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McGraw Hill

500
ACT Science
Questions
to know by test day

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Also in the McGraw Hill 500 Questions Series
500 ACT English and Reading Questions to Know by Test Day, Third Edition
500 ACT Math Questions to Know by Test Day, Third Edition
500 GRE Math Questions to Know by Test Day, Second Edition
500 HESI A2 Questions to Know by Test Day, Second Edition
500 SAT Math Questions to Know by Test Day, Third Edition
500 SAT Reading, Writing, and Language Questions to Know by Test Day, Third Edition
5 Steps to a 5: 500 AP Biology Questions to Know by Test Day, Third Edition
5 Steps to a 5: 500 AP Calculus AB/BC Questions to Know by Test Day, Third Edition
5 Steps to a 5: 500 AP Chemistry Questions to Know by Test Day, Third Edition
5 Steps to a 5: 500 AP English Language Questions to Know by Test Day, Third Edition
5 Steps to a 5: 500 AP English Literature Questions to Know by Test Day, Third Edition
5 Steps to a 5: 500 AP European History Questions to Know by Test Day, Third Edition
5 Steps to a 5: 500 AP Human Geography Questions to Know by Test Day, Third Edition
5 Steps to a 5: 500 AP Macroeconomics Questions to Know by Test Day, Third Edition
5 Steps to a 5: 500 AP Microeconomics Questions to Know by Test Day, Third Edition
5 Steps to a 5: 500 AP Physics 1 Questions to Know by Test Day, Third Edition
5 Steps to a 5: 500 AP Physics C Questions to Know by Test Day
5 Steps to a 5: 500 AP Psychology Questions to Know by Test Day, Third Edition
5 Steps to a 5: 500 AP Statistics Questions to Know by Test Day, Third Edition
5 Steps to a 5: 500 AP U.S. Government & Politics Questions to Know by Test Day, Second Edition
5 Steps to a 5: 500 AP U.S. History Questions to Know by Test Day, Third Edition
5 Steps to a 5: 500 AP World History Questions to Know by Test Day, Third Edition

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McGraw Hill

500
ACT Science
Questions
to know by test day

Third Edition

Anaxos, Inc.

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CONTENTS

Introduction vii
Diagnostic Quiz 1
Getting Started: The Diagnostic Quiz 3
Diagnostic Quiz Questions 5
Questions 1–20
Diagnostic Quiz Answers 13
Chapter 1 Test 1 15
Questions 1–40

Chapter 2 Test 2 29
Questions 41–80

Chapter 3 Test 3 45
Questions 81–122

Chapter 4 Test 4 59
Questions 123–161

Chapter 5 Test 5 73
Questions 162–203

Chapter 6 Test 6 87
Questions 204–245

Chapter 7 Test 7 101


Questions 246–283

Chapter 8 Test 8 115


Questions 284–327

Chapter 9 Test 9 133


Questions 328–369

Chapter 10 Test 10 149


Questions 370–412

Chapter 11 Test 11 163


Questions 413–460

Chapter 12 Timed Test 183


Questions 461–500

Answers 203

‹ v

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INTRODUC TION

Congratulations! You’ve taken a big step toward ACT success by purchasing


McGraw Hill 500 ACT Science Questions to know by test day. This book and the
others in this series were written by expert teachers who know the ACT inside
and out, and working on these questions will expose you to many kinds of
questions that are likely to appear on the exam. We are here to help you take the
next step and score high on your ACT exam so you can get into the college or
university of your choice.
This book provides 500 ACT-style, multiple-choice questions that cover a
wide variety of science topics. Each question is clearly explained in the answer
key. The questions will give you valuable independent practice to supplement the
material you have already covered in your science classes.
You may be the kind of student who needs extra study a few weeks before the
exam for a final review, or you may be the kind of student who puts off preparing
until the last minute. No matter what your preparation style, you will benefit
from reviewing these 500 questions, which closely parallel the content and degree
of difficulty of the science questions on the actual ACT. These questions and the
explanations in the answer key are the ideal last-minute study tool for those final
weeks before the test.
As you go through each chapter, you’ll want to practice your pacing as you
read the passages and answer the questions because time is a critical factor during
the ACT test. After reading or skimming the passage, a good rule of thumb is
to allow yourself 30 seconds per question. Determine what pace enables you to
be most successful in answering the questions. Chapter 12 provides a complete
35-minute practice test with seven passages containing 40 questions that mirror
the format of the ACT test.
If you practice with all the questions and answers in this book, we are certain
you will build the skills and confidence you will need to excel on the ACT.
Good luck!

—The Editors of McGraw Hill

‹ vii

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Diagnostic Quiz

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GE T TING STARTED:
THE DIAGNOSTIC QUIZ

The following questions refer to different units in this book. These questions will
help you test your understanding of the concepts tested on the ACT exam by
giving you an idea of where you need to focus your attention as you prepare. For
each question, simply circle the letter of your choice. Once you are done with the
exam, check your work against the given answers, which cover the corresponding
material in the book.

Good luck!

‹ 3

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DIAGNOSTIC QUIZ QUESTIONS

Passage A
One of the leading problems that humanity is dealing with today is climate
change. While a majority of respected scientists believes that humans have
contributed to climate change, there are some disparities in the scientific
community.

Scientist A
The idea that humans have contributed to climate change is impossible to
challenge. Through the addition of greenhouse gases (via fossil fuel use and
excessive emissions), the cutting down of forests, and other human activity,
humans have significantly contributed to climate change. The year 2019 was the
hottest year on record, and the many extreme weather events show that urgent
steps are needed to ensure that the Earth continues to be habitable. The current
measures and international systems designed to tackle climate change are not
achieving any of the necessary goals as climate change continues contributing to
rising sea levels and higher temperatures around the globe. The switch to more
sustainable sources (such as bioenergy) is going far too slowly, and the existing
idea of subsidizing renewable energy while the use of fossil fuels continues is
not sustainable. Using newer technologies that can deal with the existing carbon
dioxide in the atmosphere is essential. For example, metal oxides can be utilized
in the carbon-sequestration process.

Scientist B
While there is a definitive trend of changes in the climate, they are not entirely
because of human activity. Another factor that should be noted is the natural
changes in the Earth’s trajectory orbiting around the sun. Such changes, as
well as natural changes in the environment—such as solar radiation or volcanic
activity that increase the level of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere—may also be
major contributors to climate change.
When you think about the many changes that the Earth has undergone, many
of them precede humanity. It is entirely possible that after the current warming,
we will face another ice age because of the shifting trajectory of the Earth’s
orbit as well as the angle at which the Earth rotates around its axis. Many of the
measures done today are entirely counterproductive. Cap-and-trade systems do
not make any sense; they just leave room for redundant spending. Some new
technologies, such as carbon capture, are not energetically effective because the

‹ 5

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6 › McGraw Hill 500 ACT Science Questions

energy necessary to implement them results in more carbon emissions than they
actually capture.

1. Which of the following is something Scientists A and B could agree on?


(A) The impact of humans on climate change is negligible.
(B) Greenhouse gases contribute to climate change.
(C) Natural causes are the key reason why climate change is a problem.
(D) The transportation sector is the key aspect contributing to climate
change.

2. Which of the following would best support the ideas of Scientist B?


(A) The Milankovitch theory of planetary orbital cycles
(B) Anthropogenic global warming
(C) The theory of the ocean’s thermohaline circulation
(D) The biothermostat theory

3. Based on information from the passages above, which of the following


steps would Scientist A most likely recommend?
(A) Subsidizing renewable energy companies
(B) Cap-and-trade systems
(C) Carbon capture
(D) Voluntary emission caps

4. Why do Scientists A and B disagree on the value of carbon capture?


(A) Scientist B does not believe in the danger of climate change.
(B) Scientist B believes in the effectiveness of cap and trade.
(C) Scientist A is more in favor of multilateral solutions such as the Paris
Treaty.
(D) Scientist A does not account for the energy necessary to enact carbon
capture.

5. Which of the following is a necessary component in the carbon


sequestration process?
(A) Magnesium oxide
(B) Oxygen
(C) Calcium carbonate
(D) Natrium chloride

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Diagnostic Quiz Questions ‹ 7

6. Only 0.1% of carbon dioxide came from solar radiation and volcanic
activity in the past 15 years. An increase of 48% of additional carbon
dioxide in the atmosphere in the past 20 years derives mostly from human
activity. How does this information influence the opinions of the two
scientists?
(A) It shows that despite the increase in carbon dioxide, the dangers
presented by Scientist A, are overexaggerated.
(B) It mostly invalidates the opinion of Scientist B that existing measures
of targeting climate change do not work.
(C) It mostly invalidates the ideas from Scientist B that natural processes
are causing climate change.
(D) It shows that Scientist A’s views about the necessity of renewable
sources are inaccurate.

Passage B
Flies are often considered to be pests, but many studies are focused on
understanding their behavior. This experiment tests the preference of flies in
eating different types of sugar, as well as a sugar substitute called saccharin. All
live beings depend on different chemical receptors in order to taste their food
of choice. In the case of flies, the fly is able to test food by walking on it. Such
experiments about food preferences are important because they have relatively
simple sensory-response systems.
The experiment was conducted by sticking flies to popsicle sticks. After that,
a dilution series of glucose, maltose, and sucrose was made. Different levels of
sugars—0.003M, 0.01M, 0.03M, 0.1M, 0.3M, and 1M—were made through
that dilution process. The sensory perception of the flies was then tested, but the
flies were rinsed in diluted water between every test. Flies were offered different
sugars beginning with the lowest concentrations and then working up. A positive
response was detected if the fly lowered its proboscis. Another reason why the
diluted water was significant was to ensure that the positive response was toward
the sugar rather than toward the water. The results are presented in Table 1.

Table 1. The average number of flies in each lab group that fed from
0.3 M concentrations of each chemical tested. The mean ± standard
deviation is shown.

Chemical tested Number of 10 flies responding


Glucose 3.2 ± 1.5
Maltose 7.8 ± 2.3
Sucrose 8.6 ± 2.1
Saccharin 0.2 ± 0.5

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8 › McGraw Hill 500 ACT Science Questions

The different ways the flies responded to various concentrations are shown in
Figure 1.
Number of flies feeding
100 Succrose
Moltose
80 Glucose
Number of flies feeding

60

40

20

0
0.0 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8 1.0
Concentration
Figure 1. Number of flies responding to different types of sugar

7. Based on information from Figure 1, if the scientist had only done the
experiment with a concentration of 0.003M, what would they have
concluded?
(A) They would have arrived at the same conclusion.
(B) They would have learned that flies are more partial to artificial sugars.
(C) They would have learned that the sugar the flies prefer the most is
maltose.
(D) They would have found no significant difference in fly sugar
preferences.

8. What is the dependent variable in this experiment?


(A) The number of flies feeding
(B) The quantity of sugar
(C) The type of sugar
(D) The amount of water

9. How has the experiment avoided spurious or unverified results?


(A) By using different amounts of sugar
(B) By letting the flies test distilled water between tests
(C) By using both artificial and real sugars
(D) By using multiple independent variables

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Diagnostic Quiz Questions ‹ 9

10. What could be a practical application of the information from the


experiment?
(A) Developing fly repellants based on sucrose could be a valid option.
(B) Artificial sugar is less likely to attract flies compared to glucose.
(C) Based on the high value of the standard deviation, there is no
difference between the sugar types.
(D) Some type of fly trap could be developed from sucrose or maltose.

11. Based on the value of the standard deviation in the experiment, what is the
smallest value of 10 flies responding for maltose?
(A) 3.2
(B) 5.5
(C) 6.27
(D) 7.8

12. Based on Figure 1, which of the following can be inferred?


(A) The control variable should not have been used since multicollinearity
is present.
(B) There is no statistical significance between concentration and fly
preferences for different sugars.
(C) There is a strong positive correlation between the concentration of
sugar and the number of flies feeding.
(D) There is a weak negative correlation between the concentration of
sugar and the number of flies feeding.

13. The scientists have decided that they should test for the impact of fructose
on fly preferences. How would this impact the original experiment?
(A) It would include another control variable.
(B) It would change the dependent variable.
(C) It would create a new instrumental variable.
(D) It would include another independent variable.

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10 › McGraw Hill 500 ACT Science Questions

Passage 3
A group of students has decided to investigate some of the chemical traits of
commonly used compounds.

Table 2. Substance list and chemical traits

Substance Molecular Density (g/cm3) Melting Boiling


weight point (°C) point (°C)
Sodium chloride 58.44 2.16 801 1,413
Magnesium oxide 40.3 3.58 2,852 3,600
Aluminum potassium 258.21 1.757 92 200
Potassium chloride 58.09 2.48 858 1,505
Barium hydroxide 171.36 3.74 78 780

After considering the possible options, the students decided to experiment


using magnesium oxide. By doing an experiment with magnesium and
magnesium oxide, the students aimed to practically demonstrate Hess’s law. The
first trial was conducted by including magnesium, and the second was conducted
by including magnesium oxide. Both were separately put in a constant-pressure
calorimeter to determine the amount of energy that was generated from the
reaction. The information from trial 1, conducted with magnesium oxide, is in
the figure below.
35

30

25
Temperature (°C)

20

15

10

0
0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80
Time (s)
Figure 2. Temperature change over time

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Diagnostic Quiz Questions ‹ 11

The information about trial 2 is shown in the figure below. Trial 2 was
conducted utilizing magnesium and is shown in the figure below.
50

45

40

35
Temperature (°C)

30

25

20

15

10

0
0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80
Time (s)
Figure 3. Temperature change over time

The experiment determined that the overall energy utilized was –25,020KJ/Kg.
The students were very satisfied with the results since they were almost identical
to the theoretical value the equation should have.

14. What can you infer about the relationship between density and the melting
point based on the information in Table 2?
(A) Denser elements have stronger molecular bonds and thus have a
higher melting point because more energy is required to break down
these bonds.
(B) Less dense elements have a stronger connection between the remote
molecules and thus have a higher melting point.
(C) There is no connection between density and the melting point
because different compounds of comparable melting points have
highly different densities.
(D) Denser elements on average tend to have a higher melting point, with the
exception of oxides, which have stronger bonds than other elements.

15. How many of the substances listed in Table 2 would be in liquid form at
100°C?
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3

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12 › McGraw Hill 500 ACT Science Questions

16. The students live in a city in Peru at a high altitude. They have noticed that
when they attempt to theoretically measure the melting and boiling point,
the result is lower compared to the theoretical values. What factor is most
important in causing this discrepancy?
(A) Air density
(B) Pressure level
(C) External temperature
(D) Climate

17. Based on information from Table 2, which of the following elements


would require the most energy in order to transform into a gas?
(A) Sodium chloride
(B) Aluminum potassium
(C) Barium hydroxide
(D) Magnesium oxide

18. Which of the following describes the role of the energy generated by the
reaction in this experiment?
(A) It is the control variable.
(B) It is the dependent variable.
(C) It is an independent variable.
(D) It is an instrumental variable.

19. Based on information from the passage, why were the reactions
exothermic?
(A) The enthalpy of change had a negative value.
(B) The reaction could not take place without oxygen as an outside factor.
(C) The temperature became consistent after a certain level.
(D) External elements were required to initiate the reaction.

20. A student left the magnesium strip on a desk overnight prior to the
experiment. Why may that action invalidate the value of the results?
(A) Magnesium is a highly unstable element that deteriorates at room
temperature.
(B) Magnesium needs to be stored in very humid conditions to remain
viable.
(C) The magnesium strip may have reacted with the oxygen in the air.
(D) Magnesium strips need to be stored in specific clean receptacles.

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DIAGNOSTIC QUIZ ANSWERS

1. (B) Both scientists mention greenhouse gases as a major contributor to climate change.
Scientist A mentioned human activity while Scientist B mentioned solar radiation contrib-
uting to carbon dioxide levels.

2. (A) Milankovitch was an astronomer who began publishing his best-known works
around 1930. He believed that much of the changes in global temperature, such as ice ages,
occurred naturally as a result of changes in the position of the Earth’s orbit around the sun.

3. (C) Scientist A indicates that the existing carbon dioxide currently in the atmosphere
is the issue. As a result, carbon capture is one of the technologies that could be used to deal
with the issue.

4. (D) While Scientist B is very skeptical about the influence of humans on climate
change, Scientist A hasn’t really accounted for the fact that carbon capture is an option that
requires a lot of energy in order to be implemented.

5. (A) As mentioned in Passage A, metal oxides can be utilized for carbon sequestration.
Of the elements mentioned, only magnesium oxide is a metal oxide.

6. (C) Scientist B is presenting the view that climate change is not primarily caused by
human factors, and these facts mostly invalidate this view.

7. (D) At that very low level of concentration, it is possible that the flies could not even
recognize the presence of glucose.

8. (A) The goal of the experiment is to test the response of the flies, which is done by test-
ing how many flies feed from the possible substances.

9. (B) By utilizing distilled water between tests, there is no chance that a flavor from a
previous test could impact the preference of the flies. This acts as a type of control element
ensuring the validity of the results.

10. (D) It is clear that the flies prefer sucrose and maltose, so it could be possible to develop
some kind of fly trap based on this.

11. (B) The table indicates that the value is 7.8 ± 2.3. The final value can be calculated by
deducting 2.3 from 7.8 meaning that 5.5 is the correct response.

12. (C) As the concentration of sugar increases, an increasing number of flies is attracted
toward that option.

‹ 13

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14 › McGraw Hill 500 ACT Science Questions

13. (D) The levels of concentration of the sugars themselves and the types of sugars are the
independent variables of the experiment.

14. (C) There is no statistical connection between density and the melting point and none
has thus far been established.

15. (C) Table 2 lists the melting points of the substances. The melting point is the tem-
perature when an element in solid form will transform into a liquid. This is true only for
aluminum potassium and potassium chloride.

16. (B) Higher pressure is the key factor in lowering the boiling point. This is the reason
why a lid is placed on a pot when someone wants it to come to a boil sooner.

17. (D) The element that has the highest boiling point will require the most energy in
order for a change first from solid to liquid then from liquid to gas.

18. (B) The main goal of the experiment is to measure the amount of energy emitting from
the two reactions.

19. (A) Any reaction that is exothermic will have a negative value in the enthalpy of change,
as this reaction does.

20. (C) Prior to the reaction taking place, the magnesium may have oxidized.

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CHAPTER
1
Test 1

Passage 1
A corn seed, or kernel, is made up of pericarp, aleurone, and endosperm layers.
Figure 1.1 shows the basic anatomy of a corn seed. The endosperm layer may
be yellow or white. The aleurone layer may be purple, red, or colorless. Unless
the aleurone is colorless, the color of the aleurone layer masks the color of the
endosperm layer.

Pericarp

Aleurone Cotyledon
Endosperm

Tip cap

Figure 1.1

Endosperm color is determined by a single gene with two versions, or


alleles. A corn seed’s specific combination of alleles, or genotype, determines
the physical color of the endosperm (phenotype). Aleurone color is determined
by the interactions of three independently assorting genes. A genotype that
contains at least one aleurone color allele R, and one aleurone color inhibitor
allele C will produce a purple aleurone. A genotype that contains at least
one R, one C, and two aleurone color modifier alleles pp will produce a red
aleurone. All other allele combinations will produce a colorless aleurone.

‹ 15

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16 › McGraw Hill 500 ACT Science Questions

Table 1.1 shows the phenotypes that result from all possible allele
combinations for each of the four corn seed color genes.

TABLE 1.1 Corn Seed Color


Allele Phenotypic
Gene Relationships Genotype Outcome
Aleurone color R>r RR or Rr Purple aleurone in presence
of C allele
rr Colorless aleurone
Aleurone color C' > C > c C'C', C'C Colorless aleurone
inhibitor or C’c
CC or Cc Purple aleurone in presence
of R allele
cc Colorless aleurone
Aleurone color P>p PP or Pp No effect on aleurone color
modifier pp Changes purple aleurone
to red
Endosperm color Y > y YY or Yy Yellow endosperm
yy White endosperm

In a single ear of corn, each individual kernel is a separate seed representing


an independent outcome from the cross of the parental corn. This means that
individual kernels on the same ear of corn can have different genotypes and
phenotypes.
Students in a biology class examined several ears of corn that resulted from
three different parental crosses. Students were told the parental phenotypes
for each cross and were instructed to count the number of kernels of each color
present on each ear of corn. Table 1.2 shows the students’ kernel color data for
each of the three crosses.

TABLE 1.2 Corn Seed Genetic Cross


Parental Phenotypes Phenotypic Outcomes
Cross 1 Yellow × white Ear 1 503 yellow
Ear 2 510 yellow
Ear 3 506 yellow
Cross 2 Red × red Ear 1 381 red; 126 yellow
Ear 2 384 red; 124 yellow
Ear 3 380 red; 123 yellow
Cross 3 Purple × yellow Ear 1 256 purple; 249 yellow
Ear 2 255 yellow; 253 purple
Ear 3 257 yellow; 251 purple

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Test 1 ‹ 17

1. Why is the color of the endosperm usually not visible?


(A) Because endosperm is usually invisible.
(B) Because it lays beneath the aleurone layer.
(C) Because of the presence of color inhibitors.
(D) Because it is the most outer layer of the corn seed.

2. It can most logically be inferred that the pericarp layer of a corn seed
(A) is colorless.
(B) is beneath the aleurone and endosperm layers.
(C) has the same phenotype as the endosperm layer.
(D) is absent in most corn seeds.

3. According to Table 1.1, which trait has more than two alleles?
(A) Aleurone color modifier
(B) Aleurone color
(C) Aleurone color inhibitor
(D) Endosperm color

4. According to Table 1.1, how many unique kernel color phenotypes are
possible?
(A) Two
(B) Four
(C) Five
(D) Nine

5. Based on the information in Table 1.1, which of the following genotypes


would produce a red kernel?
(A) rrCCppyy
(B) rrCCPpyy
(C) RRCCppyy
(D) RRCCPpyy

6. The term allele relationships describes how multiple alleles for the same
gene interact. Based on the information in Table 1.1, which statement
accurately describes the relationship between the alleles of the aleurone
color modifier gene?
(A) When both P and p are present, an intermediate phenotype is
produced.
(B) When P is present, the phenotype of p is masked.
(C) When p is present, the phenotype of P is masked.
(D) The relationship between P and p cannot be determined from the
information in the table.

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18 › McGraw Hill 500 ACT Science Questions

7. Table 1.2 shows two different kernel colors on the same ear of corn. This is
possible because
(A) different kernels have different parent plants.
(B) some kernels do not have an aleurone layer.
(C) each kernel only gets two of the four seed color genes.
(D) each kernel represents a separate offspring.

8. If the genotype of the yellow parent in Cross 1 is rrCCppYY, which of the


following could be the genotype of the white parent?
(A) rrCCppyy
(B) rrccppYY
(C) RrCCppYY
(D) rrCCPPYY

9. In Cross 2, two red parents are shown to produce yellow kernels. What is
the most likely explanation for this outcome?
(A) A mutation occurring when the two parent plants were crossed
resulted in a new color phenotype.
(B) The crossing of parent alleles resulted in some kernels with a colorless
aleurone phenotype.
(C) The two parent plants for Cross 2 were incorrectly identified,
resulting in mismatched phenotypes.
(D) One of the parent plants passed on a yellow allele instead of a red
aleurone color modifier allele.

10. To have the greatest probability of producing a yellow kernel, it would be


most appropriate to repeat Cross(es)
(A) 1.
(B) 3.
(C) 1 and 3.
(D) 1, 2, and 3.

11. Based on the relationships information in Tables 1.1 and 1.2, what would
be the outcome if the yellow parent plant in Cross 3 were replaced with a
white parent?
(A) The ratio of purple to yellow kernels would increase.
(B) The ratio of purple to yellow kernels would remain constant.
(C) The resulting ears would contain purple and white kernels.
(D) The resulting ears would contain purple, yellow, and white kernels.

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Test 1 ‹ 19

12. Corn seed color is considered a polygenic trait. Based on the information
in the passage, the term polygenic refers to a trait that
(A) results from a single gene with multiple alleles.
(B) can exhibit a variety of phenotypes over time.
(C) has a phenotype that is influenced by multiple genes.
(D) affects many different functions of an organism.

13. Most of the corn sold in grocery stores is yellow. This means that an ear of
corn seen at the grocery store possesses
(A) a different combination of genes than is shown in Table 1.1.
(B) fewer color genes than the corn in the crosses shown here.
(C) the same genotype as the yellow kernels produced in Cross 2.
(D) a genotype that produces a colorless aleurone.

Passage 2
Four basic aerodynamic forces act on an airplane, whether it is a passenger
jet or a model made of paper. Thrust is the forward force, and drag is the
backward force, both of which act parallel to the airplane’s motion. Lift is
the upward force that acts perpendicular to the airplane’s motion. Gravity is the
downward force.
Students performed three experiments to determine the effects of different
physical modifications on the flying ability of paper airplanes. In each
experiment, students used printer paper to create a set of identical paper dart
planes. They then modified the airplanes’ design to investigate the effect on
flight distance.
In each experiment, a single student gently threw each airplane. A second
student then measured the horizontal distance covered by each plane. The
students performed each experiment three times for each airplane.

Experiment 1
Students created three identical paper airplanes. The first plane’s flat wings were
left unaltered. The second plane’s wings were modified to curve upward in a
U shape. The third plane’s wings were modified to curve downward in an
inverted U shape. The results are shown in Table 1.3.

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20 › McGraw Hill 500 ACT Science Questions

TABLE 1.3 Airplane Wing Curvature Data


Wing Curvature Horizontal Distance (m)
Trial 1
Flat wings 9.5
Wings curved up 10.2
Wings curved down 9.1
Trial 2
Flat wings 10.4
Wings curved up 10.3
Wings curved down 9.9
Trial 3
Flat wings 10.8
Wings curved up 10.6
Wings curved down 10.8

Experiment 2
Students created three identical paper airplanes. They left the first plane’s flat
wings unaltered. The second plane’s wingtips were bent slightly upward. The
third plane’s wingtips were bent slightly downward. The results are shown in
Table 1.4.

TABLE 1.4 Airplane Wingtip Position Data


Wingtip Position Horizontal Distance (m)
Trial 1
Flat wingtips 10.6
Wingtips bent up 12.4
Wingtips bent down 3.2
Trial 2
Flat wingtips 11.1
Wingtips bent up 12.9
Wingtips bent down 3.5
Trial 3
Flat wingtips 10.9
Wingtips bent up 12.8
Wingtips bent down 3.3

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Test 1 ‹ 21

Experiment 3
Students created four identical paper airplanes. The first plane remained
unaltered. Two paperclips were placed on either side of the second plane’s nose.
Two paperclips were placed on either side of the third plane at midwing. Two
paperclips were placed on either side of the fourth plane’s tail. The results are
shown in Table 1.5.

TABLE 1.5 Airplane Paperclip Position Data


Paperclip Position Horizontal Distance (m)
Trial 1
No paperclips 10.8
Nose 9.1
Midwing 10.6
Tail 6.3
Trial 2
No paperclips 10.7
Nose 9.4
Midwing 10.5
Tail 6.2
Trial 3
No paperclips 10.8
Nose 9.3
Midwing 10.7
Tail 6.0

14. Which aerodynamic force is the result of friction as an airplane moves


through the air?
(A) Thrust
(B) Lift
(C) Drag
(D) Gravity

15. Which pair of aerodynamic forces directly oppose each other?


(A) Lift and drag
(B) Thrust and lift
(C) Gravity and thrust
(D) Drag and thrust

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22 › McGraw Hill 500 ACT Science Questions

16. If one of the experiments took place outside while the remaining experiments
took place indoors, why would this invalidate the findings of the experiment?
(A) Because experiments must always have dependent variables that can
be perfectly controlled.
(B) Because there is danger that there might be a strong correlation
between internal and external environments.
(C) Because the conditions would be significantly different in a way that
might influence the results.
(D) Because it would introduce another dependent variable.
17. Which of the following statements about Experiment 1 is most accurate?
(A) Curving the wings slightly upward appears to improve airplane
performance.
(B) Altering the curvature of the wings appears to have little impact on
airplane performance.
(C) Curving the wings slightly downward appears to impede airplane
performance.
(D) Flat wings appear to result in poor airplane performance.
18. Which condition represents the control group in Experiment 2?
(A) Wingtips bent down
(B) Wingtips bent up
(C) Flat wingtips
(D) No wingtips
19. Based on the data from Experiment 3, which paperclip placement had the
least effect on flight distance?
(A) At the tail
(B) On the wingtips
(C) At the nose
(D) Midwing
20. Based on the data from the three experiments, which of the following is the
approximate average horizontal distance traveled by an unaltered airplane?
(A) 9.5 m
(B) 10.0 m
(C) 10.5 m
(D) 11.5 m

21. Which modification had the most positive effect on airplane performance?
(A) Bending wingtips slightly upward
(B) Adding paperclips to the midwing
(C) Curving wings upward
(D) Bending wingtips slightly downward

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Test 1 ‹ 23

22. A student produces the graph shown in Figure 1.2. This graph best
represents the data contained in
(A) Table 1.3.
(B) Table 1.4.
(C) Table 1.5.
(D) all three tables.
11.0

10.5

10.0

9.5

9.0

8.5

8.0
Trial 1 Trial 2 Trial 3

Figure 1.2

23. An object’s center of gravity identifies the average location of the object’s
weight. In which experiment(s) did students alter the center of gravity of
the paper airplanes?
(A) Experiments 1 and 2
(B) Experiment 2
(C) Experiment 1
(D) Experiment 3

24. Which modification changed an airplane’s average horizontal distance the


most?
(A) Adding paperclips to the tail
(B) Adding paperclips to the nose
(C) Curving wings downward
(D) Bending wingtips slightly downward

25. In Table 1.3, the horizontal distance of each individual airplane is shown
to increase with each subsequent trial. The most reasonable explanation for
this trend is that the
(A) student measuring the distance used different meter sticks with each
trial.
(B) three airplanes became more aerodynamic with each trial.
(C) student throwing increased the amount of initial thrust with each
trial.
(D) effects of gravity on all three airplanes were decreased with each trial.

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24 › McGraw Hill 500 ACT Science Questions

26. Based on the data from the three experiments, which combination of
features would be expected to produce the longest flight?
(A) Wings curved down, flat wingtips, and paperclips at the nose
(B) Flat wings, wingtips bent up, and no paperclips
(C) Wings curved up, wingtips bent down, and paperclips at the tail
(D) Flat wings, flat wingtips, and no paperclips

Passage 3
Bacteria species are differentiated into two large groups, gram-positive and gram-
negative, based on the properties of their cell walls. Peptidoglycan, a sugar–amino
acid polymer, is a structural component of the cell walls of both types of bacteria,
though the peptidoglycan layer is significantly thicker in gram-positive bacteria.
Gram-negative bacteria have an extra lipid bilayer, called the outer membrane,
that surrounds the entire cell. Figure 1.3 shows a structural comparison of the
cell walls of gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria.
Gram staining is a technique used to identify to which group a particular
bacteria species belongs based on its ability to retain a dye when rinsed with a
solvent. First, the primary stain, crystal violet, is applied to the bacteria culture.
An iodine solution is then added to form a complex with the crystal violet inside
the cells. A decolorizer (ethyl alcohol or acetone) is added next. In gram-positive
bacteria, the decolorizer dehydrates and shrinks the thick peptidoglycan layer.
This traps the large crystal violet–iodine complex inside the cell, staining the cell
purple. In gram-negative bacteria, the decolorizer degrades the outer membrane.
This prevents the thin peptidoglycan layer from retaining the crystal violet–
iodine complex, and the dye is washed out of the cell. A counterstain (safranine
or fuchsin) is then added to the culture, giving decolorized gram-negative cells
a red color. The counterstain is lighter colored than the primary stain, so it does
not affect the outcome for gram-positive cells. After the staining procedure is
completed, the treated cells are examined under a microscope to determine their
color, thus identifying the group to which they belong.
Gram staining is typically the first test in a series of laboratory tests used
to identify an unknown bacteria sample. Table 1.6 is a dichotomous key of
characteristics that can be used to identify members of five common bacteria
genera.

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ch01.indd 25

Gram-Positive Gram-Negative

Teichoic acid Lipoteichoic acid


Lipopolysaccharides
Porins
Peptidoglycan Outer Phospholipids
membrane layer

Peptidoglycan
Periplasmic space
Cell membrane

Lipoproteins
Cell
membrane Membrane
protein Membrane
protein
+ –

Figure 1.3

20-12-2021 11:10:07

25
26 › McGraw Hill 500 ACT Science Questions

TABLE 1.6 Bacteria Dichotomous Key


1a. Gram-positive cells Go to Step 2
1b. Gram-negative cells Go to Step 3
2a. Rod-shaped cells Gram-positive bacilli
2b. Sphere-shaped cells Go to Step 4
3a. Rod-shaped cells Go to Step 5
3b. Sphere-shaped cells Gram-negative cocci
4a. Produces catalase Staphylococcus spp.
4b. Does not produce catalase Streptococcus spp.
5a. Ferments lactose Go to Step 6
5b. Does not ferment lactose Pseudomonas spp.
6a. Can use citric acid as sole carbon source Enterobacter spp.
6b. Cannot use citric acid as sole carbon source Escherichia spp.

27. Which statement accurately describes a structural difference between


gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria?
(A) Gram-positive bacteria have a thicker layer of peptidoglycan but lack
an outer membrane.
(B) Both types of bacteria have a cell wall, but gram-negative bacteria lack
a cell membrane.
(C) Gram-negative bacteria have an outer membrane instead of a
peptidoglycan layer.
(D) The outer membrane is located beneath the peptidoglycan layer in
gram-positive bacteria.

28. Which structural feature is present in both gram-positive and gram-


negative cells?
(A) Porins
(B) Lipoteichoic acid
(C) Periplasmic space
(D) Lipopolysaccharides

29. Which of the following statements is most logically supported by the


presence of porins in gram-negative bacteria?
(A) Cell walls are not permeable, so all substances entering a bacteria cell
must travel through porins.
(B) The lipopolysaccharide and phospholipid bilayer is less permeable
than peptidoglycan.
(C) In bacteria cells, a thicker peptidoglycan layer is more permeable than
a thin peptidoglycan layer.
(D) Gram-negative bacteria transport larger molecules into their cells than
do gram-positive bacteria.

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Test 1 ‹ 27

30. Which substance does not act as a tissue stain in the Gram staining
technique?
(A) Safranine
(B) Crystal violet
(C) Fuchsin
(D) Ethyl alcohol

31. According to the Gram staining technique, a bacteria species is identified


as gram-negative if its cells
(A) appear purple after the staining procedure.
(B) have not been exposed to any stain.
(C) appear colorless after the staining procedure.
(D) appear red after the staining procedure.

32. In the Gram staining technique, which step must be performed before the
addition of the iodine solution?
(A) Staining with safranine
(B) Washing with acetone
(C) Staining with crystal violet
(D) Washing with ethyl alcohol

33. Based on the information about the Gram staining technique, the most
logical reason for applying a counterstain is to
(A) intensify the appearance of gram-positive cells under a microscope.
(B) prevent the primary stain from affecting gram-negative cells.
(C) counteract the effects of the primary stain on gram-positive cells.
(D) allow gram-negative cells to be seen more easily under a microscope.

34. Based on the information about the Gram staining technique, it is most
reasonable to expect a chain of which type of molecule to degrade in the
presence of ethyl alcohol?
(A) Lipids
(B) Nucleotides
(C) Sugars
(D) Amino acids

35. In Table 1.6, Steps 2 and 3 list the same cell shape characteristics because
(A) gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria can both be rod- or
sphere-shaped.
(B) gram-positive bacteria can switch between rod and sphere shapes.
(C) cell shape depends on the results of the bacteria’s Gram staining test.
(D) the cell shape of many gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria is
unknown.

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28 › McGraw Hill 500 ACT Science Questions

36. Why do major government agencies test for the presence of Escherichia in
water?
(A) The bacteria are an indicator of how many animals live nearby.
(B) The bacteria are usually not present in a natural environment.
(C) The bacteria are an indicator of how polluted the water is.
(D) The bacteria are highly beneficial for an individual’s health.

37. Based on the information in Table 1.6, which genera contains gram-
negative, rod-shaped bacteria that do not ferment lactose?
(A) Pseudomonas
(B) Enterobacter
(C) Staphylococcus
(D) Escherichia

38. Based on the information in Table 1.6, which characteristic is shared by


Pseudomonas and Enterobacter bacteria?
(A) Gram-positive cells
(B) Lactose fermentation
(C) Use of citric acid as sole carbon source
(D) Rod-shaped cells

39. A laboratory technician is examining a bacteria sample belonging to the


genus Escherichia under a microscope and notes that the sample remains
colorless after performing the Gram staining procedure. It is most
reasonable to assume that an error occurred during the
(A) application of the primary stain.
(B) application of the counterstain.
(C) decolorization of the cells.
(D) bonding of iodine to the primary stain.

40. Since gram-negative bacteria are generally more resistant to antibiotics


such as penicillin, Gram staining can be used to inform appropriate
antibiotic treatment for patients with bacterial infections. Based on the
information in Table 1.6, infections caused by bacteria belonging to which
genera would be most effectively treated with penicillin?
(A) Staphylococcus and Streptococcus
(B) Enterobacter and Escherichia
(C) Staphylococcus and Enterobacter
(D) Streptococcus and Escherichia

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CHAPTER
2
Test 2

Passage 4
An organism’s genetic information is stored within the nuclei of its cells as a
set of chromosomes. The number of chromosomes in a cell varies from species
to species. In some species, the number of chromosomes can vary between
individuals. Table 2.1 lists the chromosome count for a variety of species.
Ploidy is the number of sets of chromosomes present in the cell of an
organism. The monoploid number (x) is the number of chromosomes an
organism has in one set.
In most species, a gamete (sex cell) contains one complete set of an
organism’s chromosomes. The number of chromosomes in a gamete is
referred to as the haploid number (n). The fusing of two gametes into a zygote
during sexual reproduction produces somatic cells (body cells) containing
two complete sets of chromosomes. The total number of chromosomes in a
somatic cell is referred to as the diploid number (2n). In most species, the
monoploid number (x) and the haploid number (n) are the same.
Some species have more than two sets of chromosomes present in their
cells, a condition referred to as polyploidy. The somatic cells of triploid
organisms have three sets of chromosomes, for example, and tetraploids
have four. In polyploid organisms, the term haploid is still used to describe
the number of chromosomes in a gamete, and diploid is used to describe the
number of chromosomes in a somatic cell. However, the monoploid number
and the haploid number are not the same in a polyploid organism.

41. Based on the information in Table 2.1, which species does not exhibit
variation in chromosome numbers between individuals?
(A) European honeybee
(B) Swamp wallaby
(C) Slime mold
(D) Jack jumper ant

‹ 29

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30 › McGraw Hill 500 ACT Science Questions

TABLE 2.1 Species Chromosome Count


Diploid Number
Organism Scientific Name of Chromosomes
Adder’s-tongue fern Ophioglossum reticulatum 1,260
Coyote Canis latrans 78
Dog Canis lupus familiaris 78
Horse Equus ferus caballus 64
Donkey Equus africanus asinus 62
Bengal fox Vulpes bengalensis 60
Silkworm Bombyx mori 54
Pineapple Ananas comosus 50
Zebra fish Danio rerio 50
Potato Solanum tuberosum 481
Human Homo sapiens 46
Oats Avena sativa 422
Mouse Mus musculus 40
Earthworm Lumbricus terrestris 36
Red fox Vulpes vulpes 34
Alfalfa Medicago sativa 321
European honeybee Apis mellifera 323
Yeast Saccharomyces cerivisiae 32
Slime mold Dictyostelium discoideum 12
Swamp wallaby Wallabia bicolor 10/114
Fruit fly Drosophila melanogaster 8
Jack jumper ant Myrmecia pilosula 23
Source: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_organisms_by_chromosome_count.
1Organism is a tetraploid.
2Organism is a hexaploid.
3Males are haploid.
4Males have one less chromosome than do females.

42. The first part of an organism’s scientific name identifies the genus to which
it belongs. Which statement about the members of a genus is best
supported by the information in Table 2.1?
(A) An organism’s genus determines the number of chromosomes it has.
(B) Organisms in the same genus tend to have similar chromosome
counts.
(C) No two organisms in the same genus can have the same number of
chromosomes.
(D) Chromosome count can vary greatly between organisms in the same
genus.

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Test 2 ‹ 31

43. Based on the information in Table 2.1, the relationship between diploid
chromosome count and organism complexity can best be described as
exhibiting:
(A) a direct correlation.
(B) no correlation.
(C) an inverse correlation.
(D) a linear correlation.

44. To which kingdom does the organism exhibiting the greatest diploid
number of chromosomes in Table 2.1 belong?
(A) Animalia
(B) Plantae
(C) Eubacteria
(D) Protista

45. Which species has more chromosomes than a human but fewer
chromosomes than a dog?
(A) Bombyx mori
(B) Canis latrans
(C) Ophioglossum reticulatum
(D) Mus musculus

46. Cells from which pair of organisms have the same number of
chromosomes in their nuclei?
(A) Horse and donkey
(B) Zebra fish and pineapple
(C) Earthworm and European honeybee
(D) Oats and potato

47. Based on the information in the passage, which species produces gametes
that each contain 32 chromosomes?
(A) Apis mellifera
(B) Saccharomyces cerivisiae
(C) Equus ferus caballus
(D) Drosophila melanogaster

48. According to the information in Table 2.1, how many more total
chromosomes does a female European honeybee have than a male?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 16
(D) 32

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32 › McGraw Hill 500 ACT Science Questions

49. Based on the information in the passage, the total number of


chromosomes in a somatic cell is represented by which of the following
terms?
(A) n
(B) x
(C) 2x
(D) 2n

50. Which statement about polyploidy is supported by the information in the


passage?
(A) The number of chromosomes varies among the somatic cells of a
polyploid organism.
(B) The gametes and somatic cells of a polyploid organism contain the
same number of chromosomes.
(C) The gametes of a polyploid organism contain more than one
complete set of chromosomes.
(D) The somatic cells of a polyploid organism contain too many
chromosomes to be considered diploid.

51. Which of the following organisms has four complete sets of chromosomes
in its somatic cells?
(A) Alfalfa
(B) Slime mold
(C) Oats
(D) Earthworm

52. Table 2.1 identifies the oat species Avena sativa as a hexaploid, containing
six sets of chromosomes. The numerical representation 2n = 6x = 42
describes the total number of chromosomes in a somatic cell of this
hexaploid species. How many chromosomes does Avena sativa have in
one set?
(A) 6
(B) 7
(C) 21
(D) 42

53. Which of the following correctly identifies the relationship between the
diploid number (2n), haploid number (n), and monoploid number (x) of
Solanum tuberosum?
(A) 2n is twice n but 4 times x.
(B) 2n is twice the sum of n and x.
(C) 2n is the sum of n and x.
(D) 2n is twice x but 4 times n.

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Test 2 ‹ 33

Passage 5
The majority of scientists agree that global temperatures are rising, leading to
a host of climate changes that will produce significant worldwide effects over
time. Still subject to debate are the type and severity of effects that these climate
changes will have on various industries. Two scientists present their viewpoints
regarding the effects of climate change on agriculture in the United States.

Scientist 1
Climate change is likely to have mixed effects on U.S. agriculture over time. Every
crop has a set of optimal conditions under which it grows and reproduces best.
For many crops, the growth rate increases as temperature increases, suggesting
that the progressive increase in average temperatures will have a beneficial effect
on many types of crops. On the other hand, a faster growth rate means less time
for the seeds of certain crops to mature, hindering their reproductive ability.
Average temperatures will eventually surpass the optimal growth temperature for
some crops, causing their yields to decline.
Crop yields also increase with carbon dioxide levels. The positive growth effect
of carbon dioxide can be suppressed, however, if the optimal growth temperature
is surpassed. The potential effects of climate change on other environmental
conditions, including soil moisture, nutrient levels, and water availability must be
taken into account as well.

Scientist 2
Agriculture in the United States will be adversely affected by climate change over
the next several decades. Many weeds, pests, and fungi thrive in warm, wet climates
and with increased levels of carbon dioxide. As average temperatures continue to
increase and these conditions become more widespread, the habitat ranges for
these organisms will spread northward. This will pose challenges to northern crops
that have not previously been exposed to certain competitors and pests.
The predicted increase in extreme weather events will also negatively impact
crop yields. An increase in the frequency of floods will destroy crops and
potentially deter farming along major waterways altogether. In areas in which
drought conditions are projected to become more common, a water supply
capable of sustaining even modest crop yields is a very real concern.

54. According to Scientist 1, how will a change in average temperature affect


the growth rates of crops?
(A) As average temperature increases, all crops will begin to grow faster.
(B) A change in average temperature will benefit some crops and harm
others.
(C) If average temperature changes too quickly, many crops will stop
growing.
(D) An increase in average temperature will hinder growth until crops adapt.

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34 › McGraw Hill 500 ACT Science Questions

55. If Scientist 1 is correct, which of the following trends will most likely occur
over the next several decades?
(A) The agriculture industry will experience no significant change in crop
yields.
(B) The depletion of soil nutrients will cause yields of all crops to decline.
(C) Crops with chemical defenses against pests will exhibit increased
yields.
(D) Crops with higher optimal growth temperatures will produce greater
yields.

56. Why is carbon dioxide considered to be a greenhouse gas?


(A) Because it contributes to negative environmental phenomena such as
acid rain.
(B) Because it can make water toxic and undrinkable.
(C) Because it can retain heat and thus contribute to climate change.
(D) Because it cannot absorb infrared radiation and thus contributes to
higher temperatures.

57. How has climate change contributed to extreme weather events?


(A) An increase in sea temperature has increased the intensity of tropical
storms.
(B) An increase in carbon dioxide emissions has led to colder weather.
(C) Emissions of sulfate gasses contribute to less rain falling.
(D) As a result of decreasing sea levels, hurricanes are becoming stronger.

58. Based on the passage, the major difference between the opinions of
Scientists 1 and 2 is that:
(A) Scientist 2 does not predict any positive effects of climate change on
agriculture.
(B) Scientist 1 discusses the effects of increased temperature but not
carbon dioxide.
(C) Scientist 2 expects agriculture in southern areas to be unaffected by
climate change.
(D) Scientist 1 focuses only on the effects of climate change on crop
reproductive rates.

59. Scientist 2 states that high:


(A) carbon dioxide levels will benefit crop yields.
(B) carbon dioxide levels will lead to decreased crop yields.
(C) average temperatures will improve crop yields.
(D) average temperatures will hinder the growth of fungi.

ch02.indd 34 20-12-2021 11:16:47


Test 2 ‹ 35

60. An industry-wide increase in agricultural pesticide use over the next several
decades would support the opinion of:
(A) Scientist 1.
(B) Scientist 2.
(C) both scientists.
(D) neither scientist.

61. Based on the information in the passage, both scientists would agree with
which of the following statements?
(A) The greatest threat posed by climate change to the U.S. agriculture
industry is the projected increase in extreme weather events.
(B) Southern crops are better adapted than northern crops to withstand
the effects of elevated carbon dioxide levels associated with climate
change.
(C) The effects of climate change will have a greater negative impact on
the reproductive ability of crops than on their growth rate.
(D) Increasing average temperatures associated with climate change will
provide an advantage to some organisms.

62. It can be inferred that Scientist 1 believes elevated levels of carbon dioxide
will directly lead to crops with a(n):
(A) shortened growing season.
(B) higher optimal growth temperature.
(C) decreased need for soil nutrients.
(D) increased rate of photosynthesis.

63. Which of the following does Scientist 2 identify as potential competitors


to northern crops?
(A) Invasive species of weeds
(B) Newly introduced crop species
(C) Other industries that use land
(D) Migrating pest species

64. The hypothesis of Scientist 1 could best be tested by recording data over
the next decade on:
(A) crop yields, average temperatures, and soil nutrient availability
worldwide.
(B) seed production, soil nutrient availability, and water availability
worldwide.
(C) seed production, carbon dioxide levels, and water availability in the
United States.
(D) crop yields, average temperatures, and carbon dioxide levels in the
United States.

ch02.indd 35 20-12-2021 11:16:48


36 › McGraw Hill 500 ACT Science Questions

65. If Scientist 2 is correct, over time, the range of:


(A) northern crops will become narrower.
(B) southern crops will move farther south.
(C) northern crops will overtake southern crops.
(D) southern crops will remain constant.

66. If Scientist 1’s hypothesis is correct, which of the following graphs best
represents how high carbon dioxide levels will affect crop yields over time?

(A) (B)
Crop yields

Crop yields

Time Time

Figure 2.1 Figure 2.2

(C) (D)
Crop yields

Crop yields

Time Time

Figure 2.3 Figure 2.4

ch02.indd 36 20-12-2021 11:16:48


Another random document with
no related content on Scribd:
—Bien, homme, tu m’as l’air très bien.
—Tu es comme le palmier du grand désert, très belle; tu es
comme l’arbre qui donne de l’ombre..., un rêve.... Moi je t’ai nommé
Amri: Mon âme!»
Tandis que la pauvre femme s’acheminait vers l’hôpital, doña
Paca et sa suite, à l’opposé, arrivaient à la demeure nouvelle, rue de
l’Orellana: un troisième très propre, avec les tentures et les peintures
fraîches, bonne lumière, ventilation, belle cuisine et prix convenable
pour la circonstance. Il parut parfait à doña Francisca, lorsqu’elle
arriva en haut suffoquée par l’ascension de l’interminable escalier et,
s’il lui avait paru mal, elle se serait bien gardée de le manifester,
ayant absolument abdiqué toute volonté et toute opinion
personnelles. Le caractère flexible, plus que flexible, absolument
flasque, de la veuve s’était complètement adapté à la manière de
sentir et de penser de Juliana, et cette dernière, voyant que cette
mie de pain se plaçait d’elle-même sous ses doigts, en faisait des
boulettes. Doña Paca n’osait pas respirer sans la permission de son
tyran, qui semblait se complaire à accabler de ses ordres, pour toute
chose, l’infortunée veuve. Celle-ci arriva à en avoir une peur
d’enfant: elle se sentait elle-même une mie de pain dans la main de
la piqueuse de bottines et, en vérité, cette crainte n’allait pas sans
être accompagnée d’une forte dose de respect et d’admiration.
La dame se reposait de la grande fatigue de cette journée et tous
les meubles, objets, pots de fleurs placés dans le nouvel
appartement, sous le coup d’une tristesse intense qui avait envahi
son cœur, elle appela son tyran pour lui dire:
«Tu ne m’as pas bien expliqué en marchant ce que tu m’as dit.
Que Nina compte-t-elle faire de son Maure? T’a-t-il paru bien?»
Juliana fournit à sa sujette les explications demandées sans dire
aucun mal de Benina, ni la présenter sous un mauvais jour, ce en
quoi elle fit preuve d’un tact très fin.
«Tu lui as dit en conclusion... qu’elle ne doit pas venir me voir, à
cause de la contagion de cette sale peste? Tu as très bien fait. Sans
toi, je me serais trouvée exposée, Dieu sait! à prendre cette affreuse
maladie.... Tu lui as bien dit aussi qu’elle pourrait prendre les restes
de nos repas? Mais cela ne suffit pas et j’aurais grand plaisir à lui
assigner un petit fixe par jour, une piécette, par exemple. Qu’en
dirais-tu?
—Je dis que, si nous commençons avec de pareilles prodigalités,
nous allons promptement reprendre le chemin du Mont-de-Piété.
Non, non, une piécette, c’est une piécette.... Nina aura bien assez
avec deux réaux. C’est mon opinion et, si vous faites plus, je m’en
lave les mains.
—Deux réaux, deux, tu as dit.... Oui, tu as raison, c’est assez. Tu
ne sais pas les miracles que fait Nina avec une demi-piécette.»
En ce moment, Daniela accourut, toute tremblante, disant que
Frasquito sonnait à la porte, et Obdulia, qui l’avait vu à travers le
judas, disait qu’il ne fallait pas ouvrir afin d’éviter un scandale pareil
à celui de la rue Impériale. Mais qui diable avait pu lui donner la
nouvelle adresse? C’était sûrement cet animal de Polidor, et Juliana
fit le serment de lui arracher une oreille. Mais, par un fâcheux
contretemps, tandis que Ponte sonnait à la porte, Hilaria montait,
revenant de son marché, et elle ouvrit avec sa clef, et il fut
impossible d’empêcher Frasquito d’entrer, et il se présenta devant
ces femmes épouvantées, le chapeau tiré jusqu’aux oreilles,
brandissant sa canne, son vêtement en désarroi, tout maculé de
terre et de boue. Il avait la bouche de travers et traînait péniblement
sa jambe droite.
«Pour Dieu, Frasquito, lui dit doña Paca suppliante, ne nous
faites pas peur. Vous êtes malade, vous devriez aller vous mettre au
lit.»
Et Obdulia, arrivant à son tour, lui dit d’une voix déclamatoire:
«Frasquito, une personne comme vous, si distinguée, de si
bonne société, nous dire ces choses; remettez-vous, rentrez en
vous-même.
—Señora et madame, dit Ponte, enlevant avec la plus grande
difficulté son chapeau, je suis un chevalier et je me vante de savoir
me conduire avec des femmes élégantes; mais, comme ce bruit
absurde est parti d’ici, je viens demander des explications. Mon
honneur l’exige....
—Et qu’avons-nous à voir, nous autres, avec l’honneur d’un
personnage comme vous? s’écria Juliana. Allez, c’est d’une
personne mal élevée que de manquer ainsi aux dames! L’autre jour,
elles étaient pour vous impératrices et reines, et aujourd’hui....
—Et maintenant, dit Ponte effrayé et tremblant tant soit peu
devant l’accent énergique de Juliana comme roseau battu par le
vent, et maintenant je ne manque point au respect dû aux dames.
Obdulia est une dame, doña Francisca une autre dame. Mais
pourtant, toutes dames qu’elles sont, elles m’ont calomnié; elles
m’ont blessé dans les sentiments les plus purs de mon être, en
soutenant que j’ai fait la cour à Benina... et que je l’ai poussée vers
un amour déshonnête pour la faire manquer avec moi à la fidélité
qu’elle doit à ce noble chevalier de l’Arabie.
—Comment voulez-vous que nous ayons dit pareille sottise?
—Tout Madrid le répète.... C’est d’ici, de ce salon, qu’est sortie
cette indigne calomnie. On m’accuse d’un crime abominable: d’avoir
osé lever un œil déshonnête sur un ange aux ailes immaculées. Or,
vous saurez que je respecte les anges: si Nina avait été une
créature mortelle, je ne l’aurais pas respectée, parce que je suis un
homme.... J’ai aimé des femmes à la chevelure rouge ou noire,
mariées, veuves ou demoiselles, et nulle ne m’a résisté..., car j’ai
toujours été la beauté même.... Mais je n’ai séduit aucun ange et je
n’en veux séduire aucun.... Sachez-le, Francisca, sachez-le,
Obdulia..., la Nina n’est pas de ce monde..., la Nina appartient au
ciel.... Habillée en pauvresse, elle est allée mendier pour nous faire
vivre, vous et moi.... Et la femme qui a fait cela, je ne la séduis pas,
je ne peux pas la séduire, je ne puis pas en être amoureux...; ma
beauté est humaine, la sienne est divine: mon splendide visage est
pétri de chair humaine et le sien d’essence divine, de céleste
lumière.... Non, non, non, je ne l’ai pas séduite, elle ne m’a point
appartenu, elle appartient à Dieu. Je vous le dis en vérité, Curra
Juarez de Ronda, à vous qui maintenant ne pouvez plus remuer,
tant votre corps est accablé par le poids de l’ingratitude.... Moi, parce
que je suis reconnaissant, je me sens léger comme plume au vent et
je vole..., vous le voyez.... Vous êtes, vous, de plomb, parce que
vous êtes ingrate et vous ne pouvez quitter le sol..., vous le voyez
bien.»
Consternées, mère et fille poussaient des cris, demandant
secours aux voisins. Mais Juliana, plus courageuse et plus
expéditive, ne pouvant entendre avec calme les divagations du
malheureux Ponte, se jeta sur lui furieuse et, le saisissant par le
revers de son vêtement, elle le foudroya de ses regards et de sa
parole:
«Si vous ne filez pas tout de suite hors de cette maison, espèce
de macaque, je vous préviens que je vous flanque par la fenêtre.»
Et sûrement elle l’aurait fait, si Hilaria et Daniela ne s’étaient
précipitées sur le pauvre fils d’Algeciras et ne l’avaient point, en
deux ou trois mouvements, jeté hors de la porte.
Le portier et quelques voisins, attirés par cette algarade, se
présentèrent alors et, voyant ces renforts, les quatre femmes
sortirent sur le palier, pour expliquer que cet homme avait perdu le
jugement et, de la personne la mieux élevée et la plus distinguée, il
s’était brusquement transformé en un être importun et dévergondé.
Frasquito descendit clopin-clopant un étage et, se retournant et
levant les yeux vers l’étage supérieur, il s’écria:
«Ingrate! ingrrr....»
Il lui fut impossible d’achever la parole commencée et une
violente contorsion dénota cette impossibilité. Il ne sortit plus de sa
bouche qu’un son âpre et désordonné, comme si une main invisible
l’avait étranglé. Tous les assistants virent son visage se décomposer
horriblement: les yeux lui sortaient de la tête et sa bouche tordue et
de travers rejoignait son oreille. Il battit l’air de ses bras, poussa un
dernier cri plein d’angoisse et tomba comme une masse. A la chute
de son corps tout l’escalier fut secoué de haut en bas.
On se mit à quatre personnes pour le remonter dans
l’appartement et porter secours à ce pauvre malheureux. Mais
Juliana l’ayant tâté s’écria sèchement:
«Il est plus mort que mon grand-père.»
ÉPILOGUE

Juliana était certainement le plus bel exemple des admirables


effets de la volonté humaine pour le gouvernement des plus grandes
comme des plus petites choses, dans les réunions d’êtres humains.
Femme n’ayant reçu aucune éducation première, sachant à peine
lire et écrire, elle avait reçu de la nature ce don très rare de savoir
organiser l’existence et régir toutes les actions d’une série de
personnes. Si une famille plus importante que celle des Zapata lui
était tombée dans les mains, dans les mêmes conditions, elle s’en
serait tirée tout aussi bien, elle aurait gouverné une île, un État, elle
aurait toujours monté, grandissant toujours. Dans la petite île de
doña Francisca elle établit d’une main ferme la régularité du
gouvernement et de la gestion financière et chacun marchait droit,
sans que personne osât enfreindre ses ordres irrévocables. Il faut
dire que, pour obtenir ce précieux résultat, elle avait recours au
gouvernement absolu dans toute sa force et qu’elle pratiquait le
régime de la terreur dans toute sa pureté. Son génie n’admettait pas
la plus timide observation, sa volonté faisait loi et le bâton était son
seul effort de logique.
Avec les caractères si faibles de la mère et des enfants, ce
régime réussissait à merveille; il avait déjà fait ses preuves avec
Antonio. Elle en était arrivée à une telle domination sur doña
Francisca que la pauvre veuve n’aurait pas osé dire un Pater noster
sans l’agrément de son dictateur et, lorsqu’elle allait pousser un
soupir, son regard se portait sur elle, semblant lui dire:
«N’est-ce pas que tu ne trouves pas mauvais que je pousse un
tout petit soupir?»
Juliana était obéie aveuglément en tout par sa belle-mère
excepté sur un point. Elle lui recommandait de secouer sa tristesse
et, quoique l’esclave répondît que oui, il était facile de voir que
l’ordre ne s’exécutait point. La veuve de Zapata abordait l’époque
prospère de son existence avec la tête affaiblie, les yeux morts, le
regard toujours vague, perdu dans le monde extérieur, le corps
avachi, se confinant chaque jour davantage dans l’indolence la plus
absolue, l’appétit nul, l’humeur taciturne, l’esprit fermé, les idées
noires.
Quinze jours à peine après l’installation de doña Francisca dans
la rue d’Orellana, la maîtresse de toutes choses décida que son
autorité serait plus forte et son pouvoir plus efficace si l’on demeurait
tous ensemble, général et subalternes. La translation eut lieu et
Juliana amena son humble mobilier, sa marmaille et elle-même;
mais, préalablement, il avait fallu mettre dehors les pots de fleurs et
les caisses de plantes et remercier Daniela, qui vraiment était un
luxe inutile. A ses fonctions de grand chancelier Juliana joignit celles
de femme de chambre et de peigneuse de sa belle-mère et de sa
belle-sœur. Ainsi tout se trouva réglé à la maison.
Mais, comme il n’y a point de félicité complète en ce monde,
dans le mois même ou à peu près du déménagement, marqué dans
les éphémérides zapatesques par la mort de don Frasquito Ponte
Delgado, Juliana commença à ressentir dans sa façon d’être une
altération fort extraordinaire. Elle, qui pour la luxuriante exubérance
de sa santé s’était toujours comparée elle-même à une mule, tomba
tout d’un coup dans un genre de souffrance absolument contraire à
sa nature parfaitement équilibrée. Qu’était-ce? Cela se traduisait par
des troubles nerveux et des atteintes d’hystérie, affection dont
Juliana s’était ressentie plus d’une fois déjà, l’attribuant à des
caprices de femme trop gâtée ou à des troubles imaginaires que la
tendresse d’un mari savait seule guérir.
Le mal de Juliana débuta par des insomnies absolument
rebelles. Elle se levait le matin sans avoir pu fermer l’œil de toute la
nuit. Peu de jours après, elle avait commencé à perdre l’appétit et,
enfin, à la perte de sommeil se joignirent promptement des
agitations et des terreurs extraordinaires dans l’obscurité et, de jour,
une mélancolie noire, pesante, funèbre. Ce qu’il y eut de pire pour la
famille, ce fut que ces malaises ne changèrent absolument rien aux
habitudes despotiques de la gouvernante et ne firent au contraire
que les aggraver. Antonio lui proposa de la conduire à la promenade
et elle l’envoya promener à tous les diables. Elle devint tout à fait
désagréable, mal embouchée, grossière et insupportable.
Enfin, ses monomanies hystériques se réduisirent à une seule,
l’idée que ses enfants ne se portaient point bien. L’apparence
extrêmement robuste des enfants ne servait à rien. Avec les
précautions extraordinaires qu’elle prit pour leur santé et les soins
multiples qu’elle leur prodiguait, elle les tourmentait incessamment et
elle n’arrivait qu’à les faire pleurer à tout propos. La nuit, elle sautait
à bas de son lit, assurant que les enfants avaient été assassinés et
nageaient dans le sang. S’ils toussaient, c’était qu’ils étaient prêts à
étouffer; s’ils mangeaient mal, ils étaient empoisonnés.
Un matin, elle sortit précipitamment avec son châle et sa mantille
et se rendit aux quartiers du sud, pour trouver Benina avec laquelle
elle voulait causer. Et elle marcha plusieurs heures avant de la
rencontrer, car elle ne passait point son temps à Santa-Casilda, mais
bien dehors dans les quartiers de la Carretera de Tolède, à main
gauche du pont. Elle la trouva enfin là, après l’avoir cherchée de
tous côtés au milieu de ces rues enchevêtrées. La vieille vivait avec
le Maure dans une petite maison qui avait l’air d’une cabane située
au sud des terrains qui dominent la Grand’Rue.
Almudena allait de mieux en mieux avec sa terrible maladie de
peau; mais son visage était encore couvert d’horribles pustules. Il ne
sortait pas de la maison et la pauvre vieille allait tous les matins
gagner sa vie en mendiant à San-Andres. Juliana ne fut pas peu
surprise de la voir en apparence de bonne santé et toujours gaie,
l’esprit serein et acceptant sans récrimination son sort.
«Je viens vous gronder, madame Benina, lui dit-elle en
s’asseyant sur un banc de pierre qui se trouvait contre la maison,
près d’une auge où la pauvre femme lavait son linge, tandis que le
vieil aveugle était assis assez loin à l’ombre. Oui, madame, parce
qu’il était convenu que vous viendriez prendre la desserte à la
maison et vous n’avez pas encore paru et nous n’avons plus vu
votre figure.
—Je vous dirai, madame Juliana, répliqua Nina, ce n’est pas
parce que je méprise votre offre, mais c’est parce que j’ai pu m’en
passer. J’ai les restes d’une autre maison, avec ce que je gagne,
cela me suffit, et vous pouvez bien en faire cadeau à un autre
pauvre, et, pour votre conscience, ce sera tout comme.... Que
voulez-vous savoir? Qui me donne à manger? Eh bien, je dois cette
aumône bénie à don Romualdo Cédron.... Je l’ai connu à San-
Andres, où il dit la messe.... Oui, madame: don Romualdo qui est un
saint, pour que vous le sachiez.... Et je suis sûre, après beaucoup de
réflexions, que ce n’est point le don Romualdo que j’avais inventé,
mais bien un autre qui ressemble au mien comme deux gouttes
d’eau. Souvent on invente une chose qui devient vérité le lendemain,
ou bien les vérités, avant d’être des vérités, commencent par être
des mensonges très grossiers.... Vous le savez peut-être?»
La piqueuse de bottines déclara qu’elle était enchantée de tout
ce qu’elle venait d’entendre et, étant donné que don Romualdo lui
venait en aide, doña Paca et elle donneraient les restes de la table à
d’autres malheureux.
«Mais j’avais autre chose à vous dire. Je suis votre débitrice,
Benina, car ma belle-mère, que je conduis avec un fil de soie, a
décidé de vous allouer une petite pension de deux réaux par jour....
Comme je ne vous ai pas vue nulle part, je n’ai pas pu régler avec
vous et voici quinze piécettes qui font le mois entier, madame
Benina.
—Cela, je l’accepte volontiers, oui, madame, cela n’est pas à
mépriser.... Ces piécettes me tombent du ciel, dit Nina toute joyeuse,
car j’ai une dette avec la Pitusa, rue du Mediodia-Grande, et je la
paye avec ce que je peux réunir et avec une piécette par douro
d’intérêt. Avec cela, j’aurai remboursé pas loin de la moitié. Des
coups de pierre de cette nature, que le Seigneur m’en envoie
chaque jour, madame Juliana. Vous savez, je vous suis très
reconnaissante: puisse le Seigneur vous le rendre en santé pour
vous, pour votre mari et pour vos enfants!»
Avec un flux de paroles abondantes, nerveuses et tant soit peu
hyperboliques, Juliana assura qu’elle n’avait plus de santé; qu’elle
souffrait d’un mal aussi étrange qu’incompréhensible. Mais elle le
supportait avec patience, sans se préoccuper en rien de cet état. Ce
qui l’inquiétait, ce qui faisait de son existence un atroce supplice,
c’était la peur que ses enfants tombassent malades. Ce n’était point
seulement une idée ou une crainte; elle était sûre que si Antonio et
Paquito tombaient malades..., ils mourraient infailliblement.
Benina chercha à lui enlever de la tête pareilles idées, mais
l’autre ne se laissa point convaincre et, la quittant brusquement, elle
reprit le chemin de Madrid. Grande fut la surprise de Benina et du
Maure de la voir apparaître le lendemain matin, de très bonne heure,
agitée, tremblante, les yeux brillants. Le dialogue fut bref, mais
rempli de matière psychologique.
«Qu’as-tu, Juliana, lui demanda Benina la tutoyant pour la
première fois.
—Que veux-tu que j’aie? si ce n’est la peur de la mort de mes
enfants.
—Ah! mon Dieu, ils sont malades?
—Oui, c’est-à-dire, non: ils sont bien. Mais je suis tourmentée par
l’idée qu’ils vont mourir.... Ah! Nina de mon âme, je ne puis chasser
cette idée. Je ne fais que pleurer, et encore pleurer, vous le voyez....
—Oui, je le vois bien. Mais, si ce n’est qu’une idée, il faut te l’ôter
de la tête, femme.
—Je viens pour ceci encore, madame Benina, parce que cette
nuit il m’est venu l’idée que vous seule pouviez me guérir.
—Et comment?
—En me persuadant que je ne dois point me figurer que mes
petits peuvent mourir..., en m’ordonnant de le croire.
—Moi?
—Si vous me l’affirmez, je le croirai et je me guérirai de cette
maudite préoccupation..., parce que..., je le dis franchement, je suis
mauvaise, je suis une pauvre pécheresse....
—Eh bien, alors, Juliana, c’est chose facile de te guérir. Je
t’affirme que tes enfants ne vont pas mourir, que tes enfants sont
sains et robustes.
—Voyez.... La joie que j’éprouve m’est une certitude que vous
savez ce que vous dites.... Nina, Nina, vous êtes une sainte.
—Je ne suis pas une sainte. Mais tes enfants sont bien et ne
souffrent d’aucun mal.... Ne pleure pas... va-t’en chez toi, et ne
pèche plus.
FIN
41 894.—Paris, Imprimerie Lahure, rue de Fleurus, 9.
NOTES

[1] Doña Perfecta, l’Ami Manso, Marianela.

[2] Mot espagnol intraduisible; c’est quelque chose comme


«snob».
[3] Ce personnage apparaît dans le roman du même
auteur: Fortunata y Jacinta.
Au lecteur

Cette version numérisée reproduit dans


son intégralité la version originale. Les
erreurs manifestes de typographie ont été
corrigées.
La ponctuation a pu faire l'objet de
quelques corrections mineures.
La couverture est illustrée par une
œuvre de Henry Monnier. Elle appartient
au domaine public.
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