d) Analog Data Module
- **Answer:** a) Add-Drop Multiplexer
43. **How does SONET ensure high reliability in transport networks?**

- a) By using copper cables
- b) Through manual restoration
- c) Using protection switching mechanisms
- d) By reducing bandwidth usage
- **Answer:** c) Using protection switching mechanisms
44. **What is a major benefit of mesh topology over ring topology in SONET networks?**
- a) Simplicity in network design
- b) Flexibility and efficiency in interconnecting SONET streams
- c) No need for cross-connects
- d) Lower cost of implementation
- **Answer:** b) Flexibility and efficiency in interconnecting SONET streams
45. **What type of protection scheme is typically used in 1+1 APS?**

- a) No protection
- b) Partial protection
- c) Full protection with simultaneous transmission over diverse routes
- d) On-demand protection
- **Answer:** c) Full protection with simultaneous transmission over diverse routes
46. **Which of the following is true for 1:N Linear APS?**
- a) It uses multiple protection fibers for each working fiber
- b) It can protect against multiple faults simultaneously
- c) It is more bandwidth-efficient than 1+1 APS
- d) It does not revert to the original working channel after repair
- **Answer:** c) It is more bandwidth-efficient than 1+1 APS
47. **Why is traffic management important in transport networks?**

- a) To ensure all calls are blocked
- b) To provide resources only for high-priority users
- c) To manage fluctuating traffic patterns and surges
- d) To reduce the need for network maintenance
- **Answer:** c) To manage fluctuating traffic patterns and surges
48. **What does the term "blocking probability" refer to in network traffic engineering?**
- a) The likelihood of a call being dropped
- b) The likelihood of a call being blocked due to all trunks being busy
- c) The probability of successful call setup
- d) The rate of data transfer in the network
- **Answer:** b) The likelihood of a call being blocked due to all trunks being busy
49. **What type of signaling is required for high-speed backbone networks using 4-BLSR?**
- a) Low complexity signaling
- b) High complexity signaling
- c) No signaling required
- d) Analog signaling
- **Answer:** b) High complexity signaling
50. **Which protection mechanism allows for the transmission of preemptible traffic on the protection line?**
- a) 1+1 APS
- b) 1:1 APS
- c) 1:N APS
- d) None of the above
- **Answer:** b) 1:1 APS
51. **How does the presence of multiple rings impact the complexity of a SONET network?**
- a) It simplifies network management
- b) It has no impact on network complexity
- c) It increases the complexity of managing the network
- d) It eliminates the need for protection mechanisms
- **Answer:** c) It increases the complexity of managing the network
52. **What is one of the benefits of using optical ADMs in WDM networks?**
- a) Lower data rates
- b) Reduced reliability
- c) Ability to insert and drop wavelengths
- d) Decreased network flexibility
- **Answer:** c) Ability to insert and drop wavelengths
53. **What does "restoration" refer to in the context of transport networks?**

- a) The process of increasing network speed
- b) The ability to recover from failures
- c) The reduction of network traffic
- d) The manual reconfiguration of network elements
- **Answer:** b) The ability to recover from failures
54. **Which type of network topology is described as more flexible and efficient than rings?**
- a) Star topology
- b) Bus topology
- c) Mesh topology
- d) Ring topology
- **Answer:** c) Mesh topology
55. **What role do nxn switches play in SONET mesh topologies?**

- a) They convert digital signals to analog
- b) They interconnect SONET streams
- c) They provide power to the network
- d) They encrypt data for security
- **Answer:** b) They interconnect SONET streams
56. **What is the significance of "spatial re-use" in SONET ring networks?**

- a) It increases network latency
- b) It reduces the number of required ADMs
- c) It allows for higher bandwidth efficiency
- d) It decreases the overall network cost
- **Answer:** c) It allows for higher bandwidth efficiency
57. **Which factor is considered when provisioning resources in traffic engineering?**

- a) Ensuring resources are always available regardless of cost
- b) Meeting blocking performance targets cost-effectively
- c) Reducing the number of active calls
- d) Increasing call blocking probability
- **Answer:** b) Meeting blocking performance targets cost-effectively
58. **What does "E
(X)" represent in the context of modeling traffic processes?**

- a) The average number of call requests per second
- b) The average time a user maintains a connection
- c) The average number of blocked calls
- d) The total number of calls in the system
- **Answer:** b) The average time a user maintains a connection
59. **Which network topology is suitable for lower-speed access networks according to the UPSR properties?**
- a) Two-fiber bidirectional ring
- b) Four-fiber bidirectional ring
- c) Two-fiber unidirectional path switched ring
- d) Mesh topology
- **Answer:** c) Two-fiber unidirectional path switched ring
60. **What is the primary advantage of the 1+1 Linear Automatic Protection Switching?**
- a) Low bandwidth utilization
- b) Simultaneous transmission over diverse routes for high reliability
- c) Reduced network cost
- d) Manual switching in response to signal degradation
- **Answer:** b) Simultaneous transmission over diverse routes for high reliability
Lect 10
#### FIFO Queueing

1. **What does FIFO stand for in FIFO Queueing?**
- A) First-In, First-Out
- B) Fast-In, Fast-Out
- C) Fixed-In, Fixed-Out
- D) First-In, First-Occur
- **Answer: A**
2. **In FIFO queueing, what happens when the buffer is full?**

- A) All packets are transmitted
- B) Arriving packets are discarded
- C) The buffer size is increased
- D) Older packets are prioritized
- **Answer: B**
3. **Which of the following is a variation of FIFO queueing?**

- A) Discard all packets
- B) Pushout head-of-line packets
- C) Random discard
- D) Both B and C
- **Answer: D**
4. **FIFO queueing cannot provide differential QoS because:**

- A) All packets are treated equally
- B) It requires more buffers
- C) It prioritizes older packets
- D) It uses a complex algorithm
- **Answer: A**
#### Random Early Detection (RED)

5. **What does RED stand for in networking?**
- A) Rapid Early Detection
- B) Random Early Detection
- C) Real-time Early Detection
- D) Reliable Early Detection
- **Answer: B**
6. **In RED, packets are discarded before the buffer is full to:**
- A) Reduce network congestion
- B) Increase buffer size
- C) Prioritize new packets
- D) Ensure all packets are transmitted
- **Answer: A**
7. **RED increases the loss probability for:**

- A) Cooperating TCP sources
- B) Misbehaving sources
- C) All packet flows equally
- D) High-priority packets
- **Answer: B**
8. **What happens if the average queue length exceeds the maximum threshold in RED?**
- A) Nothing
- B) The packet is marked
- C) The packet is dropped
- D) The buffer is reset
- **Answer: C**
#### HOL Priority Queueing

9. **HOL in HOL Priority Queueing stands for:**
- A) Highest-Order Level
- B) High-Origin Line
- C) Head-Of-Line
- D) Heavy-Order Line
- **Answer: C**
10. **Which queue is serviced until empty in HOL priority queueing?**

- A) Low-priority queue
- B) High-priority queue
- C) Equal-priority queue
- D) No queue is prioritized
- **Answer: B**
11. **A surge in the high-priority queue can cause:**

- A) Low-priority queue to saturate
- B) High-priority packets to be lost
- C) Increased bandwidth for low-priority packets
- D) Reduced transmission rates
- **Answer: A**
12. **Preemptive priority in HOL queueing means:**

- A) Lower classes can interrupt higher classes
- B) Lower classes are invisible to higher classes
- C) Equal treatment for all classes
- D) Higher classes are blocked by lower classes
- **Answer: B**
#### Earliest Due Date Scheduling

13. **Packets in Earliest Due Date Scheduling are queued based on:**
- A) Arrival time
- B) Packet size
- C) Due date
- D) Source address
- **Answer: C**
14. **In Earliest Due Date Scheduling, packets with no delay requirements get:**
- A) Highest priority
- B) Earliest due dates
- C) Indefinite or very long due dates
- D) Same priority as other packets
- **Answer: C**
15. **Earliest Due Date Scheduling is designed to prioritize packets requiring:**
- A) Low delay
- B) Large buffer size
- C) High bandwidth
- D) Minimal transmission time
- **Answer: A**
#### Fair Queueing / Generalized Processor Sharing

16. **Fair Queueing ensures:**
- A) Single buffer for all flows
- B) Logical queues for each flow
- C) Fixed transmission rate
- D) Priority for high-speed flows
- **Answer: B**
17. **In Fair Queueing, transmission rate is calculated as:**

- A) C * n(t)
- B) C / n(t)
- C) C + n(t)
- D) C - n(t)
- **Answer: B**
18. **Fair Queueing assumes:**

- A) Fluid flow from queues
- B) Fixed-size packets
- C) Single active queue
- D) Predefined packet priority
- **Answer: A**
19. **In Bit-by-Bit Fair Queueing, a round represents:**

- A) One packet transmission
- B) One cycle serving all queues
- C) Total queue length
- D) Buffer size utilization
- **Answer: B**
20. **The finishing time of a packet arriving to an idle queue in Fair Queueing is:**
- A) Round number + packet size in bits
- B) Round number + queue length
- C) Round number + buffer size
- D) Round number + transmission rate
- **Answer: A**
21. **The finishing time of a packet arriving to an active queue in Fair Queueing is:**
- A) Finishing time of last packet + packet size
- B) Finishing time of last packet + queue length
- C) Finishing time of last packet + buffer size
- D) Finishing time of last packet + transmission rate
- **Answer: A**
#### Weighted Fair Queueing (WFQ)
22. **In WFQ, packets are sorted according to:**
- A) Arrival time
- B) Packet size
- C) Assigned weight
- D) Completion time in an ideal system
- **Answer: D**
23. **WFQ must be combined with other mechanisms to:**

- A) Increase transmission speed
- B) Reduce packet loss
- C) Provide end-to-end QoS
- D) Simplify queue management
- **Answer: C**
24. **The tag added to a packet in WFQ represents:**

- A) Arrival time
- B) Source address
- C) Completion time
- D) Priority level
- **Answer: C**
25. **In WFQ, the finishing time F(i,k,t) is computed as:**

- A) max{F(i,k-1,t), R(t)} + P(i,k,t)
- B) min{F(i,k-1,t), R(t)} + P(i,k,t)
- C) F(i,k-1,t) + P(i,k,t)
- D) R(t) + P(i,k,t)
- **Answer: A**
26. **R(t) in WFQ grows at a rate inversely proportional to:**

- A) Packet size
- B) Number of flows
- C) Buffer size
- D) Number of non-empty queues
- **Answer: D**
#### General Questions on Traffic Management and Queueing

27. **Traffic management in networking aims to:**
- A) Increase packet size
- B) Reduce transmission time
- C) Optimize network performance
- D) Simplify network design
- **Answer: C**
28. **Queueing disciplines determine:**

- A) Buffer size
- B) Transmission order of packets
- C) Packet arrival rate
- D) Network topology
- **Answer: B**
29. **Buffering discipline in queueing can involve:**
- A) Random discard
- B) Head-of-line pushout
- C) Increasing buffer size
- D) Both A and B
- **Answer: D**
30. **Connection admission control is used to:**

- A) Increase the number of active flows
- B) Restrict the number of flows allowed
- C) Prioritize specific packet flows
- D) Ensure all packets are transmitted
- **Answer: B**
31. **Variation in FIFO queueing based on queue thresholds can result in:**
- A) Higher loss for some packet flows
- B) Lower delay for all packet flows
- C) Equal treatment for all packets
- D) Increased buffer size
- **Answer: A**
32. **Statistical delay guarantees in FIFO queueing are provided via:**

- A) Increased buffer size
- B) Load control
- C) Higher transmission rates
- D) Random discard
- **Answer: B**
33. **The loss probability in FIFO queueing depends on:**

- A) Buffer size
- B) Arrival statistics
- C) Packet length statistics
- D) All
of the above
- **Answer: D**
34. **Higher priority queues in HOL priority queueing can:**

- A) Saturate lower priority queues
- B) Increase transmission time for lower priority packets
- C) Reduce overall network performance
- D) Simplify traffic management
- **Answer: A**
35. **Fair Queueing prevents:**

- A) Hogging of bandwidth by a single flow
- B) Equal transmission rates for all flows
- C) Packet loss in high-priority queues
- D) Use of multiple buffers
- **Answer: A**
36. **Bit-by-Bit Fair Queueing approximates:**
- A) Fluid flow from queues
- B) Packet-by-packet transmission
- C) Random packet discard
- D) FIFO queueing
- **Answer: A**
37. **Generalized Processor Sharing (GPS) in Fair Queueing is based on:**

- A) Equal packet sizes
- B) Continuous fluid flow model
- C) Single buffer system
- D) Packet arrival times
- **Answer: B**
38. **In Bit-by-Bit Fair Queueing, if each queue gets 1 bit per cycle, the round number represents:**
- A) Number of packets transmitted
- B) Number of active queues
- C) Total queue length
- D) Buffer size
- **Answer: B**
39. **Weighted Fair Queueing (WFQ) can handle:**

- A) Equal weights for all packets
- B) Different weights for different flows
- C) Only high-priority packets
- D) Only low-priority packets
- **Answer: B**
40. **WFQ is suitable for providing:**

- A) Basic QoS
- B) High-speed packet transmission
- C) End-to-end QoS
- D) Simple network configuration
- **Answer: C**
41. **Packets are sorted in WFQ according to their:**

- A) Source address
- B) Completion time in an ideal system
- C) Arrival time
- D) Size
- **Answer: B**
42. **In WFQ, R(t) is a round number that:**

- A) Remains constant
- B) Increases proportionally with the number of packets
- C) Grows at a rate inversely proportional to the number of non-empty queues
- D) Decreases with increasing buffer size
- **Answer: C**
43. **WFQ implementations can reach speeds up to:**

- A) 1 Gbps
- B) 5 Gbps
- C) 10 Gbps and higher
- D) 100 Mbps
- **Answer: C**
44. **Random Early Detection (RED) improves performance by:**

- A) Dropping packets randomly
- B) Dropping packets before buffers are full
- C) Marking all packets for priority
- D) Ensuring no packet loss
- **Answer: B**
45. **In RED, if the average queue length is between the minimum and maximum threshold, packets are:**
- A) Always dropped
- B) Never dropped
- C) Dropped according to a probability
- D) Prioritized for transmission
- **Answer: C**
46. **Cooperating TCP sources respond to RED by:**

- A) Increasing input rate
- B) Reducing input rate
- C) Maintaining input rate
- D) Ignoring network congestion
- **Answer: B**
47. **High-priority packets in HOL queueing are serviced:**

- A) Last
- B) After low-priority packets
- C) Until the high-priority queue is empty
- D) Alongside low-priority packets
- **Answer: C**
48. **In WFQ, the weight assigned to a packet flow determines:**

- A) Arrival time
- B) Transmission speed
- C) Queue length
- D) Packet size
- **Answer: B**
49. **Random Early Detection helps manage network congestion by:**

- A) Dropping packets at random intervals
- B) Increasing buffer size dynamically
- C) Reducing the rate of packet arrival
- D) Dropping packets based on queue length thresholds
- **Answer: D**
50. **In Bit-by-Bit Fair Queueing, the service rate is determined by:**
- A) Number of packets in the queue
- B) Buffer size
- C) Packet size
- D) Round number and queue activity
- **Answer: D**

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Lect 11

**Answer: b) Logical queue**

2. In the discussed system, how is the transmission rate calculated?

**Answer: d) C bits/sec divided by the number of non-empty queues**

**Answer: c) Fair Queueing Algorithm**

4. What does WFQ stand for in the context of packet networks?

**Answer: a) Weighted Fair Queueing**

**Answer: b) Leaky Bucket Algorithm**

6. What is the purpose of the Leaky Bucket Algorithm?

**Answer: d) To monitor and control traffic flows**

7. What is the primary function of a token bucket in traffic policing?

**Answer: c) To shape incoming traffic**

8. How does the Leaky Bucket Algorithm handle non-conforming packets?

**Answer: a) Discard them**

**Answer: b) Bucket depth**

**Answer: a) Packet transmission rate**

**Answer: c) Discard them**

**Answer: c) Bucket depth**

14. What is the role of the Leaky Bucket Traffic Shaper?

**Answer: c) To smooth out surges in arrivals**

**Answer: c) To shape incoming traffic**

**Answer: c) Packet length**

**Answer: b) Packet size**

**Answer: c) To shape incoming traffic**

**Answer: d) Token rate**

**Answer: d) Average contracted rate**

**Answer: b) By discarding packets**

**Answer: a) Weighted Fair Queueing**

**Answer: b) Leaky Bucket Algorithm**

24. What is the purpose of the Leaky Bucket Algorithm?

**Answer: d) To monitor and control traffic flows**

25. What is the primary function of a token bucket in traffic policing?

**Answer: c) To shape incoming traffic**

**Answer: b) Bucket depth**

**Answer: a) Packet transmission rate**

**Answer: c) Discard them**

**Answer: c) Bucket depth**

32. What is the role of the Leaky Bucket Traffic Shaper?

**Answer: c) To smooth out surges in arrivals**

**Answer: c) To shape incoming traffic**

**Answer: c) Packet length**

**Answer: b) Packet size**

**Answer: c) To shape incoming traffic**

**Answer: d) Token rate**

**Answer: d) Average contracted rate**

**Answer: a) Weighted Fair Queueing**

**Answer: b) Leaky Bucket Algorithm**

42. What is the purpose of the Leaky Bucket Algorithm?

**Answer: d) To monitor and control traffic flows**

43. What is the primary function of a token bucket in traffic policing?

**Answer: c) To shape incoming traffic**

**Answer: a) Discard them**

**Answer: b) Bucket depth**

**Answer: a) Packet transmission rate**

**Answer: c) Discard them**

**Answer: c) Bucket depth**

50. What is the role of the Leaky Bucket Traffic Shaper?

Answer: c) To smooth out surges in arrivals

2. What does RED stand for in networking?

3. How does RED improve network performance?

4. What is the primary goal of HOL priority queueing?

6. Which type of priority queueing provides differential Quality of Service (QoS)?

8. What is the purpose of Fair Queueing or Generalized Processor Sharing?

Answer: b) Logical queue

Answer: d) C bits/sec divided by the number of non-empty queues

Answer: c) Fair Queueing Algorithm

Answer: a) Weighted Fair Queueing

Answer: b) Leaky Bucket Algorithm

Answer: d) To monitor and control traffic flows

Answer: c) To shape incoming traffic

Answer: a) Discard them

Answer: b) Bucket depth

Answer: a) Packet transmission rate

Answer: c) Discard them

Answer: c) Bucket depth

Answer: c) To smooth out surges in arrivals

Answer: c) To shape incoming traffic

Answer: c) Packet length

Answer: b) Packet size

Answer: c) To shape incoming traffic

Answer: d) Token rate

Answer: d) Average contracted rate

Answer: b) By discarding packets

Answer: a) Weighted Fair Queueing

Answer: b) Leaky Bucket Algorithm

Answer: d) To monitor and control traffic flows

Answer: c) To shape incoming traffic

Answer: b) Bucket depth

Answer: a) Packet transmission rate

Answer: c) Discard them

Answer: c) Bucket depth

Answer: c) To smooth out surges in arrivals

Answer: c) To shape incoming traffic

Answer: c) Packet length

Answer: b) Packet size

Answer: c) To shape incoming traffic

Answer: d) Token rate

Answer: d) Average contracted rate

Answer: a) Weighted Fair Queueing

Answer: b) Leaky Bucket Algorithm

Answer: d) To monitor and control traffic flows

Answer: c) To shape incoming traffic

Answer: a) Discard them

Answer: b) Bucket depth

Answer: a) Packet transmission rate

Answer: c) Discard them

Answer: c) Bucket depth

1. What is the purpose of setup channels in a cellular network?

3. What triggers a handoff in a cellular network?

4. What is the purpose of roaming in cellular networks?

5. Which component is responsible for managing radio resources in a GSM network?

6. Which type of channel is used for voice transmission in GSM?

7. What is the function of the Frequency Correction Channel (FCCH) in GSM?

9. What is the primary function of the Paging Channel (PCH) in GSM?

10. Which channel is used by mobile devices to request connection in GSM?

27. Which channel is used by mobile stations to request connection in GSM?

1. What is an isotropic antenna?

2. What is the radiation pattern of an isotropic antenna?

4. How is the effective area of an isotropic antenna defined?

9. What is frequency reuse in cellular systems?

10. What does handoff ensure in cellular communication?

11. What determines the cell coverage in a cellular network?

12. What does the reuse factor represent in cellular networks?

14. How is the number of simultaneous users in a cellular network calculated?

24. What factor affects the reuse factor in cellular networks?

26. What is the pattern of energy radiation from an isotropic antenna?

28. What is the effect of a larger reuse factor?