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NEET Crash Course

UNIT TEST PAPER #1
This Booklet contains 28 pages.
19 MARCH 2024 Do not open this test Booklet until you are asked to do so.

Important Instructions :
1. The test is of 3 hour 20 minutes duration and the Test Booklet contains 200 multiple-choice questions (four options with a single correct
answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology). 50 questions in each subject are divided into two Sections (A and B)
as per details given below:
(a) Section A shall consist of 35 (Thirty Five) Questions in each subject (Question Nos - 1 to 35, 51 to 85, 101 to 135 and 151 to 185). All
questions are compulsory.
(b) Section B shall consist of 15 (Fifteen) questions in each subject (Question Nos - 36 to 50, 86 to 100, 136 to 150 and 186 to 200. The
Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer sheet). In Section B, a
candidate needs to attempt any 10 (Ten) questions out of 15 (Fifteen) in each subject.
Candidates are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section B before they start attempting the question paper. In the event of
a candidate attempting more than ten questions, the first ten questions answered by the candidate shall be evaluated.
2. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be
deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
3. Use Blue/ Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/ marking responses on Answer Sheet.
4. Rough work is to be done in the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
5. Syllabus of this test is:
yy Physics: (1) Electric, Charges & Fields, (2) Electrostatic Potential & Capacitance, (3) Current Electricity
yy Chemistry: (1) Solutions, (2) Haloalkanes and Haloarenes
yy Biology: (1) The Living World, (2) Biological Classifications

6. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. Do not write your
Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/ Answer Sheet.
7. Use of white fluid for correction is NOT permissible on the Answer Sheet.
8. Each candidate must show on-demand his /her Admit Card to the Invigilator.
9. No candidate, without special permission of the centre Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave his/her seat.
10. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and sign (with
time) the Attendance Sheet twice. Cases, where a candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet second time, will be deemed not to have
handed over the Answer Sheet and dealt with as an Unfair Means case.
11. Use of Electronic/ Manual Calculator is prohibited.
12. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination with regard to their conduct in the Examination Room/Hall.
All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per the Rules and Regulations of this examination.
13. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.
14. The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet in the Attendance Sheet.

Name of the Candidate (in Capitals) :________________________________________________________________________

Roll Number : in figures ___________________________________________________________________________________
: in words ___________________________________________________________________________________
Centre of Examination (in Capitals) : ________________________________________________________________________
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 Test Paper #1

Physics - Section A 5 Two electric dipoles of dipole moments 1.2 × 10 C-m

−30

and 2.4 × 10 C-m are placed in two different uniform

−30

1 A parallel plate capacitor is given equal and opposite electric fields of strengths 5 × 10 NC–1 and 15 × 10 NC–1
4 4

charges. The electrostatic force per unit area between the respectively. The ratio of maximum torque experienced by the
plates: electric dipoles is . The value of x is:
x
1

1. 2
1. depends on the square of surface charge density. 2. 4
3. 6
2. depends on the separation between the plates.
4. 8
3. depends directly on the plate area of each plate.
4. depends directly on the dielectric constant of the medium. 6 A system has two charges q1 = 4.5 × 10
−6
C and

Three identical capacitors are connected as follows: q2 = −4.5 × 10 located at points A : (0, 0, −20) cm and
−6
C
2 B : (0, 0, +20) cm, respectively. The electric dipole moment

of the system is:

1. 9 × 10 C − m
−6

2. 1.8 × 10 C − m
−7

3. 1.8 × 10 C − m
−6

4. 9 × 10 C − m
−7

7 An electric dipole is enclosed by a Gaussian surface (see

figure). The total electric flux through the surface is:
Which of the following shows the order of increasing
capacitance (smallest first)?
1. (3), (2), (1) 2. (1), (2), (3)
3. (2), (1), (3) 4. (2), (3), (1)

3 If the charge on a capacitor is increased by 2 C, the

energy stored in it increases by 44 %. The original charge on
the capacitor is (in Coulomb):
1. 10
2. 20
3. 30
4. 40

4 An electron enters the space between the plates of a

1. q/ε0

parallel plate capacitor at an angle of 30 with the plates and

∘
2. zero
leaves at an angle of 45 to the plates. The component of
∘
3. −q/ε 0

velocity parallel to the plates: 4. 2q/ε 0

1. remains unchanged.
2. varies with constant acceleration.
3. varies with variable acceleration.
4. varies periodically.

1
 Test Paper #1

8 In the figure, points A, B, and C are the vertices of an 10 Consider two charges, +q and −q (q > 0) placed at a
equilateral triangle with sides of length 10 m. Point D is
−5
distance 2a from each other. At the point M (see figure
exactly between B and C, while point E is in the same plane as below), the electric field makes an angle ϕ from the x-axis.
A, B, and C and equidistant from them. Positive charges of The correct value of ϕ is:
magnitude Q = 1.1 × 10 C are located at points A, B, and
−15

C.

1. 0 ∘

What is the direction of the electric field at point D? 2. 90 ∘

3. 180 ∘

4. 270 ∘

1. It points up (↑).
2. It points down (↓). Electric potential at any point m in space is
11 (x, y, z)

3. It points into the page.

given by V = 3x
2
V. The electric field at the point (1, 0, 3) m
4. It has zero magnitude. will be:

9 Two point charges, Q each, are placed at a distance d

1. 3 Vm-1, directed along the positive x-axis
apart. A third point charge q is placed at a distance x from the
mid-point on the perpendicular bisector. The value of x at
2. 3 Vm-1, directed along the negative x-axis
which charge q will experience the maximum Coulomb's force 3. 6 Vm-1, directed along the positive x-axis
is: 4. 6 Vm-1, directed along the negative x-axis
1. x = d
d
2. x = Two parallel plate capacitors of capacity and are
2
d
12 C 3C

3. x =
connected in parallel combination and charged to a potential
√2

4. x = d
difference of 18 V. The battery is then disconnected and the
2√2
space between the plates of the capacitor of capacity C is
completely filled with a material of dielectric constant 9. The
final potential difference across the combination of capacitors
will be:
1. 3 V 2. 5 V

3. 9 V 4. 6 V

2
 Test Paper #1

13 A thin semi-circular ring of radius r has a positive charge 17 A Van de Graaff generator is used for:
q distributed uniformly over it. The net potential at the center
O is: 1. accelerating neutron
2. charging capacitor
3. generating electricity
4. accelerating charged particles

18 A parallel plate capacitor has surface charge densities

±σ on its plates. The amount of work required to increase the
plate separation by dx is:
2
σ
1. ϵ
0
Adx
q q

1. −
2πε0 r
2. −
4πε0 r
2.
σ
2

Adx
2ϵ0
q

3. 4πε0 r
4. 0
3.
2σ
2

Adx
ϵ
0

2
σ ϵ0

Energy per unit volume for a capacitor having area A and 4.

14
Adx
2

separation d kept at potential difference V is given by: The tangent at any point of an equipotential surface
V
2 19
1.
1
εo
2 d
2

2
makes an angle θ with the electric intensity vector at that point
such that:
V
2.
1

2εo 2
d
1. θ = 0 ∘

3.
1 2
CV
2
2
2. θ = 90 ∘

Q
4. 3. θ = 120 ∘

2C
4. θ = 180 ∘

15 A 600 pF capacitor is charged by 10 V battery. It is then

20 Two capacitors, each having a capacitance of 40 μ F are
disconnected from the supply and connected to another
uncharged 600 pF capacitor. The energy lost in the process connected in series. The space between one of the capacitors
will be: is filled with a dielectric material of dielectric constant K such
1. 3 × 10 J −9 that the equivalent capacitance of the system becomes 24 μF.
2. 1.5 × 10 J −9 The value of K will be:
1. 1.5
3. 3 × 10 J −8

2. 2.5
4. 1.5 × 10 J −8

3. 1.2
4. 3
16 In the given circuit, charge on the 12 μ F capacitor will
be: 21 If an electric dipole of moment p is placed normal to the
lines of force of electric intensity E, then the work done in
deflecting it through an angle of 180 will be:∘

1. pE
2. pE/2
3. 2pE
4. zero

1. 144 μ C 2. 72 μ C
3. 36 μ C 4. 28 μ C

3
 Test Paper #1

22 A parallel plate capacitor is formed by two plates, each of 26 How will the reading in the ammeter A, as shown in the

area 30π cm2 separated by 1 mm. A material of dielectric figure, be affected if another identical bulb B is connected in
2

strength 3.6 × 10 Vm-1 is filled between the plates. If the

7 parallel to bulb B as shown?
1

(The voltage in the mains is maintained at a constant value)

maximum charge that can be stored on the capacitor without
causing any dielectric breakdown is 7 × 10 C, the value of−6

the dielectric constant of the material is:

{ Use : 1

4πε0
= 9 × 10
9 2
Nm C
−2
}

1. 1.66
2. 1.75
3. 2.25
4. 2.33
1. the reading will reduce to one-half.
2. the reading will not be affected.
23 When current i is flowing through a conductor, the drift
3. the reading will increase two-fold.
velocity of free electrons is v. If 2i current flows through the 4. the reading will increase four-fold.
same metal but with double the area of cross-section, then the
drift velocity of free electrons will be: In the given circuit, is an arbitrary constant. The value
1.
v 27 a

4
of m for which the equivalent circuit resistance is minimum
2.
v

will be √ The value of x is:

2 x
.
3. v 2

4. 4v

24 Consider a thin rectangular sheet of side L, width b and

thickness t, made of a material of resistivity ρ. The resistance
between two opposite faces, shown by the shaded areas in the
figure is:

1. directly proportional to b 1. 6
2. inversely proportional to t 2. 9
3. inversely proportional to L 3. 3
4. both (1) and (2) 4. 12

28 Two hundred cells of the same emf E and same internal

25 Two metallic wires of identical dimensions are connected
resistance r are connected in series in the same order without
in series. If σ and σ are the conductivities of these wires
1 2
external resistance. The potential drop across 50 cells is found
respectively, the effective conductivity of the combination is:
σ σ to be:
1. 1

σ1 +σ2
2

1. 50E
2.
2σ σ
1 2
2. 150E
σ1 +σ2

σ1 +σ2
3. 200E
3. 2σ σ 4. zero
1 2

σ1 +σ2
4. σ1 σ2

4
 Test Paper #1

29 A battery gives a current of 0.5 A when connected across 32 In a Wheatstone bridge shown in the following figure,
an external resistor of resistance 12 Ω and a current of 0.25 A the conventional current between points B and D is:
when connected across an external resistor of resistance 30 Ω.
What will be the emf of the battery?
1. 4.5 V
2. 9.0 V
3. 13.5 V
4. 18.0 V

30 An electric heater consists of a nichrome coil and runs

under 220 V, consuming 1 kW of power. Part of its coil burned
out and it was reconnected after cutting off the burnt portion.
The power it will consume now is:

1. more than 1 kW
2. less than 1 kW but not zero
3. 1 kW

4. 0 1. from B to D
2. from D to B
31 In the circuit shown in the figure, applying the loop rule 3. zero
to the loop abca gives: 4. indeterminate

33 On interchanging the resistances, the balance point of a

meter bridge shifts to the left by 10 cm. The resistance of their
series combination is 1 kΩ. How much was the resistance on
the left slot before interchanging the resistances?
1. 450 Ω
2. 550 Ω
3. 650 Ω
4. 350 Ω

34 What would be the potential difference between points A

1. −12 + 7I1 − 4I3 = 0 and B in the given part of the circuit?
2. 12 + 7I1 − 4I3 = 0

3. −12 − 7I1 + 4I3 = 0

4. −12 + 7I1 + 4I3 = 0

1. 28 V
2. 42 V
3. −32 V
4. 36 V

5
 Test Paper #1

35 A silicon wafer of n-type material of cross-sectional area 38 A dielectric slab is inserted between the plates of an

3.14 × 10 m2−6
with a conductivity of isolated charged capacitor. Which of the following remains
5.8 × 10 siemens per meter and electron mobility of 0.0032
7 unchanged?
m2V-1s-1 is subjected to an electric field of 20 mV/m. Now (I). The charge on the plates
that you have all this data, try to match Column I with (II). The potential difference between the plates
Column II: (Neglect hole concentration.) (III). The energy stored in the capacitor

Column I Column II 1. I only

The electron concentration in the 1.16 × 10
6
SI 2. I, II
A. (P)
wafer is unit 3. I, III
B. Current density in the wafer is (Q) 3.64 SI unit 4. I, II, III
Current flowing through the wafer 6.4 × 10
−5
SI
C. (R)
is unit 39 Select the correct option based on the statements given
1.13 × 10
29
SI below:
D. The drift velocity of electrons is (S)
unit Electric potential is constant within and at the
Statement I:
surface of each conductor.
1. A(P), B(Q), C(R), D(S) Electric field just outside a charged conductor
2. A(P), B(S), C(R), D(Q) Statement II: is perpendicular to the surface of the conductor
3. A(S), B(P), C(Q), D(R) at every point.
4. A(Q), B(P), C(R), D(S)
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
Physics - Section B 2.
3.
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
36 A slab of dielectric constant K has the same cross- 4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
sectional area as that of the plates of a parallel plate capacitor
40 In an experiment, two bodies are rubbed against each
and thickness d, where d is the separation of the plates. The
3

4
other during which bodies get 1 C magnitude of charge. How
capacitance of the capacitor, when the slab is inserted between
many electrons from one body get transferred to the other
the plates will be: (Given: C = capacitance of capacitor with
body during rubbing?
0

air as medium between plates)

4KC 1. 6.25 × 10 20

1. 3+K
0

2. 1.6 × 10 19

3. 6.25 × 10
3KC
2. 0 18

3+K
4. 1.6 × 10 −19

3.
3+K

4KC0

4. K

41 Two charged particles P and Q are 0.10 m apart. The

4+K

charge on P is 1.50 × 10 C and the charge on Q is

−7

37 The equivalent capacitance between points A and B in 1.50 × 10

−7
. Particle P experiences an electrostatic force
C

the figure (shown below) will be: of magnitude F because it is near to the charge on particle Q.
The distance between the two particles is increased to 0.20 m.
The charge on P increases to 4.50 × 10 Cand the charge on
−7

Q increases to 6.00 × 10 C . What is the magnitude of the

−7

force that particle P experiences now?

1. F

2. 12F
1. 2 μF
3. 6F
2. 4 μF
4. 3F
3. 6 μF
4. 8 μF

6
 Test Paper #1

42 Potential (V ) versus distance (r) graph is shown in the 45 Select the correct option based on the statements below:
diagram. The value of electric field at distance A will be :
Electrostatic field lines do not form any closed
Statement I:
loops.
Gauss's law is very useful in calculation of the
electrostatic field when the system doesn't
Statement II:
have any symmetry.

1. Statement I is correct while Statement II is incorrect.

2. Statement II is correct while Statement I is incorrect.
3. Both Statement I and II are correct.
1. 5 V/m 2. −10 V/m 4. Both Statement I and II are incorrect.
3. −5 V/m 4. 10 V/m
46 A capacitor C is charged with the help of a resistance R

43 There is a uniform electric field of intensity E which is as shown in the figure, Variation of (V + V ) with time t is
R C

shown in the figure. How many labelled points have the same correctly shown in which of the options?
electric potential as the fully shaded point? (V and V are instantaneous potential drops across R and C
R C

respectively).

1. 2
2. 3
3. 8
4. 11

44 A charge Q = 2 μC is situated at the origin of co-

1. 2.
ordinate axis. Another charge 5 μC on the x-axis at point
A(3, 0) is brought to point B(0, 2) on y-axis. The work done

by an external agent is:

3. 4.

47 The resistance of a wire is R Ω . If it is melted and

stretched n times its original length, its new resistance will be:
R
1.
1. 12 mJ
n

2. n R 2

2. 15 mJ R

3. 20 mJ 3. n2

4. 34 mJ 4. nR

7
 Test Paper #1

48 A metallic resistor is connected across a battery. If the

Chemistry - Section A
number of collisions of the free electrons with the lattice is
somehow decreased in the resistor (for example, by cooling Which of the following compounds undergo 𝐸2 reactions
51
it), the current will:
1. increase more easily?
2. decrease (CH3)2C∙CH2CH3
3. remain constant 1. |
4. become zero Br
2. CH3(CH2)2CH2Cl
49 AB is a 20 Ω resistor with a tapping point C that can be
3. CH3(CH2)2CH2I
moved along AB. The resistances in AC, BC are proportional
to the lengths AC, BC. Initially, C is at the mid-point of AB
and the circuit is switched on. 4.

52 The product of the following reaction is:

1. 2.
If the tapping point C is moved so that the length BC is
reduced to half its initial value, then the voltage across the 15
Ω resistor,

1. increases by 1 V
3. 4.
2. decreases by 1 V
3. increases by 3 V
4. decreases by 3 V

53 The incorrect method for the synthesis of alkenes is:

50 A resistance wire connected in the left gap of a meter 1. Treatment of alkynes with Na in liquid NH3
2. Heating alkyl halides with alcoholic KOH
bridge balances a 10 Ω resistance in the right gap at a point
3. Treating alkyl halides in aqueous KOH solution
which divides the bridge wire in the ratio 3 : 2. lf the length of
4. Treating vicinal dihalides with Zn metal
the resistance wire is 1.5 m, then the length of 1 Ω of the
resistance wire will be: The incorrect statement among the following is-
1. 1.0 × 10 m
−1 54
2. 1.5 × 10 m
−1

3. 1.5 × 10 m
−2 Freon 12 (CCl2F2) is manufactured from
1.
4. 1.0 × 10 m
−2 tetrachloromethane by Swarts reaction.
Chloroform is slowly oxidised by water in the presence of
2.
light to an extremely poisonous gas, carbonyl chloride.
The antiseptic properties of CHI3 are due to the liberation
3.
of free iodine and not due to iodoform itself.
Methanol, CH3OH, also known as ‘wood spirit’, was
4.
produced by destructive distillation of wood

8
 Test Paper #1

55 The correct sequence of the dipole moment of given 60 The major product formed in the given reaction is:
alkyl halides is :
1. CH3F > CH3Cl > CH3Br > CH3I
2. CH3F < CH3Cl < CH3Br < CH3I
3. CH3Cl > CH3F > CH3Br > CH3I
4. CH3Cl > CH3Br > CH3F > CH3I

56 Match the organic compound given in Column I with

their names in Column II. Select the correct option.
Column I Column II
(a) CH2Cl2 (i) neo-Pentyl chloride 1. 2.
(b) (CH3)3CCH2Cl (ii) Ethylidene chloride
(c) CH3CHCl2 (iii) Ethylene dichloride
(d)

(iv) Methylene chloride

3. 4.
1. a=ii; b=iii; c=i; d=iv
2. a=iv; b=i; c=ii; d=iii
3. a=iv; b=iii; c=i; d=ii
4. a=ii; b=iv; c=i; d=iii

57 Among the following, the molecule that undergoes Consider the following reactions:
61
nucleophilic substitution exclusively by SN1 mechanism is:
1. Methyl chloride
2. Cyclohexyl chloride
3. Isopropyl chloride
4. Benzyl chloride

58 CH3 CH2 Cl −−−

−
N al

→ CH3 CH2 l. This reaction is

Acetone

1. Swarts reaction 2. Finkelstein reaction

3. Gattermann reaction 4. Sandmeyer's reaction A and B are-
1. Tautomers
The compound ‘A’ is: 2. Functional isomers
59 3. Position isomers
4. Metamers

1. 2.

3. 4.

9
 Test Paper #1

62 Major Product of the given reaction is: 63 Match List I with List II:
List I List II
Reaction Type of reaction
A.
I. Nucleophilic
substitution

B.
II. Saytzeff elimination

C.
1. 2.
III. Electrophilic
addition

D.
IV. Electrophilic
substitution

3. 4.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) (B) (C) (D)
!. (II) (IV) (III) (I)
2. (IV) (II) (III) (I)
3. (IV) (II) (I) (III)
4. (II) (IV) (I) (III)

64 Consider benzoic acid associates in benzene and gets

dimerized. If benzoic acid associates up to 70%, then the
value of Van't Hoff factor (i) will be:

1. 0.70 2. 0.65
3. 0.46 4. 0.78

65 The boiling point of 0.001 M aqueous solutions of NaCl,

Na2SO4, K3PO4, and CH3COOH should follow the order-
1. CH COOH < NaCl < Na SO < K PO
3 2 4 3 4

2. NaCl < Na SO < K PO < CH COOH

2 4 3 4 3

3. CH COOH < K PO < Na SO < NaCl

3 3 4 2 4

4. CH COOH < K PO < NaCl < Na SO

3 3 4 2 4

10
 Test Paper #1

66 An aqueous solution contains 37.92% Na2S2O3 by 72 A mixture of toluene and benzene forms a nearly ideal
weight. In this solution, the mole fraction of N a 2 S 2 O3 is: solution. Assume P°B and P°T to be the vapor pressure of pure
(Total weight of solution = 1250 g) benzene and toluene, respectively. The slope of the line
obtained by plotting the total vapor pressure to the mole
1. 0.051 2. 0.510 fraction of benzene is:
3. 0.065 4. 0.65 1. P°B - P°T
2. P°T - P°B
67 The relative lowering of vapour pressure produced by 3. P°B + P°T
4. (P°B + P°T)/2
dissolving 7.5 g of a substance in 1000 g of water is 0.00588.
The molecular weight in g/mol of the substance will be:
73 Match List I with List II
1. 18
2. 23 List I List II
3. 34 Types of Solutions Common Examples
4. 60
A. Gas in Gas I. Solution of hydrogen in palladium
A mixture of phenol and aniline is an example of: B. Solid in Gas II. Mixture of oxygen and nitrogen gas
68
C. Gas in Liquid III. Camphor in nitrogen gas
1. Ideal solution. D. Gas in Solid IV. Oxygen dissolved in water
Non-ideal solution exhibiting positive deviation from
2. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Raoult's law.
Non-ideal solution exhibiting negative deviation from
3. Options: A B C D
Raoult's law.
1. II III IV I
4. Minimum boiling azeotrope.
2. II I IV III
For the dissolution of a solid in a liquid, choose the 3. II IV III I
69
4. II IV I III
incorrect statement:
If the dissolution is endothermic, the solubility should
1. 74 Sucrose, C12H22O11, is added to water at 20 °C until no
increase with rise in temperature.
If the dissolution is exothermic, the solubility should more sucrose will dissolve. Following four statements are
2. constructed about sucrose and the solution that is produced:
decrease with rise in temperature.
(A) A saturated solution of sucrose is produced.
Pressure affects the solubility of solids in liquids such that
(B) The freezing point of the solution is 0 °C.
3. on increasing pressure, the solubility of solids in liquids
(C) Sucrose is a non-polar substance.
increases.
(D) Sucrose is the solute.
Solute dissolves in a solvent if the intermolecular Which two statements, from the four given above, are correct?
4.
interactions are similar in the two. 1. A and B only.
2. C and A only.
70 One mole of sugar is dissolved in three moles of water at 3. C and D only.
298 K. The relative lowering of vapour pressure is: 4. A and D only.
1. 0.25 2. 0.15
3. 0.50 4. 0.33

71 2 grams of non-volatile solute dissolves in 200 grams

each of two different solvents A and B to attain the same
molality. If the ratio of K of solvent A and B is 1:8 and the
b

ratio of elevation in boiling points is x:y, then the value of y

is-
1. 4
2. 6
3. 10
4. 8

11
 Test Paper #1

75 The order of SN1 reactivity in the aqueous acetic acid 78 Given the following organic reaction:
solution for the given compounds is:

The major product 'A' is:

1. 2.

1. I > II > III

3. 4.
2. I > III > II
3. III > II > I
4. III > I > II
79 Select the most correct statement among the following:
76 Among the haloarenes (I-IV) shown below, the correct
1. SN1 mechanism takes place in non-polar solvents.
order of reactivity for the substitution reaction with NaOH is:
S 2 mechanism in chiral substrates gives racemic mixture
2. N
as products.
3. SN1 mechanism is encouraged by polar solvents.
4. The solvent never influences the mechanism.

80 651 g of ethylene glycol (HOCH2CH2OH) (M.W =62.1

g/mol) is dissolved in 1.5 kg of water at 363 K. The vapour
1. II > III > I > IV. pressure of pure water at 363 K is 0.7 atm. Assuming ideal
2. I > IV > III > II. solution behaviour, the vapour pressure of water over the
3. II > III > IV > I. solution (in atm) is closest to:
4. IV > I ≈ III > II. 1. 0.57
2. 0.62
77 (i) Chloro benzene is mono-nitrated to M
3. 0.65
(ii) Nitrobenzene is mono-chlorinated to N 4. 0.68
(iii) Anisole is mono-nitrated to P
(iv) 2-nitro chlorobenzene is mono-nitrated to Q 81 On dissolving urea in 500 g of water and cooling up to
Out of M, N, P, and Q, the compound that undergoes reaction 272.65 K, 128 g of ice separates out of the solution. The
with aqueous NaOH fastest is: amount of dissolved urea is :
1. M (K = 1.86 K kg/mol)
f
2. N 1. 0.06 g
3. P 2. 0.6 g
4. Q 3. 6.0 g
4. 60 g

12
 Test Paper #1

82 KH value for some gases at the same temperature 'T' are

Chemistry - Section B
given:
gas KH/k bar 86 Consider the following compounds:
Ar 40.3
CO2 1.67
HCHO 1.83 × 10-5
CH4 0.413 I.
KH is Henry's Law constant in water. The order of their
solubility in water is :
1. Ar < CO2 < CH4 < HCHO
2. Ar < CH4 < CO2 < HCHO II.
3. HCHO < CO2 < CH4 < Ar
4. HCHO < CH4 < CO2 < Ar

40 cm3 of a solution of sodium hydroxide is exactly Correct statement regarding these compounds is:
83 1. I and II are chiral.
neutralized by 25 cm3 of 0.40 mol L–1 sulphuric acid. 2. I and II are achiral.
2NaOH + H2SO4 → Na2SO4 + 2H2O 3. I is chiral and II is achiral.
What is the concentration, in g L–1, of the sodium hydroxide 4. I is achiral and II is chiral.
solution?
[Molecular mass value: NaOH = 40] 87
1. 20 gL-1 Statement 1-chloropropane has a higher boiling point than
2. 5 gL-1 1: 2-chloropropane
3. 0.25 gL-1 Statement The process of conversion of enantiomer into a
4. 10 gL-1 2: racemic mixture is known as racemization.

1. Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false

The amount of that must be dissolved 2. Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true
84 CaCl2 (i = 2.47)
3. Both statement 1 and statement 2 are false
in 3 litre of water such that its osmotic pressure is 4.94 atm at 4. Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true
27 °C is:
1. 2.405 × 10 mol
−3
Given the following reaction:
88
2. 0.243 mol
3. 0.0267 mol
4. 1.486 mol

85 Al2(SO4)3 is 40% dissociated. The value of Van't Hoff

Factor (i) is
1. 2 The product obtained will contain
2. 2.6
3. 3.6
4. 5

1. Only compound I
2. Only compound II
3. Both compounds I and II
4. This substitution cannot take place

13
 Test Paper #1

89 A polar protic solvent among the following is: 94 0.2 molal solution of a weak electrolyte AB is 20%
1. Acetone dissociated. The freezing point of the solution would be:
2. DMF [Kf = 1.86 °C/m]
3. Ethanol 1. -0.90°C
4. CCl4 2. -0.45°C
3. -0.25°C
90 Chloroform is slowly oxidized by air in the presence of 4. -0.71°C
light and air to form:
95 Two volatile liquids A and B are mixed in the molar ratio
1. Phosgene
2. Formyl chloride of 1:2. If vapour pressure of pure liquids A and B is 300 mm
3. Formaldehyde Hg and 600 mm Hg respectively then the vapour pressure (in
4. Trichloroethanol mm Hg) of the solution will be:
1. 500
91 1,2-dibromocyclohexane on dehydrohalogenation gives: 2. 400
3. 200
4. 350

1. 2. 96
The preservation of meat by salting and fruits
Assertion (A): by adding sugar is done to protect them from
bacterial action.
Reason (R): Due to reverse osmosis.

3. 4. None of these Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation
1.
of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
2.
explanation of (A).
3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
92
4. (A) is false but (R) is true.
Benzonitrile is prepared by the reaction of
Assertion(A):
chlorobenzene with KCN.
Chlorobenzene is more reactive than
97
Reason(R): chloroalkane towards nucleophilic substitution Assertion (A): An ideal solution obeys Raoult's law.
reaction. In an ideal solution, solute-solute as well as
Reason (R): solvent-solvent, interactions are similar to
1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. solute-solvent interactions.
2. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation
3. A is true statement but R is false. 1.
of (A).
4. Both A and R are false statements Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
2.
explanation of (A).
93 The partial pressure of ethane over a saturated solution
3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
containing 6.56 X 10-2 g of ethane is 1 bar. If the solution 4. (A) is false but (R) is true.
contains 5.00 X 10-2 g of ethane, then what shall be the partial
pressure of the gas? 98 The molarity of sucrose in the solution prepared by
1. 0.76 bar dissolving its 114 g in water to form 300 mL of solution is:
2. 0.16 bar
3. 1.16 bar
1. mol cm
−3 −3
1.11 × 10
4. 3.12 bar
2. 1.11 × 10 mol dm
−2 −3

−3
3. 1.11 × 10 mol dm
3

4. 1.11 × 10 mol cm
2 −3

14
 Test Paper #1

99 103 Nomenclature is governed by certain universal rules.

The observed molar mass of acetic acid in Which one of the following is contrary to the rules of
Assertion (A): benzene is more than the normal molar mass nomenclature?
of acetic acid. The first word in a biological name represents the genus
1.
Molecules of acetic acid dimerise in benzene name and the second is a specific epithet.
Reason (R): due to hydrogen bonding. 2. The names are derived from Latin and written in italics.
3. When written by hand, the names are to be underlined.
4. Biological names can be written in any language.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation
1.
of (A). Match the column:
104
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
2. Column-I Column-II
explanation of (A).
A. Numerical taxonomy (i) Linnaeus
3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
Phylogenetic system of
4. (A) is false but (R) is true. B. (ii) Adanson
classification
What is the concentration of a glucose solution in C. Natural system of classification (iii) Engler and Prantl
100
Bentham and
intravenous injection in gram/lit which is isotonic with blood D. Artificial system of classification (iv)
Hooker
solution which has osmotic pressure 7.93 bar at 300 K ?
1. 62 g
1. A = (ii), B = (iii), C = (iv), D = (i)
2. 0.58 g
2. A = (iii), B = (ii), C = (i), D = (iv)
3. 0.62 g
3. A = (iv), B = (iii), C = (i), D = (ii)
4. 58 g
4. A = (iii), B = (iv), C = (ii), D = (i)

Biology I - Section A 105 Match the columns:

Column-I Column-II
101 Consider the following statements and find the correct
A. Chemotaxonomy (i) Cytological information
one:
B. Numerical taxonomy (ii) Nuclear information
C. Cytotaxonomy (iii) RNA sequencing
Living organisms are self-replicating, evolving, and self-
a. regulating interactive systems capable of responding to D. Karyotaxonomy (iv) Computers
external stimuli.
Wheat, monocots, and plants represent taxa of the same 1. A = (iii), B = (iv), C = (i), D = (ii)
b. 2. A = (iii), B = (iv), C = (ii), D = (i)
level.
3. A = (i), B = (ii), C = (iii), D = (iv)
Higher the category, the greater is the difficulty of
c. 4. A = (ii), B = (iv), C = (i), D = (iii)
determining the relation to other taxa of the same level.
Lower the taxa, the more the characteristics that the Select the wrong statements
d. 106
members within the taxon share.
1 All are correct, except 'b' Lower the taxon, more are the characteristics that the
(i)
2 All are correct members within the taxon share
3 All are correct, except 'c' Order is the assemblage of genera which exhibits a few
(ii)
4 All are correct, except 'd' similar characters
(iii) Cat and dog are included in the same family Felidae
102 Select the correct statement with respect to systematics: Bionomial nomenclature was introduced by Carolus
(iv)
It is the study of different kinds of organisms without their Iinnaeus
1. 1. i, ii and iii
evolutionary relationships.
The word systematics is derived from the Greek word 2. ii, iii and iv
2. 3. i and iv
System.
4. ii and iii
3. It includes taxonomy as well as phylogeny.
It is a part of the overall taxonomic arrangement that
4.
includes identification only.

15
 Test Paper #1

107 How many of the given taxa belong to the taxonomic 111 Identify the incorrect statement regarding bacteria:
category that has a maximum number of common characters 1. Bacteria are the most abundant microorganisms.
in comparison to other taxa? Bacteria live in extreme habitats where very few other life
Poales, Anacardiaceae, Homo sapiens, Panthera leo, Poaceae, 2.
forms can survive.
Convolvulaceae
Bacteria as a group show the most extensive metabolic
1. Six 3.
diversity.
2. Five
3. Three 4. They are obligate intracellular parasites.
4. Two
112 The protozoans that cause malaria in humans are :
108 Consider the following taxonomic categories: 1. Radiolarians
A. Phylum 2. Dinoflagellates
B. Order 3. Chrysophytes
C. Kingdom 4. Sporozoans
D. Class
E. Species 113 Which of the following is an incorrect statement
Choose the correct sequence of taxonomic categories in regarding fungi?
ascending order from the options given below: 1. Wheat rust-causing agent is Puccinia.
1. E → B → D → A → C 2. Penicillium is a source of antibiotics.
2. E → D → B → A → C 3. The cell walls of fungi are composed of peptidoglycans.
3. B → C → E → A → D 4. Fungi prefer to grow in warm and humid places.
4. B → E → C → D → A
114 State true (T) or false (F) to the following statements
109 Identify the group that is not matched correctly to all the
and select the correct option.
characters shown: A. Sexual reproduction is absent in Alternaria and Agaricus.
Nuclear B. Few plants are partially heterotrophic.
Group Cell Type Cell Wall Body Organization
Membrane
C. Morels and truffles are club fungi.
1. Monera Prokaryotic Absent Absent Cellular
Present in A B C
2. Protista Eukaryotic Present Cellular
some 1. T F T
Multicellular/loose
3. Fungi Eukaryotic Present Present
tissue
2. T T T
4. Plantae Eukaryotic Present Present Tissue/organ 3. T T F
4. F T F
110 Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and
select your answer from the codes given below: 115 Which of the following statements is true for
Column I Column II Heterotrophic bacteria?
A. Diatoms a. Protein-rich layer of pellicle 1. They fix nitrogen in legume roots.
B. Dinoflagellates b. Cell wall embedded with silica 2. The majority are important decomposers.
C. Euglenoids c. Spores with true walls Helpful in making curd from milk and production of
3.
D. Slime moulds d. Cellulose plates in the cell wall antibiotics.
Codes: 4. All of these.
A B C D
1. b a c d
2. b d a c
3. b c a d
4. b a d c

16
 Test Paper #1

116 Identify A, B, and C in the given diagram: 122 Cytotaxonomy is based on all of the following
characters, except:
1. Chromosome number
2. Chromosome structure
3. Chromosome behaviour
4. Chemical constituents of plant

123 Diatoms have left behind large amounts of cell wall

deposits in their habitat because:
A B C 1. They are most abundant in that habitat
1 Sheath Head Collar 2. Their life span is long
3. Their wall is indestructible
2 Collar Head Sheath 4. The statement is not true
3 Sheath Collar Head
124 Read the below-given features and select how many of
4 Head Collar Sheath
them are true for Agaricus:
117 How many of the following statements are correct? (a) Mycelium is branched and septate
(b) Sexual spores are produced inside an ascus
a. Venus fly trap and Cuscuta are insectivorous plants. (c) Fruiting bodies are edible
The viruses are non-cellular organisms with inert (d) Lack of sex organs and sexual reproduction
b.
crystalline structures. 1. 4
c. Bacterial viruses usually have ssDNA as genetic material. 2. 3
d. Viroids lack protein coat. 3. 1
4. 2
1. 2 2. 3
3. 4 4. 1
125 Which of the following is not true for chrysophytes?
1. Found in fresh water as well as in marine environment.
2. Cell membranes are embedded with silica.
118 The causal agent of scrapie disease: 3. Most of them are photosynthetic.
1. Is a proteinaceous particle 4. Microscopic and float passively in water currents.
2. Has ss RNA
3. Is composed of protein and DNA Identify the group of fungi that is not correctly matched
126
4. Is non-infectious to humans
with all the characters given below:
Mycelium – aseptate and coenocytic /
119 Which of the following form the basis for the division of
Asexual reproduction by motile
the kingdom fungi into various classes? 1. Phycomycetes: zoospores or by nonmotile
(I) Mode of spore formation and fruiting bodies. aplanospores / spores – endogenously
(II) Morphology of the mycelium. produced in the sporangium
(III) Mode of nutrition and occurrence. Mycelium – unbranched and septate /
1. I, II 2. I, III Asexual spores are conidia / Conidia
2. Ascomycetes:
3. II, III 4. Only I produced endogenously on
conidiophores.
Mycelium–branched and septate /
120 What is absent in Euglenoids? 3. Basidiomycetes:
Asexual spores are generally not found.
1. Two flagella, a short and a long one.
Only the asexual or vegetative phase of
2. Pellicle, a protein-rich layer. 4. Deuteromycetes:
these fungi are known.
3. Pigments identical to those present in higher plants.
4. Cell wall with stiff cellulose plates.

121 Saprophytic protists are:

1. Slime moulds 2. Dinoflagellates
3. Chrysophytes 4. Protozoans

17
 Test Paper #1

127 Read the statements given below and select the correct 133 State True (T) or False (F) to the given statements
option: and select the correct option
Statement Bacterial structure is very simple but their Abundance of lichens in any area indicates that the area is
(A)
A: behavior is very complex. highly polluted with SO2.
Statement Bacteria as a group show the most extensive (B) Mycobiont partner of lichens is always heterotrophic.
B: metabolic diversity. (C) Body of lichens is made up of phycobionts only.

1. Only statement A is correct (A) (B) (C)

2. Only statement B is correct 1. T T F
3. Both statements are correct 2. F T F
4. Both statements are incorrect 3. F F F
4. T F F
128 Who showed that viruses could be crystallized and
crystals consist largely of proteins? 134 Which of the following is not correctly matched?
1. D.J. Ivanowsky 1. Inert Crystals - Virus 2. Free RNA - Viroids
2. M.W. Beijerinek
3. Normal protein - Prions 4. Symbionts - Lichen
3. W.M. Stanley
4. T.O. Diener
135 Match each item in Column I [Protist] with one in
129 Which of the following is true for the reproduction of Column II [Characteristic] and select the correct option:
bacteria? Protist Characteristic
1. Reproduce mainly by fission. A. Chrysophytes P. Plasmodium
2. Under unfavourable conditions, they produce spores. B. Dinoflagellates Q. Chief producers in the ocean
3. Also reproduce by sort of sexual reproduction. R. Stiff cellulose plates in cell wall on
4. All of these C. Euglenoids
outer surface
Identify the incorrect statement: D. Slime moulds S. Two flagella, one long and one short
130 Codes:
Virus has a protein coat called capsid made of small A B C D
1.
subunits called capsomeres.
1. R Q S P
The core has the genetic material - either RNA or DNA or
2. 2. Q S P R
both.
3. Q R S P
The capsomeres are arranged in helical or icosahedral
3. 4. R S Q P
forms.
4. Viruses can infect any type of organism.
Biology I - Section B
131 An artificial group within fungi is
1. Ascomycetes 136 Match the organisms in column I with habitats in
2. Deuteromycetes column II.
3. Basidiomycetes Column I Column II
4. Phycomycetes
(a) Halophiles (i) Hot springs
Select the correct statement: (b) Thermoacidophiles (ii) Aquatic environment
132
(c) Methanogens (iii) Guts of ruminants
Cholera, typhoid, tetanus are well-known diseases caused
1. (d) Cyanobacteria (iv) Salty areas
by viruses.
Dinoflagellates, euglenoids and slime moulds are placed
2. Select the correct answer from the options given below:
under kingdom Monera
Options: (a) (b) (c) (d)
3. Members of kingdom Protista are primarily aquatic
1. (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
4. Dinoflagellates are the chief 'producers' in the oceans
2. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
3. (iii) (iv) (i) (i)
4. (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

18
 Test Paper #1

137 Which of the following fungus lacks dikaryophase? 140 What is true for both (a) and (b)?
1. Claviceps
2. Puccinia
3. Aspergillus
4. Trichoderma

138 Identify the blanks in the following figures –

1. RNA is the genetic material

2. Capability to infect bacteria
3. Being obligate endoparasites
4.Can be killed by antibiotics
A – Cell wall, B – Cell membrane, C – Heterocyst, D –
1.
DNA, E – mucilaginous sheath. 141 Which of the following is not true for three domain
A – Cell wall, B – Cell membrane, C – DNA, D – system?
2. 1. Divides kingdom monera into two domains.
Heterocyst, E – Mucilaginous sheath.
2. Third domain includes all eukaryotic organisms.
A – Mucilaginous sheath, B – Cell membrane, C – DNA, D
3. 3. It resulted in six kingdom classifications.
– Heterocyst, E – Cell wall.
4. It is not phylogenetic.
A – Cell membrane, D – Cell wall, C – DNA, D –
4.
Heterocyst, E – Mucilaginous sheath. Paramecium and Amoeba are placed in kingdom protista
142
How many of the following statements regarding fungi with
139 1. Anabaena and Colletotrichum
are true? 2. Anabaena and Chlorella
Asexual reproduction is common by the formation of 3. Chlamydomonas and Colletotrichum
I.
spores. 4. Chlorella and Chlamydomonas
Their bodies consist of hyphae that many be
II. Organisms responsible for causing ‘red tide’ are also
interconnected to form mycelium. 143
They secrete digestive enzymes onto organic matter and characterized by
III.
then absorb the products of the digestion. 1. Presence of stiff cellulosic plates.
Fungi can break down almost any carbon containing 2. Obligate saprophyte.
IV. 3. Presence of two longitudinal flagella.
product.
V. Fungi do not enter symbiotic relationships. 4. Filamentous body made up of trichomes.
1. 2 Morels and Agaricus have edible fruiting bodies and
2. 3 144
3. 4 belong to their respective class as.
4. 5 1. Ascomycetes and Basidiomycetes.
2. Basidiomycetes and Ascomycetes.
3. Ascomycetes and Phycomycetes.
4. Basidiomycetes only

19
 Test Paper #1

145 Identify the correctly matched row: 150 The number of species that are known and described
Class Mycelium Spores range between:
Aseptate and Exogenous on 1. 0.8 and 1.0 million
I. Phycomycetes 2. 1.0 and 1.2 million
coenocytic sporangium
3. 1.5 and 1.7 million
Branched and
II. Ascomycetes Endogenously in asci 4. 7.0 and 8.0 million
septate
Branched and Exogenously on
III. Basidiomycetes
septate basidium Biology II - Section A
1. Only I 151 In case of protists sexual reproduction can be by
2. Only II 1. Cell fusion
3. Only III 2. Zygote formation
4. Both II and III 3. Triple fusion
4. Both 1 and 2
146 Which of the following is a correct statement?
152 Identify the fungi which do not belong to the group of
1. Mycoplasma have DNA, Ribosome and cell wall.
Cyanobacteria are a group of autotrophic organisms other fungi among the following
2.
classified under Kingdom Monera. 1. Sac-fungi 2. Puffballs
3. Bacteria are exclusively heterotrophic organisms. 3. Mushrooms 4. Bracket Fungi
Slime moulds are saprophytic organisms classified under
4. Choose the correct option for the given below figures.
Kingdom Monera. 153

147 Plasmogamy is not immediately followed by

karyogamy in:
1. Ascomycetes and Basidiomycetes
2. Ascomycetes and Phycomycetes
3. Deuteromycetes and Basidiomycetes
4. Deuteromycetes and Phycomycetes

148 In 1971, T.O. Diener discovered a new infectious agent

that was smaller than viruses –
1. Peritrichous bacteria
I. It causes potato spindle tuber disease.
2. They do not contain both RNA and DNA
II. It is free RNA. 3. Presence of non-cellulosic cell wall
III. Molecular wt. of RNA is low. 4. Presence of cyclosis

The above statements are assigned to – 154 Members of Kingdom Protista:

1. Viruses 1. are primarily aquatic
2. Viroids 2. do not have membrane bound organelles
3. Virulent 3. are all ciliated or flagellated
4. Mycoplasma 4. reproduce exclusively by asexual means

149 If you were to increase the area that you make Heterotrophic, eukaryotic, multicellular organisms
155
observations in, the range and variety of organisms that you lacking a cell wall are included in the kingdom.
see would: 1. Protista
2. Fungi
1. Increase 3. Plantae
2. Decrease 4. Animalia
3. Remain same
May increase in polar regions and decrease in tropical
4.
regions

20
 Test Paper #1

156 In fungi, asexual reproduction takes place by 161 Select the incorrect statement with respect to fungi
1. Fission, conidia and ascospores Mycelium is consist of long slender thread like structures
2. Conidia, hypnospores and zoospores 1.
called hyphae
3. Conidia, sporangiospores and zoospores Aseptate and multinucleate hyphae is called coenocytic
4. Sporangiospores, conidia and basidiospores 2.
hyphae
After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores are 3. Dolipore septum is characteristic of class ascomycetes.
157 4. The cell wall is composed of chitin and polysaccharides
produced exogenously in
1. Neurospora
2. Saccharomyces 162 Archaebacteria differ from other bacteria on the
3. Agaricus basis of
4. Alternaria 1. Cell membrane structure.
2. Cell wall structure.
158 Which of the given statement is not true for viruses? 3. Presence of vacuole.
4. flagella structure.
They are nucleoproteins where protein is infectious in
1.
nature.
163 Which of the following have pigment similar to higher
They can be crystallized and crystals consist largely of
2. plants?
proteins.
1. Group which causes red tide.
3. Virus means venom or poisonous fluid. 2. Group which is chief producer of ocean.
A virus can never have both DNA and RNA as its genetic 3. Group when deprived of light behaves as heterotroph.
4.
material. 4. Group where spore have cellulosic cell wall

159 Which of the following are true for cyanobacteria? 164 The pathogen of potato spindle tuber disease
(I) They are freshwater/marine or terrestrial algae. 1. In infectious RNA with a high molecular weight
(II) Often form blooms in unpolluted water bodies 2. In infectious to both plants and animals
3. Is a tightly folded RNA with low molecular weight
(III) Maybe unicellular, colonial, or filamentous.
4. Has protein coat as well as genetic material
(IV) Some of them fix atmospheric nitrogen.
165 Which of the following statement is correct for
1. I, III, IV
Deuteromycetes?
2. I, II, III, IV
3. II, III, IV A large number of them are decomposers of litter, but do
1.
4. I, II, IV not help in mineral cycling
2. Mycelium is septate and branched
160 Match the Scientists in Column I with their contribution They may have three names, one for vegetative stage and
3.
in the field of virology given in Column II and select your two for asexual stage
answer from the codes given below: 4. Common asexual spore is oidia
Column I Column II
166 Choose the odd one out with respect to slime moulds
A. Pasteur a. Gave the name ‘virus’
Recognized tobacco mosaic is caused by 1. Spores possess true cellulosic walls
B. Ivanowsky b.
microbes smaller than bacteria The body moves along decaying twigs and leaves
2.
Demonstrated extract of infected tobacco engulfing organic material
C. Beijerinck c. plants could cause infection in healthy 3. Can grow and spread over several feets
plants 4. Spores are dispersed by water currents
D. Stanley d. Showed that viruses could be crystallized
Codes: 167 All the following statements regarding Basidiomycetes
A B C D
are correct except:
1. a b c d 1. The mycelium is branched and septate
2. a c b d Asexual spores and vegetative reproduction are generally
3. b a c d 2.
not found
4. b a d c 3. Sex organs are absent
4. Basidiospores are exogenously produced on the basidium

21
 Test Paper #1

168 Which of the following is a disease caused by 174 Which one of the following is true for fungi?
prion? 1. They lack a rigid cell wall
1. Kala-azar 2. They are heterotrophs
2. Parkinson’s disease 3. They lack nuclear membrane
3. Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease 4. They are phagotrophs
4. Gas gangrene
175 A protozoan without a locomotory structure is:
169 Match List - I with List - II
1. Entamoeba
List - I List - II 2. Trypanosoma
(a) Puccinia (i) Parasitic fungus on mustard 3. Plasmodium
4. Paramecium
(b) Neurospora (ii) Dead substrates
(c) Saprophytes (iii) Wheat rust Study the Assertion statement followed by the Reason
176
(d) Albugo (iv) Biochemical and Genetic Work
statement given below:
Choose the correct answer from the option given below :
Assertion Diatoms have left behind large amount of cell
(a) (b) (c) (d) (A): wall deposits in their habitat.
1. (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) Reason (R): Diatoms are the chief ‘producers’ in the oceans.
2. (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
3. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) 1. Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
4. (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R)
2.
is a correct explanation of Assertion (A).
170 Specialized cells for fixing atmospheric nitrogen in
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R)
3.
Nostoc are: is not a correct explanation of Assertion (A).
1. Heterocysts 4. Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
2. Hormogonia
3. Nodules Mad cow disease in cattle is caused by an organism
177
4. Akinetes
which has:
Agaricus sexually reproduces through: 1. Inert crystalline
171 2. Abnormally folded protein
1. Somatogamy 3. Free RNA without protein coat
2. Endogenously produced non-motile spores 4. Free DNA without protein coat
3. Haploid mitospores
4. Gametangial copulation The scientific names, given to each organism, ensure
178
Which of the following is incorrect about that
172
Cyanobacteria? I: each organism has only one name.
1. They are photoautotrophs
such a name has not been used for any other known
2. They lack heterocysts II:
organism.
3. They often form blooms in polluted water bodies
4. They have chlorophyll similar to green plants
1. Both I and II are incorrect
2. Only I is correct
173 3. Only II is correct
These bacteria oxidise inorganic substances such as 4. Both I and II are correct
(a)
nitrates, nitrites, and ammonia and produce ATP.

(b)
They also play a great role in recycling nutrients like 179 The system of Binomial Nomenclature was given by:
nitrogen, phosphorous, iron, and sulphur. 1. R. H. Whittaker
2. Carolus Linnaeus
The above statements are true for: 3. Carl Woose
1. Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria 4. Copeland
2. Heterotrophic bacteria
3. Saprobic bacteria
4. Pathogenic bacteria

22
 Test Paper #1

180 Which of the following would be incorrect regarding 184 Taxonomy is that part of Systematics concerned with:
universal rules of nomenclature of living organisms? a. characterisation and identification of living organisms
b. classification and nomenclature of living organisms
Biological names are Latinised or derived from Latin establishing evolutionary relationships between living
1. c.
irrespective of their origin. organisms
The first word in a biological name represents the genus
2.
while the second component denotes the specific epithet.
1. Only (a) and (b) 2. Only (a) and (c)
Both the words in a biological name, when printed, are
3. 3. Only (b) and (c) 4. (a), (b) and (c)
separately underlined, or handwritten in italics.
The first word denoting the genus starts with a capital Each taxonomic group/category:
4.
letter while the specific epithet starts with a small letter.
185
I. is merely a morphological aggregate
181 Consider the given two statements: II. is a distinct biological entity
Assertion: Before assigning a biological name to a living III. represents a rank
organism, it is essential to identify the organism correctly. 1. Only II is correct
Reason: Nomenclature or naming is only possible when the 2. Only II and III are correct
organism is described correctly and we know to what 3. I, II and III are correct
organism the name is attached to. 4. Only III is correct

1.
Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason does not
correctly explain the Assertion
2. Assertion is true but Reason is false
Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason correctly
3.
explains the Assertion
4. Assertion is false but Reason is true
182 Consider the given two statements:
Statement Classification of living organisms is important to
I: make study of living organisms possible.
Classification is the process by which anything is
Statement
grouped into convenient categories based on some
II:
easily observable characters.
1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
Biology I - Section B
186 Which of the following statements is correct?
1. Lichens do not grow in polluted areas.
2. Algal component of lichens is called mycobiont.
3. Fungal component of lichens is called phycobiont.
4. Lichens are not good pollution indicators.
187 Mad cow disease in cattle and Cr Jacob disease in
humans are due to infection by__________________ .
1. Bacterium
2. Virus
3. Viroid
4. Prion
188 Which kingdom of the Five Kingdom classification
system was divided into two domains in the three
Domain classification system?

183 Consider the given two statements: 1. Monera 2. Protista

Statement The scientific term for convenient categories we 3. Fungi 4. Plantae
I: use to study organisms is taxa.
Statement 189 You discover a unicellular organism. You shall place
An organism can belong to only one taxon.
II: this organism in Kingdom Monera and not in Kingdom
Protista if the cell:
1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect has non cellulosic cell wall composed of polysaccharide
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct I.
and amino acids
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect II. has a nuclear membrane but it is not double layered
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

23
 Test Paper #1

190 Consider the given two statements:
Amoeba and Paramoecium are included in
Assertion:
Kingdom Protista and not in Kingdom Animalia.
Unlike animals, a cell wall is present in these
Reason:
organisms.
Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason does not
1.
correctly explain the Assertion.
2. Assertion is false but Reason is true.
196 The Mycoplasma are organisms that:
I. completely lack a cell wall.
II. are the smallest living cells known.
III. can survive without oxygen.
IV. include forms which are pathogenic in animals and plants.
1. Only I, II and III are correct
2. Only I, III and IV are correct
3. Only II, III and IV are correct
4. I, II, III and IV are correct

3.
Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason correctly 197 A spherical bacterium is called as:
explains the Assertion.
4. Assertion is true but Reason is false 1. Coccus 2. Bacillus
3. Vibrios 4. Spirochaete
191 Earlier classification systems included bacteria, blue
green algae and fungi under ‘plants’. The problem with this 198 Citrus canker is caused by a:
inclusion was:
Bacteria and blue green algae have prokaryotic cell
I. 1. Virus 2. Viroid
organization unlike other members included in ‘plants’.
3. Prion 4. Bacterium
Fungi and many bacteria are heterotrophic unlike
II.
autotrophic members included in ‘plants’.
199 Consider the given statements:

1. Only I is correct 2. Only II is correct I: Lion, leopard and tiger belong to the same species
3. Both I and II are correct 4. Both I and II are incorrect II: Lion, leopard, tiger and cats belong to same genus
III. Lion, leopard, tiger, cats and dogs belong to same family

192 What characters will be similar in members of Kingdom

1. Only III is correct 2. Only II is correct
Fungi and Kingdom Animalia as per Whittaker’s Five
3. Only I is incorrect 4. I, II and III are incorrect
Kingdom Classification?
a. Cell type
200 In the given figure showing taxonomic hierarchy for
b. Cell wall
c. Body organisation living organisms:

1. Only a 2. Only b and c

3. Only a and c 4. Only c

193 The vast majority of bacteria are:

1. Photosynthetic autotrophs
2. Chemosynthetic autotrophs
3. Heterotrophs
4. Methanogens

194 Organisms, present in the gut of several ruminant

animals and responsible for the production of methane I. A would be Solanum for potato.
(biogas) from the dung of these animals, are: II. B would be Muscidae for housefly.
III. C would be Primata for humans.
1. Archaebacteria 2. Eubacteria IV. D would be phylum for animals and division for plants.
1. Only I, II and III are incorrect
3. Blue green algae 4. Desmids
2. Only I, III and IV are incorrect
3. Only II, III and IV are incorrect
195 Bacteria reproduce mainly by:
4. I, II, III and IV are incorrect
1. fission
2. producing spores
3. a primitive type of DNA transfer
4. sexual method

24
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK