JURISPRUDENCE EXAM REVIEWER

1. A client requires chemotherapy and radiation. The client agrees to the treatment on
the condition that he receives constant nursing support due to his anxiety. What
should the nurse do?
a. Work within the normal staffing parameters.
b. Suggest the client consider hiring a private nurse.
c. Provide the extra care requested by the client.
d. Advocate for effective care for the client. *
2. According to the CNO Practice Standard: Professional Standards Revised 2002, which
one of the following descriptions best reflects the Standard Statement related to
‘Accountability’?
a. All nurses are accountable to their clients, their employer and themselves.
b. Each nurse is accountable for providing, facilitating and promoting the best
possible care to the public.
c. Each nurse is accountable to the public and responsible for meeting legislative
requirements and the standards of the profession. *
d. All nurses are accountable for possessing, through continuing learning,
knowledge relevant to practice.
3. What must be included for consent to be considered informed?
a. Information the physician determines the client should know.
b. The composition of the health care team.
c. The exact length of time to recover from treatment.
d. Alternative courses of action instead of the proposed treatment. *
4. According to the CNO Practice Standard: Professional Standards, Revised 2002, what
is included in the Standard Statement related to ‘Relationships’?
a. Caring and compassionate.
b. Collegial and knowledgeable.
c. Supportive and comprehensive.
d. Therapeutic and professional. *
5. What is one part of the definition of ‘professional misconduct’ as defined by the
Health Professions Procedural Code?
a. Guilty of an offence relevant to the member’s suitability to practice. *
b. Has a physical condition limiting practice.
c. Guilty of a criminal offence under Ontario Law.
d. Has a mental illness that limits the member’s suitability to practice safely.
6. Which one of the following statements describes the Ethical Value related to
‘Privacy and Confidentiality’, as outlined in the CNO Practice Standard: Ethics?
a. Maintaining client well-being.
b. Using a framework to determine ethical uncertainty.
c. Supporting informed decision-making for clients.
d. Collecting only information necessary for providing health care. *
7. The physician asks a nurse to perform a wound dressing change for a 15-year-old
under the nurse’s care. Is consent needed?
a. No, because routine treatment does not require consent.
b. Yes, because of the age of the client.
c. No, because the treatment was ordered by the physician.
d. Yes, because consent is required for any treatment. *
8. According to the CNO Practice Standard: Ethics, which of the following statements
best describes the Ethical Value related to ‘Privacy and confidentiality’?
a. Ethical problems are identified and solved by nurses using sensitivity, intellectual
curiosity and commitment.
b. Nurses must understand the organization’s perspective of privacy and
confidentiality prior to sharing information.
c. Clients need to be informed that their relevant health information will be
shared with the health care team. *
d. Important aspects of privacy and confidentiality need to be identified by clients’
families.
9. Which of the following examples reflects one of the three controlled acts that all
nurses are authorized to perform according to the Nursing Act, 1991?
a. Communicating to an individual a diagnosis based on laboratory results.
b. Managing labour or conducting the delivery of a baby.
c. Putting an instrument, hand or finger into an artificial opening in the body. *
d. Moving the joints of the spine beyond the client’s usual range of motion.
10. A client situation arises that may present an ethical issue. What is the first thing the
nurse must do?
a. Review the employer’s policies and procedures.
b. Discuss the issue with the health care team.
c. Determine the client’s wishes. *
d. Consult the supervisor.
11. Which one of the following health care providers is appropriately using the
authorizing mechanism of ‘initiation’?
a. An RN who establishes peripheral venous access in an emergency situation. *
b. An RPN who cleanses, soaks, probes and packs a wound below the dermis.
c. A PSW who discontinues an intravenous site.
d. An RN who performs an elective cardioversion.
12. A nurse is advocating for a group of clients to obtain government subsidies for
adequate nutrition. According to the CNO Practice Standard: Professional Standards,
Revised 2002, which one of the following Standard Statements best describes the
nurse’s actions?
a. Relationships.
b. Accountability. *
c. Knowledge.
d. Leadership.
13. A physician gives a nurse a telephone directive to catheterize the physician’s
admitted clients. Why should the nurse refuse to follow this directive?
a. Direct orders must be always written for any procedure and treatment.
b. Nurses can initiate catheterization on in-patients without a directive.
c. Directives must always be written and signed by the physician or NP. *
d. Nurses must always have the act of catheterization delegated.
14. What is the purpose of ‘mandatory reporting’ to CNO?
a. To update CNO regarding address changes.
b. To protect nursing colleagues.
c. To notify CNO of unsafe nursing practice. *
d. To enforce limitations on nurses’ practices.
15. A client expresses a wish to die at home. The nurses’ discusses the client’s
expectations and negotiates a plan of care involving all relevant parties. According to
the CNO Practice Standard: Therapeutic Nurse-client relationship, Revised 2006,
which Standard Statement does this demonstrate?
a. Therapeutic Communication.
b. Maintaining boundaries.
c. Client-centered care. *
d. Maintaining a Quality Practice setting.
16. Which of the following nursing practices demonstrates client choice?
a. Providing the client with the necessary information for informed decision-
making. *
b. Exploring the wishes of the health care team regarding client care.
c. Encouraging the client to choose a specific treatment option.
 d. Having a substitute decision-maker appointed for incapable clients.
17. A nurse disagrees with the client’s decision to terminate a pregnancy for genetic
reasons and wishes to discontinue nursing care. What should the nurse do first?
a. Discuss changing the client’s plan of care with the health care team.
b. Attempt to convince the client’s family that there are other options.
c. Consult with a nursing colleague to clarify the nurse’s own values. *
d. Report the plan of care to the Ethics Review Committee.
18. Which one pf the following options is an example of an ‘authorizing mechanism’?
a. Standing order.
b. Delegation. *
c. Practice guideline.
d. Advance directive.
19. Which one of the following conditions must be met prior to a nurse ‘initiating’ a
controlled act authorized to nurses?
a. There is a directive for the nurse to perform the procedure.
b. The nurse has determined the client’s condition warrants performance of the
procedure. *
c. A mechanism exists to support delegation of the procedure.
d. There is a physician’s order for the procedure.
20. Which one of the following statements is true?
a. The Regulated Health Professions Act, 1991 is applicable to all health care
providers.
b. The Nursing Act, 1991 regulates nursing practice; however, the Regulated health
Professions Act, 1991 does not.
c. The Regulated Health Professions Act, 1991 does not have provisions that are
relevant to nursing students.
d. The Regulated Health Professions Act, 1991 and the Nursing Act, 1991 both
regulate the nursing profession. *
21. Which one of the following actions by a nurse demonstrates unequal power in the
nurse-client relationship?
a. Administering an antibiotic as ordered.
b. Assisting the client with personal care.
c. Informing a client of a toileting schedule. *
d. Expressing empathy for a client.
22. The nurse has a client who does not speak or understand English or French. Family
members, acting as interpreters, have stated that the client would not want to know
his prognosis. What is the nurse’s responsibility in this situation?
a. Respect the wishes of family and do not disclose this information.
b. Encourage the family members to reconsider their situation.
c. Involve a non family member as an interpreter to confirm the client’s wishes. *
d. Consult with the client’s physician.

23. What is one of the reasons why nurses document?

a. To allow clients to monitor their progress.
b. To prevent ethical dilemmas.
c. To promote continuity of care. *
d. To meet the need of organizational policies.
24. What should a nurse do first when observing another nurse abusing a client?
a. Stop the colleague’s behavior. *
b. Speak to the colleague’s supervisor.
c. Report the matter to CNO.
d. Document the observed behavior.
25. A 7-year old boy is admitted to the emergency department with a compound
fracture of the arm. His parents are not reachable. Is consent required to initiate
treatment?
a. No, because this is an emergency situation. *
b. No, because the nurse must act as a client advocate.
c. Yes, because the parents must provide consent.
d. Yes, because the child is a minor.
26. A client returns from the operating room with a chest tube. The client’s nurse has
recently been assigned to the unit from another department and does not feel
competent to manage this client’s care needs. The nurse seeks assistance from
another nurse immediately. Which one of the following statements from the CNO
Practice Standard: Professional Standard, Revised 2002, has the nurse
demonstrated?
a. Continuing competence.
b. Leadership.
c. Ethics.
d. Accountability. *
27. What is an example of abusive behaviour in the context of therapeutic nurse-client
relationship?
a. A male nurse has been assigned to a client who is uncomfortable with him.
b. A client has accused a nurse of stealing some of her personal belongings.
c. A confused client uses racial slurs when addressing the nurse.
d. A nurse addresses a client in a demeaning manner. *
28. In which of the following situations can a nurse accept and perform a delegated
task?
a. When any emergency situation occurs.
b. When an authorizing mechanism is in place.
c. When the activity is not a controlled act.
d. When the nurse has the necessary certification. *
29. According to the CNO Practice Standard: Documentation, Revised 2008, which one
of the following statements best demonstrates appropriate documentation?
a. “Client admitted via stretcher”.
b. “Client states that his roommate had his ‘girlfriend in overnight’.”
c. “Client states his pain is a ‘1 out of 10’.” *
d. “Client is non-adherent to treatment.”
30. Which of the following examples represents sexual abuse as defined by the Health
Professions Procedural Code?
a. A 12-year old client with suspected vaginal trauma.
b. Consensual sexual relations between a nurse and a client. *
c. A female client who discloses unwanted sexual relations with a partner.
d. Unwanted sexual relations between a nurse and a colleague.
31. What is included in the mandatory requirements for nurses who are randomly
selected to participate in CNO’s Quality Assurance Program?
a. Peer assessment. *
b. Client assessment.
c. Health assessment.
d. Workplace assessment.
32. The Consent and capacity Board has found Mr. Silva incapable of making decisions.
His nephew, who is his substitute decision-maker, has given consent to start the
application for placement in long-term care. Mr. Silva wishes to stay in his home.
According to the Health Care Consent Act, 1996, which one of the following
statements is true?
a. Mr. Silva’s nephew has the authority to make the placement decision. *
b. Mr. Silva’s consent overrides that of his nephew because they are in
disagreement.
 c. Mr. Silva can refuse to leave his home and arrange his own support system
through the Community Care Access Centre.
d. Mr. Silva’s physician has the ability to override the finding of incapacity.
33. What statement best articulates the overall responsibility for all nurses to practice in
accordance with CNO’s standards of practice?
a. Nurses must participate in CNO’s Quality Assurance Program including creating
an annual Learning Plan and obtaining peer input.
b. Nurses must remit their annual registration fee in a timely manner to maintain
their registration.
c. Nurses are responsible for reporting colleagues who are practicing nursing in a
manner inconsistent with professional standards.
d. Nurses will practice in accordance with the standards of the Profession and will
keep current and competent throughout their nursing careers. *
34. Which one of the following statements is a key element of informed consent
according to the CNO Practice Guideline: Consent?
a. Age of consent.
b. Power of attorney of personal care.
c. The common law.
d. Alternative courses of action. *
35. According to the CNO Practice Standard: Documentation, Revised 2008, what is one
of the CNO Standard Statements that describes a nurse’s accountability when
documenting?
a. Assessment.
b. Professional Practice.
c. Goal orientation.
d. Communication. *
36. How does professional misconduct relate to CNO’s practice standards?
a. Failure to meet any of the practice standards may be considered professional
misconduct. *
b. Professional misconduct is only addressed in the CNO Practice standard:
Professional standards, Revised 2002.
c. Professional misconduct is only addressed in the CNO Practice standard:
Therapeutic Nurse-Client Relationship, Revised 2006.
d. Failure to comply with CNO Practice standards is illegal and therefore is
considered professional misconduct.
37. Which one of the following individuals can delegate a controlled act to a nurse?
a. Paramedic.
b. Dentist. *
c. Physician’s assistant.
d. Diagnostic Sonographer.
38. Which one of the following situations would represent a concern about exceeding
the boundaries of the therapeutic nurse-client relationship?
a. A nurse introduces herself or himself to the client by name and professional
designation.
b. A nurse reveals to the health care team a secret shared by the client that is
relevant to the plan of care.
c. A client asks the nurse to address him by his middle name because that is what
all his friends call him. *
d. A client is willing to speak only with his primary nurse and refuses to speak with
other nurses.
39. A nurse is asked to perform debridement on a chronic wound. What is the first thing
the nurse should do?
a. Assess her or his related knowledge and skill. *
b. Review the employer’s policy and the relevant legislation.
c. Proceed with the debridement as requested and document.
d. Decline to perform the procedure and inform the manager.
40. Sue, a nurse, has arrived home at the end of a long shift and realizes that she forgot
to sign for a medication. Sue calls the unit and asks a colleague to “sign my name on
the record”. The colleague refuses. What is the rationale for his refusal to sign?
a. A colleague may be terminated if he complies and his actions are discovered.
b. It is Sue’s responsibility to return to work immediately and sign the record.
c. Failure to sign for a medication is an error that must be reported to the manager.
d. Falsifying a record is an example of professional misconduct. *
41. According to the CNO Practice Standard: Therapeutic Nurse-Client relationship,
Revised 2006, which one of the following standard Statements best describes the
nurse’s accountability?
a. Competence. *
b. Maintaining boundaries.
c. Security.
d. Self Disclosure.
42. Are nurse administrators accountable to practice in accordance with all CNO
standards of practice?
a. Yes, because all nurses are accountable to the standards of practice regardless
of role. *
b. No, because the nurse is an administrator, therefore, only the CNO Practice
Standard: Professional Standards, Revised 2002 applies.
c. No, because the standards of practice only apply to nurses working in direct
client care.
d. Yes, because only nurse administrators are accountable to the CNO Practice
Standard: Professional Standards, Revised 2002 in addition to the other
Standards.
43. A nurse is asked by a client’s employer for information on the client’s prognosis.
What information, if any, can the nurse disclose?
a. The client’s diagnosis, but not the prognosis.
b. All the information if the diagnosis is employer-related.
c. No information without consent from the client. *
d. The client’s prognosis, but not the diagnosis.
44. Who may determine capacity for the purpose of the Substitute Decisions Act, 1992?
a. A trained capacity assessor. *
b. Any physician or social worker.
c. The client’s substitute decision-maker.
d. The office of the Public Guardian and Trustee.
45. A nurse is providing care for a client in the client’s home. After the nurse provides
treatment, the client invites the nurse out for a coffee. How should the nurse
respond?
a. Decline the offer and clarify the nurse’s role in the nurse-client relationship. *
b. Accept the offer as it would be beneficial to further develop the nurse-client
relationship.
c. Decline the offer and promptly leave the client’s home.
d. Agree to meet the client for coffee, but only to discuss the therapeutic care plan.
46. A nurse is overheard saying “Your breasts looks great in that shirt” to a client. The
client smiles and walk away. Is this sexual abuse?
a. No, because sexual contact is not made.
b. No, because the client did not object.
c. Yes, because the comment was of a sexual nature. *
d. Yes, because any unwelcome remark is a form of sexual abuse.
47. Consistent with the Health care Consent Act, 1996, when is a nurse required to
obtain consent for treatment?
a. Providing nursing services to an ill 8-year-old in a community health centre. *
b. Administering blood products to a hemorrhaging client in the operating room.
c. Performing CPR on an individual who has been found unconscious on the street.
d. Treating an unconscious client with a head injury in the emergency room.
48. What is the legislation related to the CNO Practice Standards; Restraints?
a. Health care Consent Act, 1996.
b. Patient Restraints Minimization Act, 2001. *
c. Occupational Health and safety Act, 1990.
d. Health Protection and Promotion Act, 1990.
49. Which one of the following circumstances is mandatory for nurses to self-report to
CNO?
a. Pardoned criminal offences. *
b. Communicable diseases.
c. Work-related discipline.
d. Frequent medication errors.

50. What is one purpose of Nursing Documentation?

a. To limit involvement to legal proceedings.
b. To record every care event experienced by the client.
c. To communicate interventions in care to the health care team. *
d. To protect the practice of colleagues.
51. A nurse has recently relocated and changed employers. What is the nurse’s
responsibility to CNO?
a. Report address changes to CNO when renewing the nurse’s annual
membership.*
b. Advise the nurse’s new employer to fax all changes to CNO.
c. Immediately update any changes to the nurse’s employer or home address with
CNO.
d. Re-register and submit the new information to CNO.
52. A 79-year-old mentally competent client is at high risk for falls. The nurse
recommends the use of a cane or a walker, but the client refuses. What should the
nurse do first?
a. Explore other options with the client that may be acceptable. *
b. Request that the physician speak to the client.
c. Call the client’s substitute decision-maker to discuss the matter.
d. Refer the client to a physiotherapist for assessment.
53. What is CNO’s david?
a. To develop practice standards.
b. To protect the public interest. *
c. To provide a disciplinary body available to the public.
d. To create entry-to-practice requirements in Ontario.
54. Which one of the following statements represents a component of therapeutic
communication used by nurses?
a. Using terms of endearment when addressing client.
b. Speaking slowly and loudly to all clients to assure they hear and understand.
c. Modifying their communication style for each client. *
d. Sharing personal information with clients in order to establish trust and a feeling
of intimacy.
55. What is the key piece of legislation that protects the client’s confidentiality?
a. Personal Health Information Protection Act, 2004. *
b. Quality of Care Information Protection Act.
c. Regulated Health Professions Act, 1991.
d. Health Care Consent Act, 1996.

56. Which one of the following statements is considered to be a ‘directive’?

a. A written physician’s order that may be used for a number of clients. *
b. A client-specific order that is either written or oral.
c. A procedure that is authorized to be performed by a nurse with the appropriate
education.
d. A procedure that is initiated by the nurse in the absence of a direct order.
57. What are three components to the scope of practice statement of the Nursing Act,
1991?
a. Promotion, assessment, and treatment. *
b. Provision, rehabilitation, and care.
c. Initiation, delegation, and self reflection.
d. Legislation, regulation, and ethics.
58. A nurse wishes to control a client’s violent bahaviour. What should the nurse do?
a. Consider the use of restraints only as a last resort. *
b. Administer a chemical restraint.
c. Apply a jacket restraint to protect the client.
d. Lock the client in a room for everyone’s safety.
59. According to the CNO Practice Standard: Confidentiality and Privacy – Personal
Health Information, what is the ‘lockbox provision’?
a. A client instructs that a part of his or her personal health information is not
shared with other providers. *
b. Personal health information is physically secured in a locked area.
c. A client is not permitted to access a portion of his or her personal health
information.
d. A nurse is responsible for ensuring that she or he uses client information only for
the purposes for which it was collected.
60. An RN notes a change in a client’s wound and seeks advice from the only other nurse
working during the shift, an RPN. The RN is later told by another nursing colleague
that this was inappropriate. Should the RN have sought advice from the RPN.
a. Yes, because there were no other nurses available.
b. Yes, because all nurses are expected to collaborate. *
c. No, because RPNs cannot provide care below the dermis.
d. No, because RPNs should not provide advice to RNs.
61. Which one of the following situations requires a nurse to make a mandatory report
to CNO?
a. Accidentally sticking herself or himself with a used needle.
b. Observing a nursing colleague kissing a client. *
c. Learning that a nursing colleague is under investigation for theft.
d. Observing a nursing colleague is supposedly on sick leave.
62. Under which one of the following situations should a nurse collaborate and consult
with other health professionals?
a. When the nurse has the expertise to manage the situation.
b. When the situation demands expertise that is beyond her or his competence. *
c. When it has been determined that the nurse is the appropriate care provider.
d. When the client’s needs and outcomes are stable and predictable.
63. According to the CNO Practice Standard: Ethics, what is the component of the
definition of the Ethical Value of ‘Truthfulness’?
a. Speaking or acting without intending to deceive. *
b. Providing empathic and knowledgeable care.
c. Omitting information at the request of the client’s family.
d. Communicating the nurse’s own values to the client.
64. Barb and John are nurses. Barb tells John that CNO is investigating a complaint
against her regarding a medication error and she is concerned about the outcome.
How should John respond?
a. Advise Barb to seek a lawyer because she may have to pay a disciplinary fine.
 b. Inform Barb that she should not worry because the nursing union will protect her
from discipline.
c. Remind Barb that CNO investigates all complaints in order to protect the
public.*
d. Reassure Barb that CNO never takes action against nurses for medication errors.
65. According to the CNO Practice Standard: Professional Standards, Revised 2002, what
is the purpose of the seven Standard Statements?
a. They define the scope of practice for RNs, RPNs, and NPs.
b. They list the specific knowledge, skills, judgment, and attitudes that nurses must
demonstrate at all times.
c. They outline the nurse’s responsibility within the Public Hospital Act.
d. They describe, in broad terms, the professional expectations of nurses. *
66. What is the definition of ‘self-regulation’ as it applies to CNO?
a. Every member is responsible for practicing safely in accordance with the
Regulated Health Professions Act, 1991.
b. CNO is responsible to confirm with employers that nurses are completing their
self-regulation requirements.
c. CNO is responsible for ensuring that nurses are working within their scope of
practice and in collaboration with other health care professionals.
d. Every member is responsible for practicing in accordance with the standards of
the profession and keeping current and competent throughout their career. *
67. Which one of the following examples always reflects establishing and maintaining
appropriate boundaries in the therapeutic nurse-client relationship?
a. Providing care to the nurse’s relatives or friends.
b. Disclosing the nurse’s personal information to clients.
c. Engaging in financial transactions with the client or the client’s family.
d. Documenting consultation with a colleague about a questionable client
interaction. *
68. A nurse has relocated to Ontario from Florida, USA. Which one of the following facts
is the nurse obligated to report to CNO?
a. Contact information for the nurse’s most recent employer in Florida.
b. The nurse’s score on the Florida state board licensing examination.
c. The nurse has been disciplined by the Florida state nursing regulatory body. *
d. The termination of the nurse’s employment by a previous Florida employer.
69. An RPN assesses that a client in the home requires routine urinary catheterization.
We must be considered prior to initiation?
a. Determining whether the family physician would approve the order.
b. Identifying the risks and benefits of the procedure. *
 c. Reviewing the health record to determine the effectiveness of the previous
treatment.
d. Consulting with a colleague about the procedure.
70. A nurse is caring for a client on life support. The client’s estranged spouse, who is
the client’s power of attorney for personal care, visits on a regular basis. The nurse
has become attracted to the client’s spouse and has been invited to the spouse’s
home for dinner. What demonstrates protecting the client from abuse?
a. Requesting permission from the nurse’s manager before accepting the invitation.
b. Declining the invitation to the spouse’s home. *
c. Requesting to be reassigned to a different client before accepting the invitation.
d. Agreeing to meet the spouse in public locations only.
71. A nurse may disclose personal health information without consent in which one of
the following situations?
a. The police request information about a client’s progress.
b. An interpreter is being used to interview the client.
c. An adult client has been sexually assaulted.
d. The client poses a serious risk of injuring others. *
72. What controlled act is a nurse authorized to perform, when ordered, as found in the
Nursing Act, 1991?
a. Putting an instrument beyond the external ear canal. *
b. Managing labour.
c. Conducting an allergy challenge test.
d. Supervising the dispensing of a drug in a pharmacy.
73. According to the CNO Standard Practice: Professional Standards, Revised 2002, what
is one element of ‘Accountability’?
a. Nurses are accountable for the decisions or actions of unregulated care
providers.
b. Nurses are accountable for explaining all treatments proposed by the health care
team.
c. Nurses are accountable for their actions and their consequences. *
d. Nurses are accountable for reporting all errors to CNO.
74. After receiving the necessary information, a client makes an informed choice to stop
all treatments. The client, his family and nurse understand that the client will not
live without treatment. The client’s family wants the client to continue with his
treatment and the nurse agrees. With respect to ‘Client Choice’, how should the
nurse proceed?
a. Respect the family’s wishes and continue treatment for the client.
b. Arrange for another caregiver and then withdraw from the situation.
 c. Inform the client that the treatment will continue and in a few days he will
have a capacity assessment. *
d. Recognize that the client does not have the right to refuse treatment that has
positive health outcomes.
75. When sharing health information, in which one of the following scenarios is a nurse
best demonstrating confidentiality?
a. Discussion with the client’s family in private, without informing the client.
b. Discussion with the client’s employer, with the client’s permission. *
c. Discussion with any health care provider, without informing the client.
d. Discussion with the client in the public area, with the client’s permission.
76. A nurse witnesses another nurse taking a client’s personal items from the client’s
room. What is the first action the nurse should take?
a. Report it to CNO immediately.
b. Discuss the matter with the health care team.
c. Speak to the nurse regarding the matter. *
d. Inform the client of what was observed.
77. A nurse witnesses another regulated health professional making a sexual comment
to a client. To whom does the nurse have a ‘legal responsibility’ to report this
individual?
a. The holder of the client’s power of attorney for personal care.
b. The other members of the health care team.
c. The manager of the health care team member. *
d. The regulatory college of the health care team member.
78. What is one activity that all nurses should engage in to provide quality care to clients
in regard to the use of restraints?
a. Advocating for medication therapy.
b. Adjusting staffing levels.
c. Isolating agitated clients in a private space.
d. Collaborating with the health care team. *
79. What must nurses reflect upon when determining whether they are competent to
provide safe nursing care to clients?
a. Legislation, policies, and procedures.
b. Environment, staffing levels, and equipment.
c. Knowledge, skill, and judgment. *
d. Education, experience, and specialization.
80. Which one of the following statements best describes the ‘client’ in the context of
the therapeutic nurse-client relationship?
a. An individual, family, group or community. *
b. An individual who receives direct care.
c. An individual requiring therapeutic nursing interventions.
d. An individual or group, other than health care providers, who receive treatment.
81. What organization regulates nurses in Ontario?
a. College of Nurses of Ontario. *
b. Registered Nurses Association of Ontario.
c. Ontario Nurse Association.
d. Canadian Nurses Association.
82. Every time the nurse begins work on the afternoon shift, she finds that most of the
clients’ incontinence briefs are saturated. After providing care for the clients, what
should the nurse do?
a. Advocate for superior incontinence products.
b. Communicate her concerns to the day staff. *
c. Ask the nursing educator to each the day staff how to meet clients’ basic needs.
d. Intervene by reporting the incidents to the manager.
83. What are the components of the therapeutic nurse-client relationship?
a. Respect, trust, professional intimacy, empathy, and power. *
b. Communication, cultural sensitivity, understanding, advocacy, and
professionalism.
c. Empowerment, compassion, tolerance, autonomy, and cooperation.
d. Fairness, acceptance, sympathy, accountability, and collaboration.
84. What is one nursing responsibility when deciding whether to use restraints?
a. Following the physician’s order.
b. Using the restraint that is least restrictive to the client. *
c. Following the family’s instructions.
d. Using the restraint last applied to the client.
85. What is one of the four key regulatory functions of CNO?
a. Promote the profession of nursing.
b. Establish requirements for entry to practice. *
c. Advocate for changes in institutional policies.
d. Develop nursing educational programs.
86. Which one of the following statutes is relevant to the practice of nursing in Ontario?
a. Pharmacy Act, 1991.
b. Public Hospitals Act.
c. Medicine Act. *
 d. Midwifery Act.
87. A nurse is caring for an 87-year-old male resident of a long-term care facility. The
client has a history of Parkinson’s disease, requiring assistance with all activities of
daily living. He has now developed aspiration pneumonia. Transfer to acute care has
been ordered; however, the client does not wish to go. How should consent for
treatment be obtained?
a. From one of the client’s family members.
b. From the substitute decision-maker.
c. From the client. *
d. From the Consent and Capacity Board.
88. A 14-year-old girl presents at the birth control center requesting the oral
contraceptive pill. She has a boyfriend, but has not yet had sex. How can the RN
provide client-centered care?
a. Discuss continued abstinence as the best method of birth control.
b. Explore sexuality and birth control methods with the client. *
c. Refer the client to her primary care provider for a prescription.
d. Ask the client to bring her boyfriend to her next appointment.
89. Gladys has decided to resume nursing practice after resigning from the profession to
raise a family. After an interview, she was successful in obtaining a position at a local
long-term facility. Can Gladys begin working as a nurse?
a. Yes, because Gladys was previously registered with CNO.
b. No, because Gladys must first complete a geriatric education program.
c. Yes, because the long-term care facility assessed her competence.
d. No, because Gladys requires current registration with CNO. *
90. What information from each member is required to be made public on the CNO
register?
a. Full name, business address, and business telephone number.
b. Last name and all current and previous employers.
c. Full name and school from which she or he graduated.
d. Last name and initial, home address, and home telephone number. *
91. According to the CNO Practice Standard: Professional Standards, Revised 2002, what
are the differences in knowledge between RNs and RPNs?
a. RNs can perform more controlled acts than RPNs.
b. RNs and RPNs study from the same body of knowledge, but with different
depths and breadths. *
c. RPNs do not have to engage in continuing learning as frequently as RNs.
d. RNs have a knowledge base in resource management and health care delivery
systems which RPNs do not possess.
92. What is the purpose of mandatory reporting?
a. To protect the employer from nurses who might be practicing unsafely.
b. To ensure that an incapacitated nurse with a disorder receives appropriate
treatment to allow safe return to nursing practice.
c. To impose appropriate disciplinary measures upon a nurse who has committed
professional misconduct or sexual abuse.
d. To allow CNO to take action to protect the public and use innovative
approaches to help rehabilitate the nurse. *
93. According to the CNO Practice Standard: Therapeutic nurse-client relationship,
Revised 2006, what is the definition of ‘Client’?
a. A client must be viewed as a whole person.
b. A client may be an individual, family, group or community. *
c. A client must be an autonomous, active participant in care.
d. A client may be a spouse, partner, child, sibling or friend.
94. David is a nurse who works for a nursing agency. He is assigned to work with a client
who requires regular suctioning. David is not competent in this skill and does not
communicate this fact to his supervisor. He completes all other care the client
requires but does not suction the client. Later in the day, the client goes into
respiratory distress and requires transfer to acute care. This may be a behaviour that
could be considered professional misconduct based on which of the following
documents?
a. Nursing Act, 1991, Ontario Regulation 799/93. *
b. The CNO Practice Standard: Documentation, Revised 2008.
c. The CNO Practice Guideline: Guiding Decisions About End of Life Care, 2009.
d. Regulated Health Professions Act, 1991.
95. In which one of the following situations can a nurse perform a controlled act?
a. A pharmacist writes an order for a new injectable medication.
b. A nurse performs wound packing below the mucous membrane for a client’s
family member.
c. A nurse disimpacts a client, knowing that the physician will write the order
during daily rounds.
d. A dentist writes an order for the nurse to start a pre-procedural IV. *
96. A nurse is obtaining consent from a client for treatment. The nurse describes the
information about the treatment required to make a decision. What else must the
nurse do to provide informed consent?
a. Ensure that the client is of the minimum age to give consent.
b. Provide the client with written information.
c. Respond to the client’s questions regarding the treatment. *
 d. Obtain a signature from the client.
97. A RN case manager visits a client in the community whose needs are becoming more
complex. According to the CNO Practice Guideline: RN and RPN Practice: The Client,
the Nurse and the Environment, what is one factor that the case manager must
consider when determining the appropriate category of care provider?
a. Leadership. *
b. Equipment.
c. Cost.
d. Environment.
98. A nurse document all the care provided during the workday at the end of the shift.
Which documentation standard has the nurse breached?
a. Care must be documented immediately after it occurs. *
b. Documentation must be relevant to client care.
c. Documentation must be comprehensive.
d. Care must be documented in a timely manner.
99. Which of the following Standard Statements is from the CNO Practice Standard:
Therapeutic Nurse-Client Relationship, Revised 2006?
a. Maintaining Commitments to Clients.
b. Potential for Harm.
c. Client Well-Being.
d. Client-Centered Care. *
100. According to the CNO Practice Standard: Ethics, which one of the following terms
represents an Ethical Value related to client choice?
a. Self-esteem.
b. Self-worth.
c. Self-respect.
d. Self-determination. *
101. Why are nurses expected to collaborate or consult with each other?
a. To benefit the client. *
b. To ensure accountability.
c. To increase the nurses’ autonomy.
d. To increase collegiality.
102. What is the key element of informed consent?
a. It is required before providing emergency care.
b. A substitute decision-maker must provide consent if the client is under 16 years
of age.
c. It can only be obtained by the health care professional providing the care.
 d. The client receives responses to requests for additional information about
treatment. *
103. A client complaint has been made in regard to a personal support worker (PSW).
The employer contacts CNO to report the complaint. Was contacting CNO
appropriate?
a. Yes, because PSWs work under the supervision of nurses.
b. Yes, because CNO regulates practice of health care providers.
c. No, because the employer should have conducted an investigation first.
d. No, because CNO is not responsible for regulating PSWs. *
104. A nurse working in a cancer care center encounters many competent clients who
refuse further treatment. The nurse disagrees with the clients’ decision and believes
she cannot continue to provide care. What should the nurse consider?
a. Arranging for capacity assessments of the clients before discontinuing
treatment. *
b. Continuing to provide treatment until consulting with the clients’ families.
c. Resigning from her place of employment to adhere to her personal values.
d. Encouraging the clients to continue with their current treatment plans.
105. What is a condition associated with the appropriate delegation of controlled acts
to unregulated care providers (UCPs)?
a. Competence has been determined. *
b. It is part of their scope of practice.
c. It is an expectation of the employer.
d. Client teaching is a part of the care.
106. According to the CNO Practice Standard: Professional Standards, Revised 2002,
which actions by a nurse best describe the Standard Statement ‘Knowledge
Application’?
a. Receiving a report from another nurse and proceeding to prepare medications.
b. Taking vital signs and recording the findings in the client’s chart.
c. Recognizing that a client is exhibiting the symptoms of a stroke and taking
appropriate action. *
d. Providing a client’s grieving family member with information for support groups
and documenting the actions taken.
107. What is one part of the Self-Assessment component of CNO’s Quality Assurance
Program?
a. Practice Evaluation.
b. Practice Reflection. *
c. Practice Assessment.
d. Practice Consultation.
108. A nurse, who works with street youth, intentionally reveals her breast tattoo to a
group of clients. Another nursing colleague witnesses this action. Is the colleague
required to report this behaviour to CNO?
a. No, only professional misconduct must be reported.
b. Yes, sexual abuse must be reported. *
c. No, this is only considered a frivolous complaint.
d. Yes, but only the client must report the event.
109. A client has been deemed incapable of making her own decisions and has no
family. Whom should the nurse contact for decision-making and consent for
treatment?
a. The most responsible physician.
b. The client’s social worker.
c. The Office of the Public Guardian and Trustee. *
d. The client’s closest friend.
110. Erica, an RN, is working in the role of an unregulated care provider (UCP) at a
long-term care home. Is Erica accountable to practice in accordance with the CNO
Standards?
a. No, because Erica is not being paid as an RN.
b. Yes, because Erica must comply with the Long Term Care Home Act, 2007.
c. No, because Erica is working in a UCP role.
d. Yes, because Erica is registered as an RN. *
111. A disoriented client is threatening staff with physical violence. A colleague asks
why a potentially violent client cannot be immediately physically restrained. How
should the nurse respond?
a. Legislations sets limitations for restraints use. *
b. Restraints can never be used with violent clients.
c. Consent is required for restraint under all circumstances.
d. The client’s family must first be notified.
112. According to the CNO Practice Standard: Ethics, how is ‘Fairness’ defined?
a. Ensuring clients have enough information to make an informed decision.
b. Allocating health care resources on the basis of objective-related factors. *
c. Facilitating clients’ wishes for their treatment plan.
d. Following through with implicit or explicit commitments toward clients.
113. Which one of the following statements about the Practice Assessment
component of CNO’s Quality Assurance (QA) Program is true?
a. Four practice documents are selected for the examinations.
b. All nurses must participate in the QA Program every 3 years.
c. Selected nurses are required to submit their Annual Learning Plan to CNO. *
 d. Nurses must have annual performance appraisals completed by their employers.
114. What is every member’s responsibility in a self-regulated profession?
a. Establishing requirements for entry to practice.
b. Disciplining other members for professional misconduct.
c. Practicing in accordance with the standards of the profession. *
d. Consulting with their College on practice-related issues.
115. A nurse has been asked to perform tracheal suctioning on the client. According
to the CNO Practice Standard: Decisions about Procedures and Authority, Revised
2006, what is one of the standard statements that must be considered when
determining if the nurse can perform this procedure?
a. Assessment.
b. Managing Outcomes. *
c. Implementation.
d. Client Stability.
116. An RPN and a NP practice collaboratively. The NP has written an order for
acetaminophen (Tylenol) for pain. What is the RPN’s responsibility?
a. Ask an RN to administer the medication.
b. Administer the medication as ordered. *
c. Collaborate with a physician prior to proceeding.
d. Inform the NP that the RPN is unable to comply.

117. How does CNO provide support to nurses in their practice?

a. Web-based learning center. *
b. Malpractice insurance.
c. Legal services to members.
d. Funding for continuing education.
118. Under the Regulated Health Professions Act, 1991, which one of the following
activities is prohibited is performed by an unauthorized person?
a. Male circumcision performed outside of a religious tradition or ceremony.
b. Tattooing at a public health inspected facility.
c. Acupuncture performed in an alternative therapy clinic. *
d. Body piercing to accommodate jewellery.
119. An RPN employed as an unregulated care provider (UCP) administers a
medication and an error is identified. To what level of accountability will CNO hold
this staff member?
a. As a UCP. *
b. As decided by the nurse’s employer.
c. As decided by the physician.
 d. As an RPN.
120. Why is using the title RPN, RN or NP is considered misinterpretation if an
individual is not registered with CNO?
a. The titles are protected by provincial nursing labour associations.
b. The titles are earned after passing a national nursing examination.
c. The titles are earned upon graduation from an approved nursing program.
d. The titles are protected under legislation. *
121. What is a difference between ‘initiating’ and ‘performing’ a controlled act?
a. A nurse requires a physician’s order for initiating, but not for performing, a
controlled act.
b. When initiating, the nurse accepts accountability for determining that the
client’s condition warrants performance of the controlled act. *
c. When initiating, a nurse performs the controlled act and then obtains a
physician’s order for the procedure.
d. A nurse can only initiate a controlled act in an emergency situation.
122. Consistent with the Nursing Act, 1991, which one of the following examples
involves a nurse correctly exercising the right to refuse assignments or discontinue
nursing services?
a. A nurse is called at home and asked to work an extra shift over the weekend. The
nurse is very fatigued and refuses.
b. A nurse from homecare plans to do a dressing change in a client’s home, but a
delay causes the nurse to decide to change the dressing the next day.
c. A homecare nurse is assigned a new client. Upon arrival at the home, the nurse
discovers that the client smokes. The nurse refuses to visit the client because
of the risks associated with second hand smoke. *
d. A nurse working on a labour and delivery unit refuses to cross a picket line due
to the belief that the administration is not bargaining in good faith.
123. When can a nurse discontinue nursing services for a cognitively impaired client
without resulting in professional misconduct?
a. If replacement services have been arranged. *
b. When the substitute decision-maker has been informed.
c. If the nurse is respecting the client’s wishes.
d. When alternate care has been discussed with the physician.
124. While off duty, the nurse is charged with impaired driving. Ultimately, she is
found guilty of this offence. Following this finding, does the nurse have any
obligations to CNO?
a. Yes, because the nurse must self-report a finding of guilt for an offence. *
b. No, because the nurse was not working at the time of the offence.
 c. Yes, because the nurse must incorporate the finding of guilt into reflective
practice.
d. No, because the nurse is only obligated to report sexual abuse.
125. A client is transferred to palliative care. The client asks for the nurse’s personal
cell phone number in case he has questions regarding pain management. Based on
the content of the CNO Practice Standard: Therapeutic Nurse-Client Relationship,
Revised 2006, what should the nurse do?
a. Inform the client that the palliative care team will assume his care.
b. Provide the telephone number to facilitate client trust.
c. Discuss the client’s concern with the palliative care team.
d. Explore the client’s concerns regarding pain management. *
126. Why is continuing competence a professional requirement?
a. It contributes to quality nursing practice. *
b. It fulfills a requirement for employer’s annual performance appraisals.
c. It contributes to change in the health care environment.
d. It enhances interprofessional collaboration.
127. The nurse encounters a confused, combative client. Which one of the following
actions would represent abuse?
a. Calling the client’s name loudly to get his attention.
b. Ignoring the client until he becomes calm. *
c. Administering a sedative under a client-specific order.
d. Assuming a defensive stance in response to the client trying to hit the nurse.
128. According to the CNO Practice Standard: Decisions about Procedures and
Authority, Revised 2006, what is one of the four standards a nurse must consider
before performing any procedure?
a. Agency directives.
b. The existence of a direct order.
c. The potential for delegation.
d. Appropriate care provider. *
129. What is warning sign that a nurse may not be effectively maintaining the
boundaries of the therapeutic nurse-client relationship?
a. Accepting a gift of food that was not solicited by the nurse.
b. Counselling a client in a mental health setting while having coffee in the facility’s
cafeteria.
c. Frequently thinking about a client when away from work. *
d. Engaging in a sexual relationship with a client after termination of the
therapeutic nurse-client relationship.
130. According to the CNO Standard: Ethics, what is one of the ‘Ethical Values’?
a. Competence.
b. Health Promotion.
c. Maintaining Commitments. *
d. Substitute decision-making.
131. Which one of the following actions is an example of a controlled acts that all
nurses are authorized to perform as per the Nursing Act, 1991?
a. Performing a client’s digital rectal examination. *
b. Communicating a diagnosis of diabetes to a client.
c. Managing a client’s labour and delivery.
d. Setting a client’s dislocated shoulder.
132. What federal legislation relates to narcotics?
a. Controlled Drugs and Substances Act. *
b. Regulated Health Professions Act, 1991.
c. Drug and Pharmacies Regulation Act.
d. Canada Health Act.
133. A visiting nurse is providing foot care to an 85-year-old client. Which one of the
following behaviours may be considered abusive in the context of the therapeutic
nurse-client relationship?
a. Agreeing to have financial trusteeship with respect to the client. *
b. Accepting a gift of flowers from the client upon discharge.
c. Engaging in a romantic relationship with the client’s son following discharge.
d. Providing the client with the nurse’s pager number.
134. What differentiate RPNs from RNs?
a. RPNs do not study from the same body of nursing knowledge.
b. RPNs achieve a greater breadth of knowledge in clinical practice.
c. RPNs achieve a greater depth of knowledge in resource management.
d. RPNs achieve a more focused or basic foundation of knowledge. *
135. Which one of the following actions can a nurse take involving personal health
information?
a. Sharing information from chart audits with the health care team for quality
assurance purposes. *
b. Discussing details about an assault victim with a police officer at the emergency
department.
c. Collecting health care data for a research project that has approved by CNO.
d. Confirming that a client resides within a facility and the client’s diagnosis.
136. Chris, an RN is working on the same shift as a friend who is under investigation
by CNO. Chris is concerned that she may be asked to participate as a witness in the
investigation. What will Chris need to consider?
a. Failure to cooperate in a College investigation may be considered to be an act of
professional misconduct.
b. Loyalty among colleagues is essential in maintaining a healthy work
environment.
c. The College does not allow personal friends to participate in investigations due
to the potential for a conflict of interest. *
d. Nurses are under no obligation to participate in investigations as witnesses.
137. An NP has written an order for an influenza immunization at a local clinic. What
should the RPN do?
a. Implement the order. *
b. Request that the RN administer the medication.
c. Refuse to administer the medication.
d. Call the physician to confirm the order.
138. According to the CNO Practice Standard: Professional Standard, Revised 2002,
which one of the following options best reflects the standard statement of
‘Knowledge Application’?
a. Identifies ethical issues and communicates them effectively.
b. Incorporates evidenced-informed practice into clinical performance. *
c. Seeks appropriate assistance in a timely manner.
d. Behaves professionally to meet the therapeutic needs of the client.
139. As part of his end of life care, a client decides he wants only palliative measures
to maintain his quality of life. The nurse does not support the client’s decision and
does not feel he can provide care to the client. How should the nurse proceed?
a. Withdraw from the situation immediately.
b. Advocate to the client’s family for full treatment.
c. Inform the client that the nurse has a duty to preserve life.
d. Arrange for another health care provider. *
140. A client has frequent visitors in his room. A regular practice on the unit is to do a
bedside reports. Based on the content of the CNO Practice Standard: Confidentiality
and Privacy – Personal Health Information, what does the nurse do prior to the
report?
a. Ask the visitors if they would mind if their visit was interrupted by the report.
b. Provide a clear, succinct report to the health care team members at the bedside.
c. Ask the client’s visitors to leave the room during the report unless the client
requests that they stay. *
 d. Decline to give the report on days when the client has visitors.
141. When is a nurse obligated to make a report to the Children’s Aid Society under
the Child and Family Services Act, 1990?
a. Only with evidence of child abuse.
b. After the child confirms abuse.
c. With any suspected child abuse. *
d. Only after consultation with the health care team.
142. Mrs. Johnson, a frail elderly client with multiple co-morbidities, has recently
developed pneumonia requiring admission to an acute care facility. Suzanne, a RPN,
is assigned to care for Mrs. Johnson in collaboration with a RN. The family
approaches the RN and demands that only RNs care for their mother. How should
the RN respond?
a. Respects the family’s request and ask the charge nurse to adjust the nursing
assignment.
b. Inform the RPN that a change in assignment is necessary due to the acute
pneumonia.
c. Refer the family to the family’s client representative for support to have the
assignment changed.
d. Explain to the family that the RPN is capable of caring for their mother with RN
support. *

143. What must a nurse consider when determining whether to continue nursing
services?
a. If the decision is supported by the union’s collective agreement.
b. Whether there are conflicting obligations. *
c. If it will be necessary to consult with the nurse’s professional association.
d. Whether the decision must be reported to the CNO.
144. What CNO Statutory Committee would act upon a finding of ‘Professional
Misconduct’?
a. Registration.
b. Quality Assurance.
c. Fitness to Practice.
d. Discipline. *
145. A nurse is assigned a client with complications following a therapeutic abortion,
which is in direct conflict with the nurse’s values and religious beliefs. What action
should the nurse take in this situation?
a. Reconsider his or her beliefs.
b. Find another nurse to care for the client. *
c. Inform the client about her or his personal beliefs.
d. Refuse the assignment and discontinue services for the client.
146. Under which of the following conditions may nurses perform a controlled act?
a. If ordered by a physician, a chiropractor, dentist, or nurse practitioner.
b. If ordered by a physician, dentist, chiropodist, or nurse practitioner. *
c. If ordered by a physician, physiotherapist, or dietitian.
d. If ordered by a physician, directives, or speech language pathologist.
147. An occupational health nurse reveals to a manager that one of their
probationary employees is pregnant. What, if anything, is wrong with this action?
a. The manager may choose to terminate this employee.
b. The nurse has breech confidentiality.
c. The employee may not carry the baby to term.
d. Nothing, the nurse has acted in good faith to protect the employee. *
148. Which one of the following examples demonstrates a nurse effectively
maintaining the boundaries of the therapeutic nurse-client relationship?
a. Disclosing details of the nurse’s personal experiences.
b. Lending money to a client.
c. Ensuring the nurse does not interfere with the client’s personal relationship. *
d. Speaking for the client in meetings with family members.
149. A teacher asks a school nurse to see a 9-year-old boy, who regularly comes to
school “unkempt, dirty, and hungry”. Today, the child represents with several
bruises on his arms at different stages of healing, and tells the nurse he ‘fell down’.
What action must the nurse take?
a. Call the parent(s) to determine what happened to the boy.
b. Reassess the boy in 1 week to determine any action needed.
c. Make a report to the local Children’s Aid Society. *
d. Schedule a conference with the parent(s) and teacher.